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  • Confused as to how to validate spring mvc form, what are my options?

    - by Blankman
    Latest spring mvc, using freemarker. Hoping someone could tell me what my options are in terms of validating a form with spring mvc, and what the recommend way would be to do this. I have a form that doesn't map directly to a model, it has input fields that when posted, will be used to initialze 2 model objects which I will then need to validate, and if they pass I will save them. If they fail, I want to return back to the form, pre-fill the values with what the user entered and display the error messages. I have read here and there about 2 methods, once of which I have done and understand how it works: @RequestMapping(...., method = RequestMethod.POST) public ModelAndView myMethod(@Valid MyModel, BindingResult bindingResult) { ModelAndView mav = new ModelAndView("some/view"); mav.addObject("mymodel", myModel); if(bindingResult.hasErrors()) { return mav; } } Now this worked if my form mapped directly to the form, but in my situation I have: form fields that don't map to any specific model, they have a few properties from 2 models. before validation occurrs, I need to create the 2 models manually, set the values from the values from the form, and manually set some properties also: Call validate on both models (model1, model2), and append these error messages to the errors collection which I need to pass back to the same view page if things don't work. when the form posts, I have to do some database calls, and based on those results may need to add additional messages to the errors collection Can someone tell me how to do this sort of validation? Pseudo code below: Model1 model1 = new Model1(); Model2 model2 = new Model2(); // manually or somehow automatically set the posted form values to model1 and model2. // set some fields manually, not from posted form model1.setProperty10(GlobalSettings.getDefaultProperty10()); model2.setProperty11(GlobalSettings.getDefaultProperty11()); // db calls, if they fail, add to errors collection if(bindingResult.hasErrors()) { return mav; } // validation passed, save Model1Service.save(model1); Model2Service.save(model2); redirect to another view Update I have using the JSR 303 annotations on my models right now, and it would great if I can use those still. Update II Please read the bounty description below for a summary of what I am looking for.

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  • Zend Framework - Ruby on Rails has a screencast showing how to code a blog in 15 minutes. Does ZF ha

    - by Sootah
    Ruby on Rails has a screencast presentation they use to promote their framework that shows how to code a basic weblog system in 15 minutes with RoR. Does the Zend PHP Framework have a similar screencast/presentation/whatever demonstrating something similar? It doesn't have to be a blog specifically, but I would definitely like to find a presentation that shows some rapid application development using ZF. Where I'm coming from: I have been programming on and off for years now. I started out with QBASIC waaaaay back in the day making little programs (text adventure games, screensavers, simple little things). I then moved to C++ but never really did anything too impressive with it. Since then (probably 5 years or so now) I have started to use C# for my desktop development and PHP for my web development. I've made some pretty cool tools here and there, but am certainly not a professional programmer by any stretch of the term as it has always simply been a hobby of mine. Right now I have two major web applications that I will start work on shortly. (Like tomorrow, or later tonight ideally.. :) ) Both will be database-driven apps that will require user registration, the ability to manipulate data that is specific to their account (their posts, listings, user account details, etc), amongst other things. Currently I am evaluating different frameworks to help me develop these web apps more quickly. I've been looking at, and have heard good things about Ruby on Rails. Hulu and YellowPages.com using it is an obvious endorsement - Of course, I have heard about the scalability issues that it potentially has; but that shouldn't be an issue with what I am working on. I don't expect millions of users per day for either project. I am also seriously looking at the Zend Framework for my needs because I already have some experience with PHP. Ideally I would like to find a ZF screencast that shows an app being written quickly so that I have a roughly equal comparison between the two options I am exploring and can see first-hand how things get done in both. That said - I am not opposed to considering frameworks other than RoR or ZF. The only research I've done on the subject has been over the past couple of days so I am quite certain that there are other excellent options out there that I've not even looked at - or heard of. Of course, it'd be awesome if there is a rapid app dev presentation that I can watch for whatever else is suggested. So - Suggestions? Links to good screencasts that show rapid application development in other frameworks? Are there other PHP frameworks that I should be considering? (Ones that are easy to deploy would be ideal, so I don't have to purchase a dedicated server that I have full control over. I'd like to keep my hosting costs down assuming that it's reasonable) Thanks in advance! -Sootah

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  • Linked List Design

    - by Jim Scott
    The other day in a local .NET group I attend the following question came up: "Is it a valid interview question to ask about Linked Lists when hiring someone for a .NET development position?" Not having a computer sciense degree and being a self taught developer my response was that I did not feel it was appropriate as I in 5 years of developer with .NET had never been exposed to linked lists and did not hear any compeling reason for a use for one. However the person commented that it is a very common interview question so I decided when I left that I would do some reasearch on linked lists and see what I might be missing. I have read a number of posts on stack overflow and various google searches and decided the best way to learn about them was to write my own .NET classes to see how they worked from the inside out. Here is my class structure Single Linked List Constructor public SingleLinkedList(object value) Public Properties public bool IsTail public bool IsHead public object Value public int Index public int Count private fields not exposed to a property private SingleNode firstNode; private SingleNode lastNode; private SingleNode currentNode; Methods public void MoveToFirst() public void MoveToLast() public void Next() public void MoveTo(int index) public void Add(object value) public void InsertAt(int index, object value) public void Remove(object value) public void RemoveAt(int index) Questions I have: What are typical methods you would expect in a linked list? What is typical behaviour when adding new records? For example if I have 4 nodes and I am currently positioned in the second node and perform Add() should it be added after or before the current node? Or should it be added to the end of the list? Some of the designs I have seen explaining things seem to expose outside of the LinkedList class the Node object. In my design you simply add, get, remove values and know nothing about any node object. Should the Head and Tail be placeholder objects that are only used to define the head/tail of the list? I require my Linked List be instantiated with a value which creates the first node of the list which is essentially the head and tail of the list. Would you change that ? What should the rules be when it comes to removing nodes. Should someone be able to remove all nodes? Here is my Double Linked List Constructor public DoubleLinkedList(object value) Properties public bool IsHead public bool IsTail public object Value public int Index public int Count Private fields not exposed via property private DoubleNode currentNode; Methods public void AddFirst(object value) public void AddLast(object value) public void AddBefore(object existingValue, object value) public void AddAfter(object existingValue, object value) public void Add(int index, object value) public void Add(object value) public void Remove(int index) public void Next() public void Previous() public void MoveTo(int index)

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  • Understanding PTS and DTS in video frames

    - by theateist
    I had fps issues when transcoding from avi to mp4(x264). Eventually the problem was in PTS and DTS values, so lines 12-15 where added before av_interleaved_write_frame function: 1. AVFormatContext* outContainer = NULL; 2. avformat_alloc_output_context2(&outContainer, NULL, "mp4", "c:\\test.mp4"; 3. AVCodec *encoder = avcodec_find_encoder(AV_CODEC_ID_H264); 4. AVStream *outStream = avformat_new_stream(outContainer, encoder); 5. // outStream->codec initiation 6. // ... 7. avformat_write_header(outContainer, NULL); 8. // reading and decoding packet 9. // ... 10. avcodec_encode_video2(outStream->codec, &encodedPacket, decodedFrame, &got_frame) 11. 12. if (encodedPacket.pts != AV_NOPTS_VALUE) 13. encodedPacket.pts = av_rescale_q(encodedPacket.pts, outStream->codec->time_base, outStream->time_base); 14. if (encodedPacket.dts != AV_NOPTS_VALUE) 15. encodedPacket.dts = av_rescale_q(encodedPacket.dts, outStream->codec->time_base, outStream->time_base); 16. 17. av_interleaved_write_frame(outContainer, &encodedPacket) After reading many posts I still do not understand: outStream->codec->time_base = 1/25 and outStream->time_base = 1/12800. The 1st one was set by me but I cannot figure out why and who set 12800? I noticed that before line (7) outStream->time_base = 1/90000 and right after it it changes to 1/12800, why? When I transcode from avi to avi, meaning changing the line (2) to avformat_alloc_output_context2(&outContainer, NULL, "avi", "c:\\test.avi"; , so before and after line (7) outStream->time_base remains always 1/25 and not like in mp4 case, why? What is the difference between time_base of outStream->codec and outStream? To calc the pts av_rescale_q does: takes 2 time_base, multiplies their fractions in cross and then compute the pts. Why it does this in this way? As I debugged, the encodedPacket.pts has value incremental by 1, so why changing it if it does has value? At the beginning the dts value is -2 and after each rescaling it still has negative number, but despite this the video played correctly! Shouldn't it be positive?

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  • Having trouble getting MEF imports to be resolved

    - by Dave
    This is sort of a continuation of one of my earlier posts, which involves the resolving of modules in my WPF application. This question is specifically related to the effect of interdependencies of modules and the method of constructing those modules (i.e. via MEF or through new) on MEF's ability to resolve relationships. First of all, here is a simple UML diagram of my test application: I have tried two approaches: left approach: the App implements IError right approach: the App has a member that implements IError Left approach My code behind looked like this (just the MEF-related stuff): // app.cs [Export(typeof(IError))] public partial class Window1 : Window, IError { [Import] public CandyCo.Shared.LibraryInterfaces.IPlugin Plugin { get; set; } [Export] public CandyCo.Shared.LibraryInterfaces.ICandySettings Settings { get; set; } private ICandySettings Settings; public Window1() { // I create the preferences here with new, instead of using MEF. I wonder // if that's my whole problem? If I use MEF, and want to have parameters // going to the constructor, then do I have to [Export] a POCO (i.e. string)? Settings = new CandySettings( "Settings", @"c:\settings.xml"); var catalog = new DirectoryCatalog( "."); var container = new CompositionContainer( catalog); try { container.ComposeParts( this); } catch( CompositionException ex) { foreach( CompositionError e in ex.Errors) { string description = e.Description; string details = e.Exception.Message; } throw; } } } // plugin.cs [Export(typeof(IPlugin))] public class Plugin : IPlugin { [Import] public CandyCo.Shared.LibraryInterfaces.ICandySettings CandySettings { get; set; } [Import] public CandyCo.Shared.LibraryInterfaces.IError ErrorInterface { get; set; } [ImportingConstructor] public Plugin( ICandySettings candy_settings, IError error_interface) { CandySettings = candy_settings; ErrorInterface = error_interface; } } // candysettings.cs [Export(typeof(ICandySettings))] public class CandySettings : ICandySettings { ... } Right-side approach Basically the same as the left-side approach, except that I created a class that inherits from IError in the same assembly as Window1. I then used an [Import] to try to get MEF to resolve that for me. Can anyone explain how the two ways I have approached MEF here are flawed? I have been in the dark for so long that instead of reading about MEF and trying different suggestions, I've added MEF to my solution and am stepping into the code. The part where it looks like it fails is when it calls partManager.GetSavedImport(). For some reason, the importCache is null, which I don't understand. All the way up to this point, it's been looking at the part (Window1) and trying to resolve two imported interfaces -- IError and IPlugin. I would have expected it to enter code that looks at other assemblies in the same executable folder, and then check it for exports so that it knows how to resolve the imports...

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  • weird behavior with acts_as_taggable_on

    - by macek
    For some reason, tags aren't showing up on a taggable object when an tagger is specified. testing the post class Post < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_taggable_on :tags belongs_to :user end >> p = Post.first => #<Post id: 1, ...> >> p.is_taggable? => true >> p.tag_list = "foo, bar" => "foo, bar" >> p.save => true >> p.tags => [#<Tag id: 1, name: "foo">, #<Tag id: 2, name: "bar">] testing the user class User < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_tagger has_many :posts end >> u = User.first => #<User id: 1, ...> >> u.is_tagger? => true >> u.tag(p, :with => "hello, world", :on => :tags) => true >> u.owned_tags => [#<Tag id: 3, name: "hello">, #<Tag id: 4, name: "world">] refresh the post >> p = Post.first => #<Post id: 1 ...> >> p.tags => [#<Tag id: 2, name: "bar">, #<Tag id: 1, name: "foo">] Where's the hello and world tags? Miraculously, if I modify the database directly to set tagger_id and tagger_type to NULL, the two missing tags will show up. I suspect there's something wrong with my User model? What gives?

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  • Can't use attached property on combobox inside hierarchical datatemplate WPF

    - by jesse_t_r
    I'm hoping to use an attached property to assign a command to the selection changed event of a combobox that is embedded inside a treeview. I'm attempting to set the attached property inside the hierchical data template for the tree but the command is not set and does not fire when the item in the combobox is changed. I've found that setting the attached property directly on a combobox outside of a datatemplate works fine; here is how I'm trying to set the property in the template: <HierarchicalDataTemplate x:Key="template1" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=ChildColumns}"> <Border Background="{StaticResource TreeItem_Background}" BorderBrush="Blue" BorderThickness="2" CornerRadius="5" Margin="2,5,5,2" HorizontalAlignment="Left" > <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions > <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition /> <RowDefinition /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock MinWidth="80" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Grid.Column="0" Margin="5,2,2,2" Grid.Row ="0" Text="{Binding Path=ColName}"/> <ComboBox Name="cboColType" Grid.Column="1" HorizontalAlignment="Right" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource dataFromEnum}}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=ColumnType}" Margin="2,2,2,2" local:ItemSelectedBehavior.ItemSelected="{Binding Path=LoadConfigCommand}" /> </Grid> </Border> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> I also tried creating a style <Style x:Key="childItemStyle" TargetType="{x:Type FrameworkElement}"> <Setter Property="local:ItemSelectedBehavior.ItemSelected" Value="{Binding Path=LoadConfigCommand}" /> </Style> and setting the itemcontainerstyle to the style in the hierarchical datatemplate..still no luck .. <HierarchicalDataTemplate> ... <ComboBox Name="cboColType" Grid.Column="1" HorizontalAlignment="Right" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource dataFromEnum}}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=ColumnType}" Margin="2,2,2,2" ItemContainerStyle={StaticeResource childItemStyle}" /> ... </HierarchicalDataTemplate> I'm still learning a lot about WPF so I'm assuming there is something particular about the hierchical datatemplate that is not allowing the attache dproperty to be set..I have found similar posts in the forums and tried to implement their solutions as above, but after a day of searching and experimenting wiht no luck I'm hoping some one has an idea about this...

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  • Trying to populate ListView in Android using objects from Parse

    - by mrwienerdog
    I am pretty darned new to android, and VERY new to Parse. I have created a class, StudentInformation, that includes columns for name, address, phone, etc. I would like to create a listview that contains the names of all students added to the class. How do I do this? I have got it to the point that I can Toast out the objectIDs of all of my entries, but can't figure out how to extract and add just the names to the ListView. Here is a snippet of the code: //Set up the listview studentListView = (ListView)findViewById(R.id.listViewStudents); //Create and populate an ArrayList of objects from parse ParseQuery query = new ParseQuery("StudentInformation"); final ArrayList<Object> studentList = new ArrayList<Object>(); query.findInBackground(new FindCallback() { public void done(List<ParseObject> objects, ParseException e) { if (e == null) { Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), objects.toString(), Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); for(int i = 0;i < objects.size(); i++){ objects.get(i); studentList.add("name".toString()); } } else { Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "Error", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } } }); //studentList.addAll(Arrays.asList(students)); listAdapter = new ArrayAdapter<Object>(this,android.R.layout.simple_list_item_1,studentList); studentListView.setAdapter(listAdapter); } I have left the toast in where I toatst out the objectIDs in the public void done.... method. Any help would be, as always, greatly appreciated. Should be mentioned (possibly), no errors are thrown, the listview just never gets populated after the toast disappears. Don't know if this will help anyone, but I took a bit from both posts below, and came up with this: //Set up the listview studentList = new ArrayList<String>(); //Create and populate an ArrayList of objects from parse listAdapter = new ArrayAdapter<String>(this,android.R.layout.simple_list_item_1); studentListView = (ListView)findViewById(R.id.listViewStudents); studentListView.setAdapter(listAdapter); final ParseQuery query = new ParseQuery("StudentInformation"); query.findInBackground(new FindCallback() { public void done(List<ParseObject> objects, ParseException e) { if (e == null) { //Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), objects.toString(), Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); for (int i = 0; i < objects.size(); i++) { Object object = objects.get(i); String name = ((ParseObject) object).getString("name").toString(); listAdapter.add(name); } } else { Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "Error", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } } });

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  • How do I read Unicode characters from an MS Access 2007 database through Java?

    - by Peter
    In Java, I have written a program that reads a UTF8 text file. The text file contains a SQL query of the SELECT kind. The program then executes the query on the Microsoft Access 2007 database and writes all fields of the first row to a UTF8 text file. The problem I have is when a row is returned that contains unicode characters, such as "?". These characters show up as "?" in the text file. I know that the text files are read and written correctly, because a dummy UTF8 character ("?") is read from the text file containing the SQL query and written to the text file containing the resulting row. The UTF8 character looks correct when the written text file is opened in Notepad, so the reading and writing of the text files are not part of the problem. This is how I connect to the database and how I execute the SQL query: ---- START CODE Connection c = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:odbc:Driver={Microsoft Access Driver (*.mdb, *.accdb)};DBQ=C:/database.accdb;Pwd=temp"); ResultSet r = c.createStatement().executeQuery(sql); ---- END CODE I have tried making a charSet property to the Connection but it makes no difference: ---- START CODE Properties p = new Properties(); p.put("charSet", "utf-8"); p.put("lc_ctype", "utf-8"); p.put("encoding", "utf-8"); Connection c = DriverManager.getConnection("...", p); ---- END CODE Tried with "utf8"/"UTF8"/"UTF-8", no difference. If I enter "UTF-16" I get the following exception: "java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Illegal replacement". Been searching around for hours with no results and now turn my hope to you. Please help! I also accept workaround suggestions. =) What I want to be able to do is to make a Unicode query (for example one that searches for posts that contain the "?" character) and to have results with Unicode characters receieved and saved correctly. Thank you!

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  • Should Application_End fire on an automatic App Pool Recycle?

    - by Laramie
    I have read this, this, this and this plus a dozen other posts/blogs. I have an ASP.Net app in shared hosting that is frequently recycling. We use NLog and have the following code in global.asax void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { NLog.Logger logger = NLog.LogManager.GetCurrentClassLogger(); logger.Debug("\r\n\r\nAPPLICATION STARTING\r\n\r\n"); } protected void Application_OnEnd(Object sender, EventArgs e) { NLog.Logger logger = NLog.LogManager.GetCurrentClassLogger(); logger.Debug("\r\n\r\nAPPLICATION_OnEnd\r\n\r\n"); } void Application_End(object sender, EventArgs e) { HttpRuntime runtime = (HttpRuntime)typeof(System.Web.HttpRuntime).InvokeMember("_theRuntime", BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Static | BindingFlags.GetField, null, null, null); if (runtime == null) return; string shutDownMessage = (string)runtime.GetType().InvokeMember("_shutDownMessage", BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.GetField, null, runtime, null); string shutDownStack = (string)runtime.GetType().InvokeMember("_shutDownStack", BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.GetField, null, runtime, null); ApplicationShutdownReason shutdownReason = System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.ShutdownReason; NLog.Logger logger = NLog.LogManager.GetCurrentClassLogger(); logger.Debug(String.Format("\r\n\r\nAPPLICATION END\r\n\r\n_shutDownReason = {2}\r\n\r\n _shutDownMessage = {0}\r\n\r\n_shutDownStack = {1}\r\n\r\n", shutDownMessage, shutDownStack, shutdownReason)); } void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { NLog.Logger logger = NLog.LogManager.GetCurrentClassLogger(); logger.Debug("\r\n\r\nApplication_Error\r\n\r\n"); } Our log file is littered with "APPLICATION STARTING" entries, but neither Application_OnEnd, Application_End, nor Application_Error are ever fired during these spontaneous restarts. I know they are working because there are entries for touching the web.config or /bin files. We also ran a memory overload test and can trigger an OutOfMemoryException which is caught in Application_Error. We are trying to determine whether the virtual memory limit is causing the recycling. We have added GC.GetTotalMemory(false) throughout the code, but this is for all of .Net, not just our App´s pool, correct? We've also tried var oPerfCounter = new PerformanceCounter(); oPerfCounter.CategoryName = "Process"; oPerfCounter.CounterName = "Virtual Bytes"; oPerfCounter.InstanceName = "iisExpress"; logger.Debug("Virtual Bytes: " + oPerfCounter.RawValue + " bytes"); but don't have permission in shared hosting. I've monitored the app on a dev server with the same requests that caused the recycles in production with ANTS Memory Profiler attached and can't seem to find a culprit. We have also run it with a debugger attached in dev to check for uncaught exceptions in spawned threads that might cause the app to abort. My questions are these: How can I effectively monitor memory usage in shared hosting to tell how much my application is consuming prior to an application recycle? Why are the Application_[End/OnEnd/Error] handlers in global.asax not being called? How else can I determine what is causing these recycles? Thanks.

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  • Javascript code inside updatepanel usercontrol.

    - by Ed Woodcock
    Ok: I've got an updatepanel on an aspx page that contains a single Placeholder. Inside this placeholder I'm appending one of a selection of usercontrols depending on certain external conditions (this is a configuration page). In each of these usercontrols there is a bindUcEvents() javascript function that binds the various jQuery and javascript events to buttons and validators inside the usercontrol. The issue I'm having is that the usercontrol's javascript is not being recognised. Normally, javascript inside an updatepanel is executed when the updatepanel posts back, however none of this code can be found by the page (I've tried running the function manually via firebug's console, but it tells me it cannot find the function). Does anyone have any suggestions? Cheers, Ed. EDIT: cut down (but functional) example: Markup: <script src="/js/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:ScriptManager ID="Script" runat="server" /> <asp:Button ID="Postback" runat="server" Text="Populate" OnClick="PopulatePlaceholder" /> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdateMe" runat="server"> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="Postback" EventName="Click" /> </Triggers> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Literal ID="Code" runat="server" /> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="PlaceMe" runat="server" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </div> </form> C#: protected void PopulatePlaceholder(object sender, EventArgs e) { Button button = new Button(); button.ID = "Push"; button.Text = "push"; button.OnClientClick = "javascript:return false;"; Code.Text = "<script type=\"text/javascript\"> function bindEvents() { $('#" + button.ClientID + "').click(function() { alert('hello'); }); } bindEvents(); </script>"; PlaceMe.Controls.Add(button); }

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  • How to intercept 401 from Forms Authentication in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Jiho Han
    I would like to generate a 401 page if the user does not have the right permission. The user requests a url and is redirected to the login page (I have deny all anonymous in web.config). The user logs in successfully and is redirected to the original url. However, upon permission check, it is determined that the user does not have the required permission, so I would like to generate a 401. But Forms Authentication always handles 401 and redirects the user to the login page. To me, this isn't correct. The user has already authenticated, the user just does not have the proper authorization. In other scenarios, such as in ajax or REST service scenario, I definitely do not want the login page - I need the proper 401 page. So far, I've tried custom Authorize filter to return ViewResult with 401 but didn't work. I then tried a normal Action Filter, overriding OnActionExecuting, which did not work either. What I was able to do is handle an event in global.asax, PostRequestHandlerExecute, and check for the permission then write out directly to response: if (permissionDenied) { Context.Response.StatusCode = 401; Context.Response.Clear(); Context.Response.Write("Permission Denied"); Context.Response.Flush(); Context.Response.Close(); return; } That works but it's not really what I want. First of all, I'm not even sure if that is the right event or the place in the pipeline to do that. Second, I want the 401 page to have a little more content. Preferably, it should be an aspx page with possibly the same master page as the rest of the site. That way, anyone browsing the site can see that the permission is denied but with the same look and feel, etc. but the ajax or service user will get the proper status code to act on. Any idea how this can be achieved? I've seen other posts with similar requests but didn't see a solution that I can use. And no, I do not want a 403.

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  • web.config transforms not being applied on either publish or build installation package

    - by BenA
    Today I started playing with the web.config transforms in VS 2010. To begin with, I attempted the same hello world example that features in a lot of the blog posts on this topic - updating a connection string. I created the minimal example shown below (and similar to the one found in this blog). The problem is that whenever I do a right-click - "Publish", or a right-click - "Build Deployment Package" on the .csproj file, I'm not getting the correct output. Rather than a transformed web.config, I'm getting no web.config, and instead the two transform files are included. What am I doing wrong? Any help gratefully received! Web.config: <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/.NetConfiguration/v2.0"> <connectionStrings> <add name="ConnectionString" connectionString="server=(local); initial catalog=myDB; user=xxxx;password=xxxx" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient"/> </connectionStrings> </configuration> Web.debug.config: <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration xmlns:xdt="http://schemas.microsoft.com/XML-Document-Transform"> <connectionStrings> <add name="ConnectionString" connectionString="server=DebugServer; initial catalog=myDB; user=xxxx;password=xxxx" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" xdt:Transform="SetAttributes" xdt:Locator="Match(name)"/> </connectionStrings> </configuration> Web.release.config: <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration xmlns:xdt="http://schemas.microsoft.com/XML-Document-Transform"> <connectionStrings> <add name="ConnectionString" connectionString="server=ReleaseServer; initial catalog=myDB; user=xxxx;password=xxxx" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" xdt:Transform="SetAttributes" xdt:Locator="Match(name)"/> </connectionStrings> </configuration>

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  • Losing reference to $_post variable?

    - by Scott B
    In the code below, the echo at the top returns true, but the echo at the bottom returns nothing. Apparently the code in between is causing me to lose a reference to the $_post variable? <?php echo "in category: ".in_category('is-sidebar', $_post); //RETURNS TRUE if (!get_option('my_hide_recent')) { $cat=get_cat_ID('top-menu'); $catHidden=get_cat_ID('hidden'); $myquery = new WP_Query(); $myquery->query(array( 'cat' => "-$cat,-$catHidden", 'post_not_in' => get_option('sticky_posts') )); $myrecentpostscount = $myquery->found_posts; if ($myrecentpostscount > 0) { ?> <div class="menu"><h4><?php if ($my_sidebar_heading_recent !=="") { echo $my_sidebar_heading_recent; } else { echo "Recent Posts";} ?></h4><ul> <?php global $post; $current_page_recent = get_post( $current_page ); $myrecentposts = get_posts(array('post_not_in' => get_option('sticky_posts'), 'cat' => "-$cat,-$catHidden",'showposts' => $my_recent_count)); foreach($myrecentposts as $idxrecent=>$post) { if($post->ID == $current_page_recent->ID) { $home_menu_recent = ' class="current_page_item'; } else { $home_menu_recent = ' class="page_item'; } $myclassrecent = ($idxrecent == count($myrecentposts) - 1 ? $home_menu_recent.' last"' : $home_menu_recent.'"'); ?> <li<?php echo $myclassrecent ?>><a href="<?php the_permalink(); ?>"><?php the_title(); ?></a></li> <?php } ; if (($myrecentpostscount > $my_recent_count) && $my_recent_count > -1){ ?><li><a href="<?php bloginfo('url'); ?>/site-map">View all</a></li><?php } ?></ul></div> <?php } } global $sitemap; echo "in category: ".in_category('is-sidebar', $_post); //RETURNS NOTHING

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  • WordPress Write Cache Problem with Multiple Sessions

    - by Volomike
    I'm working on a content dripper custom plugin in WordPress that my client asked me to build. He says he wants it to catch a page view event, and if it's the right time of day (24 hours since last post), to pull from a resource file and output another post. He needed it to also raise a flag and prevent other sessions from firing that same snippet of code. So, raise some kind of flag saying, "I'm posting that post, go away other process," and then it makes that post and releases the flag again. However, the strangest thing is occurring when placed under load with multiple sessions hitting the site with page views. It's firing instead of one post -- it's randomly doing like 1, 2, or 3 extra posts, with each one thinking that it was the right time to post because it was 24 hours past the time of the last post. Because it's somewhat random, I'm guessing that the problem is some kind of write caching where the other sessions don't see the raised flag just yet until a couple microseconds pass. The plugin was raising the "flag" by simply writing to the wp_options table with the update_option() API in WordPress. The other user sessions were supposed to read that value with get_option() and see the flag, and then not run that piece of code that creates the post because a given session was already doing it. Then, when done, I lower the flag and the other sessions continue as normal. But what it's doing is letting those other sessions in. To make this work, I was using add_action('loop_start','checkToAddContent'). The odd thing about that function though is that it's called more than once on a page, and in fact some plugins may call it. I don't know if there's a better event to hook. Even still, even if I find an event to hook that only runs once on a page view, I still have multiple sessions to contend with (different users who may view the page at the same time) and I want only one given session to trigger the content post when the post is due on the schedule. I'm wondering if there are any WordPress plugin devs out there who could suggest another event hook to latch on to, and to figure out another way to raise a flag that all sessions would see. I mean, I could use the shared memory API in PHP, but many hosting plans have that disabled. Can't use a cookie or session var because that's only one single session. About the only thing that might work across hosting plans would be to drop a file as a flag, instead. If the file is present, then one session has the flag. If the file is not present, then other sessions can attempt to get the flag. Sure, I could use the file route, but it's kind of immature in my opinion and I was wondering if there's something in WordPress I could do.

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  • multiple definition of inline function

    - by K71993
    Hi, I have gone through some posts related to this topic but was not able to sort out my doubt completly. This might be a very navie question. Code Description I have a header file "inline.h" and two translation unit "main.cpp" and "tran.cpp". Details of code are as below inline.h file details #ifndef __HEADER__ #include <stdio.h> extern inline int func1(void) { return 5; } static inline int func2(void) { return 6; } inline int func3(void) { return 7; } #endif main.c file details are below #define <stdio.h> #include <inline.h> int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { printf("%d\n",func1()); printf("%d\n",func2()); printf("%d\n",func3()); return 0; } tran.cpp file details (Not that the functions are not inline here) #include <stdio.h> int func1(void) { return 500; } int func2(void) { return 600; } int func3(void) { return 700; } Question The above code does not compile in gcc compiler whereas compiles in g++ (Assuming you make changes related to gcc in code like changing the code to .c not using any C++ header files... etc). The error displayed is "duplicate definition of inline function - func3". Can you clarify why this difference is present across compile? When you run the program (g++ compiled) by creating two seperate compilation unit (main.o and tran.o and create an executable a.out), the output obtained is 500 6 700 Why does the compiler pick up the definition of the function which is not inline. Actually since #include is used to "add" the inline definiton I had expected 5,6,7 as the output. My understanding was during compilation since the inline definition is found, the function call would be "replaced" by inline function definition. Can you please tell me in detailed steps the process of compilation and linking which would lead us to 500,6,700 output. I can only understand the output 6. Thanks in advance for valuable input.

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  • Associated models in Rails?

    - by dannymcc
    Hi Everyone, In my rails application I have two models called Kases and Notes. They work in the same way comments do with blog posts, I.e. each Kase entry can have multiple notes attached to it. I have got everything working, but for some reason I cannot get the destroy link to work for the Notes. I think I am overlooking something that is different with associated models to standard models. Notes Controller class NotesController < ApplicationController # POST /notes # POST /notes.xml def create @kase = Kase.find(params[:kase_id]) @note = @kase.notes.create!(params[:note]) respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to @kase } format.js end end end Kase Model class Kase < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :jobno has_many :notes Note Model class Note < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :kase end In the Kase show view I call a partial within /notes called _notes.html.erb: Kase Show View <div id="notes"> <h2>Notes</h2> <%= render :partial => @kase.notes %> <% form_for [@kase, Note.new] do |f| %> <p> <h3>Add a new note</h3> <%= f.text_field :body %><%= f.submit "Add Note" %> </p> <% end %> </div> /notes/_note.html.erb <% div_for note do %> <div id="sub-notes"> <p> <%= h(note.body) %><br /> <span style="font-size:smaller">Created <%= time_ago_in_words(note.created_at) %> ago on <%= note.created_at %></span> </p> <%= link_to "Remove Note", kase_path(@kase), :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete, :class => 'important' %> </div> <% end %> As you can see, I have a Remove Note destroy link, but that destroys the entire Kase the note is associated with. How do I make the destroy link remove only the note? <%= link_to "Remove Note", kase_path(@kase), :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete, :class => 'important' %> Any help would, as always, be greatly appreciated! Thanks, Danny

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  • Would a Centralized Blogging Service Work?

    - by viatropos
    If there's a better place to ask this, please let me know. Every time I build a new website/blog/shopping-cart/etc., I keep trying to do the following: Extract out common functionality into reusable code (Rubygems and jQuery plugins mostly) If possible, convert that gem into a small service so I never have to deal with a database for the objects involved (by service, I mean something lean and mean, usually built with the Sinatra Web Framework with a few core models. My assumption is, if I can remove dependencies on local databases, that will make it easier and more scalable in the long run (scalable in terms of reusability and manageability, not necessarily database/performance). I'm not sure if that's a good or bad assumption yet. What do you think? I've made this assumption because of the following reason: Most serious database/model functionality has been built on the internet somewhere. Just to name a few: Social Network API: Facebook Messaging API: Twitter Mailing API: Google Event API: Eventbrite Shopping API: Shopify Comment API: Disqus Form API: Wufoo Image API: Picasa Video API: Youtube ... Each of those things are fairly complicated to build from scratch and to make as optimized, simple, and easy to use as those companies have. So if I build an app that shows pictures (picasa) on an Event page (eventbrite), and you can see who joined the event (facebook events), and send them emails (google apps api), and have them fill out monthly surveys (wufoo), and watch a video when they're done (youtube), all integrated into a custom, easy to use website, and I can do that without ever creating a local database, is that a good thing? I ask because there's two things missing from the puzzle that keep forcing me to create that local database: Post API RESTful/Pretty Url API While there's plenty of Blogging systems and APIs for them, there is no one place where you can just write content and have it part of some massive thing. For every app, I have to use code for creating pretty/restful urls, and that saves posts. But it seems like that should be a service! Question is, is that the main point of a website? Will everyone always need "their own blog"? Why not just have a profile and write lots of content on an established platform like StackOverflow or Facebook?

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  • HttpURLConnection does not read the whole respnse

    - by Peter Szanto
    I use HttpURLConnection to do HTTP POST but I dont always get back the full response. I wanted to debug the problem, but when I step through each line it worked. I thought it must be a timing issue so I added Thread.sleep and it really made my code work, but this is only a temporary workaround. I wonder why is this happening and how to solve. Here is my code: URL u = new URL(url); URLConnection c = u.openConnection(); InputStream in = null; String mediaType = null; if (c instanceof HttpURLConnection) { //c.setConnectTimeout(1000000); //c.setReadTimeout(1000000); HttpURLConnection h = (HttpURLConnection)c; h.setRequestMethod("POST"); //h.setChunkedStreamingMode(-1); setAccept(h, expectedMimeType); h.setRequestProperty("Content-Type", inputMimeType); for(String key: httpHeaders.keySet()) { h.setRequestProperty(key, httpHeaders.get(key)); if (logger.isDebugEnabled()) { logger.debug("Request property key : " + key + " / value : " + httpHeaders.get(key)); } } h.setDoOutput(true); h.connect(); OutputStream out = h.getOutputStream(); out.write(input.getBytes()); out.close(); mediaType = h.getContentType(); logger.debug(" ------------------ sleep ------------------ START"); try { Thread.sleep(2000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } logger.debug(" ------------------ sleep ------------------ END"); if (h.getResponseCode() < 400) { in = h.getInputStream(); } else { in = h.getErrorStream(); } It genearates the following HTTP headers POST /emailauthentication/ HTTP/1.1 Accept: application/xml Content-Type: application/xml Authorization: OAuth oauth_consumer_key="b465472b-d872-42b9-030e-4e74b9b60e39",oauth_nonce="YnDb5eepuLm%2Fbs",oauth_signature="dbN%2FWeWs2G00mk%2BX6uIi3thJxlM%3D", oauth_signature_method="HMAC-SHA1", oauth_timestamp="1276524919", oauth_token="", oauth_version="1.0" User-Agent: Java/1.6.0_20 Host: test:6580 Connection: keep-alive Content-Length: 1107 In other posts it was suggested to turn off keep-alive by using the http.keepAlive=false system property, I tried that and the headers changed to POST /emailauthentication/ HTTP/1.1 Accept: application/xml Content-Type: application/xml Authorization: OAuth oauth_consumer_key="b465472b-d872-42b9-030e-4e74b9b60e39", oauth_nonce="Eaiezrj6X4Ttt0", oauth_signature="ND9fAdZMqbYPR2j%2FXUCZmI90rSI%3D", oauth_signature_method="HMAC-SHA1", oauth_timestamp="1276526608", oauth_token="", oauth_version="1.0" User-Agent: Java/1.6.0_20 Host: test:6580 Connection: close Content-Length: 1107 the Connection header is "close" but I still cannot read the whole response. Any idea what do I do wrong?

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  • How to use the Value of a Selected Value from a DropDownList populated with AJAX/PHP

    - by mouthpiec
    Hi, I have form with two dropdownlists (lets say A and B). When I select a value from A, B is being populated accordingly using AJAX In the same page I have a button, that when pressed, posts the values of the selected items of the dropdownlists to another PHP page. The problem I am having is that the selected value of B is returned as Blank/Empty. Is there a way to store the selected value of a dropdownlist populated using AJAX? Code below: (Main FORM) <form name="NewBar" method="post" onsubmit="return validateFormOnSubmit(this)" action="AssignContactDetailToBar_f.php"> <tr> <td width="150"><b>Bar:</b></td> <td> <select name = "bar" onChange="getContact('AssignContactDetailToBar_f_getContacts.php?bar='+this.value)" size = 1 style = "width:190px"> <option value = "">---Select---</option> <?php while ($data = mysql_fetch_array($r_getBarsDetails)) { echo "<option value=\"".$data['bar_id']."\">".$data['bar_name']." (".$data['town_name'].")</option>"; } ?> </td> </tr> <tr> <td width="150"><b>Contact Person:</b></td> <td> <div id="persondiv"><select name = "person" size = 1 style = "width:190px"> <option value = "">--Select Bar--</option> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> <input name="security" type="text" size="15"> </td> <td> <input type="submit" name="Submit" value="Submit"> </td> </tr> </form> FORM to populate the 2nd Dropdownlist <select name="person" size = 1 style = "width:190px"> <option value = "">--Select Person--</option> <?php while($data=mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo "<option value=\"".$data['person_id']."\">".$data['person_name']." ".$data['person_surname']." (".$data['town_name'].")</option>"; } ?> if you would like to see the complete code download from here

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  • Strange behaviour when posting CGEvent to PSN

    - by Ben Packard
    If I set up a loop that posts some keyboard events to a PSN, I find that it works fine except for when first launched. The event only seems to post when i do something with the mouse manually - even just moving it slightly. Here's the details, if they help. An external application has a list box of text lines, which I am reading by posting copy commands (and checking the pasteboard). Unfortunately this is my only way to get this text. Sometimes, the application pulls focus away from the list, which I can detect. When this happens, the most reliable way to return focus is by sending a mouse event to click on a text field directly above the list, then send a 'tab' keyboard event to shift the focus onto the list. So at launch, the loop runs fine, scrolling down the list and copying the text. When focus is shifted away, its is detected fine, and the events are sent to move focus back to the list. But nothing seems to happen. The loop continues detecting that focus has changed, but the events only work once I move the mouse. Or even just use the scroll wheel. Strange. Once this has happened the first time, it works fine - each time focus moves, the PSN events switch it back without me having to do anything at all. Here's the code that runs in the loop - verified as working: //copy to pasteboard - CMD-V e3 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent(NULL, (CGKeyCode)8, true); CGEventSetFlags(e3, kCGEventFlagMaskCommand); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e3); CFRelease(e3); e4 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent(NULL, (CGKeyCode)8, false); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e4); CFRelease(e4); //move cursor down e1 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent(NULL, (CGKeyCode)125, true); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e1); CFRelease(e1); e2 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent(NULL, (CGKeyCode)125, false); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e2); CFRelease(e2); And here's where I switch focus, also working (except when first required): //click in text input box - point is derived earlier e6 = CGEventCreateMouseEvent(NULL, kCGEventLeftMouseDown, point, 0); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e6); CFRelease(e6); e7 = CGEventCreateMouseEvent(NULL, kCGEventLeftMouseUp, point, 0); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e7); CFRelease(e7); //press tab key to move to chat log table CGEventRef e = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent(NULL, (CGKeyCode)48, true); //CGEventPost(kCGSessionEventTap, e); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e); CFRelease(e); CGEventRef e11 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent(NULL, (CGKeyCode)48, false); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e11); CFRelease(e11);

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  • html transparent background

    - by amarsh-anand
    I want to create a webpage with transparent background, a table and some text. I have seen posts related to this, but due to my lack of familiarity with css, I somehow cant get my code to work. I just want a transparent background, while this code is making everything transparent. Can someone kindly help. <html> <head><style type="text/css"> div.transbg {background-color:#4a6c9b; opacity:0.6;} </style></head> <div class="transbg"> <body><Center><font color="#FFFFFF"> <b>Toll Charges</b> <table bgcolor="#000000" cellspacing=3> <tr> <td bgcolor="#009900"><font color="#FFFFFF" align="left"> &nbsp; &nbsp;Class 2 inc Private&nbsp;</font></td> <td bgcolor="#009900"><font color="#FFFFFF" align="right"> &nbsp;A$ 4.95 &nbsp;</font></td> </tr> <tr> <td bgcolor="#009900"><font color="#FFFFFF" align="left"> &nbsp; &nbsp;Class 2 inc Commercial&nbsp;</font></td> <td bgcolor="#009900"><font color="#FFFFFF" align="right"> &nbsp;A$ 13.95 &nbsp;</font></td> </tr> </table> <br> Toll has to be paid within 48 hrs of passage, else an additional A$ 13.95 of administration charges would be added </font></Center> </div> </body> </html>

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  • adding a class when link is clicked from Wordpress loop

    - by Carey Estes
    I am trying to isolate and add a class to a clicked anchor tag. The tags are getting pulled from a Wordpress loop. I can write JQuery to remove the "static" class, but it is removing the class from all tags in the div rather than just the one clicked and not adding the "active" class. Here is the WP loop <div class="more"> <a class="static" href="<?php bloginfo('template_url'); ?>/work/">ALL</a> <?php foreach ($tax_terms as $tax_term) { echo '<a class="static" href="' . esc_attr(get_term_link($tax_term, $taxonomy)) . '" title="' . sprintf( __( "View all posts in %s" ), $tax_term->name ) . '" ' . '>' . $tax_term->name.'</a>'; } ?> </div> Generates this html: <div class="more"> <a class="static" href="#">ALL</a> <a class="static" href="#">Things</a> <a class="static" href="#"> More Things</a> <a class="static" href="#">Objects</a> <a class="static" href="#">Goals</a> <a class="static" href="#">Books</a> <a class="static" href="#">Drawings</a> <a class="static" href="#">Thoughts</a> </div> JQuery: $("div.more a").on("click", function () { $("a.static").removeClass("static"); $(this).addClass("active"); }); I have reviwed the other similar questions here and here, but neither solution is working for me. Can this be done with JQuery or should I put a click event in the html inline anchor? It looks like it is working just for a second until the page reloads.

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  • MVC3/Razor Client Validation Not firing

    - by Jason Gerstorff
    I am trying to get client validation working in MVC3 using data annotations. I have looked at similar posts including this MVC3 Client side validation not working for the answer. I'm using an EF data model. I created a partial class like this for my validations. [MetadataType(typeof(Post_Validation))] public partial class Post { } public class Post_Validation { [Required(ErrorMessage = "Title is required")] [StringLength(5, ErrorMessage = "Title may not be longer than 5 characters")] public string Title { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Text is required")] [DataType(DataType.MultilineText)] public string Text { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Publish Date is required")] [DataType(DataType.DateTime)] public DateTime PublishDate { get; set; } } My cshtml page includes the following. <h2>Create</h2> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.validate.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.ValidationSummary(true) Post <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.Title) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Title) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Title) </div> <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.Text) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Text) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Text) Web Config: <appSettings> <add key="ClientValidationEnabled" value="true" /> <add key="UnobtrusiveJavaScriptEnabled" value="true" /> Layout: <head> <title>@ViewBag.Title</title> <link href="@Url.Content("~/Content/Site.css")" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery-1.4.4.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> So, the Multiline Text annotation works and creates a text area. But none of the validations work client side. I don't know what i might be missing. Any ideas?? i can post more information if needed. Thanks!

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  • ASP.net: Radio Button Not Maintaining Selection After Postback, Inside DIV/Thickbox

    - by jlrolin
    I have a set of radio buttons inside a hidden DIV. <div id="reports" style="display:none;"> <center> <br /> <table cellpadding="4" cellspacing="0"> <tr> <td class="label"> Report Type::&nbsp; </td> <td class="value"> <asp:RadioButton ID="rbReportTypeCust" runat="server" Text="By Customer" Enabled="True" Checked="True" GroupName="rbType" />&nbsp;<asp:RadioButton ID="rbReportTypeProg" runat="server" Text="By Program" Enabled="True" GroupName="rbType" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td class="label"> Customer:&nbsp; </td> <td class="value"> <asp:DropDownList ID="ddlCustomer" runat="server" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td class="label"> Program Group::&nbsp; </td> <td class="value"> <asp:DropDownList ID="ddlProgramGroups" runat="server" /> </td> </tr> </table> <br /> <asp:Button ID="btnSubmit" runat="server" Text="Submit" OnClientClick="doPostBack(this);" /> </center> </div> The DIV is displayed using Thickbox as a modal popup. The doPostback javascript function posts the button click back, and hits btnSubmit_Click where a report is then generated. If I see if a radio button is checked, it's always rbReportTypeCust.checked = True, never the rbReportTypeProg.checked = True even if I click it. Any suggestions?

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