Search Results

Search found 5172 results on 207 pages for 'stackoverflow podcast'.

Page 165/207 | < Previous Page | 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172  | Next Page >

  • TextMate tips for Rails Development

    - by Ganesh Shankar
    Working on Rails code for a bit has started me on the spiral into obsessively customising my dev environment (I say obsessive as at the last Rails meetup I went to there was some guy who was raving about shaving milliseconds off each line of code and therefore upto half an hour a day... I hope I don't become that guy...) I spend most of my time in TextMate so it seemed like a great place to start the optimising... So far I've added a few TextMate bundles like Git Bundle, Project Plus and the theme from Railscasts. I've noticed some of the other TextMate users I've come into contact with using heaps of nifty keyboard shortcuts and other plugins to help make their dev environment more friendly. Looking around the net, I was a bit overwhelmed by the amount of shortcuts and plugins available... So I was hoping to hear from other Rails developers out there: What are some good keyboard shortcuts and plugins that I should be aware of for TextMate with specific reference to Rails Development? I've read this question on SO: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/99807/what-are-some-useful-textmate-shortcuts but I was wondering if there was something a bit more specific to Rails development.

    Read the article

  • Parallel scroll textarea and webpage with jquery

    - by Roger Rogers
    This is both a conceptual and how-to question: In wiki formatting, or non WYSIWYG editor scenarios, you typically have a textarea for content entry and then an ancillary preview pane to show results, just like StackOverflow. This works fairly well, except with larger amounts of text, such as full page wikis, etc. I have a concept that I'd like critical feedback/advice on: Envision a two pane layout, with the preview content on the left side, taking up ~ 2/3 of the page, and the textarea on the right side, taking up ~ 1/3 of the page. The textarea would float, to remain in view, even if the user scrolls the browser window. Furthermore, if the user scrolls the textarea content, supposing it has exceeded the textarea's frame size, the page would scroll so that the content presently showing in the textarea syncs/is parallel with the content showing in the browser window. I'm imagining a wiki scenario, where going back and forth between markup and preview is frustrating. I'm curious what others think; is there anything out there like this? Any suggestions on how to attack this functionality (ideally using jquery)? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Multiple connections in a single SSH SOCKS 5 Proxy

    - by Elie Zedeck
    Hey guys, My fist question here on Stackoverflow: What should I need to do so that the SSH SOCKS 5 Proxy (SSH2) will allow multiple connections? What I have noticed, is that when I load a page in Firefox (already configured to use the SOCKS 5 proxy), it loads everything one by one. It can be perceived by bare eyes, and I also confirm that through the use of Firebug's NET tab, which logs the connections that have been made. I have already configure some of the directives in the about:config page, like pipeline, persistent proxy connections, and a few other things. But I still get this kind of sequential load of resources, which is noticeably very slow. network.http.pipelining;true network.http.pipelining.maxrequests;8 network.http.pipelining.ssl;true network.http.proxy.pipelining;true network.http.max-persistent-connections-per-proxy;100 network.proxy.socks_remote_dns;true My ISP sucks because during the day, it intentionally breaks connections on a random basis. And so, it is impossible to actually accomplish meaningful works without the need of a lot of browser refresh or hitting F5 key. So, that is why I started to find solutions to this. The SSH's dynamic port forwarding is the best solution I find to date, because it has some pretty good compression which saves a lot of useless traffic, and is also secure. The only thing remaining is to get it to have multiple connections running in it. Thanks for all the inputs.

    Read the article

  • Making that move from junior > mid level

    - by dotnetdev
    Hi, Before I start, I know there is another thread about this very issue (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2352874/moving-from-junior-developer-to-mid-level). I am in this very same situation, but of course every person and the company/employment-history is not the same. In my current company, I have not done one piece of coding from start to finish with the oversight of my manager and a Project Manager to manage the work/deadlines etc. I am basically an odd-jobs type of guy. The coding I do is on the side to whatever boring spreadsheet/word document I have to write. Very illogical that you're a coder and you're doing it in secret. In another job I had for 3 months (Was made redundant), it required 1 years experience, perhaps because of the fact I was the sole developer. It wasn't too hard, but then I was solely responsible and I learnt a lot from that. I had 2 other 3 months jobs (contracts), so I have been working for 1 year 9 months. I know found a job which I'm in the last stage for, which needs 3 years .NET experience and 2 years Sharepoint. How can I know if I am ready for this job? My current job has been going on for 1 year, but it doesn't mean squat apart from explaining how I have spent my time. It does not tell me what level I am at (apart from the huge skills gap I have opened up against my peers because I practise at home). So 1 year of doing nothing at work, but 1 year of doing loads at home. In fact, I take 1 week off and do more at home then in the company since I started. How can I know if I am ready for such a job? I am generally very confident given all I've achieved in coding, but I have no idea what a job with this sort of experience entails (what day-to-day-problems I would be facing). Is there any advice on how to handle this transition? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Application Architect vs. Systems Architect vs. Enterprise Architect?

    - by iaman00b
    So many buzzwords. Not sure if I need to start playing BS Bingo or not. And I'm not trying to be cynical. But I've heard many people with these various titles. There never seems to be a clear delineation between the three. Or there's a lot of domain crossover between the three. Actually, another I've seen while looking around here on Stackoverflow has been "Solutions Architect" as well. But that one doesn't seem to be so prevalent in other places. There are questions here and there with vague answers. But I'd like definative answers to this. Please assume I'm still relatively new to software stuff and that I'm trying to map out a career path. Oh, and please be gentle folks; this most definitely is not a duplicate question. Neither is it an aggregate. So kindly leave it alone. Xp

    Read the article

  • Uncatchable AccesViolationException

    - by Roy
    Hi all, I'm getting close to desperate.. I am developing a field service application for Windows Mobile 6.1 using C# and quite some p/Invoking. (I think I'm referencing about 50 native functions) On normal circumstances this goes without any problem, but when i start stressing the GC i'm getting a nasty 0xC0000005 error witch seems uncatchable. In my test i'm rapidly closing and opening a dialog form (the form did make use of native functions, but for testing i commented these out) and after a while the Windows Mobile error reporter comes around to tell me that there was an fatal error in my application. My code uses a try-catch around the Application.Run(masterForm); and hooks into the CurrentDomain.UnhandledException event, but the application still crashes. Even when i attach the debugger, visual studio just tells me "The remote connection to the device has been lost" when the exception occurs.. Since I didn't succeed to catch the exception in the managed environment, I tried to make sense out of the Error Reporter log file. But this doesn't make any sense, the only consistent this about the error is the application where it occurs in. The thread where the application occurs in is unknown to me, the module where the error occurs differs from time to time (I've seen my application.exe, WS2.dll, netcfagl3_5.dll and mscoree3_5.dll), even the error code is not always the same. (most of the time it's 0xC0000005, but i've also seen an 0X80000002 error, which is a warning accounting the first byte?) I tried debugging through bugtrap, but strangely enough this crashes with the same error code (0xC0000005). I tried to open the kdmp file with visual studio, but i can't seem to make any sense out of this because it only shows me disassembler code when i step into the error (unless i have the right .pbb files, which i don't). Same goes for WinDbg. To make a long story short: I frankly don't have a single clue where to look for this error, and I'm hoping some bright soul on stackoverflow does. I'm happy to provide some code but at this moment I don't know which piece to provide.. Any help is greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • https google urlshortener request missing body

    - by Peter
    Hi, Just trying to get the new API for the goo.gl URL shortening service working on my iPhone, following the instructions on http://code.google.com/apis/urlshortener/v1/getting_started.html I'm set up and the API is enabled etc., but when I send a request in the recommended format: POST https://www.googleapis.com/urlshortener/v1/url Content-Type: application/json {"longUrl": "http://www.google.com/"} I get an error returned. The error is exactly the one listed on that page in the errors section for if you haven't passed in a longURL param. This makes me think that I'm not setting up the body of the POST request properly. Here's the code if you have any pointers... NSString *longURLString=@"http://www.stackoverflow.com"; NSString *googlRequestString=@"https://www.googleapis.com/urlshortener/v1/url"; NSMutableURLRequest *request=[NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:googlRequestString]]; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [request addValue:@"application/json" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type:"]; NSString *bodyString=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"{\"longUrl\": \"%@\"}",longURLString]; [request setHTTPBody:[bodyString dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; NSURLResponse *theResponse; NSError *error=nil; NSData *receivedData=[NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:&theResponse error:&error]; NSString *receivedString=[[NSString alloc] initWithData:receivedData encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; NSLog(@"Received data: %@",receivedString); [receivedString release]; The NSLog returns: Received data: { "error": { "errors": [ { "domain": "global", "reason": "required", "message": "Required", "locationType": "parameter", "location": "resource.longUrl" } ], "code": 400, "message": "Required" } } which is exactly what Google says you get if you have not passed a longUrl parameter.... My guess is I'm missing something very obvious here :-) P

    Read the article

  • C# ASP.NET FILE TRANSFER FROM LOCAL MACHINE TO ANOTHER MACHINE

    - by Imcl
    I basically want to transfer a file from the client to the file storage server without actual login to the server so that the client cannot access the storage location on the server directly. I can do this only if i manually login to the storage server through windows login. I dont want to do that. This is a Web-Based Application. Using the link below, I wrote a code for my application. I am not able to get it right though, Please refer the link and help me ot with it... http://stackoverflow.com/questions/263518/c-uploading-files-to-file-server The following is my code:- protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { filePath = FileUpload1.FileName; try { WebClient client = new WebClient(); NetworkCredential nc = new NetworkCredential(uName, password); Uri addy = new Uri("\\\\192.168.1.3\\upload\\"); client.Credentials = nc; byte[] arrReturn = client.UploadFile(addy, filePath); Console.WriteLine(arrReturn.ToString()); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.Message); } } The following line doesn't execute... byte[] arrReturn = client.UploadFile(addy, filePath); THIS IS THE ERROR I GET :- "An exception occurred during a WebClient request"

    Read the article

  • Possible to Inspect Innards of Core C# Functionality

    - by Nick Babcock
    I was struck today, with the inclination to compare the innards of Buffer.BlockCopy and Array.CopyTo. I am curious to see if Array.CopyTo called Buffer.BlockCopy behind the scenes. There is no practical purpose behind this, I just want to further my understanding of the C# language and how it is implemented. Don't jump the gun and accuse me of micro-optimization, but you can accuse me of being curious! When I ran ILasm on mscorlib.dll I received this for Array.CopyTo .method public hidebysig newslot virtual final instance void CopyTo(class System.Array 'array', int32 index) cil managed { // Code size 0 (0x0) } // end of method Array::CopyTo and this for Buffer.BlockCopy .method public hidebysig static void BlockCopy(class System.Array src, int32 srcOffset, class System.Array dst, int32 dstOffset, int32 count) cil managed internalcall { .custom instance void System.Security.SecuritySafeCriticalAttribute::.ctor() = ( 01 00 00 00 ) } // end of method Buffer::BlockCopy Which, frankly, baffles me. I've never run ILasm on a dll/exe I didn't create. Does this mean that I won't be able to see how these functions are implemented? Searching around only revealed a stackoverflow question, which Marc Gravell said [Buffer.BlockCopy] is basically a wrapper over a raw mem-copy While insightful, it doesn't answer my question if Array.CopyTo calls Buffer.BlockCopy. I'm specifically interested in if I'm able to see how these two functions are implemented, and if I had future questions about the internals of C#, if it is possible for me to investigate it. Or am I out of luck?

    Read the article

  • looking for a license key algorithm.

    - by giulio
    There are alot of questions relating to license keys asked on stackoverflow. But they don't answer this question. Can anyone provide a simple license key algorithm that is technology independent and doesn't required a diploma in mathematics to understand ? The license key algorithm is similar to public key encryption. I just need something simple that can be implemented in any platform .Net/Java and uses simple data like characters. Written as Pseudo code is perfect. So if a person presents a string, a complementary string can be generated that is the authorisation code. Below is a common scenario that it would be used for. Customer downloads s/w which generates a unique key upon initial startup/installation. S/w runs during trial period. At end of trial period an authorisation key is required. Customer goes to designated web-site, enters their code and get authorisation code to enable s/w, after paying :) Don't be afraid to describe your answer as though you're talking to a 5 yr old as I am not a mathemtician.

    Read the article

  • How to implement properly plugins in C#?

    - by MartyIX
    I'm trying to add plugins to my game and what I'm trying to implement is this: Plugins will be either mine or 3rd party's so I would like a solution where crashing of the plugin would not mean crashing of the main application. Methods of plugins are called very often (for example because of drawing of game objects). What I've found so far: 1) http://www.codeproject.com/KB/cs/pluginsincsharp.aspx - simple concept that seems like it should work nicely. Since plugins are used in my game for every round I would suffice to add the Restart() method and if a plugin is no longer needed Unload() method + GC should take care of that. 2) http://mef.codeplex.com/Wikipage - Managed Extensibility Framework - my program should work on .NET 3.5 and I don't want to add any other framework separately I want to write my plugin system myself. Therefore this solution is out of question. 3) Microsoft provides: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.addin.aspx but according to a few articles I've read it is very complex. 4) Different AppDomains for plugins. According to Marc Gravell ( http://stackoverflow.com/questions/665668/usage-of-appdomain-in-c ) different AppDomains allow isolation. Unloading of plugins would be easy. What would the performance load be? I need to call methods of plugins very often (to draw objects for example). Using Application Domains - http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/yb506139.aspx A few tutorials on java2s.com Could you please comment on my findings? New approaches are also welcomed! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How can I stop an auto-generated Linq to SQL class from loading ALL data?

    - by Gary McGill
    DUPLICATE of http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2433422/how-can-i-stop-an-auto-generated-linq-to-sql-class-from-loading-all-data post answers there! I have an ASP.NET MVC project, much like the NerdDinner tutorial example. (I'm using MVC 2, but followed the NerdDinner tutorial in order to create it). As per the instructions in part 3 of the tutorial, I've created a Linq-to-SQL model of my database by creating a "Linq to SQL Classes" (.dbml) surface, and dropping my database tables onto it. The designer has automatically added relationships between the generated classes based on my database tables. Let's say that my classes are as per the NerdDinner example, so I have Dinner and RSVP tables, where each Dinner record is associated with many RSVP records - hence in the generated classes, the Dinner object has a RSVPs property which is a list of RSVP objects. My problem is this: it appears (and I'd be gladly proved wrong on this) that as soon as I access a Dinner object, it's loading all of the corresponding RSVP objects, even if I don't use the RSVPs member. First question: is this really the default behavior for the generated classes? In my particular situation, the object graph contains many more tables (which have an order of magnitude more records), and so this is disastrous behaviour - I'd be loading tons of data when all I want to do is show the details of a single parent record. Second question: are there any properties exposed through the designer UI that would let me modify this behavior? (I can't find any). Third question: I've seen a description of how to control the loading of related records in a DataContext by using a DataShape object associated with the DataContext. Is that what I'm meant to do, and if so are there any tutorials like the NerdDinner one that would show not only how to do it, but also suggest a 'pattern' for normal use?

    Read the article

  • WPF Spellcheck Engine takes up too much memory.

    - by Matt H.
    Each datatemplate in my WPF ItemsControl contains FIVE custom bindable richtextbox controls. It is a data-driven app that for authoring multiple-choice questions -- The question and four answer choices must all support: 1) Spell check 2) Rich formatting (otherwise I'd use regular textboxes) The spell check object in .NET 4 has a Friend constructor that takes a single argument of owner As TextBoxBase This means every richtextbox in the ItemsControl has 5 Spellcheck objects! This is the problem -- every spell check engine is consuming about 500k memory. So after you favor in the spellcheck, bindings, additional controls in the DataTemplate, etc.. a single multi choice question consumes more than 3MB memory. Users with 100--200 questions will quickly see the App raise it's memory consumption to 500+ MB. Management is definitely not OK with this. Is there a way to minimimze this problem? The best suggestion I've heard is to enable/disable spellcheck if the richtextbox is in the ItemsControl's scrollviewer: I haven't gotten an answer to how to go about it: (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2869012/possible-to-implement-an-isviewportvisible-dependencyproperty-for-an-item-in-an-i) Any good ideas?

    Read the article

  • Best pratice: How do I implement a list that can be rendered both server-side and client-side?

    - by André Pena
    Technologies involved: ASP.NET Web-forms Javascript (jQuery for instance) Case To make it clearer let's give the Stackoverflow authors list as an example. This list can be manipulated at client-side. I can search, page and so forth. So obviously we would need to call jQuery.ajax to retrieve the HTML of each page given a search. Alright. Now this leaves me with the first question: What is the best way to render the response for the jQuery.ajax at server-side? I can't use templates I suppose, so the most obvious solution I think is to create the HTML tags as server-controls and render them as the result of an ASHX request? Is this is best approach? Nice. That solved we have yet another problem: When the user first enters the Authors List the first list page should already come from the server completely rendered alright? Of course we could render the first page as well as an ajax call but I don't think it's better. This time I CAN use templates to render the list but this template couldn't be reused in case 1. What do I do? Now the final question: Now we have 2 rendering strategies: 1) Client and 2) Server. How do I reuse code for the 2 renderings? What are the best pratices for solving these problems?

    Read the article

  • RDP through TCP Proxy

    - by johng100
    Hi, First time in Stackoverflow and I'm hoping someone can help me. I'm looking at a proof of concept to pass RDP traffic through a TCP Proxy/tunnel which will pass through firewalls using HTTPS. The problem has to do with deploying images to machines and so it can't be assumed that the .NET framework will be present, so C++ is being used at the deployment end of a connection. The basic system I have at present is a program which listens for client connections on a port then passes any data to a WCF service which stores it as a byte array. A deployment machine (using GSoap and C++) polls the WCF service for messages and if it finds them then passes the data onto the target server process via sockets. I know this sounds horrible, but it works for simple test clients and server passing data to and from simple test client and server programs via this WCF/C++/C# proxy layer. But I have to support traffic from RDP, VNC and possibly others, so I need a transparent proxy to do this and am wondering whether the above approach is worth pursuing. I've read up on SSH tunneling and that seems a possibility. My basic question is is it possible to tunnel RDP traffic over HTTPS using custom code. Thanks John

    Read the article

  • jQuery eval of ajax inline script not throwing errors

    - by Josh
    http://stackoverflow.com/questions/606794/debugging-ajax-code-with-firebug This question is quite similar, though old and without real answers. I'm currently putting together an app that has scripts that get loaded in with an ajax request. An example: var main = _main.get(); main.load( someurl ); Where someurl is a page that contains an inline script element: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready( function(){ var activities = new activities(); activities.init(); }); </script> jQuery will do a line by line eval of js that lives in inline script tags. The problem is, I get no errors or any information whatsoever in firebug when something goes awry. Does anyone have a good solution for this? Or a better practice for loading pages which contain javascript functionality? Edit: A little progress... so at the top of the page that is being loaded in via ajax, I have another script that was being included like this: <script type="text/javascript" src="javascript/pages/activities.js"></script> When I moved the inline $(document).ready() code in the page to the end of this included file, instead, syntax errors were now properly getting thrown. As an aside, I threw a console.log() into the inline script tag, and it was being logged just fine. I also tried removing the $(document).ready() altogether, and also switching it out for a $(window).load() event. No difference. May have something to do with the inline scripts dependency on the included activities.js, I guess. :: shakes head :: javascript can be a nightmare.

    Read the article

  • Java: Cleaning up what causes a connection reset

    - by Zombies
    There seems to be some confusion as well contradicting statements on various SO answers: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/585599/whats-causing-my-java-net-socketexception-connection-reset . You can see here that the accepted answer states that the connection was closed by other side. But this is not true, closing a connection doesn't cause a connection reset. It is cauesed by "an underlying TCP/IP error." What I want to know is if a SocketException: Connection reset means really besides "unerlying TCP/IP Error." What really causes this? As I doubt it has anything to do with the connection being closed (since closing a connection isn't an exception worthy flag, and reading from a closed connection is, but that isn't an "underlying TCP/IP error." My hypothesis is this Connection reset is caused from a server's failure to acknowledge an ACK packet (either wholly or just improperly as per TCP/IP). And that a SocketTimeoutException is generated only when no data is generated to be read (since this is thrown during a read after a certain duration, and read is waiting for data, but is not concerned with ACK packets). In other words, read() throws SocketTimeoutException if it didn't read any bytes of actual data (DATA LAYER) in its allotted time.

    Read the article

  • Dynamically created iframe used to download file triggers onload with firebug but not without

    - by justkt
    EDIT: as this problem is now "solved" to the point of working, I am looking to have the information on why. For the fix, see my comment below. I have an web application which repeatedly downloads wav files dynamically (after a timeout or as instructed by the user) into an iframe in order to trigger the a default audio player to play them. The application targets only FF 2 or 3. In order to determine when the file is downloaded completely, I am hoping to use the window.onload handler for the iframe. Based on this stackoverflow.com answer I am creating a new iframe each time. As long as firebug is enabled on the browser using the application, everything works great. Without firebug, the onload never fires. The version of firebug is 1.3.1, while I've tested Firefox 2.0.0.19 and 3.0.7. Any ideas how I can get the onload from the iframe to reliably trigger when the wav file has downloaded? Or is there another way to signal the completion of the download? Here's the pertinent code: HTML (hidden's only attribute is display:none;): <div id="audioContainer" class="hidden"> </div> JavaScript (could also use jQuery, but innerHTML is faster than html() from what I've read): waitingForFile = true; // (declared at the beginning of closure) $("#loading").removeClass("hidden"); var content = "<iframe id='audioPlayer' name='audioPlayer' src='" + /path/to/file.wav + "' onload='notifyLoaded()'></iframe>"; document.getElementById("audioContainer").innerHTML = content; And the content of notifyLoaded: function notifyLoaded() { waitingForFile = false; // (declared at beginning of the closure) $("#loading").addClass("hidden"); } I have also tried creating the iframe via document.createElement, but I found the same behavior. The onload triggered each time with firebug enabled and never without it. EDIT: Fixed the information on how the iframe is being declared and added the callback function code. No, no console.log calls here.

    Read the article

  • How to access generic property without knowing the closed generic type

    - by Martin Booka Weser
    I have a generic Type as follows public class TestGeneric<T> { public T Data { get; set; } public TestGeneric(T data) { this.Data = data; } } If i have now an object (which is coming from some external source) from which i know that it's type is of some closed TestGeneric<, but i don't know the TypeParameter T. Now I need to access the Data of my object. Problem is that i can't cast the object, since i don't know exactly to which closed TestGeneric. I use // thx to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/457676/c-reflection-check-if-a-class-is-derived-from-a-generic-class private static bool IsSubclassOfRawGeneric(Type rawGeneric, Type subclass) { while (subclass != typeof(object)) { var cur = subclass.IsGenericType ? subclass.GetGenericTypeDefinition() : subclass; if (rawGeneric == cur) { return true; } subclass = subclass.BaseType; } return false; } to make sure, my object is of the generic type. The code in question is as follows: public static void Main() { object myObject = new TestGeneric<string>("test"); // or from another source if (IsSubclassOfRawGeneric(typeof(TestGeneric<>), myObject.GetType())) { // the following gives an InvalidCastException // var data = ((TestGeneric<object>)myObject).Data; // if i try to access the property with reflection // i get an InvalidOperationException var dataProperty = typeof(TestGeneric<>).GetProperty("Data"); object data = dataProperty.GetValue(myObject, new object[] { }); } } I need the Data regardless of its type (well, if i could ask for its type using GetType() would be fine, but not necessary) since i just want to dump it in xml using ToString(). Any suggestions? Thanx.

    Read the article

  • Blob in Java/Hibernate/sql-server 2005

    - by Ramy
    Hi, I'm trying to insert an HTML blob into our sql-server2005 database. i've been using the data-type [text] for the field the blob will eventually live in. i've also put a '@Lob' annotation on the field in the domain model. The problem comes in when the HTML blob I'm attempting to store is larger than 65536 characters. Its seems that is the caracter-limit for a text data type when using the @Lob annotation. Ideally I'd like to keep the whole blob in tact rather than chunk it up into multiple rows in the database. I appreciate any help or insight that might be provided. Thanks! _Ramy Allow me to clarify annotation: @Lob @Column(length = Integer. MAX_VALUE) //per an answer on stackoverflow private String htmlBlob; database side (sql-server-2005): CREATE TABLE dbo.IndustrySectorTearSheetBlob( ... htmlBlob text NULL ... ) Still seeing truncation after 65536 characters... EDIT: i've printed out the contents of all possible strings (only 10 right now) that would be inserted into the Database. Each string seems to contain all cahracters, judging by the fact that the close html tag is present at the end of the string....

    Read the article

  • SQL INSTR() using CSV. Need exact match rather than part

    - by Alastair Pitts
    This is a follow up issue relating to the answer for http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2445029/sql-placeholder-in-where-in-issue-inserted-strings-fail Quick background: We have a SQL query that uses a placeholder value to accept a string, which represents a unique tag/id. Usually, this is only a single tag, but we needed the ability to use a csv string for multiple tags, returning a combined result. In the answer we received from the vendor, they suggested the use of the INSTR function, ala: select * from pitotal where tag IN (SELECT tag from pipoint WHERE INSTR(?, tag) <> 0) and time between 'y' and 't' This works perfectly well 99% of the time, the issue is when the tag is also a subset of 2 parts of the CSV string. Eg the placeholder value is: 'northdom,southdom,eastdom,westdom' and possible tags include: north or northdom What happens, as north is a subset of northdom, is that the two tags are return instead of just northdom, which is actually what we want. I'm not strong on SQL so I couldn't work out how to set it as exact, or split the csv string, so help would be appreciated. Is there a way to split the csv string or make it look for an exact match?

    Read the article

  • Pros/Cons of MySQL vs Postgresql for production Ruby on Rails environment?

    - by cakeforcerberus
    I will soon be switching from sqlite3 to either postgres or mysql. What should I consider when making this decision? Is mysql more suited for Rails than postgres in some areas and/or vice versa? Or, as I somewhat suspect, does it not really matter either way? Another factor that might play into my decision is the availability of tools to data pump my test data from the sqlite3 db to my new one. Is there anything that ActiveRecord provides natively to do this or any decent plugins/gems to help with this task? BONUS: How do I pronounce "Postgresql" and sound like I know what I'm talking about? :) Thanks Greg Smith for providing the following link that shows the most common pronunciations: http://www.postgresql.org/community/survey.33 UPDATE: Reference this question for more: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/110927/do-you-recommend-postgresql-over-mysql FYI: I ended up using MySQL. There is a neat plugin called yamldb that really saved me some time with the data transfer from my sqlite db to my new mysql one. Instructions on how to install and use it can be found here: http://accidentaltechnologist.com/ruby/change-databases-in-rails-with-yamldb/ Thanks Tom

    Read the article

  • PHP get "Application Root" in Xampp on Windows correctly

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: I found this thread on StackOverflow about how to get the "Application Root" from inside my web app. However, most of the approaches suggested in that thread can hardly be applied to my Xampp on Windows. Say, I've got a "common.php" which stays inside my web app's app directory: / /app/common.php /protected/index.php In my common.php, what I've got is like this: define('DOCROOT', $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT']); define('ABSPATH', dirname(__FILE__)); define('COMMONSCRIPT', $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']); After I required the common.php inside the /protected/index.php, I found this: C:/xampp/htdocs //<== echo DOCROOT; C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app //<== echo ABSPATH /comic/protected/index.php //<== echo COMMONSCRIPT So the most troublesome part is the path delimiters are not universal, plus, it seems all superglobals from the $_SERVER[] asso array, such as $_SERVER['PHP_SELF'], are relative to the "caller" script, not the "callee" script. It seems that I can only rely on dirname(__FILE__) to make sure this always returns an absolute path to the common.php file. I can certainly parse the returning values from DOCROOT and ABSPATH and then calculate the correct "application root". For instance, I can compare the parts after htdocs and substitute all backslashes with slashes to get a unix-like path I wonder is this the right way to handle this? What if I deploy my web app on a LAMP environment? would this environment-dependent approach bomb me out? I have used some PHP frameworks such as CakePHP and CodeIgniter, to be frank, They just work on either LAMP or WAMP, but I am not sure how they approached such a elegant solution. Many thanks in advance for all the hints and suggestions.

    Read the article

  • Why use SQL database?

    - by martinthenext
    I'm not quite sure stackoverflow is a place for such a general question, but let's give it a try. Being exposed to the need of storing application data somewhere, I've always used MySQL or sqlite, just because it's always done like that. As it seems like the whole world is using these databases, most of all software products, frameworks, etc. It is rather hard for a beginning developer like me to ask a question - why? Ok, say we have some object-oriented logic in our application, and objects are related to each other somehow. We need to map this logic to the storage logic, so we need relations between database objects too. This leads us to using relational database and I'm ok with that - to put it simple, our database rows sometimes will need to have references to other tables' rows. But why do use SQL language for interaction with such a database? SQL query is a text message. I can understand this is cool for actually understanding what it does, but isn't it silly to use text table and column names for a part of application that no one ever seen after deploynment? If you had to write a data storage from scratch, you would have never used this kind of solution. Personally, I would have used some 'compiled db query' bytecode, that would be assembled once inside a client application and passed to the database. And it surely would name tables and colons by id numbers, not ascii-strings. In the case of changes in table structure those byte queries could be recompiled according to new db schema, stored in XML or something like that. What are the problems of my idea? Is there any reason for me not to write it myself and to use SQL database instead?

    Read the article

  • How can I get jQuery validation plugin Ketchup to stop an Ajax form submission when validation fails?

    - by Marshall Sontag
    I'm using Ruby on Rails, Formtastic gem, jQuery and ketchup to validate my form. I'm submitting the form created by Formtastic inside a modal box using ajax: <% semantic_form_remote_for @contact_form, :url => '/request/contact' do |f| %> I have a validation plugin verifying the fields on the form: $(document).ready(function() { $("#new_contact_form").ketchup(); }); The problem is that semantic_form_remote_for generates an onSubmit ajax request that the jQuery validation plugins won't prevent, since it's not a normal form submission. One question on stackoverflow suggests using :condition on the remote form declaration to fire a javascript function, but I can't do that since I'm not using a function, but rather relying on a jQuery handler. I also tried putting ketchup within a submit event handler: $(document).ready(function() { $("#new_contact_form").submit(function() { $('#new_contact_form').ketchup(); }); }); No luck. Form still submits. I also tried using the beforeSend option of jQuery.ajax: $(document).ready(function() { jQuery.ajax( { beforeSend: function(){ $('#new_contact_form').ketchup(); } }); }); Validation fires off, but form is still submitted. I switched to jQuery Validation plugin just to see if it was due to some limitation in Ketchup. It turns out that Validation has a submitHandler option: $(document).ready(function() { $('#new_contact_form').validate({ submitHandler: function(form) { jQuery.ajax({ data:jQuery.param(jQuery('#new_contact_form').serializeArray()), dataType:'script', type:'post', url:'/request/contact' }); return false; } }); }); This works when I use a regular semantic_form_for instead of semantic_form_remote_for, but alas, I would rather use Ketchup. Is Ketchup just woefully lacking? Am I forced to use jQuery Validation?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172  | Next Page >