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  • Where should I declare my CDI resources?

    - by Laird Nelson
    JSR-299 (CDI) introduces the (unfortunately named) concept of a resource: http://docs.jboss.org/weld/reference/1.0.0/en-US/html/resources.html#d0e4373 You can think of a resource in this nomenclature as a bridge between the Java EE 6 brand of dependency injection (@EJB, @Resource, @PersistenceContext and the like) and CDI's brand of dependency injection. The general gist seems to be that somewhere (and this will be the root of my question) you declare what amounts to a bridge class: it contains fields annotated both with Java EE's @EJB or @PersistenceContext or @Resource annotations and with CDI's @Produces annotations. The net effect is that Java EE 6 injects a persistence context, say, where it's called for, and CDI recognizes that injected PersistenceContext as a source for future injections down the line (handled by @Inject). My question is: what is the community's consensus--or is there one--on: what this bridge class should be named where this bridge class should live whether it's best to localize all this stuff into one class or make several of them ...? Left to my own devices, I was thinking of declaring a single class called CDIResources and using that as the One True Place to link Java EE's DI with CDI's DI. Many examples do something similar, but I'm not clear on whether they're "just" examples or whether that's a good way to do it. Thanks.

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  • Querying a self referencing join with NHibernate Linq

    - by Ben
    In my application I have a Category domain object. Category has a property Parent (of type category). So in my NHibernate mapping I have: <many-to-one name="Parent" column="ParentID"/> Before I switched to NHibernate I had the ParentId property on my domain model (mapped to the corresponding database column). This made it easy to query for say all top level categories (ParentID = 0): where(c => c.ParentId == 0) However, I have since removed the ParentId property from my domain model (because of NHibernate) so I now have to do the same query (using NHibernate.Linq) like so: public IList<Category> GetCategories(int parentId) { if (parentId == 0) return _catalogRepository.Categories.Where(x => x.Parent == null).ToList(); else return _catalogRepository.Categories.Where(x => x.Parent.Id == parentId).ToList(); } The real impact that I can see, is the sql generated. Instead of a simple 'select x,y,z from categories where parentid = 0' NHibernate generates a left outer join: SELECT this_.CategoryId as CategoryId4_1_, this_.ParentID as ParentID4_1_, this_.Name as Name4_1_, this_.Slug as Slug4_1_, parent1_.CategoryId as CategoryId4_0_, parent1_.ParentID as ParentID4_0_, parent1_.Name as Name4_0_, parent1_.Slug as Slug4_0_ FROM Categories this_ left outer join Categories parent1_ on this_.ParentID = parent1_.CategoryId WHERE this_.ParentID is null Which doesn't seems much less efficient that what I had before. Is there a better way of querying these self referencing joins as it's very tempting to drop the ParentID back onto my domain model for this reason. Thanks, Ben

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  • Spring MVC parameter validation

    - by Don
    Hi, I've defined a controller, validator and command class for a Spring 2.5 MVC application like this: public class ResourceController extends AbstractCommandController { private MessageRetriever messageRetriever; protected ModelAndView handle(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response, Object command, BindException errors) throws Exception { ResourceCommand resourceCommand = (ResourceCommand) command; // I NEED TO CHECK HERE IF COMMAND IS VALID? } public static class ResourceCommand { private String module; private String site; private String lang; // GETTERS AND SETTERS OMITTED } public static class ResourceValidator implements Validator { public boolean supports(Class clazz) { return ResourceCommand.class.isAssignableFrom(clazz); } public void validate(Object obj, Errors errors) { ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmptyOrWhitespace(errors, "module", "MODULE_REQUIRED"); ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmptyOrWhitespace(errors, "site", "SITE_REQUIRED"); ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmptyOrWhitespace(errors, "lang", "LANG_REQUIRED"); } } } I have wired these all together in the application context: <bean id="resourceController" class="com.amadeus.jcp.ui.framework.localization.ResourceController"> <property name="commandClass" value="com.amadeus.jcp.ui.framework.localization.ResourceController.ResourceCommand"/> <property name="validator"> <bean class="com.amadeus.jcp.ui.framework.localization.ResourceController.ResourceValidator"/> </property> </bean> However, I can't figure out how to actually check whether the command is valid or not - I assume the framework calls the validator, but how do I get access to the result? Incidentally, I'm using Java 1.4, so can't use any solutions that require annotations or other Java 1.5 features. Thanks, Don

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  • weak or strong for IBOutlet and other

    - by Piero
    I have switched my project to ARC, and I don't understand if I have to use strong or weak for IBOutlets. Xcode do this: in interface builder, if a create a UILabel for example and I connect it with assistant editor to my ViewController, it create this: @property (nonatomic, strong) UILabel *aLabel; It uses the strong, instead I read a tutorial on RayWenderlich website that say this: But for these two particular properties I have other plans. Instead of strong, we will declare them as weak. @property (nonatomic, weak) IBOutlet UITableView *tableView; @property (nonatomic, weak) IBOutlet UISearchBar *searchBar; Weak is the recommended relationship for all outlet properties. These view objects are already part of the view controller’s view hierarchy and don’t need to be retained elsewhere. The big advantage of declaring your outlets weak is that it saves you time writing the viewDidUnload method. Currently our viewDidUnload looks like this: - (void)viewDidUnload { [super viewDidUnload]; self.tableView = nil; self.searchBar = nil; soundEffect = nil; } You can now simplify it to the following: - (void)viewDidUnload { [super viewDidUnload]; soundEffect = nil; } So use weak, instead of the strong, and remove the set to nil in the videDidUnload, instead Xcode use the strong, and use the self... = nil in the viewDidUnload. My question is: when do I have to use strong, and when weak? I want also use for deployment target iOS 4, so when do I have to use the unsafe_unretain? Anyone can help to explain me well with a small tutorial, when use strong, weak and unsafe_unretain with ARC?

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  • Trigger for ComboBox in Silverlight

    - by Budda
    Is there any possibility to display selected item of the ComboBox (after popup closing) in a way that is different from its displaying in DropDown List (There are players number and name in the dropdown list, but after list closing I want to see only its number). How can I change a background for the player with some Flag? As far as I know, all of that can be done with triggers, but are they supported in Silverlight 4, VS2010, Silverlight Toolkit 4? In my case the following code <ComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding PlayersAll}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=SelectedPlayer, Mode=TwoWay}" > <ComboBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <ToolkitControls:WrapPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding TeamNumber}"/> <TextBlock Text=" - "/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding ShortName}"/> </ToolkitControls:WrapPanel> <DataTemplate.Triggers> <Trigger Property="HasError" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Background" TargetName="FlagSet" Value="Red"/> </Trigger> </DataTemplate.Triggers> </DataTemplate> </ComboBox.ItemTemplate> </ComboBox> gives an error: The property 'Triggers' does not exist on the type 'DataTemplate' in the XML namespace 'http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation' what is wrong here? Here are my namespaces: xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:navigation="clr-namespace:System.Windows.Controls;assembly=System.Windows.Controls.Navigation" xmlns:data="clr-namespace:System.Windows.Controls;assembly=System.Windows.Controls.Data" xmlns:ToolkitControls="clr-namespace:System.Windows.Controls;assembly=System.Windows.Controls.Toolkit"

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  • Inherited fluent nhibenate mapping issue

    - by Aim Kai
    I have an interesting issue today!! Basically I have two classes. public class A : B { public virtual new ISet<DifferentItem> Items {get;set;} } public class B { public virtual int Id {get;set;} public virtual ISet<Item> Items {get;set;} } The subclass A hides the base class B property, Items and replaces it with a new property with the same name and a different type. The mappings for these classes are public class AMapping : SubclassMap<A> { public AMapping() { HasMany(x=>x.Items) .LazyLoad() .AsSet(); } } public class BMapping : ClassMap<B> { public BMapping() { Id(x=>x.Id); HasMany(x=>x.Items) .LazyLoad() .AsSet(); } } However when I run my unit test to check the mapping I get the following exception: Tests the A mapping: NHibernate.PropertyAccessException : Invalid Cast (check your mapping for property type mismatches); setter of A ---- System.InvalidCastException : Unable to cast object of type 'NHibernate.Collection.Generic.PersistentGenericSet1[Item]' to type 'Iesi.Collections.Generic.ISet1[DifferentItem]'. Anyone have any ideas? Clearly it is something to do with the type of the collection on the sub-class. But I skimmed through the available options on the mapping class and nothing stood out as being the solution here.

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  • WPF Combobox Updates list but not the selected item

    - by JoshReedSchramm
    I have a combo box on a WPF form. On this form the user selects a record from the combo box which populates the rest of the fields on the form so the user can update that record. When they click save I am re-retrieving the combo box source which updates the combo box list. The problem is the selected item keeps the original label even though the data behind it is different. When you expand the combo box the selected item shows the right label. I am using a command binding mechanism. Here is some of the relevant code. private void SaveSalesRep() { BindFromView(); if (_salesRep.Id == 0) SalesRepRepository.AddAndSave(_salesRep); else SalesRepRepository.DataContext.SaveChanges(); int originalId = _salesRep.Id; InitSalesRepDropDown(); SalesRepSelItem = ((List<SalesRep>) SalesRepItems.SourceCollection).Find(x => x.Id == originalId); } private void InitSalesRepDropDown() { var salesRepRepository = IoC.GetRepository<ISalesRepRepository>(); IEnumerable<SalesRep> salesReps = salesRepRepository.GetAll(); _salesRepItems = new CollectionView(salesReps); NotifyPropertyChanged("SalesRepItems"); SalesRepSelItem = SalesRepItems.GetItemAt(0) as SalesRep; } The Selected Item property on the combo box is bound to SalesRepSelItem Property and the ItemsSource is bound to SalesRepItems which is backed by _salesRepItems. THe SalesRepSelItem property called NotifyPropertyChanges("SalesRepSelItem") which raises a PropertyChanged event. All told the binding of new items seems to work and the list updates, but the label on the selected item doesnt. Any ideas? Thanks all.

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  • Using jQuery, setting Draggable on an element prevents blur from firing when you click the draggable

    - by Danno
    Using jQuery, when you set a blur event on a text box and set another element as draggable, when you click the draggable element, the blur event does not fire in FireFox. IE is a little better, you get the blur event but you don't get the click event on the draggable element. If you don't specify the cancel: "" in the draggable constructor, you will get the blur event to fire, but then the element you want to drag is not draggable. jQuery v1.3.2 jQuery UI v1.7.2 The console.log lines are for FireFox's FireBug plugin. <HTML> <HEAD> <TITLE>Blur/Click Workbench</TITLE> <script src="js/jquery.js" type="text/javascript" ></script> <script src="js/ui/ui.core.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="js/ui/ui.draggable.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function blurring() { console.log('1 - blurring - ' + $( this ).attr('id')); } function clicking() { console.log('2 - clicking - ' + $( this ).attr('id')); } $(document).ready(function() { $( ".draggableTool" ).draggable( { cancel: "" } ); $( '.property' ).blur( blurring ); $( '#labelContainer' ).click( clicking ); }); </script> </HEAD> <BODY> <input type='text' class='property' id='tb1' /> <br /> <input type='text' class='property' id='tb2' /> <br /> <label class='draggableTool' id='labelContainer' style='height:20px;position:absolute;'> <textarea id='taLabel' style='height:100%;background-color:white;border:1px solid grey;'>Label</textarea> </label> </BODY> </HTML>

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  • WPF/Silverlight AutoCompleteBox with ability to add new values to list.

    - by WillH
    Hi, I would like to use autocompletebox with a list of values, but also add new values to the list if a user enters one that isn't present. I currently have a string property in my view model called 'Comment'. Currently this is bound to a textbox in the view - user types a comment and the view model is updated. Simple. To save time, my customer would like it to autocomplete from previous values, so the way I thought to do this is something like: ViewModel public string Comment; public ObservableCollection<string> CommentsList { ... } (populate the CommentsList when the viewmodel is created) View <AutoCompleteComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding CommentsList}" SelectedItem="{Binding Comment, Mode=TwoWay/> So when the user selects a value, it saves the value in the Comment property. This works fine if the user selects an item in the list, but if the user types in a new value, the comment property is not updated (it is null because the selected item was not in the list). Is this possible with autocompletebox? Thanks in advance, Will

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  • Problem retrieving multiple instances of the same asp.net session variable

    - by sw1sh
    I'm having problems with retrieving multiple instances of a session variable from an InProc session state. In the following code I persist a simple BusinessObject into a session variable on the Page_Load event. On the click of a button I try to retrieve the object back into 2 new declared instances of the same BusinessObject. All works great until I change one of the properties in the first instance, it changes the second instance as well. Is this normal behaviour? I would have thought as these were new instances they wouldn’t demonstrate static behaviour? Any ideas where I'm going wrong? Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load If Not Page.IsPostBack Then ' create a new instance of a business object and set a containg variable Dim BO As New BusinessObject BO.SomeVariable = "test" ' persist to inproc session Session("BO") = BO End If End Sub Protected Sub btnRetrieveSessionVariable_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles btnRetrieveSessionVariable.Click ' retrieve the session variable to a new instance of BusinessObject Dim BO1 As New BusinessObject If Not Session("BO") Is Nothing Then BO1 = Session("BO") ' retrieve the session variable to a new instance of BusinessObject Dim BO2 As New BusinessObject If Not Session("BO") Is Nothing Then BO2 = Session("BO") ' change the property value on the first instance BO1.SomeVariable = "test2" ' why has this changed on both instances? Dim strBO1Property As String = BO1.SomeVariable Dim strBO2Property As String = BO2.SomeVariable End Sub ' simple BusinessObject class Public Class BusinessObject Private _SomeVariable As String Public Property SomeVariable() As String Get Return _SomeVariable End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _SomeVariable = value End Set End Property End Class

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  • Grails bean-fields plugin

    - by Don
    Hi, I'm having problems using the Grails bean-fields plugin with a class this is annotated Validateable, but is not a domain/command class. The root cause of the problem appears to be in this method of BeanTagLib.groovy private def getBeanConstraints(bean) { if (bean?.metaClass?.hasProperty(bean, 'constraints')) { def cons = bean.constraints if (cons != null) { if (log.debugEnabled) { log.debug "Bean is of type ${bean.class} - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}]" } // Safety check for the case where bean is no a proper domain/command object // This avoids confusing errors where constraints comes back as a Closure if (!(cons instanceof Map)) { if (log.warnEnabled) { log.warn "Bean of type ${bean.class} is not a domain class, command object or other validateable object - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}]" } } } else { if (log.warnEnabled) { log.warn "Bean of type ${bean.class} has no constraints" } } return cons } else return null } I tested out this method above in the grails console and when I pass an instance of MyBean into this method, it logs: Bean of type ${bean.class} is not a domain class, command object or other validateable object - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}] Because the constraints are returned as an instance of Closure instead of a Map. If I could figue out how to get a Map reference to the constraints of a @Validateable class (that is not a domain/command class), I guess I could resolve the problem. Thanks, Don

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  • ASP MVC: Submitting a form with nested user controls

    - by Nigel
    I'm fairly new to ASP MVC so go easy :). I have a form that contains a number of user controls (partial views, as in System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl), each with their own view models, and some of those user controls have nested user controls within them. I intended to reuse these user controls so I built up the form using a hierarchy in this way and pass the form a parent view model that contains all the user controls' view models within it. For example: Parent Page (with form and ParentViewModel) -->ChildControl1 (uses ViewModel1 which is passed from ParentViewModel.ViewModel1 property) -->ChildControl2 (uses ViewModel2 which is passed from ParentViewModel.ViewModel2 property) -->ChildControl3 (uses ViewModel3 which is passed from ViewModel2.ViewModel3 property) I hope this makes sense... My question is how do I retrieve the view data when the form is submitted? It seems the view data cannot bind to the ParentViewModel: public string Save(ParentViewModel viewData)... as viewData.ViewModel1 and viewData.ViewModel2 are always null. Is there a way I can perform a custom binding? Ultimately I need the form to be able to cope with a dynamic number of user controls and perform an asynchronous submission without postback. I'll cross those bridges when I come to them but I mention it now so any answer won't preclude this functionality. Many thanks.

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  • Svn import with auto-props & pre-commit hook

    - by James Tisato
    My company's svn repo has a lot of MS Word docs in it. We've implemented a policy that all .doc files must have the svn:needs-lock property set to prevent parallel access on files that are hard to merge (we've also done this for xls, ppt, pdf etc.). We've implemented the policy by distributing a svn config with auto-props set appropriately for all relevant document types. We've also set up a pre-commit hook that checks that all added files of these types have the needs-lock property set (i.e. if they forget/are too lazy to update their svn config file, they won't be able to add any docs to the repo). The problem I'm having, however, is that the pre-commit hook fails when users try to import files into the repo, e.g. some users like to add files directly thru TortoiseSVN's Repo Browser, which effectively is an svn import. Through testing on other file types, I have seen that doing an import does in fact apply the auto-props listed in my config, but they don't seem to be applied at the point that the pre-commit hook runs. When importing .doc files, the hook fails, saying that the needs-lock property is missing. Is there really much difference between adding a single file to a working copy and committing it vs importing a file directly? Do we need to tailor our precommit hook in some way to cater for this scenario?

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  • IIS7 GrantByDefault

    - by jonot
    I have an application (written in c#) that allow me to set IIS to allow or deny access to a website from all ip addresses. The application works fine for IIS6 however it does not work with IIS 7 (even with IIS 6 WMI Compatibility installed). heres the code (basically) Type typ = this.Entry.Properties[IIsWebDirectoryProperty.IPSecurity][0].GetType(); var securityProp = this.Entry.Properties[IIsWebDirectoryProperty.IPSecurity][0]; typ.InvokeMember("GrantByDefault", BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.SetProperty, null, securityProp, new object[] { IPSecurity.GrantByDefault }); this.Entry.CommitChanges(); I have checked the metabase for both IIS6 and IIS7 using the metabase explorer and the only diffecnce I can see is that the "IPSecurity" property does not appear in IIS7 until you also add a an allow or deny IP address, through IIS Manager. Whats really got me stumped is that even when I edit the feature setting to Deny access in the IIS Manager there is no change to the metabase or to the web.config in the site root! So how/where is this property being set and read from? And how can I set and read value of this property programmatically?

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  • Force ListViewItem Background colour to change when bound item it is bound to changes.

    - by hayrob
    My ItemContainerStyle works perfectly when a ListViewItem is added: <Style x:Key="ItemContStyle" TargetType="{x:Type ListViewItem}"> <Style.Resources> <SolidColorBrush x:Key="lossBrush" Color="Red" /> <SolidColorBrush x:Key="newPartNo" Color="LightGreen" /> <SolidColorBrush x:Key="noSupplier" Color="Yellow" /> <Orders:OrderItemStatusConverter x:Key="OrderItemConverter" /> </Style.Resources> <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}, Path=DataContext, Converter={StaticResource OrderItemConverter}}" Value="-1"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="{StaticResource lossBrush}" /> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self},Path=DataContext, Converter={StaticResource OrderItemConverter}}" Value="-2"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="{StaticResource newPartNo}" /> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self},Path=DataContext, Converter={StaticResource OrderItemConverter}}" Value="-3"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="{StaticResource noSupplier}" /> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> However when the source item changes, the trigger is not fired and the background colour is not what I expect. How can I make the trigger fire?

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  • PRISM - Creating mouseoverbehavior causes a Silverlight library to not be visible in main Silverligh

    - by RHLopez
    Created a simple Silverlight 4 application (SimpleApp) then added a Silverlight 4 library (LibraryA). Added code to the library (LibraryA) to implement MouseOverBehavior by inheriting from CommandBaseBehavior along with the appropriate attached property class/methods. Added reference in SimpleApp to LibraryA and went to MainPage.xaml to add namespace reference but it does not show up with Intellisense. Typing the namespace manually and then adding the attached MouseOver command works as it should as far as intellisense showing my attached property name, i.e. ... commands:MouseOver.Command="{Binding MousedOver}". However when I try to run it I get a XAML parser error saying that the "Command" attached property does not exist in MouseOver. If I move my class definitions from LibraryA to SimpleApp then everything works. I removed everything from LibraryA and just put one class with this in it: public class MouseOverBehavior : CommandBehaviorBase<Control> { public MouseOverBehavior(Control element) : base(element) {} } With this simple class in LibraryA it will not show up in XAML intellisense in SimpleApp. XAML intellisense works with other libraries that I have written that don't use PRISM. Don't know what I am missing hopefully it's something simple. I am using the latest SL4 build for PRISM change set 42969. Visual Studio 2010 RTM Professional in Windows 7 Ultimate 64-bit.

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  • How can I make this work with deep properties

    - by Martin Robins
    Given the following code... class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Foo foo = new Foo { Bar = new Bar { Name = "Martin" }, Name = "Martin" }; DoLambdaStuff(foo, f => f.Name); DoLambdaStuff(foo, f => f.Bar.Name); } static void DoLambdaStuff<TObject, TValue>(TObject obj, Expression<Func<TObject, TValue>> expression) { // Set up and test "getter"... Func<TObject, TValue> getValue = expression.Compile(); TValue stuff = getValue(obj); // Set up and test "setter"... ParameterExpression objectParameterExpression = Expression.Parameter(typeof(TObject)), valueParameterExpression = Expression.Parameter(typeof(TValue)); Expression<Action<TObject, TValue>> setValueExpression = Expression.Lambda<Action<TObject, TValue>>( Expression.Block( Expression.Assign(Expression.Property(objectParameterExpression, ((MemberExpression)expression.Body).Member.Name), valueParameterExpression) ), objectParameterExpression, valueParameterExpression ); Action<TObject, TValue> setValue = setValueExpression.Compile(); setValue(obj, stuff); } } class Foo { public Bar Bar { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } class Bar { public string Name { get; set; } } The call to DoLambdaStuff(foo, f => f.Name) works ok because I am accessing a shallow property, however the call to DoLambdaStuff(foo, f => f.Bar.Name) fails - although the creation of the getValue function works fine, the creation of the setValueExpression fails because I am attempting to access a deep property of the object. Can anybody please help me to modify this so that I can create the setValueExpression for deep properties as well as shallow? Thanks.

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  • pass Validation error to UI element in WPF?

    - by Tony
    I am using IDataErrorInfo to validate my data in a form in WPF. I have the validation implemented in my presenter. The actual validation is happening, but the XAML that's supposed to update the UI and set the style isn't happening. Here it is: <Style x:Key="textBoxInError" TargetType="{x:Type TextBox}"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="Validation.HasError" Value="true"> <Setter Property="ToolTip" Value="{Binding RelativeSource={x:Static RelativeSource.Self}, Path=(Validation.Errors)[0].ErrorContent}"/> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Red"/> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> The problem is that my binding to Validation.Errors contains no data. How do I get this data from the Presenter class and pass it to this XAML so as to update the UI elements? EDIT: Textbox: <TextBox Style="{StaticResource textBoxInError}" Name="txtAge" Height="23" Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="0" HorizontalAlignment="Right" VerticalAlignment="Center" Width="150"> <TextBox.Text> <Binding Path="StrAge" Mode="TwoWay" ValidatesOnDataErrors="True" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged"/> </TextBox.Text> The validation occurs, but the style to be applied when data is invalid is not happening.

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  • Converting a Linq expression tree that relies on SqlMethods.Like() for use with the Entity Framework

    - by JohnnyO
    I recently switched from using Linq to Sql to the Entity Framework. One of the things that I've been really struggling with is getting a general purpose IQueryable extension method that was built for Linq to Sql to work with the Entity Framework. This extension method has a dependency on the Like() method of SqlMethods, which is Linq to Sql specific. What I really like about this extension method is that it allows me to dynamically construct a Sql Like statement on any object at runtime, by simply passing in a property name (as string) and a query clause (also as string). Such an extension method is very convenient for using grids like flexigrid or jqgrid. Here is the Linq to Sql version (taken from this tutorial: http://www.codeproject.com/KB/aspnet/MVCFlexigrid.aspx): public static IQueryable<T> Like<T>(this IQueryable<T> source, string propertyName, string keyword) { var type = typeof(T); var property = type.GetProperty(propertyName); var parameter = Expression.Parameter(type, "p"); var propertyAccess = Expression.MakeMemberAccess(parameter, property); var constant = Expression.Constant("%" + keyword + "%"); var like = typeof(SqlMethods).GetMethod("Like", new Type[] { typeof(string), typeof(string) }); MethodCallExpression methodExp = Expression.Call(null, like, propertyAccess, constant); Expression<Func<T, bool>> lambda = Expression.Lambda<Func<T, bool>>(methodExp, parameter); return source.Where(lambda); } With this extension method, I can simply do the following: someList.Like("FirstName", "mike"); or anotherList.Like("ProductName", "widget"); Is there an equivalent way to do this with Entity Framework? Thanks in advance.

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  • Spring factory beans not always initialised before being used.

    - by aos
    Hi, I am using spring to initialise my beans. I have configured a bean which I intend to use as a factory bean. <bean id="jsServicesFactory" class="x.y.z.JSServicesFactory" /> It is a very basic class - which has 4 getter methods. One example is public final PortletRegistry getPortletRegistry() { PortletRegistry registry = (PortletRegistry) JetspeedPortletServices .getSingleton().getService("PortletRegistryComponent"); return registry; } I have a 2nd bean which uses this factory beans to set one of its properties <bean id="batchManagerService" class="x.y.z.BatchManagerService"> ... <property name="portletRegistry"> <bean factory-bean="jsServicesFactory" factory-method="getPortletRegistry" /> </property> ... When I start my server in RAD, this all works perfectly. However when I deploy to Linux I sometimes get the following error ERROR org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoader - Context initialization failed org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'batchManagerService' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/context/root/batchManagerContext.xml]: Cannot create inner bean 'jsServicesFactory$created#70be70be' while setting bean property 'portletRegistry'; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'jsServicesFactory$created#70be70be' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/context/root/batchManagerContext.xml]: Instantiation of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: Factory method [public final org.apache.jetspeed.components.portletregistry.PortletRegistry x.y.z.JSServicesFactory.getPortletRegistry()] threw exception; nested exception is java.lang.NullPointerException I have tried adding depends-on="jsServicesFactory" to my bean batchManagerService but it didn't work. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • Why can't I initialize a class through a setter?

    - by Rob emenaker
    If I have a custom class called Tires: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface Tires : NSObject { @private NSString *brand; int size; } @property (nonatomic,copy) NSString *brand; @property int size; - (id)init; - (void)dealloc; @end ============================================= #import "Tires.h" @implementation Tires @synthesize brand, size; - (id)init { if (self = [super init]) { [self setBrand:[[NSString alloc] initWithString:@""]]; [self setSize:0]; } return self; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; [brand release]; } @end And I synthesize a setter and getter in my View Controller: #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> #import "Tires.h" @interface testViewController : UIViewController { Tires *frontLeft, *frontRight, *backleft, *backRight; } @property (nonatomic,copy) Tires *frontLeft, *frontRight, *backleft, *backRight; @end ==================================== #import "testViewController.h" @implementation testViewController @synthesize frontLeft, frontRight, backleft, backRight; - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; [self setFrontLeft:[[Tires alloc] init]]; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end It dies after [self setFrontLeft:[[Tires alloc] init]] comes back. It compiles just fine and when I run the debugger it actually gets all the way through the init method on Tires, but once it comes back it just dies and the view never appears. However if I change the viewDidLoad method to: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; frontLeft = [[Tires alloc] init]; } It works just fine. I could just ditch the setter and access the frontLeft variable directly, but I was under the impression I should use setters and getters as much as possible and logically it seems like the setFrontLeft method should work. This brings up an additional question that my coworkers keep asking in these regards (we are all new to Objective-C); why use a setter and getter at all if you are in the same class as those setters and getters.

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  • checkbox like radiobutton wpf c#

    - by rockenpeace
    i have investigated this problem but this is solved in design view and code-behind. but my problem is little difference: i try to do this as only code-behind because my checkboxes are dynamically created according to database data.In other words, number of my checkboxes is not stable. i want to check only one checkbox in group of checkboxes. when i clicked one checkbox,i want that ischecked property of other checkboxes become false.this is same property in radiobuttons. i take my checkboxes from a stackpanel in xaml side: <StackPanel Margin="4" Orientation="Vertical" Grid.Row="1" Grid.Column="1" Name="companiesContainer"> </StackPanel> my xaml.cs: using (var c = new RSPDbContext()) { var q = (from v in c.Companies select v).ToList(); foreach (var na in q) { CheckBox ch = new CheckBox(); ch.Content = na.Name; ch.Tag = na; companiesContainer.Children.Add(ch); } } foreach (object i in companiesContainer.Children) { CheckBox chk = (CheckBox)i; chk.SetBinding(ToggleButton.IsCheckedProperty, "DataItem.IsChecked"); } how can i provide this property in checkboxes in xaml.cs ? thanks in advance..

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  • JAXB does not call setter when unmarshalling objects

    - by Yaneeve
    Hi all, I am using JAXB 2.0 JDK 6 in order to unmarshall an XML instance into POJOs. In order to add some custom validation I have inserted a validation call into the setter of a property, yet despite it being private, it seems that the unmarshaller does not call the setter but directly modifies the private field. It is crucial to me that the custom validation occurs for this specific field every unmarshall call. What should I do? Code: @XmlAccessorType(XmlAccessType.FIELD) @XmlType(name = "LegalParams", propOrder = { "value" }) public class LegalParams { private static final Logger LOG = Logger.getLogger(LegalParams.class); @XmlTransient private LegalParamsValidator legalParamValidator; public LegalParams() { try { WebApplicationContext webApplicationContext = ContextLoader.getCurrentWebApplicationContext(); LegalParamsFactory legalParamsFactory = (LegalParamsFactory) webApplicationContext.getBean("legalParamsFactory"); HttpSession httpSession = SessionHolder.getInstance().get(); legalParamValidator = legalParamsFactory.newLegalParamsValidator(httpSession); } catch (LegalParamsException lpe) { LOG.warn("Validator related error occurred while attempting to construct a new instance of LegalParams"); throw new IllegalStateException("LegalParams creation failure", lpe); } catch (Exception e) { LOG.warn("Spring related error occurred while attempting to construct a new instance of LegalParams"); throw new IllegalStateException("LegalParams creation failure", e); } } @XmlValue private String value; /** * Gets the value of the value property. * * @return * possible object is * {@link String } * */ public String getValue() { return value; } /** * Sets the value of the value property. * * @param value * allowed object is * {@link String } * @throws TestCaseValidationException * */ public void setValue(String value) throws TestCaseValidationException { legalParamValidator.assertValid(value); this.value = value; } }

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  • filterSecurityInterceptor and metadatasource implementation spring-security

    - by Mike
    Hi! I created a class that implements the FilterInvocationSecurityMetadataSource interface. I implemented it like this: public List<ConfigAttribute> getAttributes(Object object) { FilterInvocation fi = (FilterInvocation) object; Object principal = SecurityContextHolder.getContext().getAuthentication().getPrincipal(); Long companyId = ((ExtenededUser) principal).getCompany().getId(); String url = fi.getRequestUrl(); // String httpMethod = fi.getRequest().getMethod(); List<ConfigAttribute> attributes = new ArrayList<ConfigAttribute>(); FilterSecurityService service = (FilterSecurityService) SpringBeanFinder.findBean("filterSecurityService"); Collection<Role> roles = service.getRoles(companyId); for (Role role : roles) { for (View view : role.getViews()) { if (view.getUrl().equalsIgnoreCase(url)) attributes.add(new SecurityConfig(role.getName() + "_" + role.getCompany().getName())); } } return attributes; } when I debug my application I see it reaches this class, it only reaches getAllConfigAttributes method, that is empty as I said, and return null. after that it prints this warning: Could not validate configuration attributes as the SecurityMetadataSource did not return any attributes from getAllConfigAttributes(). My aplicationContext- security is like this: <beans:bean id="filterChainProxy" class="org.springframework.security.web.FilterChainProxy"> <filter-chain-map path-type="ant"> <filter-chain filters="sif,filterSecurityInterceptor" pattern="/**" /> </filter-chain-map> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="filterSecurityInterceptor" class="org.springframework.security.web.access.intercept.FilterSecurityInterceptor"> <beans:property name="authenticationManager" ref="authenticationManager" /> <beans:property name="accessDecisionManager" ref="accessDecisionManager" /> <beans:property name="securityMetadataSource" ref="filterSecurityMetadataSource" /> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="filterSecurityMetadataSource" class="com.mycompany.filter.FilterSecurityMetadataSource"> </beans:bean> what could be the problem?

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  • Removing a view from it's superview causes memory error - why?

    - by mystify
    Xcode is throwing an error at me: malloc: * error for object 0x103f000: pointer being freed was not allocated * set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug I tracked down the code until a line where I do this: - (void)inputValueCommitted:(NSString *)animationID finished:(BOOL)finished context:(void *)context { // retainCount of myView is 2! (one for the retain-property, one for beeing a subview) [self.myView removeFromSuperview]; // ERROR-LINE !! self.myView = nil; } When I remove that errorful line, the error is gone. So in conclusion: I can't get rid of my view! It's an UIImageView with nothing else inside, just showing an image. What I do is this: I create an UIView Animation Block, create that UIImageView, assign it to an retain-property with self.myView = ..., and after the animation is done, I just want to get rid of that view. So I remove it from it's superview and then set my property to nil, which lets it go away - in theory. Did anyone else encounter such issues? iPhone SDK 3.0.

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