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  • How do I export a package symbol to a namespace in Perl?

    - by Mike
    I'm having trouble understanding how to export a package symbol to a namespace. I've followed the documentation almost identically, but it seems to not know about any of the exporting symbols. mod.pm #!/usr/bin/perl package mod; use strict; use warnings; require Exporter; @ISA = qw(Exporter); @EXPORT=qw($a); our $a=(1); 1; test.pl $ cat test.pl #!/usr/bin/perl use mod; print($a); This is the result of running it $ ./test.pl Global symbol "@ISA" requires explicit package name at mod.pm line 10. Global symbol "@EXPORT" requires explicit package name at mod.pm line 11. Compilation failed in require at ./test.pl line 3. BEGIN failed--compilation aborted at ./test.pl line 3. $ perl -version This is perl, v5.8.4 built for sun4-solaris-64int

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  • Entity Framework POCO objects

    - by Dan
    I'm struggling with understanding Entity Framework and POCO objects. Here's what I'm trying to achieve. 1) Separate the DAL from the Business Layer by having my business layer use an interface to my DAL. Maybe use Unity to create my context. 2) Use Entity Framework inside my DAL. I have a Domain model with objects that reside in my business layer. I also have a database full of tables that doesn't really represent my domain model. I setup Entity Framework and generated POCO objects by using the ADO.NET POCO Generator extension. This gave me an object for each table in my database. Now I want to be able to say context.GetAll<User>(); and have it return a list of my User objects. The User object is in my business layer. Is that possible? Does that make sense or am I totally off and should start over? I'm guessing I need to use the repository pattern to achieve this, but I'm not sure. Can anyone help?

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  • Windows Server 2008 R2 File Permissions

    - by Fly_Trap
    I’m having some problems understanding some particular file permissions behaviour. Here are the steps to reproduce: Log into the server using the default Administrator account Create a text file (testfile.txt) in C:\ProgramData containing some arbitrary text Create a new user account and make it a member of the Administrators group Log in using new account and open C:\ProgramData\testfile.txt Edit the text and try to save Upon clicking save I’m presented with the save as dialog, which indicates that i do not have the necessary permissions to edit the file. This seems odd considering that the new user account is a member of Administrators. When I view the permissions of the file I can see the there are three groups listed, System, Administrators and Users. SYSTEM and Administrators have full permissions, however, Users only has the Read & Execute and Read permissions checked. It would appear that when I open the testfile.txt from the new users account, it opens in the context of the Users group, despite being a member of Administrators, is this correct? It would certainly explain the behaviour. The reason that this is an issue for me is that if I deploy an application via 'Run as Administrator', will normal users be able to edit the text files I install to ProgramData. Is this behaviour confined to Windows server or is it the same in Vista and Win7.

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  • DNS protocol message example

    - by virtual-lab
    hello there, I am trying to figure out how to send out DNS messages from an application socket adapter to a DNSBL. I spent the last two days understanding the basics, including experimenting with WireShark to catch an example of message exchanged. Now I would like to query the DNS without using dig or host command (I'm using Ubuntu); how can I perform this action at low level, without the help of these tools in wrapping the request in a proper DNS message format? How the message should be post it? Hex or String? Thanks in advance for any help. Regards Alessandro Ilardo Comment added I am investigating on JDev and Oracle SOA. The platform provides a Socket Adapter which simply apply a transformation (XSLT) and send the message straight to the socket. How the payload parameters (ex. the host I'm looking up) are wrapped within the message is left to the developer. So basically I have an idea on how the all DNS message is structured, but rather than put everything on JDev stright away I'd like to make some tests on my own just to make sure I got a valid message format. So, I am not using any specific language (I don't even understand why they moved my question from serverfault) and I don't want to use any tools which would hide part of the message, such as the header. I know they work well btw. I guess this stuff has something to do with packet injection. Someone suggested me to use telnet, but I've only used for SMTP or HTTP, I haven't got a clue on how it works for DNS request. Does it make more sense now?

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  • Android: SurfaceView and Z-Level Question

    - by JimBadger
    I have a FrameLayout containint first a SurfaceView, and second a RelativeLayout which in turn contians various Buttons and TextViews. Upon the canvas of the SurfaceView I am drawing numerous Bitmaps, and, via Touch and Motion Events am allowing the user to drag them around. These Bitmaps, when dragged around pass underneath the Buttons etc that are inside the RelativeLayout. Now, it's my (possibly mistaken) understanding that the "Z-level" of the SurfaceView, or whatever it has that passes for it, is entirely unrelated to the actual Z-level of the rest of the Layout. Is this the case? If so, how may I get around it, so that dragged Bitmaps are drawn ontop of other Views? Or what other way can I implement a full-screen canvas and yet not have my buttons etc act like the controls of an overlay. I guess what I actually need is an underlay, where touch events can still be picked up by the Buttons etc underneath. But I don't know how to achieve this, as, when redrawing my Canvas, I have to also redraw the background. Can I swap the order of the RelativeLayout and the SurfaceView inside the FrameLayout, and then make the background of the Canvas transparent? If so how? Will touch events still "fall through" to the buttons underneath? Thanks for bearing with me, I know I'm a bit of a waffler.

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  • CSS3PIE issues in IE6 and 8

    - by Gordon
    I'm using CSS3PIE to apply some rounded corners to elements in Internet Explorer that will get them by stylesheet in other browsers. I've run into some issues with it though. In IE8, I discovered that any element that had the PIE behaviour would behave strangely. The container would jump a few pixels to the right, but the content would stay in its original position, giving the appearance that the content had all shifted left relative to its container. This would be especially problematic on elements with no or small amounts of padding. I was able to hack my way around the problem in IE8 by using X-UA-Compatible, but I'd rather avoid this solution if at all possible. I don't have access to IE9 for testing but my understanding hacks like PIE aren't necessary and it would be wasteful to force a compatibility mode in a browser that doesn't need it. I have worse issues in IE6, with the PIE layout breaking down completely on a list that is set up to use display:inline; zoom:1; list items (to simulate inline-block, which works in IE8 and the other browsers). Here the borders of the list items get rendered in completely the wrong place. So ideally, I'd like to have PIE work properly in IE6, and in IE8 without having to resort to compatibility mode. As far as IE6 goes, a graceful fallback where PIE is just not applied will do. IE7 is the only browser where the page displays as intended. I can't provide an example page just at the moment unfortunately, I can add one later though. Follow up: Here are some screen grabs made with IE Tester. I'm hoping they will make things a little more clear for everybody. As you can see, IE7 is fine. However, in IE8, the containers are offset to the left relative to their content, and in IE6 the list elements (with the rounded 1 pixel border) are a complete mess! Full size versions for IE8, IE7 and IE6 are also available

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  • problem with two key ranges in couchdb

    - by Duasto
    I'm having problem getting the right results in my coordinate system. To explain my system, I have this simple database that have x_axis, y_axis and name columns. I don't need to get all the data, I just need to display some part of it. For example, I have a coordinate system that have 10:10(meaning from x_axis -10 to 10 and from y_axis -10 to 10) and I want to display only 49 coordinates. In sql query I can do it something like this: "select * from coordinate where x_axis = -3 and x_axis <= 3 and y_axis = -3 y_axis <= 3" I tried this function but no success: "by_range": { "map": "function(doc) { emit([doc.x_axis, doc.y_axis], doc) }" } by_range?startkey=[-3,-3]&endkey=[3,3] I got a wrong results of: -3x-3 -3x-2 -3x-1 -3x0 -3x1 -3x2 -3x3 <-- should not display this part -- -3x4 -3x5 -3x6 -3x7 -3x8 -3x9 -3x10 <-- end of should not display this part -- ..... up to 3x3 to give you a better understanding of my project here is the screenshot of that I want to be made: Oops they don't allowed new poster to post an image img96(dot)imageshack(dot)us/img96/5382/coordinates(dot)jpg <<< just change the "(dot)" to "."

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  • What is the difference between .get() and .fetch(1)

    - by AutomatedTester
    I have written an app and part of it is uses a URL parser to get certain data in a ReST type manner. So if you put /foo/bar as the path it will find all the bar items and if you put /foo it will return all items below foo So my app has a query like data = Paths.all().filter('path =', self.request.path).get() Which works brilliantly. Now I want to send this to the UI using templates {% for datum in data %} <div class="content"> <h2>{{ datum.title }}</h2> {{ datum.content }} </div> {% endfor %} When I do this I get data is not iterable error. So I updated the Django to {% for datum in data.all %} which now appears to pull more data than I was giving it somehow. It shows all data in the datastore which is not ideal. So I removed the .all from the Django and changed the datastore query to data = Paths.all().filter('path =', self.request.path).fetch(1) which now works as I intended. In the documentation it says The db.get() function fetches an entity from the datastore for a Key (or list of Keys). So my question is why can I iterate over a query when it returns with fetch() but can't with get(). Where has my understanding gone wrong?

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  • Distinct or group by on some columns but not others

    - by Nazadus
    I have a view that I'm trying to filter with something similar to DISTINCT on some columns but not others. I have a view like this: Name LastName Zip Street1 HouseholdID (may not be unique because it may have multiple addresses -- think of it in the logical sense as grouping persons but not physical locations; If you lookup HouseholdID 4130, you may get two rows.. or more, because the person may have mutiple mailing locations) City State I need to pull all those columns but filter on LastName,Zip, and Street1. Here's the fun part: The filter is arbitrary -- meaning I don't care which one of the duplicates goes away. This is for a mail out type thing and the other information is not used for any other reason than than to look up a specific person if needed (I have no idea why). So.. given one of the records, you can easily figure out the removed ones. As it stands now, my Sql-Fu fails me and I'm filtering in C# which is incredibly slow and is pretty much a foreach that starts with an empty list and adds the row in if the combined last name, zip, and street aren't are not in the list. I feel like I'm missing a simple / basic part of SQL that I should be understanding.

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  • Storing a jpa entity where only the timestamp changes results in updates rather than inserts (desire

    - by David Schlenk
    I have a JPA entity that stores a fk id, a boolean and a timestamp: @Entity public class ChannelInUse implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue private Long id; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(nullable = false) private Channel channel; private boolean inUse = false; @Temporal(TemporalType.TIMESTAMP) private Date inUseAt = new Date(); ... } I want every new instance of this entity to result in a new row in the table. For whatever reason no matter what I do it always results in the row getting updated with a new timestamp value rather than creating a new row. Even tried to just use a native query to run an insert but channel's ID wasn't populated yet so I gave up on that. I've tried using an embedded id class consisting of channel.getId and inUseAt. My equals and hashcode for are: public boolean equals(Object obj){ if(this == obj) return true; if(!(obj instanceof ChannelInUse)) return false; ChannelInUse ciu = (ChannelInUse) obj; return ( (this.inUseAt == null ? ciu.inUseAt == null : this.inUseAt.equals(ciu.inUseAt)) && (this.inUse == ciu.inUse) && (this.channel == null ? ciu.channel == null : this.channel.equals(ciu.channel)) ); } /** * hashcode generated from at, channel and inUse properties. */ public int hashCode(){ int hash = 1; hash = hash * 31 + (this.inUseAt == null ? 0 : this.inUseAt.hashCode()); hash = hash * 31 + (this.channel == null ? 0 : this.channel.hashCode()); if(inUse) hash = hash * 31 + 1; else hash = hash * 31 + 0; return hash; } } I've tried using hibernate's Entity annotation with mutable=false. I'm probably just not understanding what makes an entity unique or something. Hit the google pretty hard but can't figure this one out.

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  • Async task ASP.net HttpContext.Current.Items is empty - How do handle this?

    - by GuruC
    We are running a very large web application in asp.net MVC .NET 4.0. Recently we had an audit done and the performance team says that there were a lot of null reference exceptions. So I started investigating it from the dumps and event viewer. My understanding was as follows: We are using Asyn Tasks in our controllers. We rely on HttpContext.Current.Items hashtable to store a lot of Application level values. Task<Articles>.Factory.StartNew(() => { System.Web.HttpContext.Current = ControllerContext.HttpContext.ApplicationInstance.Context; var service = new ArticlesService(page); return service.GetArticles(); }).ContinueWith(t => SetResult(t, "articles")); So we are copying the context object onto the new thread that is spawned from Task factory. This context.Items is used again in the thread wherever necessary. Say for ex: public class SomeClass { internal static int StreamID { get { if (HttpContext.Current != null) { return (int)HttpContext.Current.Items["StreamID"]; } else { return DEFAULT_STREAM_ID; } } } This runs fine as long as number of parallel requests are optimal. My questions are as follows: 1. When the load is more and there are too many parallel requests, I notice that HttpContext.Current.Items is empty. I am not able to figure out a reason for this and this causes all the null reference exceptions. 2. How do we make sure it is not null ? Any workaround if present ? NOTE: I read through in StackOverflow and people have questions like HttpContext.Current is null - but in my case it is not null and its empty. I was reading one more article where the author says that sometimes request object is terminated and it may cause problems since dispose is already called on objects. I am doing a copy of Context object - its just a shallow copy and not a deep copy.

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  • Apache mod_rewrite - forward domain root to subdirectory

    - by DuFace
    I have what I originally assumed to be a simple problem. I am using shared hosting for my website (so I don't have access to the Apache configuration) and have only been given a single folder to store all my content in. This is all well and good but it means that all my subdomains must have their virtual document root's inside public_html, meaning they effectively become a folder on my main domain. What I'd like to do is organise my public_html something like this: public_html/ www/ index.php ... sub1/ index.php ... some_library/ ... This way, all my web content is still in public_html but only a small fraction of it will be served to the client. I can easily achieve this for all the subdomains, but it's the primary domain that I'm having issues with. I created a .htaccess file in public_html with the following: Options +SymLinksIfOwnerMatch # I'm not allowed to use FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/www [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /www/$1 [L] This works fairly well, but for some strange reason www.example.com/stuff is translated into a request for www.example.com/www/stuff and hence a 404 error is given. It was my understanding that unless an 'R' flag was specified, mod_rewrite was purely internal so I can't understand why the request is generated as that implies (to me at least) redirection. I assumed this would be a trivial problem to solve as all I actually want to do is forward all requests for the root of www.example.com to a subdirectory, but I've spent hours searching for answers and none are quite correct. I find it difficult to believe I'm the only person to have this issue. I apologise if this question has been answered on here before, I did search and trawl but couldn't find an appropriate answer. Please could someone shed some light on this?

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  • Is there a recommended way to communicate scientific/engineering programming to C developers?

    - by ggkmath
    Hi, I have a lot of MATLAB code that needs to get ported to C (execution speed is critical for this work) as part of a back-end process for a web application. When I attempt to outsource this code to a C developer, I assume (correct me if I'm wrong) few C developers also understand MATLAB code (things like indexing and memory management are different, etc.). I wonder if there are any C developers out there that can recommend a procedure for me to follow to best communicate what the code does? For example, should I provide the MATLAB code and explain what it's doing line by line? Or, should I just provide the math/algorithm, explain it in plain English, and let the C developer implement it with this understanding in his/her own way (e.g. can I assume the developer understands how to work with complex math (i.e. imaginary numbers), how to generate histograms, perform an FFT, etc.)? Or, is there a better method? I expect I'm not the first to need to do this, so I wonder if any C developers out there ran into this situation and can share any conventional wisdom how they'd like this task to be transferred? Thanks in advance for any comments.

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  • Is it "right" to translate error messages?

    - by Iraklis
    This is somehow subjective depending on the target translation language, but bear with me for a sec. I have recently been involved in a translation project. The goal was to translate the strings of an MVC framework to the Greek language. 70% of the language strings of the framework where translated, however 30% where intentionally left out. The decision was that we will not translate error messages aimed towards the developer of the application. The reasoning behind this (in short) was: are aimed towards designers/programmers. Programmers ( and even designers :) ) should have a basic understanding of English, at least enough so they can search on it on Google if they do not know what it means. (racist?) are aimed towards the developer and in a perfect world should not be displayed to the end user of the application as they concern the inner workings of the web application itself. i.e "You must set the database name in your database config file." and perhaps most importantly, they make the life of the developer harder when he tries to get more information/help regarding the error. For example the above error yields 8 results in Google (in quotes), whereas its Greek translation yields exactly 0. I know that this depends on the popularity of the target translation language and the application itself. For example I'm guessing that there are is vast amount of documentation regarding German SAP error messages (i know, i know, SAP IS German, but you get the point), as opposed to Greek Error Messages documentation regarding random application X which has about 500 installations worldwide. So to summarize: When you develop language translation packs for your applications do you translate error messages? Do you only do for predominant languages like English/Spanish/German/French? Or do you live them intact? I'm not looking for the "right" or "correct" answer, I'm looking for a "best-practices" answer, or if this problem is defined in any "official" standard/policy that you have had experience with.

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  • AutoMapper : Site wide usage of IValueFormatter for given types

    - by CRice
    It is my understanding I can configure AutoMapper in the following way and during mapping it should format all source model dates to the rules defined in the IValueFormatter and set the result to the mapped model. ForSourceType<DateTime>().AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>(); ForSourceType<DateTime?>().AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>(); I get no effect for my mapped class with this. It only works when I do the following: Mapper.CreateMap<Member, MemberForm>().ForMember(x => x.DateOfBirth, y => y.AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>()); I am mapping DateTime? Member.DateOfBirth to string MemberForm.DateOfBirth. The formatter basically creates a short date string from the date. Is there something I am missing when setting the default formatter for a given type? Thanks public class StandardDateFormatter : IValueFormatter { public string FormatValue(ResolutionContext context) { if (context.SourceValue == null) return null; if (!(context.SourceValue is DateTime)) return context.SourceValue.ToNullSafeString(); return ((DateTime)context.SourceValue).ToShortDateString(); } }

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  • VB.NET Two different approaches to generic cross-threaded operations; which is better?

    - by BASnappl
    VB.NET 2010, .NET 4 Hello, I recently read about using SynchronizationContext objects to control the execution thread for some code. I have been using a generic subroutine to handle (possibly) cross-thread calls for things like updating UI controls that utilizes Invoke. I'm an amateur and have a hard time understanding the pros and cons of any particular approach. I am looking for some insight on which approach might be preferable and why. Update: This question is motivated, in part, by statements such as the following from the MSDN page on Control.InvokeRequired. An even better solution is to use the SynchronizationContext returned by SynchronizationContext rather than a control for cross-thread marshaling. Method 1: Public Sub InvokeControl(Of T As Control)(ByVal Control As T, ByVal Action As Action(Of T)) If Control.InvokeRequired Then Control.Invoke(New Action(Of T, Action(Of T))(AddressOf InvokeControl), New Object() {Control, Action}) Else Action(Control) End If End Sub Method 2: Public Sub UIAction(Of T As Control)(ByVal Control As T, ByVal Action As Action(Of Control)) SyncContext.Send(New Threading.SendOrPostCallback(Sub() Action(Control)), Nothing) End Sub Where SyncContext is a Threading.SynchronizationContext object defined in the constructor of my UI form: Public Sub New() InitializeComponent() SyncContext = WindowsFormsSynchronizationContext.Current End Sub Then, if I wanted to update a control (e.g., Label1) on the UI form, I would do: InvokeControl(Label1, Sub(x) x.Text = "hello") or UIAction(Label1, Sub(x) x.Text = "hello") So, what do y'all think? Is one way preferred or does it depend on the context? If you have the time, verbosity would be appreciated! Thanks in advance, Brian

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  • What is the difference between these two linq implementations?

    - by Mahesh Velaga
    I was going through Jon Skeet's Reimplemnting Linq to Objects series. In the implementation of where article, I found the following snippets, but I don't get what is the advantage that we are gettting by splitting the original method into two. Original Method: // Naive validation - broken! public static IEnumerable<TSource> Where<TSource>( this IEnumerable<TSource> source, Func<TSource, bool> predicate) { if (source == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("source"); } if (predicate == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("predicate"); } foreach (TSource item in source) { if (predicate(item)) { yield return item; } } } Refactored Method: public static IEnumerable<TSource> Where<TSource>( this IEnumerable<TSource> source, Func<TSource, bool> predicate) { if (source == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("source"); } if (predicate == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("predicate"); } return WhereImpl(source, predicate); } private static IEnumerable<TSource> WhereImpl<TSource>( this IEnumerable<TSource> source, Func<TSource, bool> predicate) { foreach (TSource item in source) { if (predicate(item)) { yield return item; } } } Jon says - Its for eager validation and then defferring for the rest of the part. But, I don't get it. Could some one please explain it in a little more detail, whats the difference between these 2 functions and why will the validations be performed in one and not in the other eagerly? Conclusion/Solution: I got confused due to my lack of understanding on which functions are determined to be iterator-generators. I assumed that, it is based on signature of a method like IEnumerable<T>. But, based on the answers, now I get it, a method is an iterator-generator if it uses yield statements.

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  • How to change the meaning of pointer access operator

    - by kumar_m_kiran
    Hi All, This may be very obvious question, pardon me if so. I have below code snippet out of my project, #include <stdio.h> class X { public: int i; X() : i(0) {}; }; int main(int argc,char *arv[]) { X *ptr = new X[10]; unsigned index = 5; cout<<ptr[index].i<<endl; return 0; } Question Can I change the meaning of the ptr[index] ? Because I need to return the value of ptr[a[index]] where a is an array for subindexing. I do not want to modify existing source code. Any new function added which can change the behavior is needed. Since the access to index operator is in too many places (536 to be precise) in my code, and has complex formulas inside the index subscript operator, I am not inclined to change the code in many locations. PS : 1. I tried operator overload and came to conclusion that it is not possible. 2. Also p[i] will be transformed into *(p+i). I cannot redefine the basic operator '+'. So just want to reconfirm my understanding and if there are any possible short-cuts to achieve. Else I need fix it by royal method of changing every line of code :) .

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  • Ensuring quality of your software and code

    - by Filip Ekberg
    When I usually write code I follow some guidelines to ensure that my code has a certain standard and I as any other developer try to ensure that my code and software is of quality. Try to focus on the programming and not the understanding of the domain or any other pre-programming steps. These are the following steps I live by: Writing unit tests Make it fail ( no code ) Make it Work ( working code ) Analysing abstraction Extracting methods Exteract interfaces Refactoring In addition to the above which is a part of refactoring, I also try to refactor the code with good tools such as ReSharper, CodeRush or others. The question; What is the next step? Commenting the code is trivial and shouldn't even have to be mentioned, but updated comments and xml-comments where it's needed / everywhere is something that I try to have. But all the above helps he ensure that other developers might understand my code, that the code has some sort of quality and follows naming standards. It does however not ensure any product quality. I am looking for tools for post-development quality ensurance, such as profilers and how one would use these tools to increase product quality.

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  • Why won't my Setup Project Perform my Custom Registration Process

    - by Jordan S
    I am trying to write an Setup Project/Installer for a class library driver that I wrote in C# using Visual Studio 2008. The driver project has a section of code that looks like this... [ComRegisterFunction] public static void RegisterASCOM(Type t) { Trace.WriteLine("Registration Started."); DoRegistration(true); } In the driver project Properties - "Assembly Information" I have set checked the box that says Make COM-Visible = true. I added a Setup Project to the solution in VS, added the output dll from the driver project so that it installs on the target machine and set the Register property of the dll to "vsdraCOM". So, my understanding is that when the installer runs it SHOULD execute the methods of the dll that are marked with [COMRegisterFunction]. Using SysInternals Debug View I can monitor when the above code snippet is hit by watching for the "Registration started" text to show up in the window. When I build the solution, I can see the text show up so I know the driver is registering properly. The problem is that when I run the installer, I don't think it is doing the registration bit. I see nothing show up in Debug View. And if i try to access my driver via another application I get an error saying it "Cannot create ActiveX object". Why does the registration not occur during the install process? The driver does register for COM but it does NOT call my custom registration method. Does anyone have and suggestions of what I could be missing? Is there another way I can debug this? (I can provide more code if anyone want's to take a look!!)

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  • ListView - Index and Position Behavior upon restart()

    - by tunneling
    I am using a ListView with an ArrayAdapter that holds objects. When I select an item, I am capturing the position and index of the selected item. If I scroll down prior to selection, the position and index represent the location of the item in the list. Selecting that items takes me to another activity. When I use the back button to return to the list, it seems that the ListView get's a new position and index for the visible items. As a result, I can't figure out how to reference the selected item during the restart() of the ListView Activity. I have tried to caputure position and index, but as I've said, they change upon returning to the Activity. Is my understanding of the ListView "redraw" correct? Does it renumber my items based on what's visible? -When in the life cycle is getView() called? Is there a way to force an update to the ListView so that my caputured index still points to the same object? Thanks, Jason

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  • How to write a JOIN statement to combine data from disparate tables

    - by Amarundo
    I have the following 2 procedures that I use as my source for a report. As of now, I'm presenting 2 different tables in my SQL Server Reporting Services 2008 R2 report, because it doesn't let me put them together as they belong to 2 different data sets. I want to present them in a single table, but I have not been successful trying to use JOIN here. How do I do that? NOTE: cName in IAgentQueueStats corresponds to UserId in AgentActivityLog. /*** Aggregate values for Call Center Agents for calls, talk and hold time ***/ /*** The detail/row values is per 30-minute interval ***/ ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[sp_IAgentQueueStats_OnlyCalls_Grouped] @p_StartDate datetime, @p_EndDate datetime, @p_Agents varchar(8000) AS SELECT [cName] ,sum([nAnswered]) SumNAnswered ,sum([nAnsweredAcd]) SumNAnsweredAcd ,sum([tTalkAcd]) SumTTalkAcd ,sum([nHoldAcd]) SumNHoldAcd ,sum([tHoldAcd]) SumTHoldAcd ,sum([tAcw]) SumTAcw FROM [I3_IC].[dbo].[IAgentQueueStats] WHERE dIntervalStart between @p_StartDate and DATEADD(s, 86400-1, @p_EndDate) AND CHARINDEX ( cName ,@p_Agents)> 0 AND cReportGroup <> '*' AND cHKey3 = '*' and cHKey4 ='*' AND nEnteredAcd > 0 AND cReportGroup <> 'CCFax Email' GROUP BY cName And here is the second one: /*** Aggregate values for Call Center Agents for status/activity time ***/ /*** The detail/row values is per start-time/end-time ***/ ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[sp_AgentActivity_Grouped] @p_StartDate datetime, @p_EndDate datetime, @p_Agents varchar(8000) AS SELECT [UserId],[StatusCategory],SUM([StateDuration]) [StatusDuration] FROM ( SELECT [UserId] ,[StatusGroup] ,[StatusKey] , CASE [StatusKey] WHEN 'Available' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'Follow Up' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'Campaign Call' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'Awaiting Callback' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'In a Meeting' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'Project Work' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'At a Training Session'THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'System Issues' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'Test' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'At Lunch' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Available, Forward' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Available, Follow-Me' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'At Play' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'AcdAgentNotAnswering' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Do Not Disturb' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Available, No ACD' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Away from desk' THEN 'Non Productive' ELSE [StatusKey] END StatusCategory ,stateduration FROM [I3_IC].[dbo].[AgentActivityLog] WHERE [StatusDateTime] between @p_StartDate and DATEADD(s, 86400-1, @p_EndDate) AND CHARINDEX ( [UserId] ,@p_Agents)> 0 AND [StatusKey] not in ('Gone Home','Out of the Office','On Vacation','Out of Town') ) a GROUP BY [UserId],[StatusCategory] ORDER BY [UserId], [StatusCategory] desc BTW, if I take some time to comment/reply on your posts, it's not lack of interest, but of understanding...

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  • Connection Pool Strategy: Good, Bad or Ugly?

    - by Drew
    I'm in charge of developing and maintaining a group of Web Applications that are centered around similar data. The architecture I decided on at the time was that each application would have their own database and web-root application. Each application maintains a connection pool to its own database and a central database for shared data (logins, etc.) A co-worker has been positing that this strategy will not scale because having so many different connection pools will not be scalable and that we should refactor the database so that all of the different applications use a single central database and that any modifications that may be unique to a system will need to be reflected from that one database and then use a single pool powered by Tomcat. He has posited that there is a lot of "meta data" that goes back and forth across the network to maintain a connection pool. My understanding is that with proper tuning to use only as many connections as necessary across the different pools (low volume apps getting less connections, high volume apps getting more, etc.) that the number of pools doesn't matter compared to the number of connections or more formally that the difference in overhead required to maintain 3 pools of 10 connections is negligible compared to 1 pool of 30 connections. The reasoning behind initially breaking the systems into a one-app-one-database design was that there are likely going to be differences between the apps and that each system could make modifications on the schema as needed. Similarly, it eliminated the possibility of system data bleeding through to other apps. Unfortunately there is not strong leadership in the company to make a hard decision. Although my co-worker is backing up his worries only with vagueness, I want to make sure I understand the ramifications of multiple small databases/connections versus one large database/connection pool.

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  • do the Python libraries have a natural dependence on the global namespace?

    - by msw
    I first ran into this when trying to determine the relative performance of two generators: t = timeit.repeat('g.get()', setup='g = my_generator()') So I dug into the timeit module and found that the setup and statement are evaluated with their own private, initially empty namespaces so naturally the binding of g never becomes accessible to the g.get() statement. The obvious solution is to wrap them into a class, thus adding to the global namespace. I bumped into this again when attempting, in another project, to use the multiprocessing module to divide a task among workers. I even bundled everything nicely into a class but unfortunately the call pool.apply_async(runmc, arg) fails with a PicklingError because buried inside the work object that runmc instantiates is (effectively) an assignment: self.predicate = lambda x, y: x > y so the whole object can't be (understandably) pickled and whereas: def foo(x, y): return x > y pickle.dumps(foo) is fine, the sequence bar = lambda x, y: x > y yields True from callable(bar) and from type(bar), but it Can't pickle <function <lambda> at 0xb759b764>: it's not found as __main__.<lambda>. I've given only code fragments because I can easily fix these cases by merely pulling them out into module or object level defs. The bug here appears to be in my understanding of the semantics of namespace use in general. If the nature of the language requires that I create more def statements I'll happily do so; I fear that I'm missing an essential concept though. Why is there such a strong reliance on the global namespace? Or, what am I failing to understand? Namespaces are one honking great idea -- let's do more of those!

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  • Android lifecycle of thread-based game

    - by ehehhh
    I ran into a bit of trouble while trying to get my game to work correctly after being put to the background by the user or a phone call for example. My app has a SurfaceView class called GameView, which has the onDraw() method to do all the necessary drawing for my game and two threads - one for calling the onDraw() and one for doing the necessary calculations for the game's logic. I succesfully implemented onPause() and onResume(). (I paused both threads when back button was pressed and resumed them after user cancelled in the AlertDialog.) Now I would like to have the game paused the same way when onStop() gets called. I put both threads on pause and saved my characters location in the savedInstanceState, but when I start my app again, no method gets called (I checked with Logcat). I believe onRestart() should be called first, then onStart() and then onResume(), but none of that happens. What am I doing wrong? (Didn't include any code, because it seems to be a problem of me not understanding the lifecycle, not a problem in code. If it seems necessary, I'll post the parts you request.)

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