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• Core Data: Deleting causes 'NSObjectInaccessibleException' from NSOperation with a reference to a deleted object

  - by Bryan Irace

  My application has NSOperation subclasses that fetch and operate on managed objects. My application also periodically purges rows from the database, which can result in the following race condition: An background operation fetches a bunch of objects (from a thread-specific context). It will iterate over these objects and do something with their properties. A bunch of rows are deleted in the main managed object context. The background operation accesses a property on an object that was deleted from the main context. This results in an 'NSObjectInaccessibleException', reason: 'CoreData could not fulfill a fault' Ideally, the objects that are fetched by the NSOperation can be operated on even if one is deleted in the main context. The best way I can think to achieve this is either to: Call [request setReturnsObjectsAsFaults:NO] to ensure that Core Data won't try to fulfill a fault for an object that no longer exists in the main context. The problem here is I may need to access the object's relationships, which (to my understanding) will still be faulted. Iterate through the managed objects up front and copy the properties I will need into separate non-managed objects. The problem here is that (I think) I will need to synchronize/lock this part, in case an object is deleted in the main context before I can finish copying. Am I missing something obvious? It doesn't seem like what I'm trying to accomplish is too out of the ordinary. Thanks for your help.

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• Why is JavaMail Transport.send() a static method?

  - by skiphoppy

  I'm revising code I did not write that uses JavaMail, and having a little trouble understanding why the JavaMail API is designed the way it is. I have the feeling that if I understood, I could be doing a better job. We call: transport = session.getTransport("smtp"); transport.connect(hostName, port, user, password); So why is Eclipse warning me that this: transport.send(message, message.getAllRecipients()); is a call to a static method? Why am I getting a Transport object and providing settings that are specific to it if I can't use that object to send the message? How does the Transport class even know what server and other settings to use to send the message? It's working fine, which is hard to believe. What if I had instantiated Transport objects for two different servers; how would it know which one to use? In the course of writing this question, I've discovered that I should really be calling: transport.sendMessage(message, message.getAllRecipients()); So what is the purpose of the static Transport.send() method? Is this just poor design, or is there a reason it is this way?

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• ASP.NET: How to get same validators control to be both client-side and server-side

  - by harrije

  Hello, For the ASP.NET validator controls, I want to use both client-side validation for the user experience and server-side validation to guard against hackers. ASP.NET documentation leads me to believe that if EnableClientScript="True" then there will be no server-side validation if client-side validation is possible for the user agent. To get server-side validation, the documentation says use EnableClientScript="False", which bypasses client-side validation altogether. Am I misunderstanding how the validator controls work? I ask because it seems obvious that many developers would want both client and server side validation together, and I find it hard to believe both together is not possible with one of the standard validation controls. If I am understanding the ASP.NET documentation correctly, then I can find only two options: Use two validator controls exactly the same except for their ID and EnableClientScript properties. Obviously ugly for maintaining two controls almost the same. Write some code behind to check if postback then invoke the Validate method on the validator group. Why write code behind if there a way to be automatic from the control? Is there a way to do so using a single validator control with no code behind? Thanks in advance for your input.

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• What is wrong with accessing DBI directly?

  - by canavanin

  Hi everyone! I'm currently reading Effective Perl Programming (2nd edition). I have come across a piece of code which was described as being poorly written, but I don't yet understand what's so bad about it, or how it should be improved. It would be great if someone could explain the matter to me. Here's the code in question: sub sum_values_per_key { my ( $class, $dsn, $user, $password, $parameters ) = @_; my %results; my $dbh = DBI->connect( $dsn, $user, $password, $parameters ); my $sth = $dbh->prepare( 'select key, calculate(value) from my_table'); $sth->execute(); # ... fill %results ... $sth->finish(); $dbh->disconnect(); return \%results; } The example comes from the chapter on testing your code (p. 324/325). The sentence that has left me wondering about how to improve the code is the following: Since the code was poorly written and accesses DBI directly, you'll have to create a fake DBI object to stand in for the real thing. I have probably not understood a lot of what the book has so far been trying to teach me, or I have skipped the section relevant for understanding what's bad practice about the above code... Well, thanks in advance for your help!

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• Generic InBetween Function.

  - by Luiscencio

  I am tired of writing x > min && x < max so i wawnt to write a simple function but I am not sure if I am doing it right... actually I am not cuz I get an error: bool inBetween<T>(T x, T min, T max) where T:IComparable { return (x > min && x < max); } errors: Operator '>' cannot be applied to operands of type 'T' and 'T' Operator '<' cannot be applied to operands of type 'T' and 'T' may I have a bad understanding of the where part in the function declaring note: for those who are going to tell me that I will be writing more code than before... think on readability =) any help will be appreciated EDIT deleted cuz it was resolved =) ANOTHER EDIT so after some headache I came out with this (ummm) thing following @Jay Idea of extreme readability: public static class test { public static comparision Between<T>(this T a,T b) where T : IComparable { var ttt = new comparision(); ttt.init(a); ttt.result = a.CompareTo(b) > 0; return ttt; } public static bool And<T>(this comparision state, T c) where T : IComparable { return state.a.CompareTo(c) < 0 && state.result; } public class comparision { public IComparable a; public bool result; public void init<T>(T ia) where T : IComparable { a = ia; } } } now you can compare anything with extreme readability =) what do you think.. I am no performance guru so any tweaks are welcome

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• Transaction to find an entity - locks all entities of that type?

  - by user246114

  Hi, Reading the docs for transactions: http://code.google.com/appengine/docs/java/datastore/transactions.html An example provided shows one way to make an instance of an object: try { tx.begin(); Key k = KeyFactory.createKey("SalesAccount", id); try { account = pm.getObjectById(Employee.class, k); } catch (JDOObjectNotFoundException e) { account = new SalesAccount(); account.setId(id); } ... When the above transaction gets executed, it will probably block all other write attempts on Account objects? I'm wondering because I'd like to have a user signup which checks for a username or email already in use: tx.begin(); "select from User where mUsername == str1 LIMIT 1"; if (count > 0) { throw new Exception("username already in use!"); } "select from User where mEmail == str1 LIMIT 1"; if (count > 0) { throw new Exception("email already in use!"); } pm.makePersistent(user(username, email)); // ok. tx.commit(); but the above would be even more time consuming I think, making an even worse bottleneck? Am I understanding what will happen correctly? Thanks

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• Fluent NHibernate Repository with subclasses

  - by reallyJim

  Having some difficulty understanding the best way to implement subclasses with a generic repository using Fluent NHibernate. I have a base class and two subclasses, say: public abstract class Person { public virtual int PersonId { get; set; } public virtual string FirstName { get; set; } public virtual string LastName { get; set; } } public class Student : Person { public virtual decimal GPA { get; set; } } public class Teacher : Person { public virtual decimal Salary { get; set; } } My Mappings are as follows: public class PersonMap : ClassMap { public PersonMap() { Table("Persons"); Id(x => x.PersonId).GeneratedBy.Identity(); Map(x => x.FirstName); Map(x => x.LastName); } } public class StudentMap : SubclassMap<Student> { public StudentMap() { Table("Students"); KeyColumn("PersonId"); Map(x => x.GPA); } } public class TeacherMap : SubclassMap<Teacher> { public TeacherMap() { Table("Teachers"); KeyColumn("PersonId"); Map(x => x.Salary); } } I use a generic repository to save/retreive/update the entities, and it works great--provided I'm working with Repository--where I already know that I'm working with students or working with teachers. The problem I run into is this: What happens when I have an ID, and need to determine the TYPE of person? If a user comes to my site as PersonId = 23, how do I go about figuring out which type of person it is?

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• Returning c_str from a function

  - by user199421

  This is from a small library that I found online: const char* GetHandStateBrief(const PostFlopState* state) { static std::ostringstream out; ... rest of the function ... return out.str().c_str() Now in my code I am doing this: const char *d = GetHandStateBrief(&post); std::cout<< d << std::endl; Now, at first d contained garbage. I then realized that the c string I am getting from the function is destroyed when the function returns because std::ostringstream is allocated on the stack. So I added: return strdup( out.str().c_str()); And now I can get the text I need from the function. I have two questions: 1) Am I understanding this correctly? 2) I later noticed that the ostringstream was was allocated with static storage. Doesn't that mean that the object is supposed to stay in memory until the program terminates? and if so , then why can't I access the string?

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• How is a functional programming-based javascript app laid out?

  - by user321521

  I've been working with node.js for awhile on a chat app (I know, very original, but I figured it'd be a good learning project). Underscore.js provides a lot of functional programming concepts which look interesting, so I'd like to understand how a functional program in javascript would be setup. From my understanding of functional programming (which may be wrong), the whole idea is to avoid side effects, which are basically having a function which updates another variable outside of the function so something like var external; function foo() { external = 'bar'; } foo(); would be creating a side effect, correct? So as a general rule, you want to avoid disturbing variables in the global scope. Ok, so how does that work when you're dealing with objects and what not? For example, a lot of times, I'll have a constructor and an init method that initializes the object, like so: var Foo = function(initVars) { this.init(initVars); } Foo.prototype.init = function(initVars) { this.bar1 = initVars['bar1']; this.bar2 = initVars['bar2']; //.... } var myFoo = new Foo({'bar1': '1', 'bar2': '2'}); So my init method is intentionally causing side effects, but what would be a functional way to handle the same sort of situation? Also, if anyone could point me to either a python or javascript source code of a program that tries to be as functional as possible, that would also be much appreciated. I feel like I'm close to "getting it", but I'm just not quite there. Mainly I'm interested in how functional programming works with traditional OOP classes concept (or does away with it for something different if that's the case).

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• .Net lambda expression-- where did this parameter come from?

  - by larryq

  I'm a lambda newbie, so if I'm missing vital information in my description please tell me. I'll keep the example as simple as possible. I'm going over someone else's code and they have one class inheriting from another. Here's the derived class first, along with the lambda expression I'm having trouble understanding: class SampleViewModel : ViewModelBase { private ICustomerStorage storage = ModelFactory<ICustomerStorage>.Create(); public ICustomer CurrentCustomer { get { return (ICustomer)GetValue(CurrentCustomerProperty); } set { SetValue(CurrentCustomerProperty, value); } } private int quantitySaved; public int QuantitySaved { get { return quantitySaved; } set { if (quantitySaved != value) { quantitySaved = value; NotifyPropertyChanged(p => QuantitySaved); //where does 'p' come from? } } } public static readonly DependencyProperty CurrentCustomerProperty; static SampleViewModel() { CurrentCustomerProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("CurrentCustomer", typeof(ICustomer), typeof(SampleViewModel), new UIPropertyMetadata(ModelFactory<ICustomer>.Create())); } //more method definitions follow.. Note the call to NotifyPropertyChanged(p => QuantitySaved) bit above. I don't understand where the "p" is coming from. Here's the base class: public abstract class ViewModelBase : DependencyObject, INotifyPropertyChanged, IXtremeMvvmViewModel { public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; protected virtual void NotifyPropertyChanged<T>(Expression<Func<ViewModelBase, T>> property) { MvvmHelper.NotifyPropertyChanged(property, PropertyChanged); } } There's a lot in there that's not germane to the question I'm sure, but I wanted to err on the side of inclusiveness. The problem is, I don't understand where the 'p' parameter is coming from, and how the compiler knows to (evidently?) fill in a type value of ViewModelBase from thin air? For fun I changed the code from 'p' to 'this', since SampleViewModel inherits from ViewModelBase, but I was met with a series of compiler errors, the first one of which statedInvalid expression term '=>' This confused me a bit since I thought that would work. Can anyone explain what's happening here?

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• How do I use price data in one table for a calculation that is stored in another table?

  - by shane

  I'm still leanring PHP/MySQL but have learned quite a bit thanks to codies on StackOverflow. I'm trying to setup a sort of room reservations system using two tables: SETUP: Room price table: Has, prices for a type room a client may want to rent as well as the dates (day of week) they wish to use it. Pricing varies based on day of the week and per room. I've setup a different table for each room type as each room type carries different pricing for each day of the week. So, There is an Alpha room table, Bravo room, etc. Within Alpha table are headers for the days of the week with pricing pre-entered into the rows. Client info table: Has the name, address, date of room use, etc data for the specific client. EXAMPLE: Alpha-room price table: Sun = $100; Mon = $200; Tue=$300 and so on. Bravo-room price table: Sun = $100; Mon = $200; Tue=$300 and so on. Client data table: ClientName; date-of-room-use; address; day_subtotal; grand_total. QUESTION: I'm trying to find PHP code that will: look at the date of room use in the client data table, look up the associated cost for that date in the specific room pricing table, record that unit cost in the day subtotal of the client data table and sum a grand total in the grand total row of the client data table (assuming the room may be used more than one day by the customer). I know there's something to do with join but I'm finding it difficult to grasp the concept and, if someone can demonstrate using this example, I think I will have a better understanding of how to work this sort of transaction. Thank you ALL in advance for your suggestions or alternatvie approaches.

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• SQL Server INSERT, Scope_Identity() and physical writing to disc

  - by TheBlueSky

  Hello everyone, I have a stored procedure that does, among other stuff, some inserts in different table inside a loop. See the example below for clearer understanding: INSERT INTO T1 VALUES ('something') SET @MyID = Scope_Identity() ... some stuff go here INSERT INTO T2 VALUES (@MyID, 'something else') ... The rest of the procedure These two tables (T1 and T2) have an IDENTITY(1, 1) column in each one of them, let's call them ID1 and ID2; however, after running the procedure in our production database (very busy database) and having more than 6250 records in each table, I have noticed one incident where ID1 does not match ID2! Although normally for each record inserted in T1, there is record inserted in T2 and the identity column in both is incremented consistently. The "wrong" records were something like that: ID1 Col1 ---- --------- 4709 data-4709 4710 data-4710 ID2 ID1 Col1 ---- ---- --------- 4709 4710 data-4709 4710 4709 data-4710 Note the "inverted", ID1 in the second table. Knowing not that much about SQL Server underneath operations, I have put the following "theory", maybe someone can correct me on this. What I think is that because the loop is faster than physically writing to the table, and/or maybe some other thing delayed the writing process, the records were buffered. When it comes the time to write them, they were wrote in no particular order. Is that even possible if no, how to explain the above mentioned scenario? If yes, then I have another question to rise. What if the first insert (from the code above) got delayed? Doesn't that mean I won't get the correct IDENTITY to insert into the second table? If the answer of this is also yes, what can I do to insure the insertion in the two tables will happen in sequence with the correct IDENTITY? I appreciate any comment and information that help me understand this. Thanks in advance.

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• Beginner Question: For extract a large subset of a table from MySQL, how does Indexing, order of tab

  - by chongman

  Sorry if this is too simple, but thanks in advance for helping. This is for MySQL but might be relevant for other RDMBSs tblA has 4 columns: colA, colB, colC, mydata, A_id It has about 10^9 records, with 10^3 distinct values for colA, colB, colC. tblB has 3 columns: colA, colB, B_id It has about 10^4 records. I want all the records from tblA (except the A_id) that have a match in tblB. In other words, I want to use tblB to describe the subset that I want to extract and then extract those records from tblA. Namely: SELECT a.colA, a.colB, a.colC, a.mydata FROM tblA as a INNER JOIN tblB as b ON a.colA=b.colA a.colB=b.colB ; It's taking a really long time (more than an hour) on a newish computer (4GB, Core2Quad, ubuntu), and I just want to check my understanding of the following optimization steps. ** Suppose this is the only query I will ever run on these tables. So ignore the need to run other queries. Now my questions: 1) What indexes should I create to optimize this query? I think I just need a multiple index on (colA, colB) for both tables. I don't think I need separate indexes for colA and colB. Another stack overflow article (that I can't find) mentioned that when adding new indexes, it is slower when there are existing indexes, so that might be a reason to use the multiple index. 2) Is INNER JOIN correct? I just want results where a match is found. 3) Is it faster if I join (tblA to tblB) or the other way around, (tblB to tblA)? This previous answer says that the optimizer should take care of that. 4) Does the order of the part after ON matter? This previous answer say that the optimizer also takes care of the execution order.

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• How do I get into a career as a programmer/development DBA?

  - by markle976

  About 8-9 years ago I started getting into programming as a hobby. I started with my TI-86 calculator, and then moved into using Visual Basic. After about a year I started playing around with HTML and JavaScript. Then I discovered Flash; I programmed with Actionscript 2.0 for about 2 years which lead me to start using Coldfusion. After a while I realized that A) I am not a designer, and B) with the way that things were going with AJAX, .NET, and PHP there wasn’t much future in Coldfusion/Actionscript. I had been working mostly as an administrative assistant, but about 3-4 years ago I got a position where I would be doing some web development, and assisting the system admin with supporting windows desktop PCs. I have gotten some decent experience over the past few years, but it has been spread out in somewhat disparate areas: I spend about 40% of my time writing PHP/MySQL and HTML/CSS, etc. I spend about 20% of my time helping users with PC questions. I spend about 20% of my time doing administrative things (mail-merges, excel, etc). I spend about 20% of my time managing / creating reports from our Access Database. I have also taught myself many things on my own, and now have a beginner’s level understanding of things like: Windows Server, Java, Linux, Objective-C, SQL Server, C#, C++, Ruby, Mac OSX, VBA, VBScript, and basic IP networks. I feel like I am in a bit of a rut – I want to get my career moving, but I am not sure what I need to do. If I practice with C# and SQL Server Express for a year will that be enough to get me in the door somewhere? Would it be easier to get a position if I teach myself Linux/Apache since I have more experience with PHP/MySQL?

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• about c# OBJECTS and the Possibilties it has.

  - by user527825

  As a novice programmer and i always wonder about c# capabilities.i know it is still early to judge that but all i want to know is can c# do complex stuffs or something outside windows OS. 1- I think c# is a proprietary language (i don't know if i said that right) meaning you can't do it outside visual studio or windows. 2-also you cant create your own controller(called object right?) like you are forced to use these available in toolbox and their properties and methods. 3-can c# be used with openGL API or DirectX API . 4-Finally it always bothers me when i think i start doing things in visual studio, i know it sounds arrogant to say but sometimes i feel that i don't like to be forced to use something even if its helpful, like i feel (do i have the right to feel?) that i want to do all things by myself? don't laugh i just feel that this will give me a better understanding. 5- is visual c# is like using MaxScript inside 3ds max in that c# is exclusive to do windows and forms and components that are windows related and maxscript is only for 3d editing and manipulation for various things in the software. If it is too difficult for a beginner i hope you don't answer the fourth question as i don't have enough motivation and i want to keep the little i have. thank you for your time. Note: 1-sorry for my English, i am self taught and never used the language with native speakers so expect so errors. 2-i have a lot of questions regarding many things, what is the daily ratio you think for asking (number of questions) that would not bother the admins of the site and the members here. thank you for your time.

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• NSTimer as a timeout mechanism

  - by alexantd

  I'm pretty sure this is really simple, and I'm just missing something obvious. I have an app that needs to download data from a web service for display in a UITableView, and I want to display a UIAlertView if the operation takes more than X seconds to complete. So this is what I've got (simplified for brevity): MyViewController.h @interface MyViewController : UIViewController <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource> { NSTimer *timer; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSTimer *timer; MyViewController.m @implementation MyViewController @synthesize timer; - (void)viewDidLoad { timer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:20 target:self selector:@selector(initializationTimedOut:) userInfo:nil repeats:NO]; [self doSomethingThatTakesALongTime]; [timer invalidate]; } - (void)doSomethingThatTakesALongTime { sleep(30); // for testing only // web service calls etc. go here } - (void)initializationTimedOut:(NSTimer *)theTimer { // show the alert view } My problem is that I'm expecting the [self doSomethingThatTakesALongTime] call to block while the timer keeps counting, and I'm thinking that if it finishes before the timer is done counting down, it will return control of the thread to viewDidLoad where [timer invalidate] will proceed to cancel the timer. Obviously my understanding of how timers/threads work is flawed here because the way the code is written, the timer never goes off. However, if I remove the [timer invalidate], it does.

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• Learning Basic Mathematics

  - by NeedsToKnow

  I'm going to just come out and say it. I'm 20 and can't do maths. Two years ago I passed the end-of-high-school mathematics exam (but not at school), and did pretty well. Since then, I haven't done a scrap of mathematics. I wondered just how bad I had gotten, so I was looking at some simple algebra problems. You know, the kind you learn halfway through highschool. 5(-3x - 2) - (x - 3) = -4(4x + 5) + 13 Couldn't do them. I've got half a year left until I start a Computer Science undergraduate degree. I love designing and creating programs, and I remember I loved mathematics back when I did it. Basically, I've had a pretty bad education, but I want to be knowledgable in these areas. I was thinking of buying some high school textbooks and reading them, but I'm not sure this is the right way to go. I need to start off at some basic level and work towards a greater understanding. My question is: What should I study, how should I study, and what books can you recommend? Thanks!

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• can javascript process binary data?

  - by Johnny

  admit me describe my questions in situation-oriented way: assume IE is still the dominate web browser(the firefox have document for binary processing): the XMLHttpRequest.responseText or XMLHttpRequest.responseXML in ie desire txt or xml/xhtml/html,but what about the server response the xmlHttprequest whith MIME TYPE application/octet ? would the response string all little than 256 ?(every char of that string < 256), thanks very much for a straight answer, i have no webserver env,so i don't know how to test it out. because use txt or xml have a issue of character set encode, and i don't know how to process #[[[CDDATA node of one encoded xml(ex : utf-8,ascii,gb18030) with javascript, when i getNodeText, does the docObj return me byte or decoded char ? if it was decoded char which according to the header indicated charSet in the httpresponse , it would be all wrong. to avoid mess up with charSet ,i would like the server to response octet data and force strings data to be encoded as utf-8 but another charSet in the binary format. if the response is octal, so i guess the browser would not try to decode the response"txt" does this weird? or miss understanding the fundamental things? EDIT: I believe the question is asking this: Can Javascript safely process strings that aren't encoded in Unicode? What are the problems with trying to do so? EDIT: no no no , i means if http-header: content-type is "application/octet" , would the ie try to decoded it as (16bits Unicode | ie local setting charset ) when i get XMLHttpRequestobj.responseText use javascript ? or it(ie) just wrap every single byte of the response body as a javascript string, then every char in that string little than or equal 256 (char<=256), am i talking Mars language? sadly, if i were Marsizen,i would come as tourist without fuzzy questions. however i am in a country which share at least one property with Mars : RED

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• LNK 1104 error to lib file - Continues despite removing includes and links

  - by user1556594

  A link error to a lib file popped up out of the blue in a c++ application of mine after code was working fine in my last session. Error 1 error LNK1104: cannot open file '..........\Program Files (x86)\FMOD SoundSystem\FMOD Programmers API Windows\api\lib\fmodex_vc.lib' I triple checked my project directories were set up correctly to link to the lib file, that the file existed in said directory and that it was a working version of the .lib. My next step was to remove the includes to the file and the links to bypass the error and work on the rest of my code until the problem was solved. The error remains, however, despite: Commenting out absolutely every include relating to the lib. Commenting out absolutely every line of code dependant on the includes. Removing the directory from VC++ Directories in the project properties. Checking the Additional Library Directories field was also clear of references. To my understanding this should have made the library and related code virtually non-existant to the compiler. What am I missing? The library itself is fmodex_vc.lib - part of the FMOD API for providing sound to interactive applications. Again, the application was working one session, but failed to compile the next. I hadn't touched the code since so this led me to believe some aspect of VS is at fault. I'd like to avoid the time involded in re-installing if possible as I'm on the clock for a review tomorrow evening and there are a few more things I'd like to smooth out before then. If necessary, however, I won't hesitate. Very much appreciate the help.

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• How memset initializes an array of integers by -1?

  - by haccks

  The manpage says about memset: #include <string.h> void *memset(void *s, int c, size_t n) The memset() function fills the first n bytes of the memory area pointed to by s with the constant byte c. It is clear that memset can't be used to initialize int array as shown below: int a[10]; memset(a, 1, sizeof(a)); it is because int is represented by 4 bytes (say) and one can not get the desired value for the integers in array a. But I often see the programmers use memset to set the int array elements to either 0 or -1. int a[10]; int b[10]; memset(a, 0, sizeof(a)); memset(b, -1, sizeof(b)); As per my understanding, initializing with integer 0 is OK because 0 can be represented in 1 byte (may be I am wrong in this context). But how it is possible to initialize b with -1 (a 4 bytes value)?

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• setBit java method using bit shifting and hexadecimal code - question

  - by somewhat_confused

  I am having trouble understanding what is happening in the two lines with the 0xFF7F and the one below it. There is a link here that explains it to some degree. http://www.herongyang.com/java/Bit-String-Set-Bit-to-Byte-Array.html I don't know if 0xFF7FposBit) & oldByte) & 0x00FF are supposed to be 3 values 'AND'ed together or how this is supposed to be read. If anyone can clarify what is happening here a little better, I would greatly appreciate it. private static void setBit(byte[] data, final int pos, final int val) { int posByte = pos/8; int posBit = pos%8; byte oldByte = data[posByte]; oldByte = (byte) (((0xFF7F>>posBit) & oldByte) & 0x00FF); byte newByte = (byte) ((val<<(8-(posBit+1))) | oldByte); data[posByte] = newByte; } passed into this method as parameters from a selectBits method was setBit(out,i,val); out = is byte[] out = new byte[numOfBytes]; (numOfBytes can be 7 in this situation) i = which is number [57], the original number from the PC1 int array holding the 56-integers. val = which is the bit taken from the byte array from the getBit() method.

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• SqlCeResultSet Problem

  - by Vlad

  Hello, I have a SmartDevice project (.NetCF 2.0) configured to be tested on the USA Windows Mobile 5.0 Pocket PC R2 Emulator. My project uses SqlCe 3.0. Understanding that a SmartDevice project is "more carefull" with the device's memory I am using SqlCeResultSets. The result sets are strongly typed, autogenerated by Visual Studio 2008 using the custom tool MSResultSetGenerator. The problem I am facing is that the result set does not recognize any column names. The autogenerated code for the fields does not work. In the client code I am using InfoResultSet rs = new InfoResultSet(); rs.Open(); rs.ReadFirst(); string myFormattedDate = rs.MyDateColumn.ToString("dd/MM/yyyy"); When the execution on the emulator reaches the rs.MyDateColumn the application throws an System.IndexOutOfRangeException. Investigating the stack trace at System.Data.SqlServerCe.FieldNameLookup.GetOrdinal() at System.Data.SqlServerCe.SqlCeDataReader.GetOrdinal() I've tested the GetOrdinal method (in my autogenerated class that inherits SqlCeResultSet): this.GetOrdinal("MyDateColumn"); // throws an exception this.GetName(1); // returns "MyDateColumn" this.GetOrdinal(this.GetName(1)); //throws an exception :) [edit added] The table exists and it's filled with data. Using typed DataSets works like a charm. Regenerating the SqlCeResultSet does not solve the issue, the problem remains. The problem basically is that I am not able to access a column by it's name. The data can be accessed trough this.GetDateTime(1)using the column ordinal. The application fails executing this.GetOrdinal("MyDateColumn"). Also I have updated Visual Studio 2008 to Service Pack 1. Additionaly I am developing the project on a virtual machine with Windows XP SP 2, but in my opinion if the medium is virtual or not should have no effect on the developing. Am I doing something wrong or am I missing something? Thank you.

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• Doing coding in Linux through a virtual machine on Windows VS partitioning

  - by ihaveitnow

  I already have experience with setting up virtual machines, running them and other minor tasks. Im a gamer, so I wont get rid of windows (for now at least...) but I do want to be a great programmer and to be involved with the Open-Source community. Id like to know if its a good idea to do my programming in linux through a virtual machine, vs giving it a partitioned section of the HDD. Id like to know about performance pros and cons and functionality. All responses are appreciated, thanks in advance. The type of programming I intend to dive into : Android Dev, Web Dev, Desktop Dev...More Android and Web right now though. So im looking at C#,C,C++,Java,PHP,HTML,MySQL...Off the top of the dome. I do web designing as well, so dreamweaver is added as an "essential". But im sure I can do dreamweaver files and upload them to the server after programming in Linux...Right? And any info on IDE's in Linux for the above mentioned are appreciated, but i would prefer going the coding route and understanding the essence of whats happening "under the covers" Thanks to all for reading, I appreciate it. Hope this isnt confusing :S

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• Macports and virtualenv site-packages Fallback

  - by Streeter

  I've installed django and python as this link suggested with macports. However, I'd like to use virtualenv to install more packages. My understanding is that if I do not pass in the --no-site-packages to virtualenv, I should get the currently installed packages in addition to whatever packages I install into the virtual environment. Is this correct? As an example, I've installed django through macports and then create a virtual environment, but I cannot import django from within that virtual environment: [streeter@mordecai]:~$ mkvirtualenv django-test New python executable in django-test/bin/python Installing setuptools............done. ... (django-test)[streeter@mordecai]:~$ pip install django-debug-toolbar Downloading/unpacking django-debug-toolbar Downloading django-debug-toolbar-0.8.4.tar.gz (80Kb): 80Kb downloaded Running setup.py egg_info for package django-debug-toolbar Installing collected packages: django-debug-toolbar Running setup.py install for django-debug-toolbar Successfully installed django-debug-toolbar Cleaning up... (django-test)[streeter@mordecai]:~$ python Python 2.6.1 (r261:67515, Jun 24 2010, 21:47:49) [GCC 4.2.1 (Apple Inc. build 5646)] on darwin Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import django Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> ImportError: No module named django >>> So I can install packages into the virtual environment, but it isn't picking up the global site-packages. Or am I not doing something correctly / missing something / misunderstanding how virtualenv works? I've got Mac OS 10.6 (Snow Leopard), have updated my macports packages and am using macports' python26 (via python_select python26).

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• Tagging in Subversion - how do I make the decision about continuing to work on my trunk vs. the new

  - by Howiecamp

  I'm running Tortoise SVN to manage a project. Obviously the principles around tagging apply to any implementation of SVN but in this question I'll be referring to some TortoiseSVN-specific dialog boxes and messages. My working directory and the subversion repository structure both have a Source root directory and the Trunk, Tags and Branches directories underneath. (I couldn't figure out how to do a multilevel indented hierarchy in markdown without using bullets, so if someone could edit and fix this I'd appreciate it.) I'm working out of the Trunk directory in my working copy and it's pointing at the Trunk directory in the repo. I want to apply a Tag "Release1" so I click the "Branch/tag..." menu option and set the repo path as my [repo_path/bla/Source/Tags/Release1" tag. This dialog box gives me the option to "Switch my working copy to new branch/tag". I understand that if this option is left unchecked, the new "Release1" branch under /Tags" will be created but my working copy will remain on the previous "Trunk" path. If I do check this option (or use the Switch command) I understand that my working copy will switch to the new "Release1" branch under "/Tags". Where I'm missing a concept is how to make this decision. It doesn't seem like I want to switch my working directory to the recently created tag since by definition (?) I want that tag to be a snapshot of my code as of a point in time. If I don't switch the working directory, I'll continue working off Trunk and when I'm ready to take another snapshot I'll make another tag. And so on... Am I understanding this right or am I stating something incorrectly in the previous paragraph (e.g. the statement about not wanting to switch to the tag since the tag should represent a point in time snapshot) or otherwise missing something regarding how to make this decision?

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