Search Results

Search found 32871 results on 1315 pages for 'html attributes'.

Page 168/1315 | < Previous Page | 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175  | Next Page >

  • ROR accepts_nested_attributes_for one to many relationship with selection

    - by bilash.saha
    I have two models Doctors and Questions like the follwong: Doctor Model class Doctor < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :questions has_many :brands accepts_nested_attributes_for :questions end Question model class Question < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :discipline belongs_to :doctor belongs_to :brand end Now you can clearly see that Doctor has many questions and brands and question belongs to doctor and brand.I want to add previously saved question to a doctor from doctors edit page. I want to remove them as well.How can I proceed ? I tried like : <%= form.fields_for :questions, question,:child_index => (question.new_record? ? "index_to_replace_with_js" : nil) do |question_form| %> <table> <tr> <td> <div class="label">Select Question</div> <%= question_form.collection_select :id, Question.all, :id, :title ,{:include_blank => true } %> </td> </tr> </table> but this doesnot works for me.Can you give me a solution with proper example ?

    Read the article

  • how do I call a javacript function every 60 seconds?

    - by William
    So I'm trying to work on a Canvas demo, and I want this square to move from one side to the other, but I can't figure out how to call javascript in a way that repeats every 60 seconds. Here's what I got so far: <!DOCTYPE html> <html lang="en"> <head> <title>Canvas test</title> <meta charset="utf-8" /> <link href="/bms/style.css" rel="stylesheet" /> <style> body { text-align: center; background-color: #000000;} canvas{ background-color: #ffffff;} </style> <script type="text/javascript"> var x = 50; var y = 250; function update(){ draw(); x = x + 5; } function draw(){ var canvas = document.getElementById('screen1'); if (canvas.getContext){ var ctx = canvas.getContext('2d'); ctx.fillStyle = 'rgb(236,138,68)'; ctx.fillRect(x,y,24,24); } } </script> </head> <body onLoad="setTimeout(update(), 0);"> <canvas id="screen1" width="500" height="500"></canvas> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • How add class='active' to html menu with php

    - by meow
    Hello I want to put my html navigation in a separate php file so when I need to edit it, I only have to edit it once. The problem starts when I want to add the class active to the active page. I've got three pages and one common file. common.php : <?php $nav = <<<EOD <div id="nav"> <ul> <li><a <? if($page == 'one'): ?> class="active"<? endif ?> href="index.php">Tab1</a>/</li> <li><a href="two.php">Tab2</a></li> <li><a href="three.php">Tab3</a></li> </ul> </div> EOD; ?> index.php : All three pages are identical except their $page is different on each page. <?php $page = 'one'; require_once('common.php'); ?> <html> <head></head> <body> <?php echo $nav; ?> </body> </html> This simply won't work unless I put my nav on each page, but then the whole purpose of separating the nav from all pages is ruined. Is what I want to accomplish even possible? What am I doing wrong? Thanks EDIT: When doing this, the php code inside the li don't seem to run, it's just being printed as if it was html

    Read the article

  • Working with custom role in VB.NET win application

    - by fireBand
    Hi, I am looking for ways to implement custom user-roles in windows application with vb.net. I got a database table called Roles with Administrator and User entries. User cannot see some of the form data. In ASP.NET MVC we can do like. [Authorize(Roles = "Administrator")] public function GetAccount() as Array End Function If it could be done this way that would be great. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Calling jQuery method from onClick attribute in HTML

    - by Russell
    I am relatively new to implementing JQuery throughout an entire system, and I am enjoying the opportunity. I have come across one issue I would love to find the correct resolve for. Here is a simple case example of what I want to do: I have a button on a page, and on the click event I want to call a jquery function I have defined. Here is the code I have used to define my method (Page.js): (function($) { $.fn.MessageBox = function(msg) { alert(msg); }; }); And here is my HTML page: <HTML> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="C:\Sandpit\jQueryTest\jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> <script language="javascript" src="Page.js"></script> </head> <body> <div class="Title">Welcome!</div> <input type="button" value="ahaha" onclick="$().MessageBox('msg');" /> </body> </HTML> (The above code displays the button, but clicking does nothing.) I am aware I could add the click event in the document ready event, however it seems more maintainable to put events in the HTML element instead. However I have not found a way to do this. Is there a way to call a jquery function on a button element (or any input element)? Or is there a better way to do this? Thanks

    Read the article

  • "Access is denied" by executing .hta file with JScript on Windows XP x64

    - by mem64k
    I have a simple HTML (as HTA) application that shows strange behavior on Windows XP x64 machine. I getting periodically (not every time) error message "Access is denied." when i start the application. The same application on Windows XP 32bit runs just fine... Does somebody has any idea or explanation? Error message: Line: 18 Char: 6 Error: Access is denied. Code: 0 URL: file:///D:/test_j.hta Here is the code of my "test_j.hta": <html> <head> <title>Test J</title> <HTA:APPLICATION ID="objTestJ" APPLICATIONNAME="TestJ" SCROLL="no" SINGLEINSTANCE="yes" WINDOWSTATE="normal" > <script language="JScript"> function main() { //window.alert("test"); window.resizeTo(500, 300); } function OnExit() { window.close(); } </script> </head> <body onload="main()"> <input type="button" value="Exit" name="Exit" onClick="OnExit()" title="Exit"> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Vertically and horizontally align

    - by user1760649
    My problem is the following: I've vertically centered a div. However, I'd like to center another div horizontally. The problem is that I don't manage to center it horizontally. Here are my (X)HTML and CSS (X)HTML: <body> <div id="strut"></div> <div id="page"> <div id="inner_page"> <h1>Galidie "jQzz" Clément</h1> </div> </div> CSS: html, body { margin: 0; padding: 0; height: 100%; } #strut, #page { display: inline-block; vertical-align: middle; } #strut { height: 100%; } #page { border: 1px solid #c00; } #inner_page { width: 750px; margin: 0 auto; background-color: #c00; } h1 { text-align: center; margin: 0; } strut is the marker for vertically center an element. page is centered vertically. The idea is to try to center horizontally the inner_page block. Should I use absolute position? Or anything else? Did I choose the good method? Thank for your futur help.

    Read the article

  • Object validator - is this good design?

    - by neo2862
    I'm working on a project where the API methods I write have to return different "views" of domain objects, like this: namespace View.Product { public class SearchResult : View { public string Name { get; set; } public decimal Price { get; set; } } public class Profile : View { public string Name { get; set; } public decimal Price { get; set; } [UseValidationRuleset("FreeText")] public string Description { get; set; } [SuppressValidation] public string Comment { get; set; } } } These are also the arguments of setter methods in the API which have to be validated before storing them in the DB. I wrote an object validator that lets the user define validation rulesets in an XML file and checks if an object conforms to those rules: [Validatable] public class View { [SuppressValidation] public ValidationError[] ValidationErrors { get { return Validator.Validate(this); } } } public static class Validator { private static Dictionary<string, Ruleset> Rulesets; static Validator() { // read rulesets from xml } public static ValidationError[] Validate(object obj) { // check if obj is decorated with ValidatableAttribute // if not, return an empty array (successful validation) // iterate over the properties of obj // - if the property is decorated with SuppressValidationAttribute, // continue // - if it is decorated with UseValidationRulesetAttribute, // use the ruleset specified to call // Validate(object value, string rulesetName, string FieldName) // - otherwise, get the name of the property using reflection and // use that as the ruleset name } private static List<ValidationError> Validate(object obj, string fieldName, string rulesetName) { // check if the ruleset exists, if not, throw exception // call the ruleset's Validate method and return the results } } public class Ruleset { public Type Type { get; set; } public Rule[] Rules { get; set; } public List<ValidationError> Validate(object property, string propertyName) { // check if property is of type Type // if not, throw exception // iterate over the Rules and call their Validate methods // return a list of their return values } } public abstract class Rule { public Type Type { get; protected set; } public abstract ValidationError Validate(object value, string propertyName); } public class StringRegexRule : Rule { public string Regex { get; set; } public StringRegexRule() { Type = typeof(string); } public override ValidationError Validate(object value, string propertyName) { // see if Regex matches value and return // null or a ValidationError } } Phew... Thanks for reading all of this. I've already implemented it and it works nicely, and I'm planning to extend it to validate the contents of IEnumerable fields and other fields that are Validatable. What I'm particularly concerned about is that if no ruleset is specified, the validator tries to use the name of the property as the ruleset name. (If you don't want that behavior, you can use [SuppressValidation].) This makes the code much less cluttered (no need to use [UseValidationRuleset("something")] on every single property) but it somehow doesn't feel right. I can't decide if it's awful or awesome. What do you think? Any suggestions on the other parts of this design are welcome too. I'm not very experienced and I'm grateful for any help. Also, is "Validatable" a good name? To me, it sounds pretty weird but I'm not a native English speaker.

    Read the article

  • Redirect from Attribute

    - by pistacchio
    How can I create an attribute for an ASP.NET page that redirects to another page? [MyAttribute()] public partial class Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { base.OnLoad(e); } } [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.All)] public class MyAttribute: Attribute { public MyAttribute() { if (// something) { // I need to redirect to some page here } } }

    Read the article

  • addAttributeToFilter and OR condition in Magento's Collection

    - by ÉricP
    Hi, I'd like to select products depending on several criteria from different attribute. I know how to user $collection->addAttributeToFilter('someattribute', array('like' => '%')); But I'd like to use several attribute for OR condition. Like: $collection->addAttributeToFilter('someattribute', array('like' => 'value'));` OR $collection->addAttributeToFilter('otherattribute', array('like' => 'value'));` To get products which either 'someattribute' OR 'otherattribute' set to 'value' Is it possible?

    Read the article

  • Semantically correct nested anchors

    - by Blackie123
    I am working on a web applicaton. And what we also create is something that could be described as inline editing. Just to portray thing I am trying to solve I use example of Facebook post. You have post like. Steve Jobs added 5 new photos Steve Jobs is link that redirects to his profile so in HTML, that would be: <div class="post-block"> <p><a href="stevejobs/" title="#">Steve Jobs</a> added 5 new photos.<p> </div> But what I want is the whole post "block" to be clickable although I want only that name to appear to be link. Normally in HTML logic would say to to this: <a href="stevejobs/" title="#"><div class="post-block"> <p><a href="stevejobs/" title="#">Steve Jobs</a> added 5 new photos.<p> </div></a> But this isn't semantically correct. Quick look to HTML 4.01 or any other standard says something like this: Links and anchors defined by the A element must not be nested; an A element must not contain any other A elements. How to create it semantically correct other than using javascript and defining div:hover state for the whole "div anchor"?

    Read the article

  • JQuery: how to store records id for data from ajax query in dynamicly created html elements

    - by grapkulec
    Probably question title is rather cryptic but I will try to explain myself here so please bare with me :) Let's assume this configuration: server-side is PHP application responding for requests with data (list of items, single item details, etc.) in json format client-side is JQuery application sending ajax request to that PHP app and creating html content corresponding with received data So, for example: client requests "list of all animals with names staring with 'A'", gets the json response from server, and for every "animal" creates some html gizmo like div with animal description or something like that. It doesn't really matter what html element it will be but it has to point exactly to specific record by "containing" id of that record. And here is my dilemma: is it good solution to use "id" property for that? So it would be like: <div id="10" class="animal"> <p> This is animal of very mysterious kind... </p> </div> <div id="11" class="animal"> <p> And this one is very common to our country... </p> </div> where id="10" is of course indication that this is representation of record with id = 10. Or maybe I should store this record id in some custom made tag like <record_id>10</record_id> and leave an "id" strictly for what it was meant to be (css selector)? I need that record id for further stuff like updating database with some user input or deleting some of "animals" or creating new ones or anything that will be needed. All manipulations will be done with JQuery and ajax requests and responses will be visualized also with dynamic creation of html interface. I'm sure that somebody had to deal with that kind of stuff before so I would be grateful for some tips on that topic.

    Read the article

  • HTML5 Flash 100% IE8 and Firefox

    - by Jason
    I need to have a flash intro for my website (a requirement from my teacher). I created the intro and embedded it into my page. I takes up the entire screen in both Chrome and Chromium. In IE8, Firefox and Opera the size is incorrect. What am I doing wrong? <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Refresh" content="3; url=template.htm"> <meta charset="UTF-8"> <title>Com Tech Projects | Jason Cook</title> </head> <body style="background: black;"> <embed style="height: 100%; width: 100%;" src="Flash/Introv6.swf"/> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Magento: Attribute always returns default value in catalog view, works fine in product view

    - by colinodell
    I've created a new Yes/No attribute for products. I've extended the Product model to do some custom logic and the custom functions are working everywhere. When I initially tried getting the custom attribute value, I ran into some issue. Magento wasn't loading it for me, so calls to $product-getMyAttributeName() did nothing. In the product views, I got it working with this additional function: public function getAttrVal($attr_name) { return $this->getResource()->getAttribute($attr_name)->getFrontend()->getValue($this); } So that worked great when viewing a product on the frontend. It would fetch the assigned value if set, or the default if not. When I view any Category (grid of all products in that category), the same exact code is being executed. But my getAttrVal() function always returns the default value, even if I've explicitly set this value for my product. I can't, for the life of me, figure out why the attribute loads correctly in the Product view but the Category view always grabs the default value, despite running the same exact code. Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • How can I retrieve the instance of an attribute's associated object?

    - by Brandon Linton
    I'm writing a PropertiesMustMatch validation attribute that can take a string property name as a parameter. I'd like it to find the corresponding property by name on that object and do a basic equality comparison. What's the best way to access this through reflection? Also, I checked out the Validation application block in the Enterprise Library and decided its PropertyComparisonValidator was way too intense for what we need.

    Read the article

  • Web development tool that can comprehend the concept of more than one language in a file at once

    - by thecoshman
    I currently use notepad++ on windows or gedit on ubuntu. Both of them work great with code highlighting and hinting etc. But both of them suffer from a huge flaw. I am yet to find a code editor that can handle this concept: <?php // ooh, look I am doing some php ?><a onclick="alert('hay, some javascript in here now!')"> This link is HTML?!</a> <?PHP echo("NOW we have some php as well!"); ?> At the moment, I just have to settle for the one language. I want something that can think of a that text as a default as HTML, but notice when sections are PHP. I want those sections of PHP to have there own code hinting and highlighting. Even more, lets say in an 'if else' I exit PHP, write some HTML then back into PHP, I want it to work out how the braces ( '{' and '}' ) should match up and let me know if I have missed one. I want the sections of in-line JavaScript to be picked up as such. I want all of these languages to get checked for syntax! Damn it, I want to tool that understands more than one language at once!

    Read the article

  • preg_match_all to parse an xml-like attribute string

    - by Rob
    I have a string like so: option_alpha="value" option_beta="some other value" option_gamma="X" ...etc. I'm using this to parse them into name & value pairs: preg_match_all("/([a-z0-9_]+)\s*=\s*[\"\'](.+?)[\"\']/is", $var_string, $matches) Which works fine, unless it encounters an empty attribute value: option_alpha="value" option_beta="" option_gamma="X" What have I done wrong in my regex?

    Read the article

  • MEF GetExports<T, TMetaDataView> returning nothing with AllowMultiple = True

    - by sohum
    I don't understand MEF very well, so hopefully this is a simple fix of how I think it works. I'm trying to use MEF to get some information about a class and how it should be used. I'm using the Metadata options to try to achieve this. My interfaces and attribute looks like this: public interface IMyInterface { } public interface IMyInterfaceInfo { Type SomeProperty1 { get; } double SomeProperty2 { get; } string SomeProperty3 { get; } } [MetadataAttribute] [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class, AllowMultiple = true)] public class ExportMyInterfaceAttribute : ExportAttribute, IMyInterfaceInfo { public ExportMyInterfaceAttribute(Type someProperty1, double someProperty2, string someProperty3) : base(typeof(IMyInterface)) { SomeProperty1 = someProperty1; SomeProperty2 = someProperty2; SomeProperty3 = someProperty3; } public Type SomeProperty1 { get; set; } public double SomeProperty2 { get; set; } public string SomeProperty3 { get; set; } } The class that is decorated with the attribute looks like this: [ExportMyInterface(typeof(string), 0.1, "whoo data!")] [ExportMyInterface(typeof(int), 0.4, "asdfasdf!!")] public class DecoratedClass : IMyInterface { } The method that is trying to use the import looks like this: private void SomeFunction() { // CompositionContainer is an instance of CompositionContainer var myExports = CompositionContainer.GetExports<IMyInterface, IMyInterfaceInfo>(); } In my case myExports is always empty. In my CompositionContainer, I have a Part in my catalog that has two ExportDefinitions, both with the following ContractName: "MyNamespace.IMyInterface". The Metadata is also loaded correctly per my exports. If I remove the AllowMultiple setter and only include one exported attribute, the myExports variable now has the single export with its loaded metadata. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • How do I read an attribute on a class at runtime?

    - by Zaff
    I am trying to create a generic method that will read an attribute on a class and return that value at runtime. How do would I do this? Note: DomainName attribute is of class DomainNameAttribute. [DomainName(“MyTable”)] Public class MyClass : DomianBase {} What I am trying to generate: //This should return “MyTable” String DomainNameValue = GetDomainName<MyClass>();

    Read the article

  • open current page in new window including query string

    - by Hatch
    First of all, I am a total dud at all things related to web developement, so please bear with me here. I suspect this question is laughable for the web guys, but unfortunately I can't figure this out. Here goes: I have an application, that does some processing, writes some result files and then displays the results in an embedded IE browser control. This is done by navigating the browser control to a local html file together with a query string containing the generated result files to display it all. The link target would look something like: c:\SomeFolder\results.htm?results=file%201.xml;file%202.xml;file%203.xml So far, everything's fine. However, in the html page is a href that is suppossed to open up the exact same just in a normal browser window. What I thought would work is: <a href="#" target="_blank">Show in browser</a> Since it is a link in an html page displayed in an IE control, the link will open up in IE no matter what the default browser might be. This works for IE7 and 8, but not for IE6. With IE6 the query string gets cut off and the browser opens file://c:/results/results.htm# without the query string. I am sure there must be a much better way to do this without the # and which would work in all IEs. How would the pros solve this?

    Read the article

  • How do I call a function name that is stored in a hash in Perl?

    - by Ether
    I'm sure this is covered in the documentation somewhere but I have been unable to find it... I'm looking for the syntactic sugar that will make it possible to call a method on a class whose name is stored in a hash (as opposed to a simple scalar): use strict; use warnings; package Foo; sub foo { print "in foo()\n" } package main; my %hash = (func => 'foo'); Foo->$hash{func}; If I copy $hash{func} into a scalar variable first, then I can call Foo->$func just fine... but what is missing to enable Foo->$hash{func} to work? (EDIT: I don't mean to do anything special by calling a method on class Foo -- this could just as easily be a blessed object (and in my actual code it is); it was just easier to write up a self-contained example using a class method.) EDIT 2: Just for completeness re the comments below, this is what I'm actually doing (this is in a library of Moose attribute sugar, created with Moose::Exporter): # adds an accessor to a sibling module sub foreignTable { my ($meta, $table, %args) = @_; my $class = 'MyApp::Dir1::Dir2::' . $table; my $dbAccessor = lcfirst $table; eval "require $class" or do { die "Can't load $class: $@" }; $meta->add_attribute( $table, is => 'ro', isa => $class, init_arg => undef, # don't allow in constructor lazy => 1, predicate => 'has_' . $table, default => sub { my $this = shift; $this->debug("in builder for $class"); ### here's the line that uses a hash value as the method name my @args = ($args{primaryKey} => $this->${\$args{primaryKey}}); push @args, ( _dbObject => $this->_dbObject->$dbAccessor ) if $args{fkRelationshipExists}; $this->debug("passing these values to $class -> new: @args"); $class->new(@args); }, ); } I've replaced the marked line above with this: my $pk_accessor = $this->meta->find_attribute_by_name($args{primaryKey})->get_read_method_ref; my @args = ($args{primaryKey} => $this->$pk_accessor); PS. I've just noticed that this same technique (using the Moose meta class to look up the coderef rather than assuming its naming convention) cannot also be used for predicates, as Class::MOP::Attribute does not have a similar get_predicate_method_ref accessor. :(

    Read the article

  • W3 xHTML Validation Errors on jQuery code!

    - by Chris
    I have some jQuery code that, without it in the document it passes validation fine, but with it in it causes errors. The code in question is here: $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "data.xml", dataType: "xml", success: function(xml) { //Update error info errors = $(xml).find("Errors").find("*").filter(function () { return $(this).children().length === 0; }); if (errors.length == 0) { statuscontent = "<img src='/web/resources/graphics/accept.png' alt='' /> System OK"; } else { statuscontent = "<img src='/web/resources/graphics/exclamation.png' alt='' /> "+errors.length+" System error"+(errors.length>1?"s":""); } $("#top-bar-systemstatus a").html(statuscontent); //Update timestamp $("#top-bar-timestamp").html($(xml).find("Timestamp").text()); //Update storename $("#top-bar-storename").html("Store: "+$(xml).find("StoreName").text()); } }); There are loads of other jQuery code on the page which all works fine and causes no errors so I cannot quite understand what is wrong with this. The page isn't "live" so cannot provide a link to it unfortunately. The error it lists is document type does not allow element "img" here And the line of code it points to is here: statuscontent = "<img src='/web/resources/graphics/accept.png' alt='' /> System OK"; It also has an issue with the next assignment to statuscontent

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175  | Next Page >