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  • Why is it still so hard to write software?

    - by nornagon
    Writing software, I find, is composed of two parts: the Idea, and the Implementation. The Idea is about thinking: "I have this problem; how do I solve it?" and further, "how do I solve it elegantly?" The answers to these questions are obtainable by thinking about algorithms and architecture. The ideas come partially through analysis and partially through insight and intuition. The Idea is usually the easy part. You talk to your friends and co-workers and you nut it out in a meeting or over coffee. It takes an hour or two, plus revisions as you implement and find new problems. The Implementation phase of software development is so difficult that we joke about it. "Oh," we say, "the rest is a Simple Matter of Code." Because it should be simple, but it never is. We used to write our code on punch cards, and that was hard: mistakes were very difficult to spot, so we had to spend extra effort making sure every line was perfect. Then we had serial terminals: we could see all our code at once, search through it, organise it hierarchically and create things abstracted from raw machine code. First we had assemblers, one level up from machine code. Mnemonics freed us from remembering the machine code. Then we had compilers, which freed us from remembering the instructions. We had virtual machines, which let us step away from machine-specific details. And now we have advanced tools like Eclipse and Xcode that perform analysis on our code to help us write code faster and avoid common pitfalls. But writing code is still hard. Writing code is about understanding large, complex systems, and tools we have today simply don't go very far to help us with that. When I click "find all references" in Eclipse, I get a list of them at the bottom of the window. I click on one, and I'm torn away from what I was looking at, forced to context switch. Java architecture is usually several levels deep, so I have to switch and switch and switch until I find what I'm really looking for -- by which time I've forgotten where I came from. And I do that all day until I've understood a system. It's taxing mentally, and Eclipse doesn't do much that couldn't be done in 1985 with grep, except eat hundreds of megs of RAM. Writing code has barely changed since we were staring at amber on black. We have the theoretical groundwork for much more advanced tools, tools that actually work to help us comprehend and extend the complex systems we work with every day. So why is writing code still so hard?

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  • Mapping two tables 0..n in Hibernate

    - by simon
    I have a table Users CREATE TABLE "USERS" ( "ID" NUMBER NOT NULL , "LOGINNAME" VARCHAR2 (150) NOT NULL ) and I have a second table SpecialUsers. No UserId can occur twice in the SpecialUsers table, and only a small subset of the ids of users in the Users table are contained in the SpecialUsers table. CREATE TABLE "SPECIALUSERS" ( "USERID" NUMBER NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT "PK_SPECIALUSERS" PRIMARY KEY ("USERID") ) ALTER TABLE "SPECIALUSERS" ADD CONSTRAINT "FK_SPECIALUSERS_USERID" FOREIGN KEY ("USERID") REFERENCES "USERS" ("ID") / Mapping the Users table in Hibernate works ok <hibernate-mapping package="com.initech.domain"> <class name="com.initech.User" table="USERS"> <id name="id" column="ID" type="java.lang.Long"> <meta attribute="use-in-tostring">true</meta> <generator class="sequence"> <param name="sequence">SEQ_USERS_ID</param> </generator> </id> <property name="loginName" column="LOGINNAME" type="java.lang.String" not-null="true"> <meta attribute="use-in-tostring">true</meta> </property> </class> </hibernate-mapping> But I'm struggling in creating the mapping for the SpecialUsers table. All the examples (e.g. in Hibernate documentation) in Internet I found don't have this type of self-reference. I tried a mapping like this: <hibernate-mapping package="com.initech.domain"> <class name="com.initech.User" table="SPECIALUSERS"> <id name="id" column="USERID"> <meta attribute="use-in-tostring">true</meta> <generator class="foreign"> <param name="property">user</param> </generator> </id> <one-to-one name="user" class="User"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> but got the error Invocation of init method failed; nested exception is org.hibernate.DuplicateMappingException: Duplicate class/entity mapping com.initech.User How should I map the SpecialUsers table? What I need on the application level is a list of the User objects contained in the SpecialUsers table.

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  • Exception opening TAdoDataset: Arguments are of the wrong type, are out of acceptable range, or are

    - by Dave Falkner
    I've been trying to debug the following problem for several weeks now - this method is called from several places within the same datamodule, but this exception (from the subject line of this post) only occurs when integers for a certain purpose (pickup orders vs. orders that we ship through a carrier) are used - and don't ask me how the application can tell the difference between one integer's purpose and another! Furthermore, I cannot duplicate this issue on my machine - the error occurs on a warehouse machine but not my own development machine, even when working with the same production database. I have suspected an MDAC version conflict between the two machines, but have run a version checker and confirmed that both machines are running 2.8, and additionally have confirmed this by logging the TAdoDataset's .Version property at runtime. function TdmESShip.SecondaryID(const PrimaryID : Integer ): String; begin try with qESPackage2 do begin if Active then Close; LogMessage('-----------------------------------'); LogMessage('Version: ' + FConnection.Version); LogMessage('DB Info: ' + FConnection.Properties['Initial Catalog'].Value + ' ' + FConnection.Properties['Data Source'].Value); LogMessage('Setting the parameter.'); Parameters.ParamByName('ParameterName').Value := PrimaryID; LogMessage('Done setting the parameter.'); Open; Ninety-nine times out of 100 this logging code logs a successful operation as follows: Version: 2.8 DB Info: (database name and instance) Setting the parameter. Done setting the parameter. Opened the dataset. But then whenever a "pickup" order is processed, this exception gets thrown whenever the dataset is opened: Version: 2.8 DB Info: (database name and instance) Setting the parameter. Done setting the parameter. GetESPackageID() threw an exception. Type: EOleException, Message: Arguments are of the wrong type, are out of acceptable range, or are in conflict with one another Error: Arguments are of the wrong type, are out of acceptable range, or are in conflict with one another for packageID 10813711 I've tried eliminating the parameter and have built the commandtext for this dataset programmatically, suspecting that some part of the TParameter's configuration might be out of whack, but the same error occurs under the same circumstances. I've tried every combination of TParameter properties that I can think of - this is the millionth TParameter I've created for my millionth dataset, and I've never encountered this error. I've even created a second dataset from scratch and removed all references to the original dataset in case some property of the original dataset in the .dfm might be corrupted, but the same error occurs under the same circumstances. The commandtext for this dataset is a simple select ValueA from TableName where ValueB = @ParameterB I'm about ready to do something extreme, such as writing a web service to look these values up - it feels right now as though I could destroy my machine, rebuild it, rewrite this entire application from scratch, and the application would still know to throw an exception whenever I try to look up a secondary value from a primary value, but only for pickup orders, and only from the one machine in the warehouse, but I'm probably missing something simple. So, any help anyone could provide would be greatly appreciated.

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  • problem with custom NSProtocol and caching on iPhone

    - by TomSwift
    My iPhone app embeds a UIWebView which loads html via a custom NSProtocol handler I have registered. My problem is that resources referenced in the returned html, which are also loaded via my custom protocol handler, are cached and never reloaded. In particular, my stylesheet is cached: <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="./styles.css" /> The initial request to load the html in the UIWebView looks like this: NSString* strUrl = [NSMutableString stringWithFormat: @"myprotocol:///entry?id=%d", entryID ]; NSURL* url = [NSURL URLWithString: strUrl]; [_pCurrentWebView loadRequest: [NSURLRequest requestWithURL: url cachePolicy: NSURLRequestReloadIgnoringLocalCacheData timeoutInterval: 60 ]]; (note the cache policy is set to ignore, and I've verified this cache policy carries through to subsequent requests for page resources on the initial load) The protocol handler loads the html from a database and returns it to the client using code like this: // create the response record NSURLResponse *response = [[NSURLResponse alloc] initWithURL: [request URL] MIMEType: mimeType expectedContentLength: -1 textEncodingName: textEncodingName]; // get a reference to the client so we can hand off the data id client = [self client]; // turn off caching for this response data [client URLProtocol: self didReceiveResponse:response cacheStoragePolicy: NSURLCacheStorageNotAllowed]; // set the data in the response to our jfif data [client URLProtocol: self didLoadData:data]; [data release]; (Note the response cache policy is "not allowed"). Any ideas how I can make it NOT cache my styles.css resource? I need to be able to dynamically alter the content of this resource on subsequent loads of html that references this file. I thought clearing the shared url cache would work, but it doesnt: [[NSURLCache sharedURLCache] removeAllCachedResponses]; One thing that does work, but it's terribly inefficient, is to dynamically cache-bust the url for the stylesheet by adding a timestamp parameter: <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="./styles.css?ts=1234567890" /> To make this work I have to load my html from the db, search and replace the url for the stylesheet with a cache-busting parameter that changes on each request. I'd rather not do this. My presumption is that there is no problem if I were to load my content via the built-in HTTP protocol. In that case, I'm guessing that the UIWebView looks at any Cache-Control flags in the NSURLHTTPResponse object's http headers and abides by them. Since my NSURLResponseObject has no http headers (it's not http...) then perhaps UIWebView just decides to cached the resource (ignoring the NSURLRequest caching directive?). Ideas???

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  • Using WSH (VBS) with iMacros - how do they do it?

    - by Carl
    (iMacros For Firefox 6.6.5.0; Firefox 3.6.3; Windows XP Pro SP3 w/all updates) I made an iMacro to select "load next 25" (comments) on a web page (CNN.COM). Unfortunately, iMacros doesn't appear to do looping (do the above until that string doesn't appear on the page anymore - i.e. all the comments are loaded). I tried putting {!iloop} in the TAG command, and it didn't work - then I read it wouldn't. So I tried the example at http://wiki.imacros.net/Loop_after_Query_or_Login I can't find any information on how to actually run the script in the above example. I searched Google and found VBS scripting is handled with .wsh files with Windows XP Pro. (The examples and other references there say Windows does VBS natively, so I looked up how with Google.) So I made the following .wsh file (modified the above example): Option Explicit Dim iim1, iret 'initialize iMacros instance set iim1 = CreateObject ("imacros") iret = iim1.iimInit() do while not iret < 0 iret = iim1.iimPlay("Load All CNN Comments") loop ' tell user we're done msgbox "End." ' exit iMacros instance and quit script iret = iim1.iimExit() Wscript.Quit() Here's the iMacro: (Load All CNN Comments.iim) VERSION BUILD=6650406 RECORDER=FX TAG POS=1 TYPE=A ATTR=TXT:Load<SP>next<SP>25 WAIT SECONDS=#DOWNLOADCOMPLETE# The iMacro works by itself - I press Play (left iMacro panel) and the next 25 comments load on the CNN.com page in the current tab. I put the .wsh file in the ...\iMacros\Macros directory - with the iMacro "Load All CNN Comments.iim" When I run the .wsh file (by just double clicking on it's icon - I created it with Notepad, and Windows gave it an icon for that file type - it's executable) I get the message from "Windows Script Host" - "There is no script file specified." I wasn't actually expecting it to work, as I don't see how Windows would know to call iMacros to run the iim macro. It would be nice if there was a simple, COMPLETE, example of how to use a VBS script with iMacros, that isn't bogged down with unnecessary complication like filling in a form, loading multiple pages, etc. I can't find ANY example. So what do I need to do to get this to work? I just installed iMacros yesterday, because I am constantly having the problem that there are hundred of comments after a CNN.com article, and loading 25 more at a time until they are all on the page makes it impractical to read any replies to my comments. It would also be nice if I could run the Macro from Firefox, rather than by double clicking on some file somewhere. Thanks for any help.

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  • How are you using IronPython?

    - by Will Dean
    I'm keen to drink some modern dynamic language koolaid, so I've believed all the stuff on Michael Foord's blog and podcasts, I've bought his book (and read some of it), and I added an embedded IPy runtime to a large existing app a year or so ago (though that was for someone else and I didn't really use it myself). Now I need to do some fairly simple code generation stuff, where I'm going to call a few methods on a few .net objects (custom, C#-authored objects), create a few strings, write some files, etc. The experience of trying this leaves me feeling like the little boy who thinks he's the only one who can see that The Emperor has no clothes on. If you're using IronPython, I'd really appreciate knowing how you deal with the following aspects of it: Code editing - do you use the .NET framework without Intellisense? Refactoring - I know a load of 'refactoring' is about working around language-related busywork, so if Python is sufficiently lightweight then we won't need that, But things like renames seem to me to be essential to iteratively developing quality code regardless of language. Crippling startup time - One of the things which is supposed to be good about interpreted languages is the lack of compile time leading to fast interactive development. Unfortunately I can compile a C# application and launch it quicker than IPy can start up. Interactive hacking - the IPy console/repl is supposed to be good for this, but I haven't found a good way to take the code you've interactively arrived at and persist it into a file - cut and paste from the console is fairly miserable. And the console seems to hold references to .NET assemblies you've imported, so you have to quit it and restart it if you're working on the C# stuff as well. Hacking on C# in something like LinqPad seems a much faster and easier way to try things out (and has proper Intellisense). Do you use the console? Debugging - what's the story here? I know someone on the IPy team is working on a command-line hobby-project, but let's just say I'm not immediately attracted to a command line debugger. I don't really need a debugger from little Python scripts, but I would if I were to use IPy for scripting unit tests, for example. Unit testing - I can see that dynamic languages could be great for this, but is there any IDE test-runner integration (like for Resharper, etc). The Foord book has a chapter about this, which I'll admit I have not yet read properly, but it does seem to involve driving a console-mode test-runner from the command prompt, which feels to be an enormous step back from using an integrated test runner like TestDriven.net or Resharper. I really want to believe in this stuff, so I am still working on the assumption that I've missed something. I would really like to know how other people are dealing with IPy, particularly if they're doing it in a way which doesn't feel like we've just lost 15 years'-worth of tool development.

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  • GAE Datastore: persisting referenced objects

    - by David
    Two "I'm sorries" to begin with: 1) I've looked for a solution (here, and elsewhere), and couldn't find the answer. 2) English is not my mother tongue, so I may have some typos and the sort - please ignore them. To the point: I am trying to persist Java objects to the GAE datastore. I am not sure as to how to persist object having ("non-trivial") referenced object. That is, assume I have the following. public class Father { String name; int age; Vector<Child> offsprings; //this is what I call "non-trivial" reference //ctor, getters, setters... } public class Child { String name; int age; Father father; //this is what I call "non-trivial" reference //ctor, getters, setters... } The name field is unique in each type domain, and is considered a Primary-Key. In order to persist the "trivial" (String, int) fields, all I need is to add the correct annotation. So far so good. However, I don't understand how should I persist the home-brewed (Child, Father) types referenced. Should I: Convert each such reference to hold the Primary-Key (a name String, in this example) instead of the "actual" object. So, Vector<Child> offsprings; becomes Vector<String> offspringsNames; ? If that is the case, how do I handle the object at run-time? Do I just query for the Primary-Key from Class.getName, to retrieve the refrenced objects? Convert each such reference to hold the actual Key provided to me by the Datastore upon the proper put() operation? So, Vector<Child> offsprings; becomes Vector<Key> offspringsHashKeys; ? I would very much appreciate all kinds of comments. I have read ALL the offical relevant GAE docs/example. Throughout, they always persist "trivial" references, natively supported by the Datastore (e.g. in the Guestbook example, only Strings, and Longs). Many thanks, David

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  • Why am I getting org.xml.sax.SAXException for this block of XML?

    - by drachenstern
    I've anonymised a bit of this. Hopefully it doesn't detract from the useful message. stringARRAY is where I think I'm getting thrown at, but I'm not sure, so if I'm looking at the wrong place, lemme know. From the WSDL <xsd:element name="LongishOpName"> <xsd:complexType> <xsd:sequence> <xsd:element maxOccurs="unbounded" name="stringARRAY" type="xsd:string" /> <xsd:element name="stringfield1" type="xsd:string" /> <xsd:element name="stringfield2" type="xsd:string" /> </xsd:sequence> </xsd:complexType> </xsd:element> Actual method call looks like this: string originalValue = "some useful value"; string[] usefulName1 = new[] { originalValue }; service.response[] responses = server.LongishOpName( usefulName1, someString1, someString2 ); And it generates this XML to the server (Thanks to Fiddler2): <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <soap:Envelope xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <soap:Body> <LongishOpName xmlns="http://appropriate-namespace"> <stringARRAY>114003</stringARRAY> <stringfield1>a string</stringfield1> <stringfield2>a string</stringfield2> </LongishOpName> </soap:Body> </soap:Envelope> To which I get this response <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <soapenv:Envelope xmlns:soapenv="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <soapenv:Body> <soapenv:Fault> <faultcode>soapenv:Server.userException</faultcode> <faultstring>org.xml.sax.SAXException: Found character data inside an array element while deserializing</faultstring> <detail> <ns1:hostname xmlns:ns1="http://xml.apache.org/axis/">SERVERNAME</ns1:hostname> </detail> </soapenv:Fault> </soapenv:Body> </soapenv:Envelope> Is my soap message actually coming out malformed? (yes I am using the ASP.NET web references to do all the lifting, I'm not generating by hand) Should I be doing something different? Do I just need to go home and sleep on it and tomorrow everything will "just work"?

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  • Write Scheme data structures so they can be eval-d back in, or alternative

    - by Jesse Millikan
    I'm writing an application (A juggling pattern animator) in PLT Scheme that accepts Scheme expressions as values for some fields. I'm attempting to write a small text editor that will let me "explode" expressions into expressions that can still be eval'd but contain the data as literals for manual tweaking. For example, (4hss->sexp "747") is a function call that generates a legitimate pattern. If I eval and print that, it becomes (((7 3) - - -) (- - (4 2) -) (- (7 2) - -) (- - - (7 1)) ((4 0) - - -) (- - (7 0) -) (- (7 2) - -) (- - - (4 3)) ((7 3) - - -) (- - (7 0) -) (- (4 1) - -) (- - - (7 1))) which can be "read" as a string, but will not "eval" the same as the function. For this statement, of course, what I need would be as simple as (quote (((7 3... but other examples are non-trivial. This one, for example, contains structs which print as vectors: pair-of-jugglers ; --> (#(struct:hand #(struct:position -0.35 2.0 1.0) #(struct:position -0.6 2.05 1.1) 1.832595714594046) #(struct:hand #(struct:position 0.35 2.0 1.0) #(struct:position 0.6 2.0500000000000003 1.1) 1.308996938995747) #(struct:hand #(struct:position 0.35 -2.0 1.0) #(struct:position 0.6 -2.05 1.1) -1.3089969389957472) #(struct:hand #(struct:position -0.35 -2.0 1.0) #(struct:position -0.6 -2.05 1.1) -1.8325957145940461)) I've thought of at least three possible solutions, none of which I like very much. Solution A is to write a recursive eval-able output function myself for a reasonably large subset of the values that I might be using. There (probably...) won't be any circular references by the nature of the data structures used, so that wouldn't be such a long job. The output would end up looking like `(((3 0) (... ; ex 1 `(,(make-hand (make-position ... ; ex 2 Or even worse if I could't figure out how to do it properly with quasiquoting. Solution B would be to write out everything as (read (open-input-string "(big-long-s-expression)")) which, technically, solves the problem I'm bringing up but is... ugly. Solution C might be a different approach of giving up eval and using only read for parsing input, or an uglier approach where the s-expression is used as directly data if eval fails, but those both seem unpleasant compared to using scheme values directly. Undiscovered Solution D would be a PLT Scheme option, function or library I haven't located that would match Solution A. Help me out before I start having bad recursion dreams again.

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  • WPF Application Slow Unresponsive when demonstrating using remote sharing software

    - by Kev
    After spending 14 hours on this I think its time to share my woes and see if anyone has experienced this issue before. Ill describe the issue and tests I have done to rule out certain things. Ok so I have a WPF application which loads in data from an SQL database. I am using DevExpress Components for datagrids, ribbons etc.. and FluentNhibernate to provide a session for database operations. I am also using log4net to log events to a textfile. Using the application on my laptop with SQL Express 2008 works fine.. the application starts up, retrieves 1000 records and I can tab through the controls on the ribbon. Now, I decided to demo the application to a third party and used remote login/sharing software online to share my desktop with the other person so as I could load the application on my laptop and they could view me using the application. Now, the application takes approx 45 seconds to load... 30 seconds with a blank database where as, when im not sharing out my screen using the online software the application loads in about 7-10 seconds. As well as that, even using the controls in the application during the demo were very sticky, slow and unresponsive. During the sharing session though however I was able to use other applications without any problems.. everything else worked fine. But I cannot understand how my application works ok under normal conditions , even browsing the net at the same time etc... BUT totally fails to perform correctly when I am sharing a session with another user... the CPU usage shot up to 100% too at times when the application was trying to start up... Please see below a list of 3rd party dlls I am using as references in my project. DevExpress dlls FluidKit PixelLab.WPF PixelLab.Common Galasoft WPF Kit FluentNHibernate NHibernate Nhibernate.ByteCode.Castle Skype4ComLib TXTEXTControl log4net LinqKit All of these DLLs are in the output folder with the application dlls created from the class assemblys in the project. So when installed via an installer on a machine the dlls will be in the same application folder as the application file itself. Many thanks

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  • Can you pass by reference in Java?

    - by dbones
    Hi. Sorry if this sounds like a newbie question, but the other day a Java developer mentioned about passing a paramter by reference (by which it was ment just pass a Reference object) From a C# perspective I can pass a reference type by value or by reference, this is also true to value types I have written a noddie console application to show what i mean.. can i do this in Java? namespace ByRefByVal { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { //Creating of the object Person p1 = new Person(); p1.Name = "Dave"; PrintIfObjectIsNull(p1); //should not be null //A copy of the Reference is made and sent to the method PrintUserNameByValue(p1); PrintIfObjectIsNull(p1); //the actual reference is passed to the method PrintUserNameByRef(ref p1); //<-- I know im passing the Reference PrintIfObjectIsNull(p1); Console.ReadLine(); } private static void PrintIfObjectIsNull(Object o) { if (o == null) { Console.WriteLine("object is null"); } else { Console.WriteLine("object still references something"); } } /// <summary> /// this takes in a Reference type of Person, by value /// </summary> /// <param name="person"></param> private static void PrintUserNameByValue(Person person) { Console.WriteLine(person.Name); person = null; //<- this cannot affect the orginal reference, as it was passed in by value. } /// <summary> /// this takes in a Reference type of Person, by reference /// </summary> /// <param name="person"></param> private static void PrintUserNameByRef(ref Person person) { Console.WriteLine(person.Name); person = null; //this has access to the orginonal reference, allowing us to alter it, either make it point to a different object or to nothing. } } class Person { public string Name { get; set; } } } If it java cannot do this, then its just passing a reference type by value? (is that fair to say) Many thanks Bones

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  • How to have member variables and public methods in a jQuery plugin?

    - by user169867
    I'm trying to create a jQuery plugin that will create something like an autoCompleteBox but with custom features. How do I store member variables for each matching jQuery element? For example I'll need to store a timerID for each. I'd also like to store references to some of the DOM elements that make up the control. I'd like to be able to make a public method that works something like: $("#myCtrl").autoCompleteEx.addItem("1"); But in the implementation of addItem() how can I access the member variables for that particular object like its timerID or whatever? Below is what I have so far... Thanks for any help or suggestions! (function($) { //Attach this new method to jQuery $.fn.autoCompleteEx = function(options) { //Merge Given Options W/ Defaults, But Don't Alter Either var opts = $.extend({}, $.fn.autoCompleteEx.defaults, options); //Iterate over the current set of matched elements return this.each(function() { var acx = $(this); //Get JQuery Version Of Element (Should Be Div) //Give Div Correct Class & Add <ul> w/ input item to it acx.addClass("autoCompleteEx"); acx.html("<ul><li class=\"input\"><input type=\"text\"/></li></ul>"); //Grab Input As JQ Object var input = $("input", acx); //Wireup Div acx.click(function() { input.focus().val( input.val() ); }); //Wireup Input input.keydown(function(e) { var kc = e.keyCode; if(kc == 13) //Enter { } else if(kc == 27) //Esc { } else { //Resize TextArea To Input var width = 50 + (_txtArea.val().length*10); _txtArea.css("width", width+"px"); } }); }); //End Each JQ Element }; //End autoCompleteEx() //Private Functions function junk() { }; //Public Functions $.fn.autoCompleteEx.addItem = function(id,txt) { var x = this; var y = 0; }; //Default Settings $.fn.autoCompleteEx.defaults = { minChars: 2, delay: 300, maxItems: 1 }; //End Of Closure })(jQuery);

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  • Using a function with reference as a function with pointers?

    - by epatel
    Today I stumbled over a piece of code that looked horrifying to me. The pieces was chattered in different files, I have tried write the gist of it in a simple test case below. The code base is routinely scanned with FlexeLint on a daily basis, but this construct has been laying in the code since 2004. The thing is that a function implemented with a parameter passing using references is called as a function with a parameter passing using pointers...due to a function cast. The construct has worked since 2004 on Irix and now when porting it actually do work on Linux/gcc too. My question now. Is this a construct one can trust? I can understand if compiler constructors implement the reference passing as it was a pointer, but is it reliable? Are there hidden risks? Should I change the fref(..) to use pointers and risk braking anything in the process? What to you think? #include <iostream> using namespace std; // ---------------------------------------- // This will be passed as a reference in fref(..) struct string_struct { char str[256]; }; // ---------------------------------------- // Using pointer here! void fptr(const char *str) { cout << "fptr: " << str << endl; } // ---------------------------------------- // Using reference here! void fref(string_struct &str) { cout << "fref: " << str.str << endl; } // ---------------------------------------- // Cast to f(const char*) and call with pointer void ftest(void (*fin)()) { void (*fcall)(const char*) = (void(*)(const char*))fin; fcall("Hello!"); } // ---------------------------------------- // Let's go for a test int main() { ftest((void (*)())fptr); // test with fptr that's using pointer ftest((void (*)())fref); // test with fref that's using reference return 0; }

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  • Should we denormalize database to improve performance?

    - by Groo
    We have a requirement to store 500 measurements per second, coming from several devices. Each measurement consists of a timestamp, a quantity type, and several vector values. Right now there is 8 vector values per measurement, and we may consider this number to be constant for needs of our prototype project. We are using HNibernate. Tests are done in SQLite (disk file db, not in-memory), but production will probably be MsSQL. Our Measurement entity class is the one that holds a single measurement, and looks like this: public class Measurement { public virtual Guid Id { get; private set; } public virtual Device Device { get; private set; } public virtual Timestamp Timestamp { get; private set; } public virtual IList<VectorValue> Vectors { get; private set; } } Vector values are stored in a separate table, so that each of them references its parent measurement through a foreign key. We have done a couple of things to ensure that generated SQL is (reasonably) efficient: we are using Guid.Comb for generating IDs, we are flushing around 500 items in a single transaction, ADO.Net batch size is set to 100 (I think SQLIte does not support batch updates? But it might be useful later). The problem Right now we can insert 150-200 measurements per second (which is not fast enough, although this is SQLite we are talking about). Looking at the generated SQL, we can see that in a single transaction we insert (as expected): 1 timestamp 1 measurement 8 vector values which means that we are actually doing 10x more single table inserts: 1500-2000 per second. If we placed everything (all 8 vector values and the timestamp) into the measurement table (adding 9 dedicated columns), it seems that we could increase our insert speed up to 10 times. Switching to SQL server will improve performance, but we would like to know if there might be a way to avoid unnecessary performance costs related to the way database is organized right now. [Edit] With in-memory SQLite I get around 350 items/sec (3500 single table inserts), which I believe is about as good as it gets with NHibernate (taking this post for reference: http://ayende.com/Blog/archive/2009/08/22/nhibernate-perf-tricks.aspx). But I might as well switch to SQL server and stop assuming things, right? I will update my post as soon as I test it.

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  • Postgresql: Implicit lock acquisition from foreign-key constraint evaluation

    - by fennec
    So, I'm being confused about foreign key constraint handling in Postgresql. (version 8.4.4, for what it's worth). We've got a couple of tables, mildly anonymized below: device: (id, blah, blah, blah, blah, blah x 50)… primary key on id whooooole bunch of other junk device_foo: (id, device_id, left, right) Foreign key (device_id) references device(id) on delete cascade; primary key on id btree index on 'left' and 'right' So I set out with two database windows to run some queries. db1> begin; lock table device in exclusive mode; db2> begin; update device_foo set left = left + 1; The db2 connection blocks. It seems odd to me that an update of the 'left' column on device_stuff should be affected by activity on the device table. But it is. In fact, if I go back to db1: db1> select * from device_stuff for update; *** deadlock occurs *** The pgsql log has the following: blah blah blah deadlock blah. CONTEXT: SQL statement "SELECT 1 FROM ONLY "public"."device" x WHERE "id" OPERATOR(pg_catalog.=) $1 FOR SHARE OF X: update device_foo set left = left + 1; I suppose I've got two issues: the first is that I don't understand the precise mechanism by which this sort of locking occurs. I have got a couple of useful queries to query pg_locks to see what sort of locks a statement invokes, but I haven't been able to observe this particular sort of locking when I run the update device_foo command in isolation. (Perhaps I'm doing something wrong, though.) I also can't find any documentation on the lock acquisition behavior of foreign-key constraint checks. All I have is a log message. Am I to infer from this that any change to a row will acquire an update lock on all the tables which it's foreign-keyed against? The second issue is that I'd like to find some way to make it not happen like that. I'm ending up with occasional deadlocks in the actual application. I'd like to be able to run big update statements that impact all rows on device_foo without acquiring a big lock on the device table. (There's a lot of access going on in the device table, and it's kind of an expensive lock to get.)

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  • Using IoC and Dependency Injection, how do I wrap an existing implementation with a new layer of imp

    - by Dividnedium
    I'm trying to figure out how this would be done in practice, so as not to violate the Open Closed principle. Say I have a class called HttpFileDownloader that has one function that takes a url and downloads a file returning the html as a string. This class implements an IFileDownloader interface which just has the one function. So all over my code I have references to the IFileDownloader interface and I have my IoC container returning an instance of HttpFileDownloader whenever an IFileDownloader is Resolved. Then after some use, it becomes clear that occasionally the server is too busy at the time and an exception is thrown. I decide that to get around this, I'm going to auto-retry 3 times if I get an exception, and wait 5 seconds in between each retry. So I create HttpFileDownloaderRetrier which has one function that uses HttpFileDownloader in a for loop with max 3 loops, and a 5 second wait between each loop. So that I can test the "retry" and "wait" abilities of the HttpFileDownloadRetrier I have the HttpFileDownloader dependency injected by having the HttpFileDownloaderRetrier constructor take an IFileDownloader. So now I want all Resolving of IFileDownloader to return the HttpFileDownloaderRetrier. But if I do that, then HttpFileDownloadRetrier's IFileDownloader dependency will get an instance of itself and not of HttpFileDownloader. So I can see that I could create a new interface for HttpFileDownloader called IFileDownloaderNoRetry, and change HttpFileDownloader to implement that. But that means I'm changing HttpFileDownloader, which violates Open Closed. Or I could implement a new interface for HttpFileDownloaderRetrier called IFileDownloaderRetrier, and then change all my other code to refer to that instead of IFileDownloader. But again, I'm now violating Open Closed in all my other code. So what am I missing here? How do I wrap an existing implementation (downloading) with a new layer of implementation (retrying and waiting) without changing existing code? Here's some code if it helps: public interface IFileDownloader { string Download(string url); } public class HttpFileDownloader : IFileDownloader { public string Download(string url) { //Cut for brevity - downloads file here returns as string return html; } } public class HttpFileDownloaderRetrier : IFileDownloader { IFileDownloader fileDownloader; public HttpFileDownloaderRetrier(IFileDownloader fileDownloader) { this.fileDownloader = fileDownloader; } public string Download(string url) { Exception lastException = null; //try 3 shots of pulling a bad URL. And wait 5 seconds after each failed attempt. for (int i = 0; i < 3; i++) { try { fileDownloader.Download(url); } catch (Exception ex) { lastException = ex; } Utilities.WaitForXSeconds(5); } throw lastException; } }

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  • How can a 1Gb Java heap on a 64bit machine use 3Gb of VIRT space?

    - by Graeme Moss
    I run the same process on a 32bit machine as on a 64bit machine with the same memory VM settings (-Xms1024m -Xmx1024m) and similar VM version (1.6.0_05 vs 1.6.0_16). However the virtual space used by the 64bit machine (as shown in top under "VIRT") is almost three times as big as that in 32bit! I know 64bit VMs will use a little more memory for the larger references, but how can it be three times as big? Am I reading VIRT in top incorrectly? Full data shown below, showing top and then the result of jmap -heap, first for 64bit, then for 32bit. Note the VIRT for 64bit is 3319m for 32bit is 1220m. * 64bit * PID USER PR NI VIRT RES SHR S %CPU %MEM TIME+ COMMAND 22534 agent 20 0 3319m 163m 14m S 4.7 2.0 0:04.28 java $ jmap -heap 22534 Attaching to process ID 22534, please wait... Debugger attached successfully. Server compiler detected. JVM version is 10.0-b19 using thread-local object allocation. Parallel GC with 4 thread(s) Heap Configuration: MinHeapFreeRatio = 40 MaxHeapFreeRatio = 70 MaxHeapSize = 1073741824 (1024.0MB) NewSize = 2686976 (2.5625MB) MaxNewSize = -65536 (-0.0625MB) OldSize = 5439488 (5.1875MB) NewRatio = 2 SurvivorRatio = 8 PermSize = 21757952 (20.75MB) MaxPermSize = 88080384 (84.0MB) Heap Usage: PS Young Generation Eden Space: capacity = 268500992 (256.0625MB) used = 247066968 (235.62142181396484MB) free = 21434024 (20.441078186035156MB) 92.01715277089181% used From Space: capacity = 44695552 (42.625MB) used = 0 (0.0MB) free = 44695552 (42.625MB) 0.0% used To Space: capacity = 44695552 (42.625MB) used = 0 (0.0MB) free = 44695552 (42.625MB) 0.0% used PS Old Generation capacity = 715849728 (682.6875MB) used = 0 (0.0MB) free = 715849728 (682.6875MB) 0.0% used PS Perm Generation capacity = 21757952 (20.75MB) used = 16153928 (15.405586242675781MB) free = 5604024 (5.344413757324219MB) 74.24378912132907% used * 32bit * PID USER PR NI VIRT RES SHR S %CPU %MEM TIME+ COMMAND 30168 agent 20 0 1220m 175m 12m S 0.0 2.2 0:13.43 java $ jmap -heap 30168 Attaching to process ID 30168, please wait... Debugger attached successfully. Server compiler detected. JVM version is 14.2-b01 using thread-local object allocation. Parallel GC with 8 thread(s) Heap Configuration: MinHeapFreeRatio = 40 MaxHeapFreeRatio = 70 MaxHeapSize = 1073741824 (1024.0MB) NewSize = 1048576 (1.0MB) MaxNewSize = 4294901760 (4095.9375MB) OldSize = 4194304 (4.0MB) NewRatio = 8 SurvivorRatio = 8 PermSize = 16777216 (16.0MB) MaxPermSize = 67108864 (64.0MB) Heap Usage: PS Young Generation Eden Space: capacity = 89522176 (85.375MB) used = 80626352 (76.89128112792969MB) free = 8895824 (8.483718872070312MB) 90.0629940005033% used From Space: capacity = 14876672 (14.1875MB) used = 14876216 (14.187065124511719MB) free = 456 (4.3487548828125E-4MB) 99.99693479832048% used To Space: capacity = 14876672 (14.1875MB) used = 0 (0.0MB) free = 14876672 (14.1875MB) 0.0% used PS Old Generation capacity = 954466304 (910.25MB) used = 10598496 (10.107513427734375MB) free = 943867808 (900.1424865722656MB) 1.1104107034039412% used PS Perm Generation capacity = 16777216 (16.0MB) used = 11366448 (10.839889526367188MB) free = 5410768 (5.1601104736328125MB) 67.74930953979492% used

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  • Rails. Putting update logic in your migrations

    - by Daniel Abrahamsson
    A couple of times I've been in the situation where I've wanted to refactor the design of some model and have ended up putting update logic in migrations. However, as far as I've understood, this is not good practice (especially since you are encouraged to use your schema file for deployment, and not your migrations). How do you deal with these kind of problems? To clearify what I mean, say I have a User model. Since I thought there would only be two kinds of users, namely a "normal" user and an administrator, I chose to use a simple boolean field telling whether the user was an adminstrator or not. However, after I while I figured I needed some third kind of user, perhaps a moderator or something similar. In this case I add a UserType model (and the corresponding migration), and a second migration for removing the "admin" flag from the user table. And here comes the problem. In the "add_user_type_to_users" migration I have to map the admin flag value to a user type. Additionally, in order to do this, the user types have to exist, meaning I can not use the seeds file, but rather create the user types in the migration (also considered bad practice). Here comes some fictional code representing the situation: class CreateUserTypes < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :user_types do |t| t.string :name, :nil => false, :unique => true end #Create basic types (can not put in seed, because of future migration dependency) UserType.create!(:name => "BASIC") UserType.create!(:name => "MODERATOR") UserType.create!(:name => "ADMINISTRATOR") end def self.down drop_table :user_types end end class AddTypeIdToUsers < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up add_column :users, :type_id, :integer #Determine type via the admin flag basic = UserType.find_by_name("BASIC") admin = UserType.find_by_name("ADMINISTRATOR") User.all.each {|u| u.update_attribute(:type_id, (u.admin?) ? admin.id : basic.id)} #Remove the admin flag remove_column :users, :admin #Add foreign key execute "alter table users add constraint fk_user_type_id foreign key (type_id) references user_types (id)" end def self.down #Re-add the admin flag add_column :users, :admin, :boolean, :default => false #Reset the admin flag (this is the problematic update code) admin = UserType.find_by_name("ADMINISTRATOR") execute "update users set admin=true where type_id=#{admin.id}" #Remove foreign key constraint execute "alter table users drop foreign key fk_user_type_id" #Drop the type_id column remove_column :users, :type_id end end As you can see there are two problematic parts. First the row creation part in the first model, which is necessary if I would like to run all migrations in a row, then the "update" part in the second migration that maps the "admin" column to the "type_id" column. Any advice?

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  • perl dancer: passing database info to template

    - by Bubnoff
    Following Dancer tutorial here: http://search.cpan.org/dist/Dancer/lib/Dancer/Tutorial.pod I'm using my own sqlite3 database with this schema CREATE TABLE if not exists location (location_code TEXT PRIMARY KEY, name TEXT, stations INTEGER); CREATE TABLE if not exists session (id INTEGER PRIMARY KEY, date TEXT, sessions INTEGER, location_code TEXT, FOREIGN KEY(location_code) REFERENCES location(location_code)); My dancer code ( helloWorld.pm ) for the database: package helloWorld; use Dancer; use DBI; use File::Spec; use File::Slurp; use Template; our $VERSION = '0.1'; set 'template' => 'template_toolkit'; set 'logger' => 'console'; my $base_dir = qq(/home/automation/scripts/Area51/perl/dancer); # database crap sub connect_db { my $db = qw(/home/automation/scripts/Area51/perl/dancer/sessions.sqlite); my $dbh = DBI->connect("dbi:SQLite:dbname=$db", "", "", { RaiseError => 1, AutoCommit => 1 }); return $dbh; } sub init_db { my $db = connect_db(); my $file = qq($base_dir/schema.sql); my $schema = read_file($file); $db->do($schema) or die $db->errstr; } get '/' => sub { my $branch_code = qq(BPT); my $dbh = connect_db(); my $sql = q(SELECT * FROM session); my $sth = $dbh->prepare($sql) or die $dbh->errstr; $sth->execute or die $dbh->errstr; my $key_field = q(id); template 'show_entries.tt', { 'branch' => $branch_code, 'data' => $sth->fetchall_hashref($key_field), }; }; init_db(); true; Tried the example template on the site, doesn't work. <% FOREACH id IN data.keys.nsort %> <li>Date is: <% data.$id.sessions %> </li> <% END %> Produces page but with no data. How do I troubleshoot this as no clues come up in the console/cli? Thanks Bubnoff

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  • RenderTargetBitmap + Resource'd VisualBrush = incomplete image

    - by Will
    I've found a new twist on the "Visual to RenderTargetBitmap" question! I'm rendering previews of WPF stuff for a designer. That means I need to take a WPF visual and render it to a bitmap without that visual ever being displayed. Got a nice little method to do it like to see it here it goes private static BitmapSource CreateBitmapSource(FrameworkElement visual) { Border b = new Border { Width = visual.Width, Height = visual.Height }; b.BorderBrush = Brushes.Black; b.BorderThickness = new Thickness(1); b.Background = Brushes.White; b.Child = visual; b.Measure(new Size(b.Width, b.Height)); b.Arrange(new Rect(b.DesiredSize)); RenderTargetBitmap rtb = new RenderTargetBitmap( (int)b.ActualWidth, (int)b.ActualHeight, 96, 96, PixelFormats.Pbgra32); // intermediate step here to ensure any VisualBrushes are rendered properly DrawingVisual dv = new DrawingVisual(); using (var dc = dv.RenderOpen()) { var vb = new VisualBrush(b); dc.DrawRectangle(vb, null, new Rect(new Point(), b.DesiredSize)); } rtb.Render(dv); return rtb; } Works fine, except for one leeetle thing... if my FrameworkElement has a VisualBrush, that brush doesn't end up in the final rendered bitmap. Something like this: <UserControl.Resources> <VisualBrush x:Key="LOLgo"> <VisualBrush.Visual> <!-- blah blah --> <Grid Background="{StaticResource LOLgo}"> <!-- yadda yadda --> Everything else renders to the bitmap, but that VisualBrush just won't show. The obvious google solutions have been attempted and have failed. Even the ones that specifically mention VisualBrushes missing from RTB'd bitmaps. I have a sneaky suspicion this might be caused by the fact that its a Resource, and that lazy resource isn't being inlined. So a possible fix would be to, somehow(???), force resolution of all static resource references before rendering. But I have absolutely no idea how to do that. Anybody have a fix for this?

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  • Executing a .NET Managed Assembly from SQL Server 2008 - Pro's, Con's & Recommendations

    - by RPM1984
    Hi guys, looking for opinions/recommendations/links for the following scenario im currently facing. The Platform: .NET 4.0 Web Application SQL Server 2008 The Task: Overhaul a component of the system that performs (fairly) complex mathematical operations based on a specific user activity, and updates numerous tables in the database. A common user activity might be "Bob" decides to post a forum topic. This results in (the end-solution) needing to look at various factors (about the post he did), then after doing some math based on lookup values/ratios as well as other data in the database, inserting some other data as a result of these operations. The Options: Ok - so here's what im thinking. Although it would be much easier to do this in C# (LINQ-SQL) it doesnt make much sense as the majority of the computations are based on values in the db, and it will get difficult to control/optimize/debug the LINQ over time. Hence, im leaning towards created a managed assembly (C# Class Library) that contains the lookup values (constants) as well as leveraging the math classes in the existing .NET BCL. Basically i'd expose a few methods that can be called by the T-SQL Stored Procedures. This to me has the following advantages: Simplicity of math. Do complex math in .NET vs complex math in T-SQL. No brainer. =) Abstraction of computatations, configurable "lookup" values and business logic from raw T-SQL. T-SQL only needs to care about the data, simplifying the stored procedures and making it easier to maintain. When it needs to do math it delegates off to the managed assembly. So, having said that - ive never done this before (call .NET assmembly from T-SQL), and after some googling the best site i could come up with is here, which is useful but outdated. So - what am i asking? Well, firstly - i need some better references on how to actually do this. "This" being how to call a C# .NET 4 Assembly from within T-SQL Stored Procedures in SQL Server 2008. Secondly, who out there has done this, what problems (if any) did you face? Realize this may be difficult to provide a "correct answer", so ill try to give it to whoever gives me the answer with a combination of good links and a list of pro's/con's/problems with this implementation. Cheers!

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  • Isn't the C++ standard library backward-compatible?

    - by Chris Metzler
    Hi. I'm working on a 64-bit Linux system, trying to build some code that depends on third-party libraries for which I have binaries. During linking, I get a stream of undefined reference errors for one of the libraries, indicating that the linker couldn't resolve references to standard C++ functions/classes, e.g.: librxio.a(EphReader.o): In function `gpstk::EphReader::read_fic_data(std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> > const&)': EphReader.cpp:(.text+0x27c): undefined reference to `std::basic_ostream<char, std::char_traits<char> >& std::__ostream_insert<char, std::char_traits<char> >(std::basic_ostream<char, std::char_traits<char> >&, char const*, long)' EphReader.cpp:(.text+0x4e8): undefined reference to `std::basic_ostream<char, std::char_traits<char> >& std::__ostream_insert<char, std::char_traits<char> >(std::basic_ostream<char, std::char_traits<char> >&, char const*, long)' I'm not really a C++ programmer, but this looks to me like it can't find the standard library. Doing some more research, I got the following when I looked at librxio's dependency for the standard library: $ ldd librxio.so.16.0 ./librxio.so.16.0: /usr/lib64/libstdc++.so.6: version `GLIBCXX_3.4.9' not found (required by ./librxio.so.16.0) libm.so.6 => /lib64/libm.so.6 (0x00002aaaaad45000) libstdc++.so.6 => /usr/lib64/libstdc++.so.6 (0x00002aaaaafc8000) libgcc_s.so.1 => /lib64/libgcc_s.so.1 (0x00002aaaab2c8000) libc.so.6 => /lib64/libc.so.6 (0x00002aaaab4d7000) /lib64/ld-linux-x86-64.so.2 (0x0000555555554000) So I read that as saying that librxio (one of the third-party libraries) requires at least v3.4.9 of the standard library. But the version I have installed is 4.1.2: $ rpm -qa | grep libstdc compat-libstdc++-33-3.2.3-61.x86_64 libstdc++-devel-4.1.2-14.el5.i386 libstdc++-devel-4.1.2-14.el5.x86_64 libstdc++-4.1.2-14.el5.x86_64 libstdc++-4.1.2-14.el5.i386 Shouldn't this work? The shared object major number is 6, same as for v3.4.9. At this level, shouldn't this be backward compatible? It seems like the third-party library is looking for an earlier version of the standard library than what I have installed; but isn't there backward compatibility between versions with the same major number for the shared library? Again, I'm not really a C++ programmer; but I don't see what the problem is. Any advice greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Autocomplete server-side implementation

    - by toluju
    What is a fast and efficient way to implement the server-side component for an autocomplete feature in an html input box? I am writing a service to autocomplete user queries in our web interface's main search box, and the completions are displayed in an ajax-powered dropdown. The data we are running queries against is simply a large table of concepts our system knows about, which matches roughly with the set of wikipedia page titles. For this service obviously speed is of utmost importance, as responsiveness of the web page is important to the user experience. The current implementation simply loads all concepts into memory in a sorted set, and performs a simple log(n) lookup on a user keystroke. The tailset is then used to provide additional matches beyond the closest match. The problem with this solution is that it does not scale. It currently is running up against the VM heap space limit (I've set -Xmx2g, which is about the most we can push on our 32 bit machines), and this prevents us from expanding our concept table or adding more functionality. Switching to 64-bit VMs on machines with more memory isn't an immediate option. I've been hesitant to start working on a disk-based solution as I am concerned that disk seek time will kill performance. Are there possible solutions that will let me scale better, either entirely in memory or with some fast disk-backed implementations? Edits: @Gandalf: For our use case it is important the the autocompletion is comprehensive and isn't just extra help for the user. As for what we are completing, it is a list of concept-type pairs. For example, possible entries are [("Microsoft", "Software Company"), ("Jeff Atwood", "Programmer"), ("StackOverflow.com", "Website")]. We are using Lucene for the full search once a user selects an item from the autocomplete list, but I am not yet sure Lucene would work well for the autocomplete itself. @Glen: No databases are being used here. When I'm talking about a table I just mean the structured representation of my data. @Jason Day: My original implementation to this problem was to use a Trie, but the memory bloat with that was actually worse than the sorted set due to needing a large number of object references. I'll read on the ternary search trees to see if it could be of use.

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  • Create class instance in assembly from string name

    - by Arcadian
    I'm not sure if this is possible, and I'm quite new to using assemblies in C#.NET. What I would like to do is to create an instance of a class when supplied the string name of that class. Something like this: using MyAssembly; namespace MyNameSpace { Class MyClass { int MyValue1; int MyValue2; public MyClass(string myTypeName) { foreach(Type type in MyAssembly) { if((string)type == myTypeName) { //create a new instance of the type } } AssignInitialValues(//the type created above) } //Here I use an abstract type which the type above inherits from private void AssignInitialValues(AbstractType myClass) { this.value1 = myClass.value1; this.value2 = myClass.value2; } } } Obviously you cannot compare strings to types but it illustrates what I'm trying to do: create a type from a supplied string. Any thoughts? EDIT: After attempting: var myObject = (AbstractType) Activator.CreateInstance(null, myTypeName); AssignInitialValues(myObject); I get a number of errors: Inconsistent accessibility: parameter type 'MyAssembly.AbstractType' is less accessible than method 'MyNameSpace.MyClass.AssignInitialValues(MyAssembly.AstractType)' 'MyAssembly.AstractType' is inaccessible due to it's protection level The type or namespace name 'MyAssembly' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) The type or namespace name 'AbstractType' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Not exactly sure why it can't find the assembly; I've added a reference to the assembly and I use a Using Directive for the namespace in the assembly. As for the protection level, it's calling classes (or rather the constructors of classes) which can only be public. Any clues on where the problem is? UPDATE: After looking through several articles on SO I came across this: http://stackoverflow.com/a/1632609/360627 Making the AbstractTypeclass public solved the issue of inconsistent accessibility. The new compiler error is this: Cannot convert type 'System.Runtime.Remoting.ObjectHandle' to 'MyAssembly.AbstractType' The line it references is this one: var myObject = (AbstractType) Activator.CreateInstance(null, myTypeName); Using .Unwrap() get's me past this error and I think it's the right way to do it (uncertain). However, when running the program I then get a TypeLoadException when this code is called. TypeLoadException: Could not load type ‘AbstractType’ from assembly ‘MyNameSpace'... Right away I can spot that the type its looking for is correct but the assembly it's looking in is wrong. Looking up the Activator.CreateInstance(String, String) method revealed that the null as the first argument means that the method will look in the executing assembly. This is contrary to the required behavior as in the original post. I've tried using MyAssembly as the first argument but this produces the error: 'MyAssembly' is a 'namespace' but is used like a 'variable' Any thoughts on how to fix this?

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  • Assembly Load and loading the "sub-modules" dependencies - "cannot find the file specified"

    - by Ted
    There are several questions out there that ask the same question. However the answers they received I cannot understand, so here goes: Similar questions: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1874277/dynamically-load-assembly-and-manually-force-path-to-get-referenced-assemblies ; http://stackoverflow.com/questions/22012/loading-assemblies-and-its-dependencies-closed The question in short: I need to figure out how dependencies, ie References in my modules can be loaded dynamically. Right now I am getting "The system cannot find the file specified" on Assemblies referenced in my so called modules. I cannot really get how to use the AssemblyResolve event... The longer version I have one application, MODULECONTROLLER, that loads separate modules. These "separate modules" are located in well-known subdirectories, like appBinDir\Modules\Module1 appBinDir\Modules\Module2 Each directory contains all the DLLs that exists in the bin-directory of those projects after a build. So the MODULECONTROLLER loads all the DLLs contained in those folders using this code: byte[] bytes = File.ReadAllBytes(dllFileFullPath); Assembly assembly = null; assembly = Assembly.Load(bytes); I am, as you can see, loading the byte[]-array (so I dont lock the DLL-files). Now, in for example MODULE1, I have a static reference called MyGreatXmlProtocol. The MyGreatXmlProtocol.dll then also exists in the directory appBinDir\Modules\Module1 and is loaded using the above code When code in the MODULE1 tries to use this MyGreatXmlProtocol, I get: Could not load file or assembly 'MyGreatXmlProtocol, Version=1.0.3797.26527, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. So, in a post (like this one) they say that To my understanding reflection will load the main assembly and then search the GAC for the referenced assemblies, if it cannot find it there, you can then incorparate an assemblyResolve event: First; is it really needed to use the AssemblyResolve-event to make this work? Shouldnt my different MODULEs themself load their DLLs, as they are statically referenced? Second; if AssemblyResolve is the way to go - how do I use it? I have attached a handler to the Event but I never get anything on MyGreatXmlProctol... === EDIT === CODE regarding the AssemblyResolve-event handler: public GUI() { InitializeComponent(); AppDomain.CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve += new ResolveEventHandler(CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve); ... } // Assembly CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve(object sender, ResolveEventArgs args) { Console.WriteLine(args.Name); return null; } Hope I wasnt too fuzzy =) Thx

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