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  • Web development - relative URLs without duplicating files

    - by eshriek
    I have a site with index.php in the root folder, images in /img , and overview.php in /content . I have a sidebar.php file that is included in both index.php and overview.php . How should I refer to /img/image.gif if I include a link in each file? The location of image.gif changes relative to the location of the file that references it. Using /img/image.gif in sidebar.php will work in index.php, but it fails for the file located at /content/overview.php. The only solution that I can see is to either include a seperate sidebar.php in each subdirectory, or include an /img directory in every sub-directory. The best suggestion that I can find is to use the <base html tag as suggested here: Change relative link paths for included content in PHP However, in the same link, SamGoody suggests that the <base tag "is no longer properly supported in Internet Explorer, since version 7." I'd like some insight on the matter before committing to a course of action. Thanks. EDIT: I am using the wrong approach below with "../" Example- root/index.php: ... <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="style.css" /> <title>title</title> </head> <body> <?php include('include/header.php'); ?> <?php include('include/menu.php'); ?> ... root/include/header.php: ... <div id="header"> <span class="fl"><img src="img/dun1.png"/></span><span class="fr"><img src="img/dun2.png"/></span> ... root/content/overview.php: ... <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="../style.css" media="screen" /> <title>Overview</title> </head> <body> <?php include('../include/header.php'); ?> <?php include('../include/menu.php'); ?> ...

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  • JPA entity design / cannot delete entity

    - by timaschew
    I though its simple what I want, but I cannot find any solution for my problem. I'm using playframework 1.2.3 and it's using Hibernate as JPA. So I think playframework has nothing to do with the problem. I have some classes (I omit the nonrelevant fields) public class User { ... } public class Task { public DataContainer dataContainer; } public class DataContainer { public Session session; public User user; } public class Session { ... } So I have association from Task to DataContainer and from DataContainer to Sesssion and the DataContainer belongs to a User. The DataContainers can have always the same User, but the Session have to be different for each instance. And the DataContainer of a Task have also to be different in each instance. A DataContainer can have a Sesesion or not (it's optinal). I use only unidirectional assoc. It should be sufficient. In other words: Every Task must has one DataContainer. Every DataContainer must has one/the same User and can have one Session. To create a DB schema I use JPA annotations: @Entity public class User extends Model { ... } @Entity public class Task extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public DataContainer dataContainer; } @Entity public class DataContainer extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = true, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public Session session; @ManyToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public User user; } @Entity public class Session extends Model { ... } BTW: Model is a play class and provides the primary id as long type. When I create some for each entity a object and 'connect them', I mean the associations, it works fine. But when I try to delete a Session, I get a constraint violation exception, because a DataContainer still refers to the Session I want to delete. I want that the Session (field) of the DataContainer will be set to null respectively the foreign key (session_id) should be unset in the database. This will be okay, because its optional. I don't know, I think I have multiple problems. Am I using the right annotation @OneToOne ? I found on the internet some additional annotation and attributes: @JoinColumn and a mappedBy attribute for the inverse relationship. But I don't have it, because its not bidirectional. Or is a bidirectional assoc. essentially? Another try was to use @OnDelete(action = OnDeleteAction.CASCADE) the the contraint changed from NO ACTIONs when update or delete to: ADD CONSTRAINT fk4745c17e6a46a56 FOREIGN KEY (session_id) REFERENCES annotation_session (id) MATCH SIMPLE ON UPDATE NO ACTION ON DELETE CASCADE; But in this case, when I delete a session, the DataContainer and User is deleted. That's wrong for me. EDIT: I'm using postgresql 9, the jdbc stuff is included in play, my only db config is db=postgres://app:app@localhost:5432/app

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  • Why does firefox round-trip to the server to determine whether my files are modifed?

    - by erikkallen
    I have some static content on my web site that I have set up caching for (using Asp.NET MVC). According to Firebug, the first time I open the page, Firefox sends this request: GET /CoreContent/Core.css?asm=0.7.3614.34951 Host: 127.0.0.1:3916 User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.5) Gecko/20091102 Firefox/3.5.5 (.NET CLR 3.5.30729) Accept: text/css,*/*;q=0.1 Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Referer: http://127.0.0.1:3916/Edit/1/101 Cookie: .ASPXAUTH=52312E5A802C1A079E2BA29AA2BFBC5A38058977B84452D62ED52855D4164659B4307661EC73A307BFFB2ED3871C67CB3A9AAFDB3A75A99AC0A21C63A6AADE9A11A7138C672E75125D9FF3EFFBD9BF62 Pragma: no-cache Cache-Control: no-cache Which my server replies to with this: Server: ASP.NET Development Server/9.0.0.0 Date: Mon, 23 Nov 2009 18:44:41 GMT X-AspNet-Version: 2.0.50727 X-AspNetMvc-Version: 1.0 Cache-Control: public, max-age=31535671 Expires: Tue, 23 Nov 2010 18:39:12 GMT Last-Modified: Mon, 23 Nov 2009 18:39:12 GMT Vary: * Content-Type: text/css Content-Length: 15006 Connection: Close So far, so good. However, if I refresh Firefox (not a cache-clearing refresh, just a normal one), during that refresh cycle Firefox will once again go to the server with this request: GET /CoreContent/Core.css?asm=0.7.3614.34951 Host: 127.0.0.1:3916 User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.5) Gecko/20091102 Firefox/3.5.5 (.NET CLR 3.5.30729) Accept: text/css,*/*;q=0.1 Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Referer: http://127.0.0.1:3916/Edit/1/101 Cookie: .ASPXAUTH=52312E5A802C1A079E2BA29AA2BFBC5A38058977B84452D62ED52855D4164659B4307661EC73A307BFFB2ED3871C67CB3A9AAFDB3A75A99AC0A21C63A6AADE9A11A7138C672E75125D9FF3EFFBD9BF62 If-Modified-Since: Mon, 23 Nov 2009 18:39:20 GMT Cache-Control: max-age=0 to which my server responds 304 Not Modified. Why does Firefox issue this second request? In the first response, I said that the cache does not expire for a year (I intend to use query parameters whenever things change). Do I have to add another response header to prevent this extra roundtrip? Edit: It does not matter whether I press refresh, or whether I go to the page again (or a different URL, which references the same external files). Firefox does the same again. Also, I don't claim this to be a bug in FF, I just wonder if there is another header I can set which means "This document will never change, don't bother me again".

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  • How do I stack images to simulate depth using Core Animation?

    - by Jeffrey Berthiaume
    I have a series of UIImages with which I need to simulate depth. I can't use scaling because I need to be able to rotate the parent view, and the images should look like they're stacked visibly in front of each other, not on the same plane. I made a new ViewController-based project and put this in the viewDidLoad (as well as attached three 120x120 pixel images named 1.png, 2.png, and 3.png): - (void)viewDidLoad { // display image 3 UIImageView *three = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"3.png"]]; three.center = CGPointMake(160 + 60, 240 - 60); [self.view addSubview:three]; // rotate image 3 around the z axis // THIS IS INCORRECT CATransform3D theTransform = three.layer.transform; theTransform.m34 = 1.0 / -1000; three.layer.transform = theTransform; // display image 2 UIImageView *two = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"2.png"]]; two.center = CGPointMake(160, 240); [self.view addSubview:two]; // display image 1 UIImageView *one = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"1.png"]]; one.center = CGPointMake(160 - 60, 240 + 60); [self.view addSubview:one]; // rotate image 3 around the z axis // THIS IS INCORRECT theTransform = one.layer.transform; theTransform.m34 = 1.0 / 1000; one.layer.transform = theTransform; // release the images [one release]; [two release]; [three release]; // rotate the parent view around the y axis theTransform = self.view.layer.transform; theTransform.m14 = 1.0 / -500; self.view.layer.transform = theTransform; [super viewDidLoad]; } I have very specific reasons why I'm not using an EAGLView and why I'm not loading the images as CALayers (i.e. why I'm using UIImageViews for each one). This is just a quick demo that I can use to work out exactly what I need in my parent application. Is there some matrix way to translate these 2d images along the z-axis so they will look like what I'm trying to represent? I've gone through the other StackOverflow articles as well as the Wikipedia references, and have not found what I'm looking for -- although I might not necessarily be using the right terms for what I'm trying to do.

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  • Assembly Load and loading the "sub-modules" dependencies - "cannot fild the file specified"

    - by Ted
    There are several questions out there that ask the same question. However the answers they received I cannot understand, so here goes: Similar questions: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1874277/dynamically-load-assembly-and-manually-force-path-to-get-referenced-assemblies ; http://stackoverflow.com/questions/22012/loading-assemblies-and-its-dependencies-closed The question in short: I need to figure out how dependencies, ie References in my modules can be loaded dynamically. Right now I am getting "The system cannot find the file specified" on Assemblies referenced in my so called modules. I cannot really get how to use the AssemblyResolve event... The longer version I have one application, MODULECONTROLLER, that loads separate modules. These "separate modules" are located in well-known subdirectories, like appBinDir\Modules\Module1 appBinDir\Modules\Module2 Each directory contains all the DLLs that exists in the bin-directory of those projects after a build. So the MODULECONTROLLER loads all the DLLs contained in those folders using this code: byte[] bytes = File.ReadAllBytes(dllFileFullPath); Assembly assembly = null; assembly = Assembly.Load(bytes); I am, as you can see, loading the byte[]-array (so I dont lock the DLL-files). Now, in for example MODULE1, I have a static reference called MyGreatXmlProtocol. The MyGreatXmlProtocol.dll then also exists in the directory appBinDir\Modules\Module1 and is loaded using the above code When code in the MODULE1 tries to use this MyGreatXmlProtocol, I get: Could not load file or assembly 'MyGreatXmlProtocol, Version=1.0.3797.26527, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. So, in a post (like this one) they say that To my understanding reflection will load the main assembly and then search the GAC for the referenced assemblies, if it cannot find it there, you can then incorparate an assemblyResolve event: First; is it really needed to use the AssemblyResolve-event to make this work? Shouldnt my different MODULEs themself load their DLLs, as they are statically referenced? Second; if AssemblyResolve is the way to go - how do I use it? I have attached a handler to the Event but I never get anything on MyGreatXmlProctol... === EDIT === CODE regarding the AssemblyResolve-event handler: public GUI() { InitializeComponent(); AppDomain.CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve += new ResolveEventHandler(CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve); ... } // Assembly CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve(object sender, ResolveEventArgs args) { Console.WriteLine(args.Name); return null; } Hope I wasnt too fuzzy =) Thx

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  • Deserialization error in a new environment

    - by cerhart
    I have a web application that calls a third-party web service. When I run it locally, I have no problems, but when I move it to my production environment, I get the following error: There is an error in XML document (2, 428). Stack: at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer.Deserialize(XmlReader xmlReader, String encodingStyle, XmlDeserializationEvents events) at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer.Deserialize(XmlReader xmlReader, String encodingStyle) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.ReadResponse(SoapClientMessage message, WebResponse response, Stream responseStream, Boolean asyncCall) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.Invoke(String methodName, Object[] parameters) at RMXClasses.RMXContactService.ContactService.getActiveSessions(String user, String pass) in C:\Users\hp\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\ReklamStore\RMXClasses\Web References\RMXContactService\Reference.cs:line 257 at I have used the same web config file from the production environment but it still works locally. My local machine is a running vista home edition and the production environment is windows server 2003. The application is written in asp.net 3.5, wierdly under the asp.net config tab in iis, 3.5 doesn't show up in the drop down list, although that version of the framework is installed. The error is not being thrown in my code, it happens during serialization. I called the method on the proxy, I have checked the arguments and they are OK. I have also logged the SOAP request and response, and they both look OK as well. I am really at a loss here. Any ideas? SOAP log: This is the soap response that the program seems to have trouble parsing only on server 2003. On my machine the soap is identical, and yet it parses with no problems. SoapResponse BeforeDeserialize; <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:ns1="urn:ContactService" xmlns:ns2="http://api.yieldmanager.com/types" xmlns:SOAP-ENC="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" SOAP-ENV:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/"><SOAP-ENV:Body><ns1:getActiveSessionsResponse> <sessions SOAP-ENC:arrayType="ns2:session[1]" xsi:type="ns2:array_of_session"> <item xsi:type="ns2:session"> <token xsi:type="xsd:string">xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx1ae12517584b</token> <creation_time xsi:type="xsd:dateTime">2009-09-25T05:51:19Z</creation_time> <modification_time xsi:type="xsd:dateTime">2009-09-25T05:51:19Z</modification_time> <ip_address xsi:type="xsd:string">xxxxxxxxxx</ip_address> <contact_id xsi:type="xsd:long">xxxxxx</contact_id></item></sessions> </ns1:getActiveSessionsResponse></SOAP-ENV:Body></SOAP-ENV:Envelope>

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  • How do I do distributed UML development (à la FOSS)?

    - by James A. Rosen
    I have a UML project (built in IBM's Rational System Architect/Modeler, so stored in their XML format) that has grown quite large. Additionally, it now contains several pieces that other groups would like to re-use. I come from a software development (especially FOSS) background, and am trying to understand how to use that as an analogy here. The problem I am grappling with is similar to the Fragile Base Class problem. Let me start with how it works in an object-oriented (say, Java or Ruby) FOSS ecosystem: Group 1 publishes some "core" package, say "net/smtp version 1.0" Group 2 includes Group 1's net/smtp 1.0 package in the vendor library of their software project At some point, Group 1 creates a new 2.0 branch of net/smtp that breaks backwards compatibility (say, it removes an old class or method, or moves a class from one package to another). They tell users of the 1.0 version that it will be deprecated in one year. Group 2, when they have the time, updates to net/smtp 2.0. When they drop in the new package, their compiler (or test suite, for Ruby) tells them about the incompatibility. They do have to make some manual changes, but all of the changes are in the code, in plain text, a medium with which they are quite familiar. Plus, they can often use their IDE's (or text editor's) "global-search-and-replace" function once they figure out what the fixes are. When we try to apply this model to UML in RSA, we run into some problems. RSA supports some fairly powerful refactorings, but they seem to only work if you have write access to all of the pieces. If I rename a class in one package, RSA can rename the references, but only at the same time. It's very difficult to look at the underlying source (the XML) and figure out what's broken. To fix such a problem in the RSA editor itself means tons of clicking on things -- there is no good equivalent of "global-search-and-replace," at least not after an incomplete refactor. They real sticking point seems to be that RSA assumes that you want to do all your editing using their GUI, but that makes certain operations prohibitively difficult. Does anyone have examples of open-source UML projects that have overcome this problem? What strategies do they use for communicating changes?

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  • How to reduce redundant code when adding new c++0x rvalue reference operator overloads

    - by Inverse
    I am adding new operator overloads to take advantage of c++0x rvalue references, and I feel like I'm producing a lot of redundant code. I have a class, tree, that holds a tree of algebraic operations on double values. Here is an example use case: tree x = 1.23; tree y = 8.19; tree z = (x + y)/67.31 - 3.15*y; ... std::cout << z; // prints "(1.23 + 8.19)/67.31 - 3.15*8.19" For each binary operation (like plus), each side can be either an lvalue tree, rvalue tree, or double. This results in 8 overloads for each binary operation: // core rvalue overloads for plus: tree operator +(const tree& a, const tree& b); tree operator +(const tree& a, tree&& b); tree operator +(tree&& a, const tree& b); tree operator +(tree&& a, tree&& b); // cast and forward cases: tree operator +(const tree& a, double b) { return a + tree(b); } tree operator +(double a, const tree& b) { return tree(a) + b; } tree operator +(tree&& a, double b) { return std::move(a) + tree(b); } tree operator +(double a, tree&& b) { return tree(a) + std::move(b); } // 8 more overloads for minus // 8 more overloads for multiply // 8 more overloads for divide // etc which also has to be repeated in a way for each binary operation (minus, multiply, divide, etc). As you can see, there are really only 4 functions I actually need to write; the other 4 can cast and forward to the core cases. Do you have any suggestions for reducing the size of this code? PS: The class is actually more complex than just a tree of doubles. Reducing copies does dramatically improve performance of my project. So, the rvalue overloads are worthwhile for me, even with the extra code. I have a suspicion that there might be a way to template away the "cast and forward" cases above, but I can't seem to think of anything.

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  • Java replacement for C macros

    - by thkala
    Recently I refactored the code of a 3rd party hash function from C++ to C. The process was relatively painless, with only a few changes of note. Now I want to write the same function in Java and I came upon a slight issue. In the C/C++ code there is a C preprocessor macro that takes a few integer variables names as arguments and performs a bunch of bitwise operations with their contents and a few constants. That macro is used in several different places, therefore its presence avoids a fair bit of code duplication. In Java, however, there is no equivalent for the C preprocessor. There is also no way to affect any basic type passed as an argument to a method - even autoboxing produces immutable objects. Coupled with the fact that Java methods return a single value, I can't seem to find a simple way to rewrite the macro. Avenues that I considered: Expand the macro by hand everywhere: It would work, but the code duplication could make things interesting in the long run. Write a method that returns an array: This would also work, but it would repeatedly result into code like this: long tmp[] = bitops(k, l, m, x, y, z); k = tmp[0]; l = tmp[1]; m = tmp[2]; x = tmp[3]; y = tmp[4]; z = tmp[5]; Write a method that takes an array as an argument: This would mean that all variable names would be reduced to array element references - it would be rather hard to keep track of which index corresponds to which variable. Create a separate class e.g. State with public fields of the appropriate type and use that as an argument to a method: This is my current solution. It allows the method to alter the variables, while still keeping their names. It has the disadvantage, however, that the State class will get more and more complex, as more macros and variables are added, in order to avoid copying values back and forth among different State objects. How would you rewrite such a C macro in Java? Is there a more appropriate way to deal with this, using the facilities provided by the standard Java 6 Development Kit (i.e. without 3rd party libraries or a separate preprocessor)?

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  • WPF DataGrid, Help with Binding to a List<X> where each X has a Dictionary<Y,object> property.

    - by panamack
    I'm building an application which helps someone manage an event and works with data originating from Excel. I want to use the WPF Toolkit DataGrid to display the incoming data but can't guarantee how many Columns there are going to be or what information they will contain. I'd like to have an Info class that stores column information and have each Visitor at my Event own a Dictionary that uses shared references to Info objects for the keys. Here's the general gist: public class Info{ public string Name{get;set;} public int InfoType{get;set;} } public class Visitor{ public Dictionary<Info,object> VisitorInfo {get;set;} } public class Event{ public List<Visitor> Visitors{get;set;} public Event(){ Info i1 = new Info(){ Name = "ID", InfoType = 0};// type 0 for an id Info i2 = new Info(){ Name = "Name", InfoType = 1};// type 1 for a string Info i3 = new Info(){ Name = "City", InfoType = 1}; Visitor v1 = new Visitor(); v1.VisitorInfo.Add(i1, 0); v1.VisitorInfo.Add(i2, "Foo Harris"); v1.VisitorInfo.Add(i3, "Barsville"); Visitor v2 = new Visitor(); ... this.Visitors.Add(v1); this.Visitors.Add(v2); ... } } XAML: <!-- Window1.xaml --> ... <local:Event x:Key="MyEvent"/> ... <wpftk:DataGrid DataContext="{StaticResource MyEvent}" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Visitors}" /> Disappointingly, DataGrid just sees a collection of Visitors each having a VisitorInfo property and displays one column called VisitorInfo with the string "(Collection)" once for each Visitor. As a workaround I've created a ListTVisitorToDataTableConverter that maps Infos to DataColumns and Visitors to DataRows and used it like this: <wpftk:DataGrid DataContext="{StaticResource Event}" ItemsSource{Binding Path=Visitors, Converter={StaticResource MySmellyListTVisitorToDataTableConverter}}" /> I don't think this is good though, I haven't started trying to convert back yet which I guess I'll need to do if I want to be able to edit any data! How can I do better? Thanks.

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  • How can I improve the recursion capabilities of my ECMAScript implementation?

    - by ChaosPandion
    After some resent tests I have found my implementation cannot handle very much recursion. Although after I ran a few tests in Firefox I found that this may be more common than I originally thought. I believe the basic problem is that my implementation requires 3 calls to make a function call. The first call is made to a method named Call that makes sure the call is being made to a callable object and gets the value of any arguments that are references. The second call is made to a method named Call which is defined in the ICallable interface. This method creates the new execution context and builds the lambda expression if it has not been created. The final call is made to the lambda that the function object encapsulates. Clearly making a function call is quite heavy but I am sure that with a little bit of tweaking I can make recursion a viable tool when using this implementation. public static object Call(ExecutionContext context, object value, object[] args) { var func = Reference.GetValue(value) as ICallable; if (func == null) { throw new TypeException(); } if (args != null && args.Length > 0) { for (int i = 0; i < args.Length; i++) { args[i] = Reference.GetValue(args[i]); } } var reference = value as Reference; if (reference != null) { if (reference.IsProperty) { return func.Call(reference.Value, args); } else { return func.Call(((EnviromentRecord)reference.Value).ImplicitThisValue(), args); } } return func.Call(Undefined.Value, args); } public object Call(object thisObject, object[] arguments) { var lexicalEnviroment = Scope.NewDeclarativeEnviroment(); var variableEnviroment = Scope.NewDeclarativeEnviroment(); var thisBinding = thisObject ?? Engine.GlobalEnviroment.GlobalObject; var newContext = new ExecutionContext(Engine, lexicalEnviroment, variableEnviroment, thisBinding); Engine.EnterContext(newContext); var result = Function.Value(newContext, arguments); Engine.LeaveContext(); return result; }

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  • ADO Exception in HQL query

    - by Yoav
    I have 2 classes: Project and DataStructure. Class Project contains member List<DataStructure. My goal is to load a Project and all its DataStructures in one call. public class Project { public virtual string Id { get { } set { } } public virtual string Name { get { } set { } } public virtual ISet<DataStructure> DataStructures { get { } set { } } } public class DataStructure { public virtual string Id { get { } set { } } public virtual string Name { get { } set { } } public virtual string Description { get { } set { } } public virtual Project Project { get { } set { } } public virtual IList<DataField> Fields { get { } set { } } } Note that DataStructure also contains a list of class DataField but I don’t want to load these right now. Mapping in Fluent NHibernate: public class ProjectMap : ClassMap<Project> { public ProjectMap() { Table("PROJECTS"); Id(x => x.Pk, "PK"); Map(x => x.Id, "ID"); Map(x => x.Name, "NAME"); HasMany<DataStructure>(x => x.DataStructures).KeyColumn("FK_PROJECT"); } } public class DataStructureMap : ClassMap<DataStructure> { public DataStructureMap() { Table("DATA_STRUCTURES"); Map(x => x.Id, "ID"); Map(x => x.Name, "NAME"); Map(x => x.Description, "DESCRIPTION"); References<Project>(x => x.Project, "FK_PROJECT"); HasMany<DataField>(x => x.Fields).KeyColumn("FK_DATA_STRUCTURE"); } } This is my query: using (ISession session = SessionFactory.OpenSession()) { IQuery query = session.CreateQuery("from Project pr left join pr.DataStructure"); project = query.List<Project>(); } query.List() returns this exception: NHibernate.Exceptions.GenericADOException: Could not execute query[SQL: SQL not available] ---> System.ArgumentException: The value "System.Object[]" is not of type "Project" and cannot be used in this generic collection.

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  • Sitecore E-Commerce Module - Discount/Promotional Codes

    - by Zachary Kniebel
    I am working on a project for which I must use Sitecore's E-Commerce Module (and Sitecore 6.5 rev. 120706 - aka 'Update 5') to create a web-store. One of the features that I am trying to implement is a generic promotional/discount code system - customer enters a code at checkout which grants a discount like 'free shipping', '20% off', etc. At the moment, I am looking for some guidance (a high-level solution, a few pseudo-ideas, some references to review, etc) as to how this can be accomplished. Summary: What I am looking for is a way to detect whether or not the user entered a promo code at a previous stage in the checkout line, and to determine what that promo code is, if they did. Progress Thus Far: I have thoroughly reviewed all of the Sitecore E-Commerce Services (SES) documentation, especially "SES Order Line Extension" documentation (which I believe will have to be modified/extended in order to accomplish this task). Additionally, I have thoroughly reviewed the Sitecore Community article Extending Sitecore E-Commerce - Pricing and believe that it may be a useful guide for applying a discount statically, but does not say much in the way of applying a discount dynamically. After reviewing these documents, I have come up with the following possible high-level solution to start from: I create a template to represent a promotional code, which holds all data relevant to the promotion (percent off, free shipping, code, etc). I then create another template (based on the Product Search Group template) that holds a link to an item within a global "Promotional Code" items folder. Next, I use the Product Search Group features of my new template to choose which products to apply the discount to. In the source code for the checkout I create a class that checks if a code has been entered and, if so, somehow carry it through the rest of the checkout process. This is where I get stuck. More Details: No using cookies No GET requests No changing/creating/deleting items in the Sitecore Database during the checkout process (e.g., no manipulation of fields of a discount item during checkout to signal that the discount has been applied) must stay within the scope of C# Last Notes: I will update this post with any more information that I find/progress that I make. I upgrade all answers that are relevant and detailed, thought-provoking, or otherwise useful to me and potentially useful to others, in addition to any high-level answers that serve as a feasible solution to this problem; even if your idea doesn't help me, if I think it will help someone else I will still upgrade it. Thanks, in advance, for all your help! :)

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  • NHibernate unable to create SessionFactory

    - by Tyler
    I'm having a bit of trouble setting up NHibernate, and I'm not too sure what the problem is exactly. I'm attempting to save a domain object to the database (Oracle 10g XE). However, I'm getting a TypeInitializationException while trying to create the ISessionFactory. Here is what my hibernate.cfg.xml looks like: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <hibernate-configuration xmlns="urn:nhibernate-configuration-2.2" > <session-factory name="MyProject.DataAccess"> <property name="connection.driver_class">NHibernate.Driver.OracleClientDriver</property> <property name="connection.connection_string"> User ID=myid;Password=mypassword;Data Source=localhost </property> <property name="show_sql">true</property> <property name="dialect">NHibernate.Dialect.OracleDialect</property> <property name="proxyfactory.factory_class">NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu.ProxyFactoryFactory, NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu</property> <mapping resource="MyProject/Domain/User.hbm.xml"/> </session-factory> </hibernate-configuration> I created a DAO which I will use to persist domain objects to the database. The DAO uses a HibernateUtil class that creates the SessionFactory. Both classes are in the DataAccess namespace along with the Hibernate configuration. This is where the exception is occuring. Here's that class: public class HibernateUtil { private static ISessionFactory SessionFactory = BuildSessionFactory(); private static ISessionFactory BuildSessionFactory() { try { // This seems to be where the problem occurs return new Configuration().Configure().BuildSessionFactory(); } catch (TypeInitializationException ex) { Console.WriteLine("Initial SessionFactory creation failed." + ex); throw new Exception("Unable to create SessionFactory."); } } public static ISessionFactory GetSessionFactory() { return SessionFactory; } } The DataAccess namespace references the NHibernate DLLs. This is virtually the same setup I've used with Hibernate in Java, so I'm not entirely sure what I'm doing wrong here. Any ideas? Edit The innermost exception is the following: "Could not find file 'C:\Users\Tyler\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\MyProject\MyProject\ConsoleApplication\bin\Debug\hibernate.cfg.xml'." ConsoleApplication contains the entry point where I've created a User object and am trying to persist it with my DAO. Why is it looking for the configuration file there? The actual persisting takes place in the DAO, which is in DataAccess. Also, when I add the configuration file to ConsoleApplication, it still does not find it.

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  • A case-insensitive related implementation problem

    - by Robert
    Hi All, I am going through a final refinement posted by the client, which needs me to do a case-insesitive query. I will basically walk through how this simple program works. First of all, in my Java class, I did a fairly simple webpage parsing: title=(String)results.get("title"); doc = docBuilder.parse("http://" + server + ":" + port + "/exist/rest/db/wb/xql/media_lookup.xql?" + "&title=" + title); This Java statement references an XQuery file "media_lookup.xql" which is stored on localhost, and the only parameter we are passing is the string "title". Secondly, let's take at look at that XQuery file: $title := request:get-parameter('title',""), $mediaNodes := doc('/db/wb/portfolio/media_data.xml'), $query := $mediaNodes//media[contains(title,$title)], Then it will evaluate that query. This XQuery will get the "title" parameter that are passes from our Java class, and query the "media_data" xml file stored in the database, which contains a bunch of media nodes with a 'title' element node. As you may expect, this simple query will just match those media nodes whose 'title' element contains a substring of what the value of string 'title' is. So if our 'title' is "Chi", it will return media nodes whose title may be "Chicago" or "Chicken". The refinment request posted by the client is that there should be NO case-sensitivity. The very intuitive way is to modify the XQuery statement by using a lower-case funtion in it, like: $query := $mediaNodes//media[contains(lower-case(title/text(),lower-case($title))], However, the question comes: this modified query will run my machine into memory overflow. Since my "media_data.xml" is quite huge and contains thouands of millions of media nodes, I assume the lower-case() function will run on each of the entries, thus causing the machine to crash. I've talked with some experienced XQuery programmer, and they think I should use an index to solve this problem, and I will definitely research into that. But before that, I am just posting this problem here to get other ideas or any suggestions, do you think any other way may help? for example, could I tweak the Java parse statement to realize the case-insensitivity? Since I think I saw some people did some string concatination by using "contains." in Java before passing it to the server. Any idea or help is welcomed, thanks in advance.

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  • Select latest group by in nhibernate

    - by Kendrick
    I have Canine and CanineHandler objects in my application. The CanineHandler object has a PersonID (which references a completely different database), an EffectiveDate (which specifies when a handler started with the canine), and a FK reference to the Canine (CanineID). Given a specific PersonID, I want to find all canines they're currently responsible for. The (simplified) query I'd use in SQL would be: Select Canine.* from Canine inner join CanineHandler on(CanineHandler.CanineID=Canine.CanineID) inner join (select CanineID,Max(EffectiveDate) MaxEffectiveDate from caninehandler group by CanineID) as CurrentHandler on(CurrentHandler.CanineID=CanineHandler.CanineID and CurrentHandler.MaxEffectiveDate=CanineHandler.EffectiveDate) where CanineHandler.HandlerPersonID=@PersonID Edit: Added mapping files below: <class name="CanineHandler" table="CanineHandler" schema="dbo"> <id name="CanineHandlerID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="EffectiveDate" type="DateTime" precision="16" not-null="true" /> <property name="HandlerPersonID" type="Int64" precision="19" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Canine" class="Canine" column="CanineID" not-null="true" access="field.camelcase-underscore" /> </class> <class name="Canine" table="Canine"> <id name="CanineID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" type="String" length="64" not-null="true" /> ... <set name="CanineHandlers" table="CanineHandler" inverse="true" order-by="EffectiveDate desc" cascade="save-update" access="field.camelcase-underscore"> <key column="CanineID" /> <one-to-many class="CanineHandler" /> </set> <property name="IsDeleted" type="Boolean" not-null="true" /> </class> I haven't tried yet, but I'm guessing I could do this in HQL. I haven't had to write anything in HQL yet, so I'll have to tackle that eventually anyway, but my question is whether/how I can do this sub-query with the criterion/subqueries objects. I got as far as creating the following detached criteria: DetachedCriteria effectiveHandlers = DetachedCriteria.For<Canine>() .SetProjection(Projections.ProjectionList() .Add(Projections.Max("EffectiveDate"),"MaxEffectiveDate") .Add(Projections.GroupProperty("CanineID"),"handledCanineID") ); but I can't figure out how to do the inner join. If I do this: Session.CreateCriteria<Canine>() .CreateCriteria("CanineHandler", "handler", NHibernate.SqlCommand.JoinType.InnerJoin) .List<Canine>(); I get an error "could not resolve property: CanineHandler of: OPS.CanineApp.Model.Canine". Obviously I'm missing something(s) but from the documentation I got the impression that should return a list of Canines that have handlers (possibly with duplicates). Until I can make this work, adding the subquery isn't going to work... I've found similar questions, such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/747382/only-get-latest-results-using-nhibernate but none of the answers really seem to apply with the kind of direct result I'm looking for. Any help or suggestion is greatly appreciated.

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  • Sync services not actually syncing

    - by Paul Mrozowski
    I'm attempting to sync a SQL Server CE 3.5 database with a SQL Server 2008 database using MS Sync Services. I am using VS 2008. I created a Local Database Cache, connected it with SQL Server 2008 and picked the tables I wanted to sync. I selected SQL Server Tracking. It modified the database for change tracking and created a local copy (SDF) of the data. I need two way syncing so I created a partial class for the sync agent and added code into the OnInitialized() to set the SyncDirection for the tables to Bidirectional. I've walked through with the debugger and this code runs. Then I created another partial class for cache server sync provider and added an event handler into the OnInitialized() to hook into the ApplyChangeFailed event. This code also works OK - my code runs when there is a conflict. Finally, I manually made some changes to the server data to test syncing. I use this code to fire off a sync: var agent = new FSEMobileCacheSyncAgent(); var syncStats = agent.Synchronize(); syncStats seems to show the count of the # of changes I made on the server and shows that they were applied. However, when I open the local SDF file none of the changes are there. I basically followed the instructions I found here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc761546%28SQL.105%29.aspx and here: http://keithelder.net/blog/archive/2007/09/23/Sync-Services-for-SQL-Server-Compact-Edition-3.5-in-Visual.aspx It seems like this should "just work" at this point, but the changes made on the server aren't in the local SDF file. I guess I'm missing something but I'm just not seeing it right now. I thought this might be because I appeared to be using version 1 of Sync Services so I removed the references to Microsoft.Synchronization.* assemblies, installed the Sync framework 2.0 and added the new version of the assemblies to the project. That hasn't made any difference. Ideas? Edit: I wanted to enable tracing to see if I could track this down but the only way to do that is through a WinForms app since it requires entries in the app.config file (my original project was a class library). I created a WinForms project and recreated everything and suddenly everything is working. So apparently this requires a WinForm project for some reason? This isn't really how I planned on using this - I had hoped to kick off syncing through another non-.NET application and provide the UI there so the experience was a bit more seemless to the end user. If I can't do that, that's OK, but I'd really like to know if/how to make this work as a class library project instead.

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  • Unit testing class in a web service in .net

    - by Dan Bailiff
    After some digging here, I took the advice in this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/371961/how-to-unit-test-c-web-service-with-visual-studio-2008 I've created a separate class and my web service class is just a wrapper for that one. The problem is that when I try to create a unit test project in VS2008, it insists on creating a unit test that acts like I'm testing the web service calls instead of the class I specified. I can't get to the class I'm trying to test. I have a web service "subscription_api.asmx". The code behind is "subscription_api.cs" which contains the web method wrapper calls to the real code at "subscription.cs". I would expect to be able to do the following: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription sub = new subscription(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatusTest(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } But instead I get this mess which is autogenerated from VS'08: /// <summary> ///A test for GetSystemStatus ///</summary> // TODO: Ensure that the UrlToTest attribute specifies a URL to an ASP.NET page (for example, // http://.../Default.aspx). This is necessary for the unit test to be executed on the web server, // whether you are testing a page, web service, or a WCF service. [TestMethod()] [HostType("ASP.NET")] [AspNetDevelopmentServerHost("C:\\CVSROOT\\rnr\\pro\\product\\wms\\ss\\subscription_api", "/subscription_api")] [UrlToTest("http://localhost/subscription_api")] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription_Accessor target = new subscription_Accessor(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode expected = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode actual; actual = target.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); Assert.Inconclusive("Verify the correctness of this test method."); } Additionally, there is a "subscription_api.accessor" in the Test References folder. When I try this: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest2() { subscription_Accessor sub = new subscription_Accessor(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } I get an error: Test method subscription_api.Test.subscriptionTest.GetSystemStatusTest2 threw exception: System.TypeInitializationException: The type initializer for 'subscription_Accessor' threw an exception. ---> System.ArgumentNullException: Value cannot be null. I'm really new to unit testing and feel lost. How can I create a unit test just for my subscription class in "subscription.cs" without testing the web service? Am I limited to testing within the same project (I hope not)? Do I have to put the target class in its own project outside of the web service project?

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  • How to implement a caching model without violating MVC pattern?

    - by RPM1984
    Hi Guys, I have an ASP.NET MVC 3 (Razor) Web Application, with a particular page which is highly database intensive, and user experience is of the upmost priority. Thus, i am introducing caching on this particular page. I'm trying to figure out a way to implement this caching pattern whilst keeping my controller thin, like it currently is without caching: public PartialViewResult GetLocationStuff(SearchPreferences searchPreferences) { var results = _locationService.FindStuffByCriteria(searchPreferences); return PartialView("SearchResults", results); } As you can see, the controller is very thin, as it should be. It doesn't care about how/where it is getting it's info from - that is the job of the service. A couple of notes on the flow of control: Controllers get DI'ed a particular Service, depending on it's area. In this example, this controller get's a LocationService Services call through to an IQueryable<T> Repository and materialize results into T or ICollection<T>. How i want to implement caching: I can't use Output Caching - for a few reasons. First of all, this action method is invoked from the client-side (jQuery/AJAX), via [HttpPost], which according to HTTP standards should not be cached as a request. Secondly, i don't want to cache purely based on the HTTP request arguments - the cache logic is a lot more complicated than that - there is actually two-level caching going on. As i hint to above, i need to use regular data-caching, e.g Cache["somekey"] = someObj;. I don't want to implement a generic caching mechanism where all calls via the service go through the cache first - i only want caching on this particular action method. First thought's would tell me to create another service (which inherits LocationService), and provide the caching workflow there (check cache first, if not there call db, add to cache, return result). That has two problems: The services are basic Class Libraries - no references to anything extra. I would need to add a reference to System.Web here. I would have to access the HTTP Context outside of the web application, which is considered bad practice, not only for testability, but in general - right? I also thought about using the Models folder in the Web Application (which i currently use only for ViewModels), but having a cache service in a models folder just doesn't sound right. So - any ideas? Is there a MVC-specific thing (like Action Filter's, for example) i can use here? General advice/tips would be greatly appreciated.

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  • WCF App using Peer Chat app as example does not work.

    - by splate
    I converted a VB .Net 3.5 app to use peer to peer WCF using the available Microsoft example of the Chat app. I made sure that I copied the app.config file for the sample(modified the names for my app), added the appropriate references. I followed all the tutorials and added the appropriate tags and structure in my app code. Everything runs without any errors, but the clients only get messages from themselves and not from the other clients. The sample chat application does run just fine with multiple clients. The only difference I could find is that the server on the sample is targeting the framework 2.0, but I assume that is wrong and it is building it in at least 3.0 or the System.ServiceModel reference would break. Is there something that has to be registered that the sample is doing behind the scenes or is the sample a special project type? I am confused. My next step is to copy all my classes and logic from my app to the sample app, but that is likely a lot of work. Here is my Client App.config: <client><endpoint name="thldmEndPoint" address="net.p2p://thldmMesh/thldmServer" binding="netPeerTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="PeerTcpConfig" contract="THLDM_Client.IGameService"></endpoint></client> <bindings><netPeerTcpBinding> <binding name="PeerTcpConfig" port="0"> <security mode="None"></security> <resolver mode="Custom"> <custom address="net.tcp://localhost/thldmServer" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="TcpConfig"></custom> </resolver> </binding></netPeerTcpBinding> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="TcpConfig"> <security mode="None"></security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> Here is my server App.config: <services> <service name="System.ServiceModel.PeerResolvers.CustomPeerResolverService"> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost/thldmServer"/> </baseAddresses> </host> <endpoint address="net.tcp://localhost/thldmServer" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="TcpConfig" contract="System.ServiceModel.PeerResolvers.IPeerResolverContract"> </endpoint> </service> </services> <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="TcpConfig"> <security mode="None"></security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> Thanks ahead of time.

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  • Conceptual inheritance implementation

    - by TheSENDER
    Hi there, I'm writing a spatial data structure and I have a doubt about what's the best NODE implementation. According to my design I have an abstract node entity and three classes which inherit from it: EMPTYNODE, FULLNODE, INTERNALNODE. The first one has no particular data. The second one has 1 reference to a generic element. The third one has 2 references to other nodes. I have found several ways to implement this situation (that I have already coded) but I can't decide what's the best. The first solution that I have found is to use a single class Node that potentially performs all the operation in this way: private static class Node { private Elem elem = null; private Node left = null, right = null; public Elem getElem() { assert isFull(); return elem; } public boolean isEmpty() { return elem == null && left == null; } public boolean isFull() { return elem != null; } public boolean isInternal() { return elem == null && left != null; } } The second solution is to write an explicit division by classes where every class offers only its methods. Obviously in this way we are obliged to perform several casts to the node objects. private static abstract class Node { public abstract boolean isEmpty(); public abstract boolean isFull(); public abstract boolean isInternal(); } private static class FullNode extends Node{ private ITriangle elem; @Override public boolean isEmpty() { return false; } @Override public final boolean isFull() { return true; } @Override public final boolean isInternal() { return false; } public Elem getElem() { return elem; } } The third one solution is to use the inheritance allowing every classes to offer all the methods, but the object type should by check by "isEmpty()" and similar methods. In case of wrong call we'll throw an exception. private static abstract class Node { public abstract boolean isEmpty(); public abstract boolean isFull(); public abstract boolean isInternal(); public abstract Elem getElem(); } private static class Empty extends Node{ @Override public boolean isEmpty() { return true; } @Override public final boolean isFull() { return false; } @Override public final boolean isInternal() { return false; } @Override public Elem getElem() { throw new AssertionError(); } } What do you think about these three solutions? Which one would you use? Any other ideas? Thanks for your help. Every idea will be appreciated.

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  • NHibernate - Saving simple parent-child relationship generates unnecessary selects with assigned id

    - by Alice
    Entities: public class Parent { virtual public long Id { get; set; } virtual public string Description { get; set; } virtual public ICollection<Child> Children { get; set; } } public class Child { virtual public long Id { get; set; } virtual public string Description { get; set; } virtual public Parent Parent { get; set; } } Mappings: public class ParentMap : ClassMap<Parent> { public ParentMap() { Id(x => x.Id).GeneratedBy.Assigned(); Map(x => x.Description); HasMany(x => x.Children) .AsSet() .Inverse() .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan(); } } public class ChildMap : ClassMap<Child> { public ChildMap() { Id(x => x.Id).GeneratedBy.Assigned(); Map(x => x.Description); References(x => x.Parent) .Not.Nullable() .Cascade.All(); } } and using (var session = sessionFactory.OpenSession()) using (var transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { var parent = new Parent { Id = 1 }; parent.Children = new HashSet<Child>(); var child1 = new Child { Id = 2, Parent = parent }; var child2 = new Child { Id = 3, Parent = parent }; parent.Children.Add(child1); parent.Children.Add(child2); session.Save(parent); transaction.Commit(); } this codes generates following sql NHibernate: SELECT child_.Id, child_.Description as Descript2_0_, child_.Parent_id as Parent3_0_ FROM [Child] child_ WHERE child_.Id=@p0;@p0 = 2 [Type: Int64 (0)] NHibernate: SELECT child_.Id, child_.Description as Descript2_0_, child_.Parent_id as Parent3_0_ FROM [Child] child_ WHERE child_.Id=@p0;@p0 = 3 [Type: Int64 (0)] NHibernate: INSERT INTO [Parent] (Description, Id) VALUES (@p0, @p1);@p0 = NULL[Type: String (4000)], @p1 = 1 [Type: Int64 (0)] NHibernate: INSERT INTO [Child] (Description, Parent_id, Id) VALUES (@p0, @p1, @p2);@p0 = NULL [Type: String (4000)], @p1 = 1 [Type: Int64 (0)], @p2 = 2 [Type:Int64 (0)] NHibernate: INSERT INTO [Child] (Description, Parent_id, Id) VALUES (@p0, @p1, @p2);@p0 = NULL [Type: String (4000)], @p1 = 1 [Type: Int64 (0)], @p2 = 3 [Type:Int64 (0)] Why are these two selects generated and how can I remove it?

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  • Can I use the [] operator in C++ to create virtual arrays

    - by Shane MacLaughlin
    I have a large code base, originally C ported to C++ many years ago, that is operating on a number of large arrays of spatial data. These arrays contain structs representing point and triangle entities that represent surface models. I need to refactor the code such that the specific way these entities are stored internally varies for specific scenarios. For example if the points lie on a regular flat grid, I don't need to store the X and Y coordinates, as they can be calculated on the fly, as can the triangles. Similarly, I want to take advantage of out of core tools such as STXXL for storage. The simplest way of doing this is replacing array access with put and get type functions, e.g. point[i].x = XV; becomes Point p = GetPoint(i); p.x = XV; PutPoint(i,p); As you can imagine, this is a very tedious refactor on a large code base, prone to all sorts of errors en route. What I'd like to do is write a class that mimics the array by overloading the [] operator. As the arrays already live on the heap, and move around with reallocs, the code already assumes that references into the array such as point *p = point + i; may not be used. Is this class feasible to write? For example writing the methods below in terms of the [] operator; void MyClass::PutPoint(int Index, Point p) { if (m_StorageStrategy == RegularGrid) { int xoffs,yoffs; ComputeGridFromIndex(Index,xoffs,yoffs); StoreGridPoint(xoffs,yoffs,p.z); } else m_PointArray[Index] = p; } } Point MyClass::GetPoint(int Index) { if (m_StorageStrategy == RegularGrid) { int xoffs,yoffs; ComputeGridFromIndex(Index,xoffs,yoffs); return GetGridPoint(xoffs,yoffs); // GetGridPoint returns Point } else return m_PointArray[Index]; } } My concern is that all the array classes I've seen tend to pass by reference, whereas I think I'll have to pass structs by value. I think it should work put other than performance, can anyone see any major pitfalls with this approach. n.b. the reason I have to pass by value is to get point[a].z = point[b].z + point[c].z to work correctly where the underlying storage type varies.

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  • Cakephp beforeFind() - How do I add a JOIN condition AFTER the belongsTo association is added?

    - by michael
    I'm in Model-beforeFind($queryData), trying to add a JOIN condition to the queryData on a model which has belongsTo associations. Unfortunately, the new JOIN references a table in the belongsTo association, so it must appear AFTER the belongsTo in the query. Here is my Tagged-belongsTo association: app\plugins\tags\models\tagged.php (line 192) Array ( [Tag] => Array ( [className] => Tag [foreignKey] => tag_id [conditions] => [fields] => [order] => [counterCache] => ) [Group] => Array ( [className] => Group [foreignKey] => foreign_key [conditions] => Array ( [Tagged.model] => Group ) [fields] => [order] => [counterCache] => ) ) Here is the JOIN added in Tagged-beforeFind(), notice that the belongsTo joins have not yet been added: app\plugins\tags\models\tagged.php (line 194) Array ( [conditions] => Array ( [Tag.keyname] => europe ) [fields] => Array ( [0] => DISTINCT Group.* [1] => GroupPermission.* ) [joins] => Array ( [0] => Array ( [table] => permissions [alias] => GroupPermission [foreignKey] => [type] => INNER [conditions] => Array ( [GroupPermission.model] => Group [0] => GroupPermission.foreignId = Group.id [or] => Array ( ... ) ) ) ) [limit] => [offset] => [order] => Array ( [0] => ) [page] => 1 [group] => [callbacks] => 1 [by] => europe [model] => Group ) When I check the output, it fails with "1054: Unknown column 'Group.id' in 'on clause'" because the Permissions join appeared BEFORE the Groups join. SELECT DISTINCT `Group`.*, `GroupPermission`.* FROM `tagged` AS `Tagged` INNER JOIN permissions AS `GroupPermission` ON (`GroupPermission`.`model` = 'Group' AND `GroupPermission`.`foreignId` = `Group`.`id` AND (...)) LEFT JOIN `tags` AS `Tag` ON (`Tagged`.`tag_id` = `Tag`.`id`) LEFT JOIN `groups` AS `Group` ON (`Tagged`.`foreign_key` = `Group`.`id` AND `Tagged`.`model` = 'Group') WHERE `Tag`.`keyname` = 'europe' But this SQL (with Permissions joined moved to the end) works fine: SELECT DISTINCT `Group`.*, `GroupPermission`.* FROM `tagged` AS `Tagged` LEFT JOIN `tags` AS `Tag` ON (`Tagged`.`tag_id` = `Tag`.`id`) LEFT JOIN `groups` AS `Group` ON (`Tagged`.`foreign_key` = `Group`.`id` AND `Tagged`.`model` = 'Group') INNER JOIN permissions AS `GroupPermission` ON (`GroupPermission`.`model` = 'Group' AND `GroupPermission`.`foreignId` = `Group`.`id` AND (...)) WHERE `Tag`.`keyname` = 'europe' How do I add my join in beforeFind() after the belongsTo join?

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  • This code appears to achieve the return of a null reference in C++

    - by Chuck
    Hi folks, My C++ knowledge is somewhat piecemeal. I was reworking some code at work. I changed a function to return a reference to a type. Inside, I look up an object based on an identifier passed in, then return a reference to the object if found. Of course I ran into the issue of what to return if I don't find the object, and in looking around the web, many people claim that returning a "null reference" in C++ is impossible. Based on this advice, I tried the trick of returning a success/fail boolean, and making the object reference an out parameter. However, I ran into the roadblock of needing to initialize the references I would pass as actual parameters, and of course there is no way to do this. I retreated to the usual approach of just returning a pointer. I asked a colleague about it. He uses the following trick quite often, which is accepted by both a recent version of the Sun compiler and by gcc: MyType& someFunc(int id) { // successful case here: // ... // fail case: return *static_cast<MyType*>(0); } // Use: ... MyType& mt = somefunc(myIdNum); if (&mt) // test for "null reference" { // whatever } ... I have been maintaining this code base for a while, but I find that I don't have as much time to look up the small details about the language as I would like. I've been digging through my reference book but the answer to this one eludes me. Now, I had a C++ course a few years ago, and therein we emphasized that in C++ everything is types, so I try to keep that in mind when thinking things through. Deconstructing the expression: "*static_cast(0);", it indeed seems to me that we take a literal zero, cast it to a pointer to MyType (which makes it a null pointer), and then apply the dereferencing operator in the context of assigning to a reference type (the return type), which should give me a reference to the same object pointed to by the pointer. This sure looks like returning a null reference to me. Any advice in explaining why this works (or why it shouldn't) would be greatly appreciated. Thanks, Chuck

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