Search Results

Search found 5323 results on 213 pages for 'associated sorting'.

Page 171/213 | < Previous Page | 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178  | Next Page >

  • SQL query using information from 4 tables (not all directly linked)

    - by Yvonne
    I'm developing a simple classroom system, where teachers manage classes and their subjects. I have 2 levels of access in my teachers table, assigned by an integer (1 = admin, 2 = user)... Meaning that the headteacher is the admin :) A teacher (of level 1) can have have many classes and a class can have many teachers (so I have 'TeachersClasses' table). A class can have many subjects, and a teacher can have many subjects. Basically, I'm attempting a query to display the admin teacher's (level 1) subjects. However, only teachers with a level of 2, are directly related to a subject, which is set by the admin user. The headteacher can view all of their subjects via the classroom, but I cannot get all of the subjects to be displayed on one page, instead I can only get the subjects to appear under a specific classroom right now... This is what I have so far, which is returning nothing. (I'm guessing this may require an SQL clause more advanced that 'INNER JOIN' which is the only join type I am familiar with, and thought it would be enough! $query = "SELECT subjects.subjectid, subjects.subjectname, subjects.subjectdetails, classroom.classid, classroom.classname FROM subjects INNER JOIN classroom ON subjects.subjectid = classroom.classid INNER JOIN teacherclasses ON classroom.classid = teacherclasses.classid INNER JOIN teachers ON teacherclasses.teacherid = teachers.teacherid WHERE teachers.teacherid = '".intval( $_SESSION['SESS_TEACHERID'] )."'"; In order for all subjects related to the headteachers class to be displayed, I'm gathering that all of my tables will need to be called up here? Thanks for any help! Example output: subject name: maths // teacher: mr smith // classroom: DG99 x10 for all the subjects associated with the headteachers classrooms :)

    Read the article

  • Eclipse+PyDev+GAE memcache error

    - by bocco
    I've started using Eclipe+PyDev as an environment for developing my first app for Google App Engine. Eclipse is configured according to this tutorial. Everything was working until I start to use memcache. PyDev reports the errors and I don't know how to fix it: Error: Undefined variable from import: get How to fix this? Sure, it is only PyDev checker problem. Code is correct and run on GAE. UPDATE: I'm using PyDev 1.5.0 but experienced the same with 1.4.8. My PYTHONPATH includes (set in Project Properties/PyDev - PYTHONPATH): C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\lib\django C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\lib\webob C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\lib\yaml\lib UPDATE 2: I took a look at C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\api\memcache\__init__.py and found get() is not declared as memcache module function. They use the following trick to do that (I didn't hear about such possibility): _CLIENT = None def setup_client(client_obj): """Sets the Client object instance to use for all module-level methods. Use this method if you want to have customer persistent_id() or persistent_load() functions associated with your client. Args: client_obj: Instance of the memcache.Client object. """ global _CLIENT var_dict = globals() _CLIENT = client_obj var_dict['set_servers'] = _CLIENT.set_servers var_dict['disconnect_all'] = _CLIENT.disconnect_all var_dict['forget_dead_hosts'] = _CLIENT.forget_dead_hosts var_dict['debuglog'] = _CLIENT.debuglog var_dict['get'] = _CLIENT.get var_dict['get_multi'] = _CLIENT.get_multi var_dict['set'] = _CLIENT.set var_dict['set_multi'] = _CLIENT.set_multi var_dict['add'] = _CLIENT.add var_dict['add_multi'] = _CLIENT.add_multi var_dict['replace'] = _CLIENT.replace var_dict['replace_multi'] = _CLIENT.replace_multi var_dict['delete'] = _CLIENT.delete var_dict['delete_multi'] = _CLIENT.delete_multi var_dict['incr'] = _CLIENT.incr var_dict['decr'] = _CLIENT.decr var_dict['flush_all'] = _CLIENT.flush_all var_dict['get_stats'] = _CLIENT.get_stats setup_client(Client()) Hmm... Any idea how to force PyDev to recognize that?

    Read the article

  • OO Design / Patterns - Fat Model Vs Transaction Script?

    - by ben
    Ok, 'Fat' Model and Transaction Script both solve design problems associated with where to keep business logic. I've done some research and popular thought says having all business logic encapsulated within the model is the way to go (mainly since Transaction Script can become really complex and often results in code duplication). However, how does this work if I want to use the TDG of a second Model in my business logic? Surely Transaction Script presents a neater, less coupled solution than using one Model inside the business logic of another? A practical example... I have two classes: User & Alert. When pushing User instances to the database (eg, creating new user accounts), there is a business rule that requires inserting some default Alerts records too (eg, a default 'welcome to the system' message etc). I see two options here: 1) Add this rule as a User method, and in the process create a dependency between User and Alert (or, at least, Alert's Table Data Gateway). 2) Use a Transaction Script, which avoids the dependency between models. (Also, means the business logic is kept in a 'neutral' class & easily accessible by Alert. That probably isn't too important here, though). User takes responsibility for it's own validation etc, however, but because we're talking about a business rule involving two Models, Transaction Script seems like a better choice to me. Anyone spot flaws with this approach?

    Read the article

  • How do you clear a CustomValidator Error on a Button click event?

    - by George
    I have a composite User control for entering dates: The CustomValidator will include server sided validation code. I would like the error message to be cleared via client sided script if the user alters teh date value in any way. To do this, I included the following code to hook up the two drop downs and the year text box to the validation control: <script type="text/javascript"> ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= ddlMonth.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= ddlDate.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= txtYear.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); </script> However, I would also like the Validation error to be cleared when the user clicks the clear button. When the user clicks the Clear button, the other 3 controls are reset. To avoid a Post back, the Clear button is a regular HTML button with an OnClick event that resets the 3 controls. Unfortunately, the ValidatorHookupControlID method does not seem to work on HTML controls, so I thought to change the HTML Button to an ASP button and to Hookup to that control instead. However, I cannot seem to eliminate the Postback functionality associated by default with the ASP button control. I tried to set the UseSubmitBehavior to False, but it still submits. I tried to return false in my btnClear_OnClick client code, but the code sent to the browser included a DoPostback call after my call. btnClear.Attributes.Add("onClick", "btnClear_OnClick();") Instead of adding OnClick code, I tried overwriting it, but the DoPostBack code was still included in the final code that was sent to the browser. What do I have to do to get the Clear button to clear the CustomValidator error when clicked and avoid a postback? btnClear.Attributes.Item("onClick") = "btnClear_OnClick();"

    Read the article

  • .NET threading solution for long queries

    - by Eddie
    Senerio We have an application that records incidents. An external database needs to be queried when an incident is approved by a supervisor. The queries to this external database are sometimes taking a while to run. This lag is experienced through the browser. Possible Solution I want to use threading to eliminate the simulated hang to the browser. I have used the Thread class before and heard about ThreadPool. But, I just found BackgroundWorker in this post. MSDN states: The BackgroundWorker class allows you to run an operation on a separate, dedicated thread. Time-consuming operations like downloads and database transactions can cause your user interface (UI) to seem as though it has stopped responding while they are running. When you want a responsive UI and you are faced with long delays associated with such operations, the BackgroundWorker class provides a convenient solution. Is BackgroundWorker the way to go when handling long running queries? What happens when 2 or more BackgroundWorker processes are ran simultaneously? Is it handled like a pool?

    Read the article

  • How do I supply extra info to IApplicationSettingsProvider class?

    - by joebeazelman
    Perhaps this question has been asked before in a different way, but I haven’t been able to find it. I have one or more plugin adapter assemblies in my application all having the type IPlugin, for instance. Each adapter has its own settings structures stored in a common directory. Whether they are stored in one contiguous file or in separate ones doesn’t matter. Each adapter can have one or more settings associated with it. The settings will have both a name and the Plugin it will be used for. How would I create such a configuration system using the following requirements: I want to use .NETs built in settings system and avoid writing one from scratch The host application will be responsible for locating the plugin settings and passing it to the plugin Each plugin will be responsible for reading and writing its own settings to separate concerns. The host application should call Plugin.Save(thePath) and it does its thing. All settings are user scoped So far, I realize that I would need to write my own SettingsProvider, but the provider seems to work in isolation in that there’s no way to pass it parameters such as the path of the plugin directory and the name of the settings. All of the example code I've seen has the provider getting the data from the runtime environment.

    Read the article

  • Using objective-c objects with an NSDictionary

    - by Mark
    I want store a URL against a UILabel so that when a user touches the label it takes them to that URL in a UIWebView. I have declared a NSDictionary like so: NSMutableArray *linksArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; [linksArray addObject: [NSValue valueWithNonretainedObject: newsItem1ReadMoreLabel]]; [linksArray addObject: [NSValue valueWithNonretainedObject: newsItem2ReadMoreLabel]]; [linksArray addObject: [NSValue valueWithNonretainedObject: newsItem3ReadMoreLabel]]; [linksArray addObject: [NSValue valueWithNonretainedObject: newsItem4ReadMoreLabel]]; [linksArray addObject: [NSValue valueWithNonretainedObject: newsItem5ReadMoreLabel]]; //NSString *ageLink = @"http://www.theage.com.au"; NSArray *defaultLinks = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: @"1", @"2", @"3", @"4", @"5", nil]; self.urlToLinkDictionary = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; self.urlToLinkDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjects:defaultLinks forKeys:linksArray]; Considering I used a NSValue as the key, how do I get/set the URL associated with that key given that I only have references to the UILabels? this is what I have but it doesn't work: for(NSValue *key in [self.urlToLinkDictionary allKeys]) { if ([key nonretainedObjectValue] == linkedLabel) { [self.urlToLinkDictionary setValue:[newsItem link] forKey: key]; } } but I get an error: "objc_exception_throw" resolved

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET RadioButton messing with the name (groupname)

    - by Hojou
    I got a templated control (a repeater) listing some text and other markup. Each item has a radiobutton associated with it, making it possible for the user to select ONE of the items created by the repeater. The repeater writes the radiobutton setting its id and name generated with the default asp.net naming convention making each radiobutton a full 'group'. This means all radiobuttons are independant on each other, which again unfortunately means i can select all radiobuttons at the same time. The radiobutton has the clever attribute 'groupname' used to set a common name so they get grouped together and thus should be dependant (so i can only select one at a time). The problem is - this doesn't work - the repeater makes sure the id and thus the name (which controls the grouping) are different. Since i use a repeater (could have been a listview or any other templated databound control) i can't use the RadioButtonList. So where does that leave me? I know i've had this problem before and solved it. I know almost every asp.net programmer must have had it too, so why can't i google and find a solid solution to the problem? I came across solutions to enforce the grouping by javascript (ugly!) or even to handle the radiobuttons as non-server controls, forcing me to do a Request.Form[name] to read the status. I also tried experimenting with overriding the name attribute on the PreRender event - unfortunately the owning page and masterpage again overrides this name to reflect the full id/name so i end up with the same wrong result. If you have no better solution than i posted, you are still very welcome to post your thoughts - atleast i'll know that my friend 'jack' is right about how messed up 'asp.net' is sometimes ;)

    Read the article

  • Great examples of self-paced labs and exercises

    - by Mayo
    It is probably a safe bet that many of us are what they call Tactile / Kinesthetic Learners meaning that we learn best when we are physically doing something as opposed to listening to an online tutorial or reading a book. My goal with this question is to derive a list of books or online resources that serve as superb examples of self-paced programming labs and exercises. For example, I was extremely impressed with the SportsStore exercise in Steven Sanderson's Pro ASP.NET MVC Framework. The exercise spanned multiple chapters and gradually introduced new topics. I was also impressed with the materials associated with the Windows Azure Boot Camp. The demos and lab materials, accessible through the website, allow us to practice and reinforce what we can read about in articles and books. Please list any examples you might have, one per submission, below. The question is language/platform agnostic. Suggestions can be generic or specific to a given technology (PHP, SQL Server, Azure, Flash, Objective C, etc.). I only ask that the answers pertain to labs and exercises that relate to programming. My hope is that the best answers will float to the top allowing developers to review the top answers and find another programming topic that can be learned through example.

    Read the article

  • Recommendations, Asp.Net ObjectDataSource bind result of webservice call

    - by DerDres
    I need recommendations on how to solve / structure a solution to the following problem. In an asp.net web application i'll have to visualise results returned from a web service call. Im planning to use a repeater server control and bind this with an objectdatasource. The service returns a result of the form: public class SearchResult : IExtensibleDataObject { [DataMember] public Guid SearchId { get; set; } [DataMember] public DateTime Timestamp { get; set; } [DataMember] public int Offset { get; set; } [DataMember] public int TotalResults { get; set; } [DataMember] public IList<ResultDocumentData> Documents { get; set; } It is the collection of Documents that I need to visualise with a repeater which will be associated with an ObjectDataSource. The datasource should work on the type ResultDocumentData; the collection property in the class SearchResult. I think I need to wrap the call to the webservice in a dataaccess layer class, that will have a getDocuments method returning an IList, that the ObjectDataSource can use as its SelectMethod. I think I could make this work, but I would like to know how to do it in an elegant way. Can you give me general recommendations and/or recommendations for the following: WebProject Folderstructure + naming Naming conventions for the name of the service wrapper class Creating the service reference

    Read the article

  • org.hibernate.NonUniqueObjectException Within GWT application using hibernate through gilead

    - by molleman
    Hello Guys, i am working on a project for college that uses GWT,Hibernate and Gilead. Basically for the moment users should be able to add friends and remove them. also a user can see if his or her friends are online or not. my trouble is that when i add a friend that is already related to another friend i get this error org.hibernate.NonUniqueObjectException: a different object with the same identifier value was already associated with the session: [com.example.client.YFUser#4] i have a service class public class TestServiceImpl extends PersistentRemoteService implements TestService { this is my service class for my gwt application. my toruble is here with my implmentation class of my serivce in this method that is called when a user presses add friend button on the client-side public void addYFUserFriend(String userName){ //this retrieves the current user YFUser user = (YFUser)getSession().getAttribute(SESSION_USER); Session session = com.example.server.HibernateUtil.getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession(); session.beginTransaction(); YFUser friend = (YFUser) session.createQuery("select u FROM YFUser u where u.username = :username").setParameter("username", userName).uniqueResult(); System.out.println("user " + friend.getUsername() + " Found"); user.getFriends().add(friend); friend.getBefriended().add(user); session.update(user); session.update(friend); session.getTransaction().commit(); } a scenerio : user1 adds user2 as a friend. this works fine. then user3 adds user2 and the exeception is thrown. any ideas why and where my logic is going wrong Ok so i have changed my code, and i have removed all the getCurrentASession() calls and replaced with openSession() call which are closed at the appropiate point, now the error i am getting is com.google.gwt.user.server.rpc.UnexpectedException: Service method 'public abstract void com.example.client.TestService.addYFUserFriend(java.lang.String)' threw an unexpected exception: org.hibernate.NonUniqueResultException: query did not return a unique result: 3

    Read the article

  • Update Related Entity Of Detached Entity

    - by Hemslingo
    I'm having an issue updating an entity with multiple related entities. I've got a very simple model which consists of an article entity and a list of categories the article can be related to. You can choose from a check box list which of these categories are associated to it...which works fine. The problem crops up when I actually come to update an existing entity using the dbContext. As I am updating this entity, I have already detached it from the context ready to re-attach it later so the update can execute properly. I can see that after I posting the model, the category(s) are being added to the article entity just fine and it looks like it updates in the repository with no errors occurring. When I look in the database the article has updated as normal but the category(s) have not. Here is my (simplified) update code... public virtual bool Attach(T entity) { _dbContext.Entry(entity).State = EntityState.Modified; _dbSet.Attach(entity); return this.Commit(); } Any help will be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Mostly PJAX site with some AngularJS

    - by jrhicks
    I have a site using PJAX all over the place and I have a few pages that are using AngularJS. For the AngularJS pages I would like to continue to use PJAX to get all the benefits associated with not reloading the entire HTML page, assets etc. Unfortunately, PJAX just loads some HTML into the page and doesn't fire any javascript. This is okay, because I can fire the javascript manually on pjax success, but I can't quite figure out what makes AngularJS initialize. For a simple scenario, lets say I AJAX the following HTML into a page. Also assume, the page already had Angular.js included. What could I call to have the following behave like an Angular App? <div> <label>Name:</label> <input type="text" ng-model="yourName" placeholder="Enter a name here"> <hr> <h1>Hello {{yourName}}!</h1> </div> Thanks

    Read the article

  • Doctrine 1.2: How do i prevent a contraint from being assigned to both sides of a One-to-many relati

    - by prodigitalson
    Is there a way to prevent Doctrine from assigning a contraint on both sides of a one-to-one relationship? Ive tried moving the definition from one side to the other and using owning side but it still places a constraint on both tables. when I only want the parent table to have a constraint - ie. its possible for the parent to not have an associated child. For example iwant the following sql schema essentially: CREATE TABLE `parent_table` ( `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ); CREATE TABLE `child_table` ( `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY (`child_id`), CONSTRAINT `parent_table_child_id_FK_child_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `parent_table` (`child_id`) ); However im getting something like this: CREATE TABLE `parent_table` ( `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), CONSTRAINT `child_table_child_id_FK_parent_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `child_table` (`child_id`) ); CREATE TABLE `child_table` ( `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY (`child_id`), CONSTRAINT `parent_table_child_id_FK_child_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `parent_table` (`child_id`) ); I could just remove the constraint manually or modify my accessors to return/set a single entity in the collection (using a one-to-many) but it seems like there should built in way to handle this. Also im using Symfony 1.4.4 (pear installtion ATM) - in case its an sfDoctrinePlugin issue and not necessarily Doctrine itself.

    Read the article

  • How to nest shapes in a DSL Tools diagram?

    - by Paul Lalonde
    I have a DSL containing two main domain classes: Area and Entity. Areas are represented visually by a GeometryShape, whereas entities are represented by a CompartmentShape. Entities can be embedded in an Area, or not (in this case they are embedded in the root object, which is a kind of Area). There may be relationships between entities, including between entities in different areas. Areas cannot be embedded inside of other areas, nor entities embedded inside of other entities. My problem is that I cannot get the behavior I want from the diagram. The embedding of entities in areas works perfectly well at the model level, but the visual representation behaves erratically. For example, if I drag an entity that was created in an area outside of that area, it no longer responds to mouse clicks (I have code that performs the re-parenting, but somehow the diagram side of things is broken). I have searched high and low for samples of how to do this, and come up empty. Every example I've found on the web simulates nesting via "references" relationships, whereas I am performing true embedding of the domain classes (and therefore of their associated shape classes). Does anyone have an example of how to do this? While I'm venting, am I the only one who thinks the diagram/shape classes are massively under-documented?

    Read the article

  • Flex 3 - Issues with textArea "editable" property

    - by BS_C3
    Hello Community! I'm having issues with the property "editable" of textArea control. I have a component: OrderView.mxml and it's associated data class OrderViewData.as. Orderview.mxml is inside a viewStack to enable navigation from a component to another. In this particular case, OrderView.mxml is called by another component: SearchResult.mxml. I can thus navigate from SearchResult.mxml to OrderView.mxml, and back to SearchResult.mxml... OrderView.mxml has textArea and textInput control, that have to be editable or nonEditable depending on the property var isEditable:Boolean from OrderViewData.as. When the application is launched, isEditable = true. So, all textInput and textArea controls are editable the first time the user gets to OrderView.mxml. When the user clicks on the button order from OrderView.mxml, isEditable = false. When the user goes back to SearchResult.mxml, isEditable = true (again) -- Until here, everything works fine. The thing is: when the user goes back to OrderView.mxml for the second time (and beyond), even if the property isEditable = true, textArea controls are still non editable... But the textInput controls are editable! Here is some code for your comprehension: OrderView.mxml <mx:Canvas xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" backgroundColor="#F3EDEC"> <mx:TextArea id="contentTA" text="{OrderViewData.instance.contentTA}" enabled="{OrderViewData.instance.isEnabled}" width="100%" height="51" maxChars="18" styleName="ORTextInput" focusIn="if(OrderViewData.instance.isEditable) contentTA.setSelection(0, contentTA.length)"/> <mx:TextInput id="contentTI" text="{OrderViewData.instance.contentTI}" width="40" height="18" maxChars="4" styleName="ORTextInput" change="contentTI_change()" focusIn="if(OrderViewData.instance.isEditable) contentTI.setSelection(0, contentTI.length)" editable="{OrderViewData.instance.isEditable}"/> </mx:Canvas> Am I missing something? Thanks for any help you can provide. Regards. BS_C3

    Read the article

  • How do attribute classes work?

    - by AaronLS
    My searches keep turning up only guides explaining how to use and apply attributes to a class. I want to learn how to create my own attribute classes and the mechanics of how they work. How are attribute classes instantiated? Are they instantiated when the class they are applied to is instantiated? Is one instantiated for each class instantiated that it is applied to? E.g. if I apply the SerializableAttribute class to a MyData class, and I instantiate 5 MyData instances, will there be 5 instances of the SerializbleAttribute class created behind the scenes? Or is there just one instance shared between all of them? How do attribute class instances access the class they are associated with? How does a SerializableAttribute class access the class it is applied to so that it can serialize it's data? Does it have some sort of SerializableAttribute.ThisIsTheInstanceIAmAppliedTo property? :) Or does it work in the reverse direction that whenever I serialize something, the Serialize function I pass the MyClass instance to will reflectively go through the Attributes and find the SerialiableAttribute instance?

    Read the article

  • NSMutableDictionary with UIButton* as keys - iPhone development

    - by Alejandro A.
    Hi, I'm new to iPhone development and I have a question that may have a very simple answer. I am trying to add buttons to a view and these buttons are associated with a custom class that I defined. When I add the buttons to the view, I would like to know what class these buttons correspond to. This is because when I press the button, I need to get some information about the class, but the receiver of the message is another class. I couldn't find information about an error that I'm getting on the web. The problem I have is that I'm trying to create an NSMutableDictionary where the keys are of type UIButton* and the values are of my custom type: // create button for unit UIButton* unitButton = [[UIButton alloc] init]; [sourceButtonMap setObject:composite forKey:unitButton]; Of course, the sourceButtonMap is defined in the class and initialized in the init function as sourceButtonMap = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; The error I get when I try to add the key-value pair is: *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIButton copyWithZone:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3931e90' Is this happening because I can't store UIButton* as keys? Can anyone point me why I'm getting this error? Thank you all, aa

    Read the article

  • Java - Custom PropertyEditorSupport to display units

    - by I82Much
    All, I'm trying to make the properties of my node have Units associated with the measure. ( I am using the JScience.org implementation of JSR 275) So for instance, public class Robot extends AbstractNode { // in kg float vehicleMass; @Override public Sheet createSheet() { Sheet s = Sheet.createDefault(); Sheet.Set set = s.createPropertiesSet(); try { PropertySupport.Reflection vehicleMassField = new PropertySupport.Reflection(this, float.class, "vehicleMass"); vehicleMassField.setValue("units", SI.KILOGRAMS); vehicleMassField.setName("vehicleMass"); set.put(vehicleMassField); PropertyEditorManager.registerEditor(float.class, UnitInPlaceEditor.class); } catch (NoSuchMethodException ex) { Exceptions.printStackTrace(ex); } s.put(set); return s; } } I want my UnitInPlaceEditor to append the units to the end of the string representation of the number, and when the field is clicked (enters edit mode) for the units to disappear and just the number becomes selected for editing. I can make the units appear, but I cannot get the units to disappear when the field enters editing mode. public class UnitsInplaceEditor extends PropertyEditorSupport implements ExPropertyEditor { private PropertyEnv pe; @Override public String getAsText() { // Append the unit by retrieving the stored value } @Override public void setAsText(String s) { // strip off the unit, parse out the number } public void attachEnv(PropertyEnv pe) { this.pe = pe; } } Here's a screenshot of the display - I like it like this.. but here's the value being edited; note the unit stays there. Basically I want one value (string) to be displayed in the field when the field is NOT being edited, and a different to be displayed when user starts editing the field. Barring that, I'd like to put a constant jlabel for the units (uneditable) to the right of the text field. Anyone know how to do this?

    Read the article

  • Embedding Lua functions as member variables in Java

    - by Zarion
    Although the program I'm working on is in Java, answering this from a C perspective is also fine, considering that most of this is either language-agnostic, or happens on the Lua side of things. In the outline I have for the architecture of a game I'm programming, individual types of game objects within a particular class (eg: creatures, items, spells, etc.) are loaded from a data file. Most of their properties are simple data types, but I'd like a few of these members to actually contain simple scripts that define, for example, what an item does when it's used. The scripts will be extremely simple, since all fundamental game actions will be exposed through an API from Java. The Lua is simply responsible for stringing a couple of these basic functions together, and setting arguments. The question is largely about the best way to store a reference to a specific Lua function as a member of a Java class. I understand that if I store the Lua code as a string and call lua_dostring, Lua will compile the code fresh every time it's called. So the function needs to be defined somehow, and a reference to this specific function wrapped in a Java function object. One possibility that I've considered is, during the data loading process, when the loader encounters a script definition in a data file, it extracts this string, decorates the function name using the associated object's unique ID, calls lua_dostring on the string containing a full function definition, and then wraps the generated function name in a Java function object. A function declared in script run with lua_dostring should still be added to the global function table, correct? I'm just wondering if there's a better way of going about this. I admit that my knowledge of Lua at this point is rather superficial and theoretical, so it's possible that I'm overlooking something obvious.

    Read the article

  • SQL Server 2000 intermittent connection exceptions on production server - specific environment probl

    - by StickyMcGinty
    We've been having intermittent problems causing users to be forcibly logged out of out application. Our set-up is ASP.Net/C# web application on Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition with SQL Server 2000 on the back end. We've recently performed a major product upgrade on our client's VMWare server (we have a guest instance dedicated to us) and whereas we had none of these issues with the previous release the added complexity that the new upgrade brings to the product has caused a lot of issues. We are also running SQL Server 2000 (build 8.00.2039, or SP4) and the IIS/ASP.NET (.Net v2.0.50727) application on the same box and connecting to each other via a TCP/IP connection. Primarily, the exceptions being thrown are: System.IndexOutOfRangeException: Cannot find table 0. System.ArgumentException: Column 'password' does not belong to table Table. [This exception occurs in the log in script, even though there is clearly a password column available] System.InvalidOperationException: There is already an open DataReader associated with this Command which must be closed first. [This one is occurring very regularly] System.InvalidOperationException: This SqlTransaction has completed; it is no longer usable. System.ApplicationException: ExecuteReader requires an open and available Connection. The connection's current state is connecting. System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. And just today, for the first time: System.Web.UI.ViewStateException: Invalid viewstate. We have load tested the app using the same number of concurrent users as the production server and cannot reproduce these errors. They are very intermittent and occur even when there are only 8/9/10 user connections. My gut is telling me its ASP.NET - SQL Server 2000 connection issues.. We've pretty much ruled out code-level Data Access Layer errors at this stage (we've a development team of 15 experienced developers working on this) so we think its a specific production server environment issue.

    Read the article

  • Python halts while iteratively processing my 1GB csv file

    - by Dan
    I have two files: metadata.csv: contains an ID, followed by vendor name, a filename, etc hashes.csv: contains an ID, followed by a hash The ID is essentially a foreign key of sorts, relating file metadata to its hash. I wrote this script to quickly extract out all hashes associated with a particular vendor. It craps out before it finishes processing hashes.csv stored_ids = [] # this file is about 1 MB entries = csv.reader(open(options.entries, "rb")) for row in entries: # row[2] is the vendor if row[2] == options.vendor: # row[0] is the ID stored_ids.append(row[0]) # this file is 1 GB hashes = open(options.hashes, "rb") # I iteratively read the file here, # just in case the csv module doesn't do this. for line in hashes: # not sure if stored_ids contains strings or ints here... # this probably isn't the problem though if line.split(",")[0] in stored_ids: # if its one of the IDs we're looking for, print the file and hash to STDOUT print "%s,%s" % (line.split(",")[2], line.split(",")[4]) hashes.close() This script gets about 2000 entries through hashes.csv before it halts. What am I doing wrong? I thought I was processing it line by line. ps. the csv files are the popular HashKeeper format and the files I am parsing are the NSRL hash sets. http://www.nsrl.nist.gov/Downloads.htm#converter UPDATE: working solution below. Thanks everyone who commented! entries = csv.reader(open(options.entries, "rb")) stored_ids = dict((row[0],1) for row in entries if row[2] == options.vendor) hashes = csv.reader(open(options.hashes, "rb")) matches = dict((row[2], row[4]) for row in hashes if row[0] in stored_ids) for k, v in matches.iteritems(): print "%s,%s" % (k, v)

    Read the article

  • dialing on iphone/ipod touch not working with documented procedures

    - by dave
    I'm trying to set up an iphone app to the phone number of a various sports store using the tel:// url passing method- I am developing on an ipod touch- usually on the touch you see the error message "Unsupported URL - This URL wasn't loaded tel://99887766" when you try and dial a number. I cant get this message to appear on the simulator or the ipod touch. do I need to do some sort of fancy signing before the app will dial properly? I am using this code: [[UIApplication sharedApplication] openURL:[NSURL URLWithString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"tel:%@", [selectedBar phoneNumber]]]]; and I've tried adding the slashes: [[UIApplication sharedApplication] openURL:[NSURL URLWithString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"tel://%@", [selectedBar phoneNumber]]]]; but neither work. I have also tried this way: [[UIApplication application] openURL:[NSURL URLWithString:@"tel://99887766"]]; and this way: NSMutableString *phone = [[@"+ 12 34 567 89 01" mutableCopy] autorelease]; [phone replaceOccurrencesOfString:@" " withString:@"" options:NSLiteralSearch range:NSMakeRange(0, [phone length])]; [phone replaceOccurrencesOfString:@"(" withString:@"" options:NSLiteralSearch range:NSMakeRange(0, [phone length])]; [phone replaceOccurrencesOfString:@")" withString:@"" options:NSLiteralSearch range:NSMakeRange(0, [phone length])]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"tel:%@", phone]]; [[UIApplication sharedApplication] openURL:url]; No matter what i do i can't get any response from the simulator / ipod touch that it is dealing with a phone number- When I press the button associated with this code, it doesnt crash, it's like its processed it and decided not to do anything. i even put an NSLog(@"button called"); in just before the code to confirm the button was working, which it is.

    Read the article

  • How can I display an ASP.NET MVC html part from one application in another

    - by Frank Sessions
    We have several asp.net MVC apps in the following setup SecurityApp (root application - handles forms auth for SSO and has a profile edit page) Application1 (virtual directory) Application2 (virtual directory) Application3 (virtual directory) so that domain.com points to SecurityApp and domain.com/Application1 etc point to their associated virtual directories. All of our Single Sign On (SSO) is working properly using forms authentication. Based on the users permissions when logging in a menu that lists their available applications and a logout link will be generated and saved in the cache - this menu displays fine whenever the user is in the SecurityApp (editing their profile) but we cannot figure out how to get the Applications in the virtual directories to display the same application menu. We have tried: 1) Using JSONP to do an request that will return the html for the menu. The ajax call returns the HTML with the html; however, because User.IsAuthenticated is false the menu comes back empty. 2) We created a user control and include it along with the dll's for the SecurityApp project and this works; however, we dont want to have to include all the dlls for the SecurityApp project in every application that we create (along with all the app settings in the web.config) We would like this to be as simple as possible to implement so that anyone creating a new app can add the menu to their application in as few steps as possible... Any ideas? To Clarify - we are using ASP.NET MVC 1.0 since these apps are in production and we do not have the okay to go to ASP.NET MVC 2.0 (unfortunately)

    Read the article

  • .NET - getting form field key/value pairs?

    - by AverageJoe719
    Hi there, I've got a form with textboxes and I want to run some server side validation code on the values after the form is submitted. I was planning to grab all the textbox controls on the page and adding them to a list, then running a for each loop that says for each control in the list query the database where fieldValidation.Name = Control.Name. This would return to me an object and an associated function where i coudl then input the Control.Value and actually perform the validation. My friend told me building the list is not necessary because all languages have a way to get key/value pairs from forms (he doesn't know .NET so coudln't help me). I may be searching the wrong term here but I have not been able to find a result, or maybe I misunderstood my friend. Is there some kind of dictionary or key/value pair automatically generated upon form submissions that contains the value that was submitted and...I guess also the control? Or am I just misunderstanding him. If he was just saying populate a key/value pair based on the form submissions, how does that help me in this situation over a list that contains the control? Thanks =)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178  | Next Page >