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• Etiquette: Version bump my fork of opensource project?

  - by Ross

  This question is about etiquette and open source projects. I have forked an application from github and added two new features. The first feature has been request frequently elsewhere. I have added it. Code & implementation are clean (I think). The second feature is more of a hack. It will be of use to others, but the implementation is a little dirty in useage and more so in code. I need the feature but I don't have the skills to fully implement it properly or to a level that could be considered a worth while contrabution to the main project. How should the versioning work? Do I just bump up my version numbers care-free and push to my master branch? It is annoying to know which version is running, modifed or original, as both have the same version number. But will it be confusing when, months later, my github page has a version number the same as the original but both are actually completely different. (I have made pull requests etc. but that is not the context of my question.) The project I have forked uses ruby jeweler so has a versioning format of: Jeweler tracks the version of your project. It assumes you will be using a version in the format x.y.z. x is the 'major' version, y is the 'minor' version, and z is the patch version. Is this standard for other projects/langauges too? Are my changes patches? Thanks

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• Javascript, IE, Strings, and Performance problems

  - by Infinity

  Hey guys, So we have this product, and it's really slow in IE. We've already applied a lot of the practices advised by the IE guys themselves (like this, and this), and try to sacrifice clean code for performance in the critical parts like DOM manipulation. However, as you can see in this IE profiler screenshot.. Just "String" is the biggest offender. Almost 750ms of exclusive time. Does this mean IE is spending 750ms just instantiating Strings? I also read this stuff on the Opera dev blog: A build script can remove whitespace, comments, replace strings with Array lookups (to avoid MSIE creating a string object for every single instance of a string — even in conditions) But no more info regarding this. Anyone can clarify? It seems like IE has to create a full String instance every time you have " " in your code, which could explain this, but I don't know what the array lookup optimization would look like. BTW- we don't really do much of string concatenation anywhere in the code. The library we use is MooTools 1.2.4 Any suggestions will be appreciated! Thx

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• What are the best practices for writing maintainable CSS?

  - by Art

  I am just starting to explore this area and wonder what are the best practices when it comes to production of clean, well-structured and maintainable CSSes. There seems to be few different approaches to structuring CSS rules. One of the most commonly encountered ones I saw was throwing everything together in one rule, i.e. margins, borders, typefaces, backgrounds, something like this: .my-class { border-top:1px solid #c9d7f1; font-size:1px; font-weight:normal; height:0; position:absolute; top:24px; width:100%; } Another approach I noticed employed grouping of properties, say text-related properties like font-size, typeface, emphasis etc goes into one rule, backgrounds go into other, borders/margins go into yet another one: .my-class { border-top:1px solid #c9d7f1; } .my-class { font-size:1px; font-weight:normal; } .my-class { height:0; top:24px; width:100%; position:absolute; } I guess I am looking for a silver bullet here which I know I am not going to get, bet nevertheless - what are the best practices in this space?

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• What /else/ causes this?

  - by Mordachai

  MFC Toolbox Library.lib(SimpleFileIO.obj) : error LNK2005: _wcsnlen already defined in libcmtd.lib(wcslen_s.obj) fatal error LNK1169: one or more multiply defined symbols found This is driving me nuts. Normally, one would get this if the various projects that are a part of their solution do not agree on which CRT to use (single threaded, multi-threaded, release or debug). However, I have been over this thing about 500 times now, and they all agree. Background: this is a VS 2010 project just converted from VS 2008. MFC Toolbox Library.lib is set to compile as a static library, using /MTd, as is the target .exe I am trying to compile in this solution. Further, the solution that this is being converted from (VS 2008) already compiles & links properly!!! So it's not like that there is a disagreement between the two .vcproj's - or at least there wasn't before the conversion. Furthermore, the MFC Toolbox Library is used by about 25 other projects in another solution - and in that solution (Master Build English) it compiles & links against those other projects without complaint in both debug and release targets. I have just spent the last hour going over every single project property for this target project (Cimex Header Viewer) vs. several different target exe projects in Master Build English solution - and I cannot find a difference. They appear to be identical, excepting that they're different names. I've tried doing a clean & build all. I'm simply out of ideas. Does anyone have a thought on what else I might investigate??? I think I'm ready to start chewing glass. :(

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• Unix: cannot add "\\ \n" even with escaping to the end of line

  - by HH

  I try to convert clean columnwise data to tables in tex. I am unable to have "\ \n" at each end of line. Please, see the command at the end. Data $ echo `. ./bin/addTableTexTags.sh < .data_3` 10.31 & 8.50 & 7.40 10.34 & 8.53 & 7.81 8.22 & 8.62 & 7.78 10.16 & 8.53 & 7.44 10.41 & 8.38 & 7.63 10.38 & 8.57 & 8.03 10.13 & 8.66 & 7.41 8.50 & 8.60 & 7.15 10.41 & 8.63 & 7.21 8.53 & 8.53 & 7.12 $ cat .data_3 10.31 8.50 7.40 10.34 8.53 7.81 8.22 8.62 7.78 10.16 8.53 7.44 10.41 8.38 7.63 10.38 8.57 8.03 10.13 8.66 7.41 8.50 8.60 7.15 10.41 8.63 7.21 8.53 8.53 7.12 addTableTexTags.sh #!/bin/bash sed -e "s@[[:space:]]@\t\&\t@g" -e "s@[[:space:]]*&*[[:space:]]*\$@\t \\ \\\\n@g" // Tried Escaping "\\" with "/" here and there // but cannot get a line ending with "\\ \n".

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• Core Data object into an NSDictionary with possible nil objects

  - by Chuck

  I have a core data object that has a bunch of optional values. I'm pushing a table view controller and passing it a reference to the object so I can display its contents in a table view. Because I want the table view displayed a specific way, I am storing the values from the core data object into an array of dictionaries then using the array to populate the table view. This works great, and I got editing and saving working properly. (i'm not using a fetched results controller because I don't have anything to sort on) The issue with my current code is that if one of the items in the object is missing, then I end up trying to put nil into the dictionary, which won't work. I'm looking for a clean way to handle this, I could do the following, but I can't help but feeling like there's a better way. *passedEntry is the core data object handed to the view controller when it is pushed, lets say it contains firstName, lastName, and age, all optional. if ([passedEntry firstName] != nil) { [dictionary setObject:[passedEntry firstName] forKey:@"firstName"] } else { [dictionary setObject:@"" forKey:@"firstName"] } And so on. This works, but it feels kludgy, especially if I end up adding more items to the core data object down the road.

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• Loading GWT Messages from a Database

  - by Lars Tackmann

  In GWT one typically loads i18n strings using a interface like this: public interface StatusMessage extends Messages { String error(String username); : } which then loads the actual strings from a StatusMessage.property file: error=User: {0} does not have access to resource This is a great solution, however my client is unbendable in his demand for putting the i18n strings in a database so they can be changed at runtime (though its not a requirement that they be changed realtime). One solution is to create a async service which takes a message ID and user locale and returns a string. I have implemented this and find it terribly ugly (and it introduces a huge amount of extra communication with the server, plus it makes property placeholder replacement rather complicated). So my question is this, can I in some nice way implement a custom message provider that loads the messages from the backend in one big swoop (for the current user session). If it can also hook into the default GWT message mechanism, then I would be completely happy (i.e. so I can create a interface like above and keep using the the nice {0}, {1}... property replacement format). Other suggestions for clean database driven messages in GWT are also welcome.

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• Why isn't our c# graphics code working any more?

  - by Jared

  Here's the situation: We have some generic graphics code that we use for one of our projects. After doing some clean-up of the code, it seems like something isn't working anymore (The graphics output looks completely wrong). I ran a diff against the last version of the code that gave the correct output, and it looks like we changed one of our functions as follows: static public Rectangle FitRectangleOld(Rectangle rect, Size targetSize) { if (rect.Width <= 0 || rect.Height <= 0) { rect.Width = targetSize.Width; rect.Height = targetSize.Height; } else if (targetSize.Width * rect.Height > rect.Width * targetSize.Height) { rect.Width = rect.Width * targetSize.Height / rect.Height; rect.Height = targetSize.Height; } else { rect.Height = rect.Height * targetSize.Width / rect.Width; rect.Width = targetSize.Width; } return rect; } to static public Rectangle FitRectangle(Rectangle rect, Size targetSize) { if (rect.Width <= 0 || rect.Height <= 0) { rect.Width = targetSize.Width; rect.Height = targetSize.Height; } else if (targetSize.Width * rect.Height > rect.Width * targetSize.Height) { rect.Width *= targetSize.Height / rect.Height; rect.Height = targetSize.Height; } else { rect.Height *= targetSize.Width / rect.Width; rect.Width = targetSize.Width; } return rect; } All of our unit tests are all passing, and nothing in the code has changed except for some syntactic shortcuts. But like I said, the output is wrong. We'll probably just revert back to the old code, but I'm curious if anyone has any idea what's going on here. Thanks.

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• How to cancel a deeply nested process

  - by Mystere Man

  I have a class that is a "manager" sort of class. One of it's functions is to signal that the long running process of the class should shut down. It does this by setting a boolean called "IsStopping" in class. public class Foo { bool isStoping void DoWork() { while (!isStopping) { // do work... } } } Now, DoWork() was a gigantic function, and I decided to refactor it out and as part of the process broke some of it into other classes. The problem is, Some of these classes also have long running functions that need to check if isStopping is true. public class Foo { bool isStoping void DoWork() { while (!isStopping) { MoreWork mw = new MoreWork() mw.DoMoreWork() // possibly long running // do work... } } } What are my options here? I have considered passing isStopping by reference, which I don't really like because it requires there to be an outside object. I would prefer to make the additional classes as stand alone and dependancy free as possible. I have also considered making isStopping a property, and then then having it call an event that the inner classes could be subscribed to, but this seems overly complex. Another option was to create a "Process Cancelation Token" class, similar to what .net 4 Tasks use, then that token be passed to those classes. How have you handled this situation? EDIT: Also consider that MoreWork might have a EvenMoreWork object that it instantiates and calls a potentially long running method on... and so on. I guess what i'm looking for is a way to be able to signal an arbitrary number of objects down a call tree to tell them to stop what they're doing and clean up and return.

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• Dependency injection in C++

  - by Yorgos Pagles

  This is also a question that I asked in a comment in one of Miško Hevery's google talks that was dealing with dependency injection but it got buried in the comments. I wonder how can the factory / builder step of wiring the dependencies together can work in C++. I.e. we have a class A that depends on B. The builder will allocate B in the heap, pass a pointer to B in A's constructor while also allocating in the heap and return a pointer to A. Who cleans up afterwards? Is it good to let the builder clean up after it's done? It seems to be the correct method since in the talk it says that the builder should setup objects that are expected to have the same lifetime or at least the dependencies have longer lifetime (I also have a question on that). What I mean in code: class builder { public: builder() : m_ClassA(NULL),m_ClassB(NULL) { } ~builder() { if (m_ClassB) { delete m_ClassB; } if (m_ClassA) { delete m_ClassA; } } ClassA *build() { m_ClassB = new class B; m_ClassA = new class A(m_ClassB); return m_ClassA; } }; Now if there is a dependency that is expected to last longer than the lifetime of the object we are injecting it into (say ClassC is that dependency) I understand that we should change the build method to something like: ClassA *builder::build(ClassC *classC) { m_ClassB = new class B; m_ClassA = new class A(m_ClassB, classC); return m_ClassA; } What is your preferred approach?

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• Reverse engineering and redistributing code from .NET Framework

  - by ToxicAvenger

  Once or twice I have been running into the following issue: Classes I want to reuse in my applications (and possibly redistribute) exist in the .NET Framework assemblies, but are marked internal or private. So it is impossible to reuse them directly. One way is to disassemble them, pick the pieces you need, put them in a different namespace, recompile (this can be some effort, but usually works quite well). My question is: Is this legal? Is this only legal for the classes of the Framework which are available as source code anyway? Is it illegal? I think that Microsoft marks them internal or private primarily so that they don't have to support them or can change the interfaces later. But some pieces - be it SharePoint or WCF - are almost impossible to properly extend by only using public classes from the apis. And rewriting everything from scratch generates a huge amount of effort, before you even start solving the problem you intended to solve. This is in my eyes not a "dirty" approach per se. The classes Microsoft ships are obviously well tested, if I reuse them under a different namespace I have "control" over them. If Microsoft changes the original implementation, my code won't be affected (some internals in WCF changed quite a bit with v4). It is not a super-clean approach. I would much prefer Microsoft making several classes public, because there are some nice classes hidden inside the framework.

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• How to make ActiveRecord work with legacy partitioned/sharded databases/tables?

  - by Utensil

  thanks for your time first...after all the searching on google, github and here, and got more confused about the big words(partition/shard/fedorate),I figure that I have to describe the specific problem I met and ask around. My company's databases deals with massive users and orders, so we split databases and tables in various ways, some are described below: way database and table name shard by (maybe it's should be called partitioned by?) YZ.X db_YZ.tb_X order serial number last three digits YYYYMMDD. db_YYYYMMDD.tb date YYYYMM.DD db_YYYYMM.tb_ DD date too The basic concept is that databases and tables are seperated acording to a field(not nessissarily the primary key), and there are too many databases and too many tables, so that writing or magically generate one database.yml config for each database and one model for each table isn't possible or at least not the best solution. I looked into drnic's magic solutions, and datafabric, and even the source code of active record, maybe I could use ERB to generate database.yml and do database connection in around filter, and maybe I could use named_scope to dynamically decide the table name for find, but update/create opertions are bounded to "self.class.quoted_table_name" so that I couldn't easily get my problem solved. And even I could generate one model for each table, because its amount is up to 30 most. But this is just not DRY! What I need is a clean solution like the following DSL: class Order < ActiveRecord::Base shard_by :order_serialno do |key| [get_db_config_by(key), #because some or all of the databaes might share the same machine in a regular way or can be configed by a hash of regex, and it can also be a const get_db_name_by(key), get_tb_name_by(key), ] end end Can anybody enlight me? Any help would be greatly appreciated~~~~

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• JavaScript text slideshow not working?

  - by I Build Websites

  I'm making a Javascript slideshow for my blog yet the array doesn't seem to be working. Can someone please say what I've been doing wrong <SCRIPT type="text/javascript"> var blog = new Array() blog[0]= "<h4>Sunday 17 of June 2012</h4><p title='Blog'>Donec tempus risus eget ligula viverra eget placerat odio tincidunt. Duis nisl sem, scelerisque faucibus congue vitae, accumsan at lectus. Cras vestibulum arcu ut lorem luctus eu pharetra tortor ultricies. Nam iaculis orci mauris. Etiam luctus, mauris sed adipiscing ullamcorper, augue enim volutpat sem, ut sagittis ipsum nibh ac nulla. Nam ultrices, quam eget sollicitudin porta, sapien mauris pulvinar augue, posuere hendrerit erat ligula ut magna. Maecenas laoreet nisi vitae magna consectetur a mollis purus tristique. Pellentesque elementum arcu non urna convallis eleifend. Aliquam eu lorem sed risus tempus tempor. Donec malesuada velit in odio vulputate iaculis. In tristique neque quis velit posuere adipiscing. Nullam dui neque, scelerisque non egestas feugiat, pellentesque vitae mauris.</p><hr>" and so the array continues till function display1() { document.getElementById(blogShow).innerHTML( blog[0]) } function display2() { document.getElementById(blogShow).innerHTML(blog[1]) } function display3() { document.getElementById(blogShow).innerHTML(blog[2]) } function display4() { document.getElementById(blogShow).innerHTML(blog[3]) } function display5() { document.getElementById(blogShow).innerHTML(blog[4]) } </SCRIPT> <div id="blogShow"> <SCRIPT type="text/javascript">display1()</SCRIPT> </div> <div id="blogNav"> <input type="button" onClick="display2()" value="1" class="button"> <input type="button" onClick="display3()" value="2" class="button"> <input type="button" onClick="display4()" value="3" class="button"> <input type="button" onClick="display5()" value="4" class="button"> </div> I know it's all inline and i will clean up after it works

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• Asp.Net 2 integrated sites How to Logout second site programatically.

  - by NBrowne

  Hi , I am working with an asp.net 2.0 site (call it site 1) which has an iframe in it which loads up another site (site2) which is also an asp.net site which is developed by our team. When you log onto site 1 then behind the scenes site 2 is also logged in so that when you click the iframe tab then this displays site 2 with the user logged in (to prevent the user from having to log in twice). The problem i have is that when a user logs out of site 1 then we call some cleanup methods to perform FormsAuthentication.SignOut and clean session variables etc but at the moment no cleanup is called when the user on site 2. So the issue is that if the user opens up Site 2 from within a browser then website 2 opens with the user still logged in which is undesired. Can anyone give me some guidance as to the best approach for this?? One possible approach i though of was just that on click of logout button i could do a call to a custom page on Site 2 which would do the logout. Code below HttpWebRequest request; request = ((HttpWebRequest)(WebRequest.Create("www.mywebsite.com/Site2Logout.aspx"))); request.Method = "POST"; HttpCookie cookie = HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies[FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName]; Cookie authenticationCookie = new Cookie( FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, cookie.Value, cookie.Path, HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.Authority); request .CookieContainer = new CookieContainer(); request .CookieContainer.Add(authenticationCookie); response.GetResponse(); Problem i am having with this code is that when i run it and debug on Site 2 and check to see if the user is Authenticated they are not which i dont understand because if i open browser and browse to Site 2 i am Still authenticated. Any ideas , different direction to take etc ??? Please let me know if you need any more info or if i something i have said dosent make sense. Thanks

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• Short snippet summarizing a webpage?

  - by Legend

  Is there a clean way of grabbing the first few lines of a given link that summarizes that link? I have seen this being done in some online bookmarking applications but have no clue on how they were implemented. For instance, if I give this link, I should be able to get a summary which is roughly like: I'll admit it, I was intimidated by MapReduce. I'd tried to read explanations of it, but even the wonderful Joel Spolsky left me scratching my head. So I plowed ahead trying to build decent pipelines to process massive amounts of data Nothing complex at first sight but grabbing these is the challenging part. Just the first few lines of the actual post should be fine. Should I just use a raw approach of grabbing the entire html and parsing the meta tags or something fancy like that (which obviously and unfortunately is not generalizable to every link out there) or is there a smarter way to achieve this? Any suggestions? Update: I just found InstaPaper do this but am not sure if it is getting the information from RSS feeds or some other way.

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• How can one enforce calling a base class function after derived class constructor?

  - by Mike Elkins

  I'm looking for a clean C++ idiom for the following situation: class SomeLibraryClass { public: SomeLibraryClass() { /* start initialization */ } void addFoo() { /* we are a collection of foos */ } void funcToCallAfterAllAddFoos() { /* Making sure this is called is the issue */ } }; class SomeUserClass : public SomeLibraryClass { public: SomeUserClass() { addFoo(); addFoo(); addFoo(); // SomeUserClass has three foos. } }; class SomeUserDerrivedClass : public SomeUserClass { public: SomeUserDerrivedClass() { addFoo(); // This one has four foos. } }; So, what I really want is for SomeLibraryClass to enforce the calling of funcToCallAfterAllAddFoos at the end of the construction process. The user can't put it at the end of SomeUserClass::SomeUserClass(), that would mess up SomeUserDerrivedClass. If he puts it at the end of SomeUserDerrivedClass, then it never gets called for SomeUserClass. To further clarify what I need, imagine that /* start initialization */ acquires a lock, and funcToCallAfterAllAddFoos() releases a lock. The compiler knows when all the initializations for an object are done, but can I get at that information by some nice trick?

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• Custom bean instantiation logic in Spring MVC

  - by Michal Bachman

  I have a Spring MVC application trying to use a rich domain model, with the following mapping in the Controller class: @RequestMapping(value = "/entity", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String create(@Valid Entity entity, BindingResult result, ModelMap modelMap) { if (entity== null) throw new IllegalArgumentException("An entity is required"); if (result.hasErrors()) { modelMap.addAttribute("entity", entity); return "entity/create"; } entity.persist(); return "redirect:/entity/" + entity.getId(); } Before this method gets executed, Spring uses BeanUtils to instantiate a new Entity and populate its fields. It uses this: ... ReflectionUtils.makeAccessible(ctor); return ctor.newInstance(args); Here's the problem: My entities are Spring managed beans. The reason for this is to inject DAOs on them. Instead of calling new, I use EntityFactory.createEntity(). When they're retrieved from the database, I have an interceptor that overrides the public Object instantiate(String entityName, EntityMode entityMode, Serializable id) method and hooks the factories into that. So the last piece of the puzzle missing here is how to force Spring to use the factory rather than its own BeanUtils reflective approach? Any suggestions for a clean solution? Thanks very much in advance.

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• How to import a module from PyPI when I have another module with the same name

  - by kuzzooroo

  I'm trying to use the lockfile module from PyPI. I do my development within Spyder. After installing the module from PyPI, I can't import it by doing import lockfile. I end up importing anaconda/lib/python2.7/site-packages/spyderlib/utils/external/lockfile.py instead. Spyder seems to want to have the spyderlib/utils/external directory at the beginning of sys.path, or at least none of the polite ways I can find to add my other paths get me in front of spyderlib/utils/external. I'm using python2.7 but with from __future__ import absolute_import. Here's what I've already tried: Writing code that modifies sys.path before running import lockfile. This works, but it can't be the correct way of doing things. Circumventing the normal mechanics of importing in Python using the imp module (I haven't gotten this to work yet, but I'm guessing it could be made to work) Installing the package with something like pip install --install-option="--prefix=modules_with_name_collisions" package_name. I haven't gotten this to work yet either, but I'm guess it could be made to work. It looks like this option is intended to create an entirely separate lib tree, which is more than I need. Source Using pip install --target=lockfile_from_pip. The files show up in the directory where I tell them to go, but import doesn't find them. And in fact pip uninstall can't find them either. I get Cannot uninstall requirement lockfile-from-pip, not installed and I guess I will just delete the directories and hope that's clean. Source So what's the preferred way for me to get access to the PyPI lockfile module?

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• How to access variables in shared memory

  - by user1723361

  I am trying to create a shared memory segment containing three integers and an array. The segment is created and a pointer is attached, but when I try to access the values of the variables (whether changing, printing, etc.) I get a segmentation fault. Here is the code I tried: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdbool.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <errno.h> #include <sys/types.h> #include <sys/ipc.h> #include <sys/sem.h> #define SIZE 10 int* shm_front; int* shm_end; int* shm_count; int* shm_array; int shm_size = 3*sizeof(int) + sizeof(shm_array[SIZE]); int main(int argc, char* argsv[]) { int shmid; //create shared memory segment if((shmid = shmget(IPC_PRIVATE, shm_size, 0644)) == -1) { printf("error in shmget"); exit(1); } //obtain the pointer to the segment if((shm_front = (int*)shmat(shmid, (void *)0, 0)) == (void *)-1) { printf("error in shmat"); exit(1); } //move down the segment to set the other pointers shm_end = shm_front + 1; shm_count = shm_front + 2; shm_array = shm_front + 3; //tests on shm //*shm_end = 10; //gives segmentation fault //printf("\n%d", *shm_front); //gives segmentation fault //clean-up //get rid of shared memory shmdt(shm_front); shmctl(shmid, IPC_RMID, NULL); //printf("\n\n"); return 0; } I tried accessing the shared memory by dereferencing the pointer to the struct, but got a segmentation fault each time.

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• Database source control with Oracle

  - by borjab

  I have been looking during hours for a way to check in a database into source control. My first idea was a program for calculating database diffs and ask all the developers to imlement their changes as new diff scripts. Now, I find that if I can dump a database into a file I cound check it in and use it as just antother type of file. The main conditions are: Works for Oracle 9R2 Human readable so we can use diff to see the diferences. (.dmp files doesn't seem readable) All tables in a batch. We have more than 200 tables. It stores BOTH STRUCTURE AND DATA It supports CLOB and RAW Types. It stores Procedures, Packages and its bodies, functions, tables, views, indexes, contraints, Secuences and synonims. It can be turned into an executable script to rebuild the database into a clean machine. Not limitated to really small databases (Supports least 200.000 rows) It is not easy. I have downloaded a lot of demos that does fail in one way or another. EDIT: I wouldn't mind alternatives aproaches provided that they allows us to check a working system against our release DATABASE STRUCTURE AND OBJECTS + DATA in a bath mode. By the way. Our project has been developed for years. Some aproaches can be easily implemented when you make a fresh start but seem hard at this point. EDIT: To understand better the problem let's say that some users can sometimes do changes to the config data in the production eviroment. Or developers might create a new field or alter a view without notice in the realease branch. I need to be aware of this changes or it will be complicated to merge the changes into production.

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• Help renaming svn repository

  - by rascher

  Here is the deal: I created an SVN repository, say, foo. It is at http://www.example.com/foo. Then I did an svn checkout. I made some updates and changes to my local copy of the code over the week. I haven't committed yet. I realized that I wanted to rename the repository. So I did this: svn copy http://example.com/foo http://example.com/bar svn delete http://example.com/foo I finish my changes (and local svn still thinks I'm working under "foo".) svn commit fails because the repo has been renamed. I try to use svn switch --relocate but it yells at me because svn is awful. I try using the script here to replace "foo" with "bar" in my billion .svn/ folders. This replace is taking a long time. I wonder if something hung? Or maybe sshfs failed? I kill it. Ctrl-C. I look and see that half my files have "foo" and the others have "bar" in the URLs in the sundry .svn/ folders. All I want to do is commit my files with the new name. I could re-checkout the branch, but then I have no way to remember which files I changed, which is why I was using version control in the first place, and svn is so godawful at moving and renaming things. What do I need to do to: Have a "clean" copy of my "bar" svn branch? and, most importantly: Commit the changes I made?

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• getting string.substring(N) not to choke when N > string.length

  - by aape

  I'm writing some code that takes a report from the mainframe and converts it to a spreadsheet. They can't edit the code on the MF to give me a delimited file, so I'm stuck dealing with it as fixed width. It's working okay now, but I need to get it more stable before I release it for testing. My problem is that in any given line of data, say it could have three columns of numbers, each five chars wide at positions 10, 16, and 22. If on this one particular row, there's no data for the last two cols, it won't be padded with spaces; rather, the length of the string will be only 14. So, I can't just blindly have dim s as string = someStream.readline a = s.substring(10, 5) b = s.substring(16, 5) c = s.substring(22, 5) because it'll choke when it substrings past the length of the string. I know I could test the length of the string before processing each row, and I have automated the filling of some of the vsariables using a counter and a loop, and using the counter*theWidthOfTheGivenVariable to jump around, but this project was a dog to start with (come on! turning a report into a spreadsheet?), but there are many different types of rows (it's not just a grid), and the code's getting ugly fast. I'd like this to be clean, clear, and maintainable for the poor sucker that gets this after me. If it matters, here's my code so far (it's really crufty at the moment). You can see some of my/its idiocy in the processSection#data subs So, I'm wondering 1) is there a way baked in to .NET to have string.substring not error when reading past the end of a string without wrapping it in a try...catch? and 2) would it be appropriate in this situation to write a new string class that inherits from string that has a more friendly substring function in it? ETA: Thanks for all the advice and knowledge everyone. I'll go with the extension. Hopefully one of these years, I'll get my chops up enough to pay someone back in kind. :)

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• A better way of getting a data table with various column types into string array

  - by Vlad

  This should be an easy one, looks like I got myself too confused. I get a table from a database, data ranges from varchar to int to Null values. Cheap and dirty way of converting this into a tab-delimited file that I already have is this (shrunken to preserve space, ugliness is kept on par with original): da.Fill(dt) ' da - DataAdapter ' ' dt - DataTable ' Dim lColumns As Long = dt.Columns.Count Dim arrColumns(dt.Columns.Count) As String Dim arrData(dt.Columns.Count) As Object Dim j As Long = 0 Dim arrData(dt.Columns.Count) As Object For i = 0 To dt.Rows.Count - 1 arrData = dt.Rows(i).ItemArray() For j = 0 To arrData.GetUpperBound(0) - 1 arrColumns(j) = arrData(j).ToString Next wrtOutput.WriteLine(String.Join(strFieldDelimiter, arrColumns)) Array.Clear(arrColumns, 0, arrColumns.GetLength(0)) Array.Clear(arrData, 0, arrData.GetLength(0)) Next Not only this is ugly and inefficient, it is also getting on my nerves. Besides, I want, if possible, to avoid the infamous double-loop through the table. I would really appreciate a clean and safe way of rewriting this piece. I like the approach that is used here - especially that is trying to solve the same problem that I have, but it crashes on me when I apply it to my case directly.

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• Sanitize input before executing at server in php

  - by Interfaith

  I want to let user input two variable, Name and Password in a form. I want to disable any XSS or script insert in the input values. I have the following code in the form method: <form name="form1" method="post" action="checkpw.php"> Your Name: <table> <tr><td><input class="text" name="name" onBlur="capitalize(this);" maxlength=12 type="text" /></td></tr> </table> Password: <table> <tr><td><input class="text" name="passwd" maxlength=8 type="password" /></td></tr> <tr><td align="center"><br/> <input class="text" type="submit" name="submitbt" value="Login" /> </td></tr> </table> and the following checkpw.php: <?php // Clean up the input values $post = filter_input_array(INPUT_POST, array( 'name' => FILTER_SANITIZE_STRING, 'pw' => FILTER_SANITIZE_STRING, )); if (is_null($post) || in_array(null, $post)) { header("location:login.php"); return; // missing fields (or failed filter) } // pw is the password sent from the form $pw=$_POST['passwd']; $name=$_POST['name']; if($pw == 'testpass'){ header("location:index.php"); } else { header("location:wrong.php"); } ?> Is this a secure way to ensure the form is sent to the server and executed ONLY after the input values have been sanitized? Also, the $name value i want to pass it to index.php file. I insert a code in the index.php as follow: <?php echo $name ?> But it's empty. Any idea how to resolve it?

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• VB.net/Excel- "Backwards" tab index For Each iteration with textboxes.

  - by MSD

  Hi there, I have a form with 3 textboxes and 1 button. textbox1 has tab index 0, and it's text = 1 textbox2 has tab index 1, and it's text = 2 textbox3 has tab index 2, and it's text = 3 I want to iterate thru the textboxes and place their values into cells so that... range("A1").value = txtbox1.text (ie: A1 = "1") range("A2").value = txtbox2.text (ie: A2 = "2") range("A3").value = txtbox3.text (ie: A3 = "3") but what I am getting is... range("A1").value = txtbox1.text (ie: A1 = "3") range("A2").value = txtbox2.text (ie: A2 = "2") range("A3").value = txtbox3.text (ie: A3 = "1") I have tried reversing the tab index for the text boxes, but it doesn't change the "backwards iteration". Is there something I can do to change this so that the loop runs from lowest tab index to highest? Thanks! Public Class Form1 Private Sub Button1_Click_1(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim objExcel As New Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Application 'Declaring the object. objExcel.Visible = True 'Setting Excel to visible. Dim cntrl As Control With objExcel .Workbooks.Add() 'Adding a workbook. .Range("A1").Select() 'Selecting cell A1. End With 'Form contains 3 text boxes, with one number in each (1,2,3), and one button to fire the code in this sub. For Each cntrl In Me.Controls 'For every control on the form... If TypeOf (cntrl) Is TextBox Then 'If the control is a textbox, then... With objExcel .ActiveCell.Value = cntrl.Text 'place the control's text in the active cell and... .ActiveCell.Offset(1, 0).Activate() 'offset down one row. End With End If 'If the control is not a textbox (if it's the button), do nothing. Next 'Go to the next control. objExcel = Nothing 'Release the object. GC.Collect() 'Clean up. End Sub End Class

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