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  • Dependency Injection and Unit of Work pattern

    - by sunwukung
    I have a dilemma. I've used DI (read: factory) to provide core components for a homebrew ORM. The container provides database connections, DAO's,Mappers and their resultant Domain Objects on request. Here's a basic outline of the Mappers and Domain Object classes class Mapper{ public function __constructor($DAO){ $this->DAO = $DAO; } public function load($id){ if(isset(Monitor::members[$id]){ return Monitor::members[$id]; $values = $this->DAO->selectStmt($id); //field mapping process omitted for brevity $Object = new Object($values); return $Object; } } class User(){ public function setName($string){ $this->name = $string; //mark modified by means fair or foul } } The ORM also contains a class (Monitor) based on the Unit of Work pattern i.e. class Monitor(){ private static array modified; private static array dirty; public function markClean($class); public function markModified($class); } The ORM class itself simply co-ordinates resources extracted from the DI container. So, to instantiate a new User object: $Container = new DI_Container; $ORM = new ORM($Container); $User = $ORM->load('user',1); //at this point the container instantiates a mapper class //and passes a database connection to it via the constructor //the mapper then takes the second argument and loads the user with that id $User->setName('Rumpelstiltskin');//at this point, User must mark itself as "modified" My question is this. At the point when a user sets values on a Domain Object class, I need to mark the class as "dirty" in the Monitor class. I have one of three options as I can see it 1: Pass an instance of the Monitor class to the Domain Object. I noticed this gets marked as recursive in FirePHP - i.e. $this-Monitor-markModified($this) 2: Instantiate the Monitor directly in the Domain Object - does this break DI? 3: Make the Monitor methods static, and call them from inside the Domain Object - this breaks DI too doesn't it? What would be your recommended course of action (other than use an existing ORM, I'm doing this for fun...)

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  • How do I destruct data associated with an object after the object no longer exists?

    - by Phineas
    I'm creating a class (say, C) that associates data (say, D) with an object (say, O). When O is destructed, O will notify C that it soon will no longer exist :( ... Later, when C feels it is the right time, C will let go of what belonged to O, namely D. If D can be any type of object, what's the best way for C to be able to execute "delete D;"? And what if D is an array of objects? My solution is to have D derive from a base class that C has knowledge of. When the time comes, C calls delete on a pointer to the base class. I've also considered storing void pointers and calling delete, but I found out that's undefined behavior and doesn't call D's destructor. I considered that templates could be a novel solution, but I couldn't work that idea out. Here's what I have so far for C, minus some details: // This class is C in the above description. There may be many instances of C. class Context { public: // D will inherit from this class class Data { public: virtual ~Data() {} }; Context(); ~Context(); // Associates an owner (O) with its data (D) void add(const void* owner, Data* data); // O calls this when he knows its the end (O's destructor). // All instances of C are now aware that O is gone and its time to get rid // of all associated instances of D. static void purge (const void* owner); // This is called periodically in the application. It checks whether // O has called purge, and calls "delete D;" void refresh(); // Side note: sometimes O needs access to D Data *get (const void *owner); private: // Used for mapping owners (O) to data (D) std::map _data; }; // Here's an example of O class Mesh { public: ~Mesh() { Context::purge(this); } void init(Context& c) const { Data* data = new Data; // GL initialization here c.add(this, new Data); } void render(Context& c) const { Data* data = c.get(this); } private: // And here's an example of D struct Data : public Context::Data { ~Data() { glDeleteBuffers(1, &vbo); glDeleteTextures(1, &texture); } GLint vbo; GLint texture; }; }; P.S. If you're familiar with computer graphics and VR, I'm creating a class that separates an object's per-context data (e.g. OpenGL VBO IDs) from its per-application data (e.g. an array of vertices) and frees the per-context data at the appropriate time (when the matching rendering context is current).

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  • Closure Tables - Is this enough data to display a tree view?

    - by James Pitt
    Here is the table I have created by testing the closure table method. | id | parentId | childId | hops | | | | | 270 | 6 | 6 | 0 | 271 | 7 | 7 | 0 | 272 | 8 | 8 | 0 | 273 | 9 | 9 | 0 | 276 | 10 | 10 | 0 | 281 | 9 | 10 | 1 | 282 | 7 | 9 | 1 | 283 | 7 | 10 | 2 | 285 | 7 | 8 | 1 | 286 | 6 | 7 | 1 | 287 | 6 | 9 | 2 | 288 | 6 | 10 | 3 | 289 | 6 | 8 | 2 | 293 | 6 | 9 | 1 | 294 | 6 | 10 | 2 I am trying to create a simple tree of this using PHP. There does not seem to be enough data to create the table. For example, when I look purely at parentId = 6: -Part 6 -Part 7 - ? - ? -Part 9 - ? - ? We know that parts 8 and 10 exists below Part 7 or 9, but not which. We know that part 10 exists at both 3 and 4 nodes deep but where? If I look at other data in the table it is possible to tell it should be: - Part 6 - Part 7 - Part 9 - Part 10 - Part 9 - Part 10 I thought one of the benefits of closure tables was there was no need for recursive queries? Could you help explain what I am doing wrong? EDIT: For clarification, this is a mapping table. There is another table called "parts" which has a column called part_id that correlates to both the parentId and childId columns in the "closure" table. The "id" column in the table above (closure) is just for the purposes of maintaining a primary key. It is not really necessary. The methods I have used to create this closure table is described in the following article: http://dirtsimple.org/2010/11/simplest-way-to-do-tree-based-queries.html EDIT2: It can have two and three hops. I will explain easier by assigning names to the items. Part 6 = Bicycle Part 7 = Gears Part 8 = Chain Part 9 = Bolt Part 10 = Nut Nut is part of Bolt. The Bolt and Nut combo exists directly within Bicycle and within Gears which is part of Bicycle. In relation to what method to use I have looked at Adjacency, Edges, Enum Paths, Closures, DAGS(networks) and the Nested Set Model. I am still trying to work out what is what, but this is an extremely complex component database where there are multiple parents and any modification to a sub-tree must propogate through the other trees. More importantly there will be insertions, deletions and tree views that I wish to avoid recursion during general use, even at the cost of database space and query time during entry.

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2 AJAX dilemma: Lose Models concept or create unmanageable JavaScript

    - by Slightly Frustrated
    Hi, Ok, let's assume we are working with ASP.NET MVC 2 (latest and greatest preview) and we want to create AJAX user interface with jQuery. So what are our real options here? Option 1 - Pass Json from the Controller to the view, and then the view submits Json back to the controller. This means (in the order given): User opens some View (let's say - /Invoices/January) which has to visualize a list of data (e.g. <IEnumerable<X.Y.Z.Models.Invoice>>) Controller retrieves the Model from the repository (assuming we are using repository pattern). Controller creates a new instance of a class which we will serialize to Json. The reasaon we do this, is because the model may not be serializable (circular reference ftl) Controller populates the soon-to-be-serialized class with data Controller serializes the class to Json and passes it the view. User does some change and submits the 'form' The View submits back Json to the controller The Controller now must 'manually' validate the input, because the Json passed does not bind to a Model See, if our View is communicating to the controller via Json, we lose the Model validation, which IMHO is incredible disadvantage. In this case, forget about data annotations and stuff. Option 2 - Ok, the alternative of the first approach is to pass the Models to the Views, which is the default behavior in the template when you start a new project. We pass a strong typed model to the view The view renders the appropriate html and javascript, sticking to the model property names. This is important! The user submits the form. If we stick to the model names, when we .serialize() the form and submit it to the controller it will map to a model. There is no Json mapping. The submitted form directly binds to a strongly typed model, hence, we can use the model validation. E.g. we keep the business logic where it should be. Problem with this approach is, if we refactor some of the Models (change property names, types, etc), the javascript we wrote would become invalid. We will have to manually refactor the scripting and hope we don't miss something. There is no way you can test it either. Ok, the question is - how to write an AJAX front end, which keeps the business logic validation in the model (e.g. controller passes and receives a Model type), but in the same time doesn't screw up the javascript and html when we refactor the model?

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  • LINQ Query Returning Multiple Copies Of First Result

    - by Mike G
    I'm trying to figure out why a simple query in LINQ is returning odd results. I have a view defined in the database. It basically brings together several other tables and does some data munging. It really isn't anything special except for the fact that it deals with a large data set and can be a bit slow. I want to query this view based on a long. Two sample queries below show different queries to this view. var la = Runtime.OmsEntityContext.Positions.Where(p => p.AccountNumber == 12345678).ToList(); var deDa = Runtime.OmsEntityContext.Positions.Where(p => p.AccountNumber == 12345678).Select(p => new { p.AccountNumber, p.SecurityNumber, p.CUSIP }).ToList(); The first one should hand back a List. The second one will be a list of anonymous objects. When I do these queries in entities framework the first one will hand me back a list of results where they're all exactly the same. The second query will hand me back data where the account number is the one that I queried and the other values differ. This seems to do this on a per account number basis, ie if I were to query for one account number or another all the Position objects for one account would have the same value (the first one in the list of Positions for that account) and the second account would have a set of Position objects that all had the same value (again, the first one in it's list of Position objects). I can write SQL that is in effect the same as either of the two EF queries. They both come back with results (say four) that show the correct data, one account number with different securities numbers. Why does this happen??? Is there something that I could be doing wrong so that if I had four results for the first query above that the first record's data also appears in the 2-4th's objects??? I cannot fathom what would/could be causing this. I've searched Google for all kinds of keywords and haven't seen anyone with this issue. We partial class out the Positions class for added functionality (smart object) and some smart properties. There are even some constructors that provide some view model type support. None of this is invoked in the request (I'm 99% sure of this). However, we do this same pattern all over the app. The only thing I can think of is that the mapping in the EDMX is screwy. Is there a way that this would happen if the "primary keys" in the EDMX were not in fact unique given the way the view is constructed? I'm thinking that the dev who imported this model into the EDMX let the designer auto select what would be unique. Any help would give a haggered dev some hope!

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  • Performance tuning of a Hibernate+Spring+MySQL project operation that stores images uploaded by user

    - by Umar
    Hi I am working on a web project that is Spring+Hibernate+MySQL based. I am stuck at a point where I have to store images uploaded by a user into the database. Although I have written some code that works well for now, but I believe that things will mess up when the project would go live. Here's my domain class that carries the image bytes: @Entity public class Picture implements java.io.Serializable{ long id; byte[] data; ... // getters and setters } And here's my controller that saves the file on submit: public class PictureUploadFormController extends AbstractBaseFormController{ ... protected ModelAndView onSubmit(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response, Object command, BindException errors) throws Exception{ MutlipartFile file; // getting MultipartFile from the command object ... // beginning hibernate transaction ... Picture p=new Picture(); p.setData(file.getBytes()); pictureDAO.makePersistent(p); // this method simply calls getSession().saveOrUpdate(p) // committing hiernate transaction ... } ... } Obviously a bad piece of code. Is there anyway I could use InputStream or Blob to save the data, instead of first loading all the bytes from the user into the memory and then pushing them into the database? I did some research on hibernate's support for Blob, and found this in Hibernate In Action book: java.sql.Blob and java.sql.Clob are the most efficient way to handle large objects in Java. Unfortunately, an instance of Blob or Clob is only useable until the JDBC transaction completes. So if your persistent class defines a property of java.sql.Clob or java.sql.Blob (not a good idea anyway), you’ll be restricted in how instances of the class may be used. In particular, you won’t be able to use instances of that class as detached objects. Furthermore, many JDBC drivers don’t feature working support for java.sql.Blob and java.sql.Clob. Therefore, it makes more sense to map large objects using the binary or text mapping type, assuming retrieval of the entire large object into memory isn’t a performance killer. Note you can find up-to-date design patterns and tips for large object usage on the Hibernate website, with tricks for particular platforms. Now apparently the Blob cannot be used, as it is not a good idea anyway, what else could be used to improve the performance? I couldn't find any up-to-date design pattern or any useful information on Hibernate website. So any help/recommendations from stackoverflowers will be much appreciated. Thanks

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  • How to store date into Mysql database with play framework in scala?

    - by Rahul Kulhari
    I am working with play framework with scala and what am i doing : login page to login into web app sign up page to register into web app after login i want to store all databases values to user what i want to do: when user register for web app then i want to store user values into database with current time and date but my form is giving error. error: List(FormError(dates,error.required,List())),None) controllers/Application.scala object Application extends Controller { val ta:Form[Keyword] = Form( mapping( "id" -> ignored(NotAssigned:Pk[Long]), "word" -> nonEmptyText, "blog" -> nonEmptyText, "cat" -> nonEmptyText, "score"-> of[Long], "summaryId"-> nonEmptyText, "dates" -> date("yyyy-MM-dd HH:mm:ss") )(Keyword.apply)(Keyword.unapply) ) def index = Action { Ok(html.index(ta)); } def newTask= Action { implicit request => ta.bindFromRequest.fold( errors => {println(errors) BadRequest(html.index(errors))}, keywo => { Keyword.create(keywo) Ok(views.html.data(Keyword.all())) } ) } models/keyword.scala case class Keyword(id: Pk[Long],word: String,blog: String,cat: String,score: Long, summaryId: String,dates: Date ) object Keyword { val keyw = { get[Pk[Long]]("keyword.id") ~ get[String]("keyword.word")~ get[String]("keyword.blog")~ get[String]("keyword.cat")~ get[Long]("keyword.score") ~ get[String]("keyword.summaryId")~ get[Date]("keyword.dates") map { case id~blog~cat~word~score~summaryId~dates => Keyword(id,word,blog,cat,score, summaryId,dates) } } def all(): List[Keyword] = DB.withConnection { implicit c => SQL("select * from keyword").as(Keyword.keyw *) } def create(key: Keyword){DB.withConnection{implicit c=> SQL("insert into keyword values({word},{blog}, {cat}, {score},{summaryId},{dates})").on('word-> key.word,'blog->key.blog, 'cat -> key.cat, 'score-> key.score, 'summaryId -> key.summaryId, 'dates->new Date()).executeUpdate } } views/index.scala.html @(taskForm: Form[Keyword]) @import helper._ @main("Todo list") { @form(routes.Application.newTask) { @inputText(taskForm("word")) @inputText(taskForm("blog")) @inputText(taskForm("cat")) @inputText(taskForm("score")) @inputText(taskForm("summaryId")) <input type="submit"> <a href="">Go Back</a> } } please give me some idea to store date into mysql databse and date is not a field of form

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  • Deterministic key serialization

    - by Mike Boers
    I'm writing a mapping class which uses SQLite as the storage backend. I am currently allowing only basestring keys but it would be nice if I could use a couple more types hopefully up to anything that is hashable (ie. same requirements as the builtin dict). To that end I would like to derive a deterministic serialization scheme. Ideally, I would like to know if any implementation/protocol combination of pickle is deterministic for hashable objects (e.g. can only use cPickle with protocol 0). I noticed that pickle and cPickle do not match: >>> import pickle >>> import cPickle >>> def dumps(x): ... print repr(pickle.dumps(x)) ... print repr(cPickle.dumps(x)) ... >>> dumps(1) 'I1\n.' 'I1\n.' >>> dumps('hello') "S'hello'\np0\n." "S'hello'\np1\n." >>> dumps((1, 2, 'hello')) "(I1\nI2\nS'hello'\np0\ntp1\n." "(I1\nI2\nS'hello'\np1\ntp2\n." Another option is to use repr to dump and ast.literal_eval to load. This would only be valid for builtin hashable types. I have written a function to determine if a given key would survive this process (it is rather conservative on the types it allows): def is_reprable_key(key): return type(key) in (int, str, unicode) or (type(key) == tuple and all( is_reprable_key(x) for x in key)) The question for this method is if repr itself is deterministic for the types that I have allowed here. I believe this would not survive the 2/3 version barrier due to the change in str/unicode literals. This also would not work for integers where 2**32 - 1 < x < 2**64 jumping between 32 and 64 bit platforms. Are there any other conditions (ie. do strings serialize differently under different conditions)? (If this all fails miserably then I can store the hash of the key along with the pickle of both the key and value, then iterate across rows that have a matching hash looking for one that unpickles to the expected key, but that really does complicate a few other things and I would rather not do it.) Any insights?

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  • Entity Framework 4 CTP 5 POCO - Many-to-many configuration, insertion, and update?

    - by Saxman
    I really need someone to help me to fully understand how to do many-to-many relationship with Entity Framework 4 CTP 5, POCO. I need to understand 3 concepts: How to config my model to indicates some tables are many-to-many. How to properly do insert. How to properly do update. Here are my current models: public class MusicSheet { [Key] public int ID { get; set; } public string Title { get; set; } public string Key { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Author> Authors { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Tag> Tags { get; set; } } public class Author { [Key] public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public string Bio { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<MusicSheet> MusicSheets { get; set; } } public class Tag { [Key] public int ID { get; set; } public string TagName { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<MusicSheet> MusicSheets { get; set; } } As you can see, the MusicSheet can have many Authors or Tags, and an Author or Tag can have multiple MusicSheets. Again, my questions are: What to do on the EntityTypeConfiguration to set the relationship between them as well as mapping to an table/object that associates with the many-to-many relationship. How to insert a new music sheets (where it might have multiple authors or multiple tags). How to update a music sheet. For example, I might set TagA, TagB to MusicSheet1, but later I need to change the tags to TagA and TagC. It seems like I need to first check to see if the tags already exists, if not, insert the new tag and then associate it with the music sheet (so that I doesn't re-insert TagA?). Or this is something already handled by the framework? Thank you very much. I really hope to fully understand it rather than just doing it without fully understand what's going on. Especially on #3.

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  • Intermittent "Specified cast is invalid" with StructureMap injected data context

    - by FreshCode
    I am intermittently getting an System.InvalidCastException: Specified cast is not valid. error in my repository layer when performing an abstracted SELECT query mapped with LINQ. The error can't be caused by a mismatched database schema since it works intermittently and it's on my local dev machine. Could it be because StructureMap is caching the data context between page requests? If so, how do I tell StructureMap v2.6.1 to inject a new data context argument into my repository for each request? Update: I found this question which correlates my hunch that something was being re-used. Looks like I need to call Dispose on my injected data context. Not sure how I'm going to do this to all my repositories without copypasting a lot of code. Edit: These errors are popping up all over the place whenever I refresh my local machine too quickly. Doesn't look like it's happening on my remote deployment box, but I can't be sure. I changed all my repositories' StructureMap life cycles to HttpContextScoped() and the error persists. Code: public ActionResult Index() { // error happens here, which queries my page repository var page = _branchService.GetPage("welcome"); if (page != null) ViewData["Welcome"] = page.Body; ... } Repository: GetPage boils down to a filtered query mapping in my page repository. public IQueryable<Page> GetPages() { var pages = from p in _db.Pages let categories = GetPageCategories(p.PageId) let revisions = GetRevisions(p.PageId) select new Page { ID = p.PageId, UserID = p.UserId, Slug = p.Slug, Title = p.Title, Description = p.Description, Body = p.Text, Date = p.Date, IsPublished = p.IsPublished, Categories = new LazyList<Category>(categories), Revisions = new LazyList<PageRevision>(revisions) }; return pages; } where _db is an injected data context as an argument, stored in a private variable which I reuse for SELECT queries. Error: Specified cast is not valid. Exception Details: System.InvalidCastException: Specified cast is not valid. Stack Trace: [InvalidCastException: Specified cast is not valid.] System.Data.Linq.SqlClient.SqlProvider.Execute(Expression query, QueryInfo queryInfo, IObjectReaderFactory factory, Object[] parentArgs, Object[] userArgs, ICompiledSubQuery[] subQueries, Object lastResult) +4539 System.Data.Linq.SqlClient.SqlProvider.ExecuteAll(Expression query, QueryInfo[] queryInfos, IObjectReaderFactory factory, Object[] userArguments, ICompiledSubQuery[] subQueries) +207 System.Data.Linq.SqlClient.SqlProvider.System.Data.Linq.Provider.IProvider.Execute(Expression query) +500 System.Data.Linq.DataQuery`1.System.Linq.IQueryProvider.Execute(Expression expression) +50 System.Linq.Queryable.FirstOrDefault(IQueryable`1 source) +383 Manager.Controllers.SiteController.Index() in C:\Projects\Manager\Manager\Controllers\SiteController.cs:68 lambda_method(Closure , ControllerBase , Object[] ) +79 System.Web.Mvc.ReflectedActionDescriptor.Execute(ControllerContext controllerContext, IDictionary`2 parameters) +258 System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeActionMethod(ControllerContext controllerContext, ActionDescriptor actionDescriptor, IDictionary`2 parameters) +39 System.Web.Mvc.<>c__DisplayClassd.<InvokeActionMethodWithFilters>b__a() +125 System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeActionMethodFilter(IActionFilter filter, ActionExecutingContext preContext, Func`1 continuation) +640 System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeActionMethodWithFilters(ControllerContext controllerContext, IList`1 filters, ActionDescriptor actionDescriptor, IDictionary`2 parameters) +312 System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeAction(ControllerContext controllerContext, String actionName) +709 System.Web.Mvc.Controller.ExecuteCore() +162 System.Web.Mvc.<>c__DisplayClass8.<BeginProcessRequest>b__4() +58 System.Web.Mvc.Async.<>c__DisplayClass1.<MakeVoidDelegate>b__0() +20 System.Web.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() +453 System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) +371

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  • Linq query challenge - can this be done?

    - by vdh_ant
    My table structure is as follows: Person 1-M PesonAddress Person 1-M PesonPhone Person 1-M PesonEmail Person 1-M Contract Contract M-M Program Contract M-1 Organization At the end of this query I need a populated object graph where each person has their: PesonAddress's PesonPhone's PesonEmail's PesonPhone's Contract's - and this has its respective Program's Now I had the following query and I thought that it was working great, but it has a couple of problems: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") where people.Contract.Any( contract => (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) && contract.Program.Any( contractProgram => (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId))) select people; The problem is that it filters the person to the criteria but not the Contracts or the Contract's Programs. It brings back all Contracts that each person has not just the ones that have an OrganizationId of x and the same goes for each of those Contract's Programs respectively. What I want is only the people that have at least one contract with an OrgId of x with and where that contract has a Program with the Id of y... and for the object graph that is returned to have only the contracts that match and programs within that contract that match. I kinda understand why its not working, but I don't know how to change it so it is working... This is my attempt thus far: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") let currentContracts = from contract in people.Contract where (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) select contract let currentContractPrograms = from contractProgram in currentContracts let temp = from x in contractProgram.Program where (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId) select x where temp.Any() select temp where currentContracts.Any() && currentContractPrograms.Any() select new Person { PersonId = people.PersonId, FirstName = people.FirstName, ..., ...., MiddleName = people.MiddleName, Surname = people.Surname, ..., ...., Gender = people.Gender, DateOfBirth = people.DateOfBirth, ..., ...., Contract = currentContracts, ... }; //This doesn't work But this has several problems (where the Person type is an EF object): I am left to do the mapping by myself, which in this case there is quite a lot to map When ever I try to map a list to a property (i.e. Scholarship = currentScholarships) it says I can't because IEnumerable is trying to be cast to EntityCollection Include doesn't work Hence how do I get this to work. Keeping in mind that I am trying to do this as a compiled query so I think that means anonymous types are out.

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  • PHP array pointer craziness

    - by JMan
    I'm trying to create a "GetCurrentLevel" method that takes a point value as an input and returns what "Level" that corresponds to. I'm storing the Level = Points mapping in an array, but the array pointer is not moving logically when I use it a foreach loop. I've added echo statements for debugging. Here's my class definition: class Levels extends Model { protected $_map = array ( 'None' => 0, 'Bronze' => 50, 'Silver' => 200, 'Gold' => 500 ); public function __construct() { parent::__construct(); } public function GetCurrentLevel($points) { foreach ($this->_map as $name => $threshold) { echo "Level Name: $name<br/>"; echo "Level Threshold: $threshold<br/>"; echo "Current Level: " . key($this->_map) . "<br/>"; echo "Current Threshold: " . current($this->_map) . "<br/>"; if ($points < $threshold) /* Threshold is now above the points, so need to go back one level */ { $previousThreshold = prev($this->_map); echo "Previous Threshold: $previousThreshold<br/>"; echo "Final Level: " . key($this->_map) . "<br/>"; return key($this->_map); } echo "Go to next level <br/>"; } } And here is what I see when I call GetCurrentLevel(60): Level Name: None Level Threshold: 0 Current Level: Bronze //* Looks like foreach immediately moves the array pointer *// Current Threshold: 50 Go to next level Level Name: Bronze Level Threshold: 50 Current Level: Bronze //* WTF? Why hasn't the array pointer moved? *// Current Threshold: 50 Go to next level Level Name: Silver Level Threshold: 200 Current Level: Bronze //* WTF? Why hasn't the array pointer moved? *// Current Threshold: 50 Previous Threshold: 0 Final Level: None But the "Final Level" should be 'Bronze' since 60 points is above the 50 points needed for a Bronze medal, but below the 200 points needed for a Silver medal. Sorry for the long post. Thanks for your help!

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  • Hibernate MappingException Unknown entity: $Proxy2

    - by slynn1324
    I'm using Hibernate annotations and have a VERY basic data object: import java.io.Serializable; import javax.persistence.Entity; import javax.persistence.Id; @Entity public class State implements Serializable { /** * */ private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id private String stateCode; private String stateFullName; public String getStateCode() { return stateCode; } public void setStateCode(String stateCode) { this.stateCode = stateCode; } public String getStateFullName() { return stateFullName; } public void setStateFullName(String stateFullName) { this.stateFullName = stateFullName; } } and am trying to run the following test case: public void testCreateState(){ Session s = HibernateUtil.getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession(); Transaction t = s.beginTransaction(); State state = new State(); state.setStateCode("NE"); state.setStateFullName("Nebraska"); s.save(s); t.commit(); } and get an org.hibernate.MappingException: Unknown entity: $Proxy2 at org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl.getEntityPersister(SessionFactoryImpl.java:628) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.getEntityPersister(SessionImpl.java:1366) at org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractSaveEventListener.saveWithGeneratedId(AbstractSaveEventListener.java:121) .... I haven't been able to find anything referencing the $Proxy part of the error - and am at a loss.. Any pointers to what I'm missing would be greatly appreciated. hibernate.cfg.xml <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class">org.hsqldb.jdbcDriver</property> <property name="connection.url">jdbc:hsqldb:hsql://localhost/xdb</property> <property name="connection.username">sa</property> <property name="connection.password"></property> <property name="current_session_context_class">thread</property> <property name="dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.HSQLDialect</property> <property name="show_sql">true</property> <property name="hbm2ddl.auto">update</property> <property name="hibernate.transaction.factory_class">org.hibernate.transaction.JDBCTransactionFactory</property> <mapping class="com.test.domain.State"/> in HibernateUtil.java public static SessionFactory getSessionFactory(boolean testing ) { if ( sessionFactory == null ){ try { String configPath = HIBERNATE_CFG; AnnotationConfiguration config = new AnnotationConfiguration(); config.configure(configPath); sessionFactory = config.buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); throw new ExceptionInInitializerError(e); } } return sessionFactory; }

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  • MVC Entity Framework: Cannot open user default database. Login failed.

    - by Michael
    This type of stuff drives me nuts. I'm having trouble finding the exact issue that I'm having, maybe I just don't know the terminology. Anyway, I had a working website using MVC and Entity Framework, but then I coded an error in a partial view page (ascx). Then all of a sudden I started to get this message. Cannot open user default database. Login failed. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM' I've found plenty of suggestions about opening SQL Server Management Studio, Double Click on Security, Double Click on Logins, Double click on NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM and then double click on User Mapping. In this view I'm suppose to check the box for my database so that this user is mapped to this login. However, since I created my database in Visio Studio 2008 as part of my solution, it doesn't show up to allow me to click on it. So what do I do now? What drives me nuts is that everything was working fine. I was using my computer name to access the website and everything was working fine until the coding error. I've fix the error but still getting the error. I should also mention that this error started yesterday too around the same time but later cleared itself up. If I use localhost to access the site, it works just fine. IIS7 configuration for my website: Application Pool = DefaultAppPool Physical Path Credentials Logon = ClearText With in connection strings. I do see the one for my database in this solution. Entry Type is local metadata=res://*/Models.DataModel.csdl|res://*/Models.DataModel.ssdl|res://*/Models.DataModel.msl; provider=System.Data.SqlClient; provider connection string="Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=|DataDirectory|\FFBall.mdf;Integrated Security=True;User Instance=True;MultipleActiveResultSets=True" And somewhere I remember changing the identity from Network Service to LocalSystem. Because when I first stared I was getting this same message, but I changed this value and it started working. I saw that suggested somewhere too but I do not recall. Wait I remember now, I believe in IIS7, under Application Pools, DefaultAppPool identity is set to LocalSystem. Additional things I've tried. Restart the computer Recycle the application pool. Antivirus isn't running. Any help would be appreciated. Thank you in advance.

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  • What is fastest way to convert bool to byte?

    - by Amir Rezaei
    What is fastest way to convert bool to byte? I want this mapping: False=0, True=1 Note: I don't want to use any if statement. Update: I don't want to use conditional statement. I don't want the CPU to halt or guess next statement. I want to optimize this code: private static string ByteArrayToHex(byte[] barray) { char[] c = new char[barray.Length * 2]; byte k; for (int i = 0; i < barray.Length; ++i) { k = ((byte)(barray[i] >> 4)); c[i * 2] = (char)(k > 9 ? k + 0x37 : k + 0x30); k = ((byte)(barray[i] & 0xF)); c[i * 2 + 1] = (char)(k > 9 ? k + 0x37 : k + 0x30); } return new string(c); } Update: The length of the array is very large, it's in terabyte order! Therefore I need to do optimization if possible. I shouldn't need to explain my self. The question is still valid. Update: I'm working on a project and looking at others code. That's why I didn't provide with the function at first place. I didn't want to spend time on explaining for people when they have opinion about the code. I shouldn’y need to provide in my question the background of my work, and a function that is not written by me. I have started to optimize it part by part. If I needed help with the whole function I would asked that in another question. That is why I asked this very simple at the beginning. Unfortunately people couldn’t keep themselves to the question. So please if you want to help answer the question. Update: For dose who want to see the point of this question. This example shows how two if statement are reduced from the code. byte A = k > 9 ; //If it was possible (k>9) == 0 || 1 c[i * 2] = A * (k + 0x30) - (A - 1) * (k + 0x30);

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  • ASP.NET Application Level vs. Session Level and Global.asax...confused

    - by contactmatt
    The following text is from the book I'm reading, 'MCTS Self-Paced Training Kit (Exam 70-515) Web Applications Development with ASP.NET 4". It gives the rundown of the Application Life Cycle. A user first makes a request for a page in your site. The request is routed to the processing pipeline, which forwards it to the ASP.NET runtime. The ASP.NET runtime creates an instance of the ApplicationManager class; this class instance represents the .NET framework domain that will be used to execute requests for your application. An application domain isolates global variables from other applications and allows each application to load and unload separately, as required. After the application domain has been created, an instance of the HostingEnvironment class is created. This class provides access to items inside the hosting environment, such as directory folders. ASP.NET creates instances of the core objects that will be used to process the request. This includes HttpContext, HttpRequest, and HttpResponse objects. ASP.NET creates an instance of the HttpApplication class (or an instance is reused). This class is also the base class for a site’s Global.asax file. You can use this class to trap events that happen when your application starts or stops. When ASP.NET creates an instance of HttpApplication, it also creates the modules configured for the application, such as the SessionStateModule. Finally, ASP.NET processes request through the HttpApplication pipleline. This pipeline also includes a set of events for validating requests, mapping URLs, accessing the cache, and more. The book then demonstrated an example of using the Global.asax file: <script runat="server"> void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { Application["UsersOnline"] = 0; } void Session_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { Application.Lock(); Application["UsersOnline"] = (int)Application["UsersOnline"] + 1; Application.UnLock(); } void Session_End(object sender, EventArgs e) { Application.Lock(); Application["UsersOnline"] = (int)Application["UsersOnline"] - 1; Application.UnLock(); } </script> When does an application start? Whats the difference between session and application level? I'm rather confused on how this is managed. I thought that Application level classes "sat on top of" an AppDomain object, and the AppDomain contained information specific to that Session for that user. Could someone please explain how IIS manages Applicaiton level classes, and how an HttpApplication class sits under an AppDomain? Anything is appreciated.

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  • BizTalk - generating schema from Oracle stored proc with table variable argument

    - by Ron Savage
    I'm trying to set up a simple example project in BizTalk that gets changes made to a table in a SQL Server db and updates a copy of that table in an Oracle db. On the SQL Server side, I have a stored proc named GetItemChanges() that returns a variable number of records. On the Oracle side, I have a stored proc named Update_Item_Region_Table() designed to take a table of records as a parameter so that it can process all the records returned from GetItemChanges() in one call. It is defined like this: create or replace type itemrec is OBJECT ( UPC VARCHAR2(15), REGION VARCHAR2(5), LONG_DESCRIPTION VARCHAR2(50), POS_DESCRIPTION VARCHAR2(30), POS_DEPT VARCHAR2(5), ITEM_SIZE VARCHAR2(10), ITEM_UOM VARCHAR2(5), BRAND VARCHAR2(10), ITEM_STATUS VARCHAR2(5), TIME_STAMP VARCHAR2(20), COSTEDBYWEIGHT INTEGER ); create or replace type tbl_of_rec is table of itemrec; create or replace PROCEDURE Update_Item_Region_table ( Item_Data tbl_of_rec ) IS errcode integer; errmsg varchar2(4000); BEGIN for recIndex in 1 .. Item_Data.COUNT loop update FL_ITEM_REGION_TEST set Region = Item_Data(recIndex).Region, Long_description = Item_Data(recIndex).Long_description, Pos_Description = Item_Data(recIndex).Pos_description, Pos_Dept = Item_Data(recIndex).Pos_dept, Item_Size = Item_Data(recIndex).Item_Size, Item_Uom = Item_Data(recIndex).Item_Uom, Brand = Item_Data(recIndex).Brand, Item_Status = Item_Data(recIndex).Item_Status, Timestamp = to_date(Item_Data(recIndex).Time_stamp, 'yyyy-mm-dd HH24:mi:ss'), CostedByWeight = Item_Data(recIndex).CostedByWeight where UPC = Item_Data(recIndex).UPC; log_message(Item_Data(recIndex).Region, '', 'Updated item ' || Item_Data(recIndex).UPC || '.'); end loop; EXCEPTION WHEN OTHERS THEN errcode := SQLCODE(); errmsg := SQLERRM(); log_message('CE', '', 'Error in Update_Item_Region_table(): Code [' || errcode || '], Msg [' || errmsg || '] ...'); END; In my BizTalk project I generate the schemas and binding information for both stored procedures. For the Oracle procedure, I specified a path for the GeneratedUserTypesAssemblyFilePath parameter to generate a DLL to contain the definition of the data types. In the Send Port on the server, I put the path to that Types DLL in the UserAssembliesLoadPath parameter. I created a map to translate the GetItemChanges() schema to the Update_Item_Region_Table() schema. When I run it the data is extracted and transformed fine but causes an exception trying to pass the data to the Oracle proc: *The adapter failed to transmit message going to send port "WcfSendPort_OracleDBBinding_HOST_DATA_Procedure_Custom" with URL "oracledb://dvotst/". It will be retransmitted after the retry interval specified for this Send Port. Details:"System.InvalidOperationException: Custom type mapping for 'HOST_DATA.TBL_OF_REC' is not specified or is invalid.* So it is apparently not getting the information about the custom data type TBL_OF_REC into the Types DLL. Any tips on how to make this work?

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  • How to distort the desktop screen

    - by HaifengWang
    Hi friends, I want to change the shape of the desktop screen, so what are displayed on the desktop will be distorted at the same time. And the user can still operate the PC with the mouse on the distorted desktop(Run the applications, Open the "My Computer" and so on). I think I must get the projection matrix of the screen coordinate at first. Then transform the matrix, and map the desktop buffer image to the distorted mesh. Are there any interfaces which can modify the shape of the desktop screen in OpenGL or DirectX? Would you please give me some tip on it. Thank you very much in advance. Please refer to the picture from http://oi53.tinypic.com/bhewdx.jpg BR, Haifeng Addition1: I'm sorry! Maybe I didn't express clearly what I want to implement. What I want to implement is to modify the shape of the screen. So we can distort the shapes of all the applications which are run on Windows at the same time. For example that the window of "My Computer" will be distorted with the distortion of the desktop screen. And we can still operate the PC with mouse from the distorted desktop(Click the shortcut to run a program). Addition2: The projection matrix is just my assume. There isn't any desktop projection matrix by which the desktop surface is projected to the screen. What I want to implement is to change the shape of the desktop, as the same with mapping the desktop to an 3D mesh. But the user can still operate the OS on the distorted desktop(Click the shortcut to run a program, open the ie to surf the internet). Addition3: The shapes of all the programs run on the OS are changed with the distortion of the screen. It's realtime. The user can still operate the OS on the distorted screen as usually. Maybe we can intercept or override the GPU itself to implement the effect. I'm investigating GDI, I think I can find some clue for that. The first step is to find how to show the desktop on the screen.

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  • Passing ViewModel for backbone.js from MVC3 Server-Side

    - by Roman
    In ASP.NET MVC there is Model, View and Controller. MODEL represents entities which are stored in database and essentially is all the data used in a application (for example, generated by EntityFramework, "DB First" approach). Not all data from model you want to show in the view (for example, hashs of passwords). So you create VIEW MODEL, each for every strongly-typed-razor-view you have in application. Like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace MyProject.ViewModels.SomeController.SomeAction { public class ViewModel { public ViewModel() { Entities1 = new List<ViewEntity1>(); Entities2 = new List<ViewEntity2>(); } public List<ViewEntity1> Entities1 { get; set; } public List<ViewEntity2> Entities2 { get; set; } } public class ViewEntity1 { //some properties from original DB-entity you want to show } public class ViewEntity2 { } } When you create complex client-side interfaces (I do), you use some pattern for javascript on client, MVC or MVVM (I know only these). So, with MVC on client you have another model (Backbone.Model for example), which is third model in application. It is a bit much. Why don`t we use the same ViewModel model on a client (in backbone.js or another framework)? Is there a way to transfer CS-coded model to JS-coded? Like in MVVM pattern, with knockout.js, when you can do like this: in SomeAction.cshtml: <div style="display: none;" id="view_model">@Json.Encode(Model)</div> after that in Javascript-code var ViewModel = ko.mapping.fromJSON($("#view_model").get(0).innerHTML); now you can extend your ViewModel with some actions, event handlers, etc: ko.utils.extend(ViewModel, { some_function: function () { //some code } }); So, we are not building the same view model on the client again, we are transferring existing view model from server. At least, data. But knockout.js is not suitable for me, you can`t build complex UI with it, it is just data-binding. I need something more structural, like backbone.js. The only way to build ViewModel for backbone.js I can see now is re-writing same ViewModel in JS from server with hands. Is there any ways to transfer it from server? To reuse the same viewmodel on server view and client view?

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  • Is it correct or incorrect for a Java JAR to contain its own dependencies?

    - by 4herpsand7derpsago
    I guess this is a two-part question. I am trying to write my own Ant task (MyFirstTask) that can be used in other project's build.xml buildfiles. To do this, I need to compile and package my Ant task inside its own JAR. Because this Ant task that I have written is fairly complicated, it has about 20 dependencies (other JAR files), such as using XStream for OX-mapping, Guice for DI, etc. I am currently writing the package task in the build.xml file inside the MyFirstTask project (the buildfile that will package myfirsttask.jar, which is the reusable Ant task). I am suddenly realizing that I don't fully understand the intention of a Java JAR. Is it that a JAR should not contain dependencies, and leave it to the runtime configuration (the app container, the runtime environment, etc.) to supply it with the dependencies it needs? I would assume if this is the case, an executable JAR is an exception to the rule, yes? Or, is it the intention for Java JARs to also include their dependencies? Either way, I don't want to be forcing my users to be copying-n-pasting 25+ JARs into their Ant libs; that's just cruel. I like the way WAR files are set up, where the classpath for dependencies is defined under the classes/ directory. I guess, ultimately, I'd like my JAR structure to look like: myfirsttask.jar/ com/ --> the root package of my compiled binaries config/ --> config files, XML, XSD, etc. classes/ --> all dependencies, guice-3.0.jar, xstream-1.4.3.jar, etc. META-INF/ MANIFEST.MF I assume that in order to accomplish this (and get the runtime classpath to also look into the classes/ directory), I'll need to modify the MANIFEST.MF somehow (I know there's a manifest attribute called ClassPath, I believe?). I'm just having a tough time putting everything together, and have a looming/lingering question about the very intent of JARs to begin with. Can someone please confirm whether Oracle intends for JARs to contain their dependencies or not? And, either way, what I would have to do in the manifest (or anywhere else) to make sure that, at runtime, the classpath can find the dependencies stored under the classes/ directory? Thanks in advance!

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  • Why does every thread in my application use a different hibernate session?

    - by Ittai
    Hi, I have a web-application which uses hibernate and for some reason every thread (httprequest or other threads related to queueing) uses a different session. I've implemented a HibernateSessionFactory class which looks like this: public class HibernateSessionFactory { private static final ThreadLocal<Session> threadLocal = new ThreadLocal<Session>(); private static Configuration configuration = new AnnotationConfiguration(); private static org.hibernate.SessionFactory sessionFactory; static { try { configuration.configure(configFile); sessionFactory = configuration.buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Exception e) {} } private HibernateSessionFactory() {} public static Session getSession() throws HibernateException { Session session = (Session) threadLocal.get(); if (session == null || !session.isOpen()) { if (sessionFactory == null) { rebuildSessionFactory();//This method basically does what the static init block does } session = (sessionFactory != null) ? sessionFactory.openSession(): null; threadLocal.set(session); } return session; } //More non relevant methods here. Now from my testing it seems that the threadLocal member is indeed initialized only once when the class is first loaded by the JVM but for some reason when different threads access the getSession() method they use different sessions. When a thread first accesses this class (Session) threadLocal.get(); will return null but as expected all other access requests will yeild the same session. I'm not sure how this can be happening as the threadLocal variable is final and the method threadLocal.set(session) is only used in the above context (which I'm 99.9% sure has to yeild a non null session as I would have encountered a NullPointerException at a different part of my app). I'm not sure this is relevant but these are the main parts of my hibernate.cfg.xml file: <hibernate-configuration> <session-factory> <property name="connection.url">someURL</property> <property name="connection.driver_class"> com.microsoft.sqlserver.jdbc.SQLServerDriver</property> <property name="dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.SQLServerDialect</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.isolation">1</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.username">User</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.password">Password</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.pool_size">10</property> <property name="show_sql">false</property> <property name="current_session_context_class">thread</property> <property name="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">update</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_second_level_cache">false</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">org.hibernate.cache.NoCacheProvider</property> <!-- Mapping files --> I'd appreciate any help granted and of course if anyone has any questions I'd be happy to clarify. Ittai

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  • Create a Color Picker, similar to Photoshop's, using Javascript and HTML Canvas

    - by André Alçada Padez
    I am not at all versed in Computer Graphics and am in need of creating a color picker as a javascript tool to embed in an HTML page. First, and looking at Photoshop's one, i thought of the RGB palette as a three-dimensional matrix. My first attempt envolved: <script type="text/javascript"> var rgCanvas = document.createElement('canvas'); rgCanvas.width = 256; rgCanvas.height = 256; rgCanvas.style.border = '3px solid black'; for (g = 0; g < 256; g++){ for (r = 0; r < 256; r++){ var context = rgCanvas.getContext('2d'); context.beginPath(); context.moveTo(r,g); context.strokeStyle = 'rgb(' + r + ', ' + g + ', 0)'; context.lineTo(r+1,g+1); context.stroke(); context.closePath(); } } var bCanvas = document.createElement('canvas'); bCanvas.width = 20; bCanvas.height = 256; bCanvas.style.border = '3px solid black'; for (b = 0; b < 256; b++){ var context = bCanvas.getContext('2d'); context.beginPath(); context.moveTo(0,b); context.strokeStyle = 'rgb(' + 0 + ', ' + 0 + ', ' + b + ')'; context.lineTo(20, b); context.stroke(); context.closePath(); } document.body.appendChild(rgCanvas); document.body.appendChild(bCanvas); </script> this results in something like My thought is this is too linear, comparing to the ones i see in Photoshop and on the web. I would like to know the logic behind the color mapping in a picker like this: I don't really need the algorythms itself, i'm mainly trying to understand the logic. Thanks

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  • JPA Database strcture for internationalisation

    - by IrishDubGuy
    I am trying to get a JPA implementation of a simple approach to internationalisation. I want to have a table of translated strings that I can reference in multiple fields in multiple tables. So all text occurrences in all tables will be replaced by a reference to the translated strings table. In combination with a language id, this would give a unique row in the translated strings table for that particular field. For example, consider a schema that has entities Course and Module as follows :- Course int course_id, int name, int description Module int module_id, int name The course.name, course.description and module.name are all referencing the id field of the translated strings table :- TranslatedString int id, String lang, String content That all seems simple enough. I get one table for all strings that could be internationalised and that table is used across all the other tables. How might I do this in JPA, using eclipselink 2.4? I've looked at embedded ElementCollection, ala this... JPA 2.0: Mapping a Map - it isn't exactly what i'm after cos it looks like it is relating the translated strings table to the pk of the owning table. This means I can only have one translatable string field per entity (unless I add new join columns into the translatable strings table, which defeats the point, its the opposite of what I am trying to do). I'm also not clear on how this would work across entites, presumably the id of each entity would have to use a database wide sequence to ensure uniqueness of the translatable strings table. BTW, I tried the example as laid out in that link and it didn't work for me - as soon as the entity had a localizedString map added, persisting it caused the client side to bomb but no obvious error on the server side and nothing persisted in the DB :S I been around the houses on this about 9 hours so far, I've looked at this Internationalization with Hibernate which appears to be trying to do the same thing as the link above (without the table definitions it hard to see what he achieved). Any help would be gratefully achieved at this point... Edit 1 - re AMS anwser below, I'm not sure that really addresses the issue. In his example it leaves the storing of the description text to some other process. The idea of this type of approach is that the entity object takes the text and locale and this (somehow!) ends up in the translatable strings table. In the first link I gave, the guy is attempting to do this by using an embedded map, which I feel is the right approach. His way though has two issues - one it doesn't seem to work! and two if it did work, it is storing the FK in the embedded table instead of the other way round (I think, I can't get it to run so I can't see exactly how it persists). I suspect the correct approach ends up with a map reference in place of each text that needs translating (the map being locale-content), but I can't see how to do this in a way that allows for multiple maps in one entity (without having corresponding multiple columns in the translatable strings table)...

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  • JAVA: Can't get context parameters in Filter

    - by DaTval
    Hello, I have a filter and parameters in web.xml web.xml is like this: <filter> <description> </description> <display-name>AllClassFilter</display-name> <filter-name>AllClassFilter</filter-name> <filter-class>com.datval.homework.AllClassFilter</filter-class> <init-param> <param-name>DB_URL</param-name> <param-value>jdbc:derby:C:/Users/admin/workspace/homework03/homework/databases/StudentsDB;create=true</param-value> </init-param> <init-param> <param-name>DB_DIALECT</param-name> <param-value>org.hibernate.dialect.DerbyDialect</param-value> </init-param> <init-param> <param-name>DB_DRIVER</param-name> <param-value>org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver</param-value> </init-param> </filter> mapping is working well. But I can't get this parameters in my filter. public void init(FilterConfig config) throws ServletException { // TODO Auto-generated method stub debugMessage = config.getInitParameter("debugMessage"); ctx = config.getServletContext(); } public void doFilter(ServletRequest request, ServletResponse response, FilterChain chain) throws IOException, ServletException { // TODO Auto-generated method stub // place your code here ctx.log("Start - " + debugMessage); String myDbUrl = ctx.getInitParameter("DB_URL"); String DB_DIALECT = ctx.getInitParameter("DB_DIALECT"); String DB_DRIVER = ctx.getInitParameter("DB_DRIVER"); Map<String,String> pr = new HashMap<String,String>(); pr.put("hibernate.connection.url", myDbUrl); pr.put("hibernate.dialect", DB_DIALECT); pr.put("hibernate.connection.driver_class", DB_DRIVER); EntityManagerFactory emf = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory("students",pr); EntityManager em = emf.createEntityManager(); request.setAttribute("em", em); chain.doFilter(request, response); em.close(); ctx.log("end - " + debugMessage); } I have checked and myDbUrl is null. What I'm doing wrong? Any idea? Sorry about code, I will change it later :)

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  • Why does OpenGL's glDrawArrays() fail with GL_INVALID_OPERATION under Core Profile 3.2, but not 3.3 or 4.2?

    - by metaleap
    I have OpenGL rendering code calling glDrawArrays that works flawlessly when the OpenGL context is (automatically / implicitly obtained) 4.2 but fails consistently (GL_INVALID_OPERATION) with an explicitly requested OpenGL core context 3.2. (Shaders are always set to #version 150 in both cases but that's beside the point here I suspect.) According to specs, there are only two instances when glDrawArrays() fails with GL_INVALID_OPERATION: "if a non-zero buffer object name is bound to an enabled array and the buffer object's data store is currently mapped" -- I'm not doing any buffer mapping at this point "if a geometry shader is active and mode? is incompatible with [...]" -- nope, no geometry shaders as of now. Furthermore: I have verified & double-checked that it's only the glDrawArrays() calls failing. Also double-checked that all arguments passed to glDrawArrays() are identical under both GL versions, buffer bindings too. This happens across 3 different nvidia GPUs and 2 different OSes (Win7 and OSX, both 64-bit -- of course, in OSX we have only the 3.2 context, no 4.2 anyway). It does not happen with an integrated "Intel HD" GPU but for that one, I only get an automatic implicit 3.3 context (trying to explicitly force a 3.2 core profile with this GPU via GLFW here fails the window creation but that's an entirely different issue...) For what it's worth, here's the relevant routine excerpted from the render loop, in Golang: func (me *TMesh) render () { curMesh = me curTechnique.OnRenderMesh() gl.BindBuffer(gl.ARRAY_BUFFER, me.glVertBuf) if me.glElemBuf > 0 { gl.BindBuffer(gl.ELEMENT_ARRAY_BUFFER, me.glElemBuf) gl.VertexAttribPointer(curProg.AttrLocs["aPos"], 3, gl.FLOAT, gl.FALSE, 0, gl.Pointer(nil)) gl.DrawElements(me.glMode, me.glNumIndices, gl.UNSIGNED_INT, gl.Pointer(nil)) gl.BindBuffer(gl.ELEMENT_ARRAY_BUFFER, 0) } else { gl.VertexAttribPointer(curProg.AttrLocs["aPos"], 3, gl.FLOAT, gl.FALSE, 0, gl.Pointer(nil)) /* BOOM! */ gl.DrawArrays(me.glMode, 0, me.glNumVerts) } gl.BindBuffer(gl.ARRAY_BUFFER, 0) } So of course this is part of a bigger render-loop, though the whole "*TMesh" construction for now is just two instances, one a simple cube and the other a simple pyramid. What matters is that the entire drawing loop works flawlessly with no errors reported when GL is queried for errors under both 3.3 and 4.2, yet on 3 nvidia GPUs with an explicit 3.2 core profile fails with an error code that according to spec is only invoked in two specific situations, none of which as far as I can tell apply here. What could be wrong here? Have you ever run into this? Any ideas what I have been missing?

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