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  • Use a ContextLoaderListener in accordance with DispatchServlet

    - by Phuong Nguyen de ManCity fan
    I want to use both ContextLoaderListener (so that I can pass Spring Beans to my servlet) as well as DispatchServlet (Spring MVC). However, currently I have to pass init param to these both class initializer: <param-name>contextConfigLocation</param-name> <param-value> /WEB-INF/spring/app-config.xml </param-value> So, I use the same xml for these both classes. Wonder if it would lead to my beans being initialized twice? If yes, how would I do to avoid that?

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  • Hide Crystal Report Header

    - by Chandana De Silva
    Hi all, in my Crystal Report have a Page Header(section Page Header "a" and Page Header "b") and Groupe Header #1 and #2 My problem is, I want to hide Page Header "a" when Group #2 have more records, I want to print records next page without Page Header "a" Please reply me , its an urgent one.. Thanks in advance

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  • i don't know how to work with command argument in asp.net

    - by Depozitul de Chestii
    hey, i'm tryng to pass a parameter with command argument with a link button but the result i get is always "". this is in my aspx page: <% LinkButton1.CommandArgument = "abcdef"; %> <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" runat="server" OnCommand= "LinkButton1_Click"> and in my aspx.cs i have: protected void LinkButton1_Click(object sender,CommandEventArgs ee) { String id = ee.CommandName.ToString(); } the id is always "" after i press the linkbutton. would appreciate if someone could help me. thanks

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  • Mutually beneficial IP/copyright clauses for contract-based freelance work

    - by Nathan de Vries
    I have a copyright section in the contract I give to my clients stating that I retain copyright on any works produced during my work for them as an independent contractor. This is most definitely not intended to place arbitrary restrictions on my clients, but rather to maintain my ability to decide on how the software I create is licensed and distributed. Almost every project I work on results in at least one part of it being released as open source. Every project I work on makes use of third-party software released in the same fashion, so returning the favour is something I would like to continue doing. Unfortunately, the contract is not so clear when it comes to defining the rights of the client in the use of said software. I mention that the code will be licensed to them, but do not mention specifics about exclusivity, ability to produce derivatives etc. As such, a client has raised concerns about the copyright section of my contract, and has suggested that I reword it such that all copyrights are transferred entirely to the client on final payment for the project. This will almost certainly reduce my ability to distribute the software I have created; I would much prefer to find a more mutually beneficial agreement where both our concerns are appeased. Are there any tried and true approaches to licensing software in this kind of situation? To summarise: I want to maintain the ability to license (parts of) the software under my own terms, independently of my relationship with the client; with some guarantee to the client that no trade-secrets or critical business logic will be shared; giving them the ability to re-use my code in their future projects; but not necessarily letting them sell it (I'm not sure about this, though...what happens if they sell their business and the software along with it?) I realise that everyone's feedback is going to be prefixed with "IANAL", however I appreciate any thoughts you might have on the matter.

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  • Can I make the compiler and the CLR ignore non implemented interfaces on my types?

    - by Thiado de Arruda
    I would like to define a type implementing a certain interface, however I would only implement it in a proxy at runtime. I can see two obstacles in this scenario : 1-Make the compiler ignore non implemented interfaces. 2-Make the CLR ignore(or at least delay) the TypeLoadException with the following description : "Method SOMEMETHOD in type SOMETYPE from assembly SOMEASSEMBLY does not have an implementation." Is something like this possible?

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  • How do I extend a WPF application using an addin-like architeture?

    - by Thiado de Arruda
    Lets say I have a WPF application that shows a ListBox with an ArrayList -populated with objects of arbitrary types- as a source, and this application is hosted in an assembly 'A'. By default the ListBox will display the custom object 'ToString' method return value. If a data template for that object type is found, the ListBox will use it for rendering. Imagine that theres another assembly 'B' that references of 'A' and seeks to extend it by providing custom data templates for certain types, to be used in that ListBox. Is there some way to do that without 'A'being aware of B?

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  • Android add image to button

    - by Christiaan de Jong
    I want to add an image to a Button (no imagebutton, as the particular button can either contain text or an image; plus the imagebutton has the same problem), while still retaining the original android-style button. So adding android:background in the XML doesn't cut it, as that will remove the android default button with rounded corners etc. (android.R.drawable.btn_default) Is this in any way possible? I think one way is to make a 9patch image for the button pressed (one for up and one for down) and onTouch Action_DOWN make a layered background drawable and put that onto the button, and doing the same thing but with another 9patch for onTouch Action_UP, but I think that will decrease the performance of the application substantially, as that will require quite a lot of resource reading and layer merging for all the button clicks (and for my application, that will be quite a lot). Is what I state above correct?

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  • Google maps z-index problem in IE

    - by Bas van de Lustgraaf
    I'm loading my google maps into div class="extra" style="display: none;" /. As soon as the AJAX request is complete, the map_canvas div is placed inside the hidden div and the hidden div will be vissible with the toggleDown jquery effect. In FF it's working perfect, but in IE the Google maps (map_canvas div) is already visible before the toggleDown effect is started. I think the z-index and the relative position of the map_canvas div wich is loaded into the hidden div will place the map_canvas div on top of the hidden div. What do i have to change to make sure the map_canvas div is not on top of the hidden div? While toggleDown in FF: http:// img169.imageshack.us/img169/9274/50485429.jpg While toggleDown in IE: http://img188.imageshack.us/img188/2110/93959677.jpg

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  • How can I invoke linux programs from C#/Mono?

    - by Thiado de Arruda
    I've been using MonoDevelop and Make to execute some build taks on a C project under linux, but I decided to abandon Make and switch to NAnt since I am more proficient in writing C# programs than Make/shell scripts, so I decided to write a custom NAnt task in C# to replace my Makefile. So, how can I invoke GCC or other shell commands from C#?

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  • PHP Mail Not Sending Messages

    - by Kenton de Jong
    I realize this question title is pretty overused, but I couldn't find an answer to my problem. This could be because either I'm not too good with PHP and I don't understand the problem, or because I have a different issue, but I thought I would post it and see if somebody can help me. I developed a website for a local church in my city and I made the site on my computer, put it onto my website as a sub directory and tested it all. It worked great. One of the things the client wanted was there to be an email form that can send emails. I made it and all was good. I then uploaded it onto the church server and thought it went good too. But then we decided to try the email form out, and for some reason it didn't work. I made the email form by having the user select a recipient (pastor, office manager, etc.) with a radio button, and that would change the action of the email form. I just did something like this: if (recipent == "pastor") { document.forms[0].action = "../scripts/php/pastor_contact.php"; } else if (recipent == "pastoralAssist") { document.forms[0].action = "../scripts/php/pastoral_assist_contact.php"; } else if (recipent == "famMinistry") { document.forms[0].action = "../scripts/php/sacra_assist_contact.php"; } else if (recipent == "sacraAssist") { document.forms[0].action = "../scripts/php/fam_ministry_contact.php"; } I know this isn't the cleanest, but it works great. The php files then, all look very similar to this (just a different email)" <?php $name = $_POST['name']; $email = $_POST['email']; $phone = $_POST['phone']; $message = $_POST['message']; $formcontent="From: $name \n Email: $email \n Phone Number: $phone \n Message: $message"; $recipient = "[email protected]"; $subject = $_POST['subject']; $mailheader = "$subject \r\n"; mail($recipient, $subject, $formcontent, $mailheader) or die("There seems to be an error with this form. Sorry about the inconveince. We are working to get this fixed."); header('Location: ../../quickylinks/message_sent.html') ; ?> What this does, briefly, is collect the information from the email form, submit it as an email and then redirect the user to a "Message Sent" page. This works on my server, but not theirs so I believe it's something to do with their server. You can see their server information here and mine here. When the user sends the message, they get "There seems to be an error with this form. Sorry about the inconveince. We are working to get this fixed." and the email doesn't go through, although the code is the same on my server and it works fine there. My initial thought was that PHP wasn't installed on their server (rare, but it does happen). But it was. So then I thought maybe it was installed, but the "mail" function was disabled. So I tried the following php code: <?php if (function_exists('mail')) { echo 'mail() is available'; } else { echo 'mail() has been disabled'; } ?> And it came back with "mail() is available". So now I'm stuck and I don't know the problem could be. As I said, I'm not very good at PHP yet so if somebody could give a detailed answer, I would be really really thankful! Thank you so much!

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  • Can I change the datsource of report model at runtime

    - by Manab De
    I've some adhoc reports developed on some report models which are published on Report Server (we're using SSRS 2008). Everything is running well. Now in our production environment we've near about forty (40) customers who have their own database (each have the same table structures and other database objects). Now the challenge is whenever a customer will log into the report server using windows authentication and trying to view those reports we need to get the SQL data from the proper database only. Reports are designed using the report model and each model has a valid data source which is connected to particular database. We can create forty separate data sources each will be connected to specific database. My question is, is there any way through which we can change the report model data source name dynamically or during runtime based on the customer name so that during execution of the report, SSRS would fetch the data from the correct database but not from any other database. Please help me.

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  • How do I set properties related to the calling method's scope?

    - by Thiado de Arruda
    I'm not looking for a way to associate values with a thread using the 'SetData' method. I need to store some kind of data that will only exist during the scope of a calling method, could be the immediate parent or any other call that is made down on the stack. For example: void SomeMethod() { string someInfo = "someInfo"; SomeOtherMethod(); object data = GetDataOnCurrentScope("someKey"); } void SomeOtherMethod() { SetDataOnParentScope("someKey", somevalue); } In this case both the 'someInfo' local variable and the data set with the "someKey" key will disapear after 'SomeMethod' returns. Is something like this possible? This may go against the rules of a stack, but who knows if someone has an idea...

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  • Detecting Handlers of a jQuery "Live" Event

    - by Anderson De Andrade
    Using: $('#foo').data('events').click We are able to access an iterative object of click handlers added to the element '#foo' but only when they were added with .bind() Is there a way to get the handlers for an event added with .live()? Is there any other way to know if an element has a click handler assigned?

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  • How to check if there is an active session in a JSF page?

    - by Roberto de Santis
    Hi, there is a way to check if there is an active session directly in jsf page? I have try this but it doesn't work: <p:ajaxStatus onerror="#{session == null ? 'idleDialog.show();' : null}" thank you in advance @Update I have see that onerror isn't fired even if viewExpiredException occurr. @Update 1 Ok i have implemented something that may work: <h:form> <p:idleMonitor timeout="10000" idleListener="#{idleMonitorController.idleListener}" onidle="sessionPoll.stop();idleDialog.show();"/> </h:form> <p:dialog header="Sessione scaduta per inattività" widgetVar="idleDialog" modal="true" width="400"> <h:outputText value="Sessione scaduta" /> <h:button value="Ripristina Sessione" onclick="idleDialog.hide();sessionPoll.start();" /> </p:dialog> <h:form prependId="false"> <p:poll widgetVar="sessionPoll" interval="1"/> </h:form> and this is the listner: public void idleListener(IdleEvent event) { System.out.println("aaaa"); final HttpServletRequest request = (HttpServletRequest) FacesContext.getCurrentInstance().getExternalContext().getRequest(); request.getSession(false).invalidate(); } now the only problem is that the session.invalidate doesn't work

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  • How to get the action argument of a wp-login.php request?

    - by Bruno De Barros
    I am trying to integrate my custom user system with Wordpress, and I have recently asked a question on how to redirect requests to wp-login.php to my own login/registration page, but as I was working on the pluggable functions, I realized that requests to wp-login.php can either be for login, registration, or log out. This is set in the action argument that's made in the request. What I am trying to figure out is how to get this action argument, so I can redirect the request to my custom pages. Is there any way of doing this? Thank you in advance.

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  • Reference remotely located assembly (web uri) from locally installed application?

    - by moonground.de
    Hi Stackoverflowers! :) We have a .NET application for Windows which is installed locally by Microsoft Installer. Now we have the need to use additional assemblies which are located online at our Web Servers. We'd like to refer to a remote uri like https://www.ourserver.com/OurProductName/ExternalLib.dll and reveal additional functionality, which is described roughly by a known common ("AddIn/Plugin") Interface. These are not 3rd Party Plugins, we just want be able to exchange parts of the application frequently, without the need to have frequent software updates. Our first idea was to add some kind of "remote refence" in Visual Studio by setting the path to the remote assembly uri. But Visual Studio downloaded the assembly immediately to a temporary directory, adding a reference to it. Our second attempt then, is simply using a WebRequest (or WebClient) to retrieve a binary stream of the Assembly, loading it "from image" by using Assembly.Load(...). This actually works, but is not very elegant and requires more additional programming for verification etc. We hoped Clickonce would provide useful techniques but apparently it's suitable for standalone applications only. (Correct me?) Is there a way (.net native or by framework/api) to reference remotely located assemblies? Thanks in advance and have a happy easter!

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  • Can I correctly debug assemblies loaded with the 'AssemblyResolve' event?

    - by Thiado de Arruda
    I'm experimenting with the AppDomain's 'AssemblyResolve' event by hidding the depedencies for an executable file in another folder. The assemblies seem to beloading and executing fine, however debugging seems to be crazy, sometimes it hits my break points, sometimes it doesnt , and sometimes it hits the same code twice(It seems absurd but I'm sure the code is executing only once). I don't understanding how debuggers works but I guess it has something to do with the PDB files. Anyone got an idea of what might be happening and how can I fix it? Edit: Let me add that I'm calling methods on the dynamically loaded assemblies using reflection, sometimes the method I'm stepping over throws an exception that only pops at a later time.

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