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  • Losing context from JQuery post with ASP.Net MVC

    - by Dan
    I have a JQuery dialog box on a page that calls something like this: $.post("/MyController/MyAction", { myKey: key} //... And this successfully gets here: [HttpPost] public ActionResult MyAction(int myKey) { //do some stuff return RedirectToAction("AnotherAction"); } The problem is that the RedirectToAction has no effect on the webbrowser. I am guessing this is because the JQuery post is kinda on a different 'tread' so it doesn't know where to send the response? How do I get the browser to load the new response?

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  • MVC 4 iframe embedded in desktop page showing mobile view

    - by Reto Laemmler
    I use Index.cshtml and Index.mobile.cshtml. My Index.cshtml is a mobile app landing page containing an iframe to live demo the mobile web app. Index.mobile.cshtml is the mobile web app itself. The problem is, the iframe keeps loading the desktop version itself. As far as I know, I cannot configure the user agent of the iframe to a mobile type. It should be solvable with some routing but I couldn't figure out how!?

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  • ASP.NET MVC Filters: How to set Viewdata for Dropdown based on action paramter

    - by CRice
    Hi, Im loading an entity 'Member' from its id in route data. [ListItemsForMembershipType(true)] public ActionResult Edit(Member someMember) {...} The attribute on the action loads the membership type list items for a dropdown box and sticks it in viewdata. This is fine for add forms, and search forms (it gets all active items) but I need the attribute to execute BASED ON THE VALUE someMember.MembershipTypeId, because its current value must always be present when loading the item (i.e. all active items, plus the one from the loaded record). So the question is, what is the standard pattern for this? How can my attribute accept the value or should I be loading the viewdata for the drop down in a controller supertype or during model binding or something else? It is in an attribute now because the code to set the viewdata would otherwise be duplicated in each usage in each action.

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  • asp.net mvc route clashing with physical path in IIS7

    - by Andrew Bullock
    I'm messing about with controller organisation and I've hit a problem. If I have the following physical structure /Home/HomeController.cs /Home/Index.aspx /Home/About.aspx and I request the URI: /Home/Index I get a 403 Directory Listing Denied :( (im using a custom IControllerFactory and IViewEngine to look in this non-default path) Why is this happening? (I know the 403 is because its hitting the /Home folder, but why is it hitting the folder?) Why doesn't the UrlRoutingModule rewrite the route and let the controller pick up the request? Application_BeginRequest fires, but then it seems to pass control back to IIS to try and serve from the filesystem. Is it the UrlRoutingModule that defaults to a physical path if it exists before rewriting? Is there a way to make this work? N.B. Please don't suggest relocating my controllers etc. I know this is an obvious option, but that isn't the question ;) Using IIS7 In Integrated Mode Thanks

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  • MVC binding form data problem.

    - by John
    I am using an object that matches all the fields in my form. I then use the default binding to populate the object in my action, like this; public ActionResult GetDivisionData(DivisionObj FormData) My DivisionObj initializes all it's values to string.empty in the constructor. The problem is that when the binder populates the model from the posted form data, any data that is not posted is set to null in the object, eventhough I initialized the object to contain empty strings. Is there a way to change this so that unposted data will be an empty string.

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  • Multiple View application and Navigation Bar

    - by byronh
    Hi. I'm working in a iphone view-based application. The application works this way: First view is a welcome view with buttons for load other views. Second view is a map that shows the location using gps. Third view is a search engine that loads some information to show on the map and on a list (This has two button to load map or table). Fourth view is a table view that shows the results and then loads the detail on another view and load a web site on another view. My problem is with this view, because i don't know how can implement a navigation bar in this view that loads the detail and the web view. Thanks for your help. Byron H.

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  • ASP.NET MVC routing issue: How to allow "\" in id's

    - by Bipul
    I am using following route map routes.MapRoute( "RenderAssociatedForm", "DoAction/{nodeLevelId}/{nodeSystemId}", new { controller = "FrontEnd", action = "RenderAssociatedForm", }); Now nodeLevelId can be anything like zs\bbal. As we know that we should escape '\', so we are using 'zs%5cbbal'. But still the following url is not mapping to this route. //localhost/DoAction/zs%5cbbal/5 When I try simple Id without the escape character, it maps properly. Can anybody tell me where I am going wrong?

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  • iOS layout; I'm not getting it

    - by Tbee
    Well, "not getting it" is too harsh; I've got it working in for what for me is a logical setup, but it does not seem to be what iOS deems logical. So I'm not getting something. Suppose I've got an app that shows two pieces of information; a date and a table. According to the MVC approach I've got three MVC at work here, one for the date, one for the table and one that takes both these MCVs and makes it into a screen, wiring them up. The master MVC knows how/where it wants to layout the two sub MVC's. Each detail MVC only takes care of its own childeren within the bounds that were specified by the master MVC. Something like: - (void)loadView { MVC* mvc1 = [[MVC1 alloc] initwithFrame:...] [self.view addSubview:mvc1.view]; MVC* mvc2 = [[MVC2 alloc] initwithFrame:...] [self.view addSubview:mvc2.view]; } If the above is logical (which is it for me) then I would expect any MVC class to have a constructor "initWithFrame". But an MVC does not, only view have this. Why? How would one correctly layout nested MVCs? (Naturally I do not have just these two, but the detail MVCs have sub MVCs again.)

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  • mvc jquery passing form values after user presses "Accept" button

    - by gdubs
    So I have a form and a submit button that posts the form to an action. But I wanted to show a popup where the user can deny or accept an agreement. Here's my jquery $(document).ready((function () { var dialog = $('#confirmation-dialog').dialog({ autoOpen: false, width: 500, height: 600, resizable: false, modal: true, buttons: { "Accept": function () { $(this).dialog('close'); $.ajax({ type: 'POST', data: {__RequestVerificationToken: $("input[name=__RequestVerificationToken]").val()} }); }, "Cancel": function () { $(this).dialog('close'); } } }); $('#registration-submit').click(function (e) { var action = $(this.form); console.log(action); var form = $('form'); dialog.dialog("open"); return false; }); })); My problem with this is that it would post, but it would only send my AntiforgeryToken, and not the values of the form. But when it goes through the TryupdateModel it would go through for some reason but will not Save (cuz of the missing data that wasn't passed on the formcollection).

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  • Generating jquery 'rules' from business model to UI in asp.net mvc

    - by jim
    Hi all, I've had a good look around and am certain that there's no matching question on SO, so here goes. Has anyone created a 'helper' method on their model that generates jquery (or plain javascript) rules validation dynamically, based on the criteria/rules that are contained within the object and taken from a repository (i.e. DB). What i'm thinking of is a discrete set of partial views (and associated models) that have rules at the business logic 'level' and rather than (or in combination with) validating the rule(s) at postback, translating the same rules into tightly focussed jquery methods that work identically at client (js) and server (c#) levels. I can see benefits here re performance. Also, the rules definitions could be created in a single place (in c#) and the jquery generated off of that, thus allowing single edits to update both code streams. I appreciate that there would be limitations imposed by language specific contstraints but the general principle could be quite interesting if used appropriately. I'm also aware that testibility could be an issue when using two different language structures and hoping to achieve similar test outcomes - but those aside... any thoughts or experiences of similar out there?? cheers jimi

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  • DRY-ing very similar specs for ASP.NET MVC controller action with MSpec (BDD guidelines)

    - by spapaseit
    Hi all, I have two very similar specs for two very similar controller actions: VoteUp(int id) and VoteDown(int id). These methods allow a user to vote a post up or down; kinda like the vote up/down functionality for StackOverflow questions. The specs are: VoteDown: [Subject(typeof(SomeController))] public class When_user_clicks_the_vote_down_button_on_a_post : SomeControllerContext { Establish context = () => { post = PostFakes.VanillaPost(); post.Votes = 10; session.Setup(s => s.Single(Moq.It.IsAny<Expression<Func<Post, bool>>>())).Returns(post); session.Setup(s => s.CommitChanges()); }; Because of = () => result = controller.VoteDown(1); It should_decrement_the_votes_of_the_post_by_1 = () => suggestion.Votes.ShouldEqual(9); It should_not_let_the_user_vote_more_than_once; } VoteUp: [Subject(typeof(SomeController))] public class When_user_clicks_the_vote_down_button_on_a_post : SomeControllerContext { Establish context = () => { post = PostFakes.VanillaPost(); post.Votes = 0; session.Setup(s => s.Single(Moq.It.IsAny<Expression<Func<Post, bool>>>())).Returns(post); session.Setup(s => s.CommitChanges()); }; Because of = () => result = controller.VoteUp(1); It should_increment_the_votes_of_the_post_by_1 = () => suggestion.Votes.ShouldEqual(1); It should_not_let_the_user_vote_more_than_once; } So I have two questions: How should I go about DRY-ing these two specs? Is it even advisable or should I actually have one spec per controller action? I know I Normally should, but this feels like repeating myself a lot. Is there any way to implement the second It within the same spec? Note that the It should_not_let_the_user_vote_more_than_once; requires me the spec to call controller.VoteDown(1) twice. I know the easiest would be to create a separate spec for it too, but it'd be copying and pasting the same code yet again... I'm still getting the hang of BDD (and MSpec) and many times it is not clear which way I should go, or what the best practices or guidelines for BDD are. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Updating an object with L2S with ASP.NET MVC

    - by Paul
    Is there an easier way to update an object with L2S other then doing it property by property? This is what I am doing now: Public ActionResult Edit(Object obj) { var objToUpdate = _repository.Single<Object>(o => o.id = obj.id); objToUpdate.Prop1 = obj.Prob1; objToUpdate.Prop2 = obj.Prop2; ... _repository.SubmitChanges(); } I am hoping there is a way to just say objToUpdate = obj then submit the changes??? Any help on this would be appreciated!

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  • Simplest way to extend doctrine for MVC Models

    - by RobertPitt
    Im developing my own framework that uses namespaces. Doctrine is already integrated into my auto loading system and im now at the stage where ill be creating the model system for my application Usually i would create a simple model like so: namespace Application\Models; class Users extends \Framework\Models\Database{} which would inherit all the default database model methods, But with Doctrine im still learning how it all works, as its not just a simple DBAL. I need to understand whats the part of doctrine my classes would extend where i can do the following: namespace Application\Models; class Users Extends Doctrine\Something\Table { public $__table_name = "users"; } And thus within the controller i would be able to do the following: public function Display($uid) { $User = $this->Model->Users->findOne(array("id" => (int)$id)); } Anyone help me get my head around this ?

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  • Post serialized to xml object to mvc action

    - by Maxim
    Hello! i have 2 projects. First project send to 2-nd via http-post requests, as serialized to XML class instances. Ex: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-16"?> <MyObject xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <UserId>test user</UserId> ... How can i recieve it in action of 2-nd project? [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(MyObject id) { ... or like string, and deserialize after? Thanx.

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  • form:select items problem in spring mvc portlet

    - by dhaval
    I have a set of drop-down control which I want to render with my custom tag library. The following is the code of the tag lib: <spring:bind path="${path}"> <c:choose> <c:when test="${readOnly}"> <span class="readOnly">${status.value}</span> </c:when> <c:otherwise> <form:select path="${path }" itemLabel="${label }" itemValue="${value }" items="${itemList}"> </form:select> </c:otherwise> </c:choose> And this is the code I have written in the JSP file: <tag:conditionalListControl path="model.selectedCountry" readOnly="false" label="name" value="id" listItems="model.countryList" className="simple" /> Upon execution the paring returns the following error: [jsp:165] javax.servlet.jsp.JspException: Type [java.lang.String] is not valid for option items But if i change the items="${itemList}" to items="${model.countryList}" which is the list I want to display, it works fine without any problem and also bind to required variables on form submit. But i don't want to hard code any variables in the tag lib. Any suggestions???

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  • ASP.NET MVC Response file should not download

    - by Shawn Mclean
    I am generating a .cxml file on the server and pushing it to the browser based on certain queries. If I just link to a .cxml, it does what I expected and opens it in the respective application. How can I generate a file and push it to the browser just like if it was linked to a file without it asking me to download it? The link looks something like: http://localhost/MyController/GetFile?q=TheQueryStringParam Thanks.

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  • Using external javascript files with asp.net MVC

    - by twal
    I have some javascript inwhich I am using such helpers as var url = <%=ResolveUrl("~/controller/action") %> When the javascript is embeded in the .aspx page using the <script> tag everything works fine When I move it out to an external file those scripts that have the helper methods do not work. Other scripts do just the ones with the var url = <%=ResolveUrl("~/controller/action") %> do not. Are these not possible to use in external javascript files?? I would like to get all of my javascript out of the aspx files if I can. thanks!

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  • Any PHP MVC framework planning to use 5.3 features?

    - by alexandrul
    I would like to get started with PHP, and 5.3 release seems to bring many nice features (namespaces, lambda functions, and many others). I have found some MVC frameworks, and some of them support only PHP 5: PHP Frameworks PHP MVC Frameworks Model–view–controller on Wikipedia but can anyone recommend one of those MVC frameworks that plans to actively use PHP 5.3 features, not just being compatible with PHP 5.3? Update Results so far: Zend Framework 2.0 (in development) Lithium (in development, based on CakePHP) Symfony (in development) FLOW3 (in development, alpha)

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  • IIS hosting, asp.net mvc

    - by tomasz
    Hi I have a site that uses flex and calls controller actions which returns json to the flex. This works fine in a dev server , the folder that has the flex app lives inside the web project and in the dev ennvironment, makes calls hostname, ie www.someurl.com in the actual live scenario, this will be an intranet so not hostname to call, the flex app seems to have trouble calling http://localhost/Virtual directory name it seems to totally miss the virtual directory name. I am obviously missing something basic, any help?

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  • Entity update from ASP.NET MVC page with post to Edit action

    - by mare
    I have a form that posts back to /Edit/ and my action in controller looks like this: // // POST: /Client/Edit [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(Client client) My form includes a subset of Client entity properties and I also include a hidden field that holds an ID of the client. The client entity itself is provided via the GET Edit action. Now I want to do entity update but so far I've only been trying without first loading the entity from the DB. Because the client object that comes in POST Edit has everything it needs. I want to update just those properties on the entity in datastore. So far I've tried with Context.Refresh() and AttachTo() but with no success - I'm getting all sorts of exceptions. I inspected the entity object as it comes from the web form and it looks fine (it does have an ID and entered data) mapped just fine. If I do it with Context.SaveChanges() then it just inserts new row..

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  • ASP.NET MVC Filters: How to set Viewdata for Dropdown based on action parameter

    - by CRice
    Hi, Im loading an entity 'Member' from its id in route data. [ListItemsForMembershipType(true)] public ActionResult Edit(Member someMember) {...} The attribute on the action loads the membership type list items for a dropdown box and sticks it in viewdata. This is fine for add forms, and search forms (it gets all active items) but I need the attribute to execute BASED ON THE VALUE someMember.MembershipTypeId, because its current value must always be present when loading the item (i.e. all active items, plus the one from the loaded record). So the question is, what is the standard pattern for this? How can my attribute accept the value or should I be loading the viewdata for the drop down in a controller supertype or during model binding or something else? It is in an attribute now because the code to set the viewdata would otherwise be duplicated in each usage in each action.

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