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  • Issues querying Access '07 database in C#

    - by Kye
    I'm doing a .NET unit as part of my studies. I've only just started, with a lecturer that as kinda failed to give me the most solid foundation with .NET, so excuse the noobishness. I'm making a pretty simple and generic database-driven application. I'm using C# and I'm accessing a Microsoft Access 2007 database. I've put the database-ish stuff in its own class with the methods just spitting out OleDbDataAdapters that I use for committing. I feed any methods which preform a query a DataSet object from the main program, which is where I'm keeping the data (multiple tables in the db). I've made a very generic private method that I use to perform SQL SELECT queries and have some public methods wrapping that method to get products, orders.etc (it's a generic retail database). The generic method uses a separate Connect method to actually make the connection, and it is as follows: private static OleDbConnection Connect() { OleDbConnection conn = new OleDbConnection( @"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0; Data Source=C:\Temp\db.accdb"); return conn; } The generic method is as follows: private static OleDbDataAdapter GenericSelectQuery( DataSet ds, string namedTable, String selectString) { OleDbCommand oleCommand = new OleDbCommand(); OleDbConnection conn = Connect(); oleCommand.CommandText = selectString; oleCommand.Connection = conn; oleCommand.CommandType = CommandType.Text; OleDbDataAdapter adapter = new OleDbDataAdapter(); adapter.SelectCommand = oleCommand; adapter.MissingSchemaAction = MissingSchemaAction.AddWithKey; adapter.Fill(ds, namedTable); return adapter; } The wrapper methods just pass along the DataSet that they received from the main program, the namedtable string is the name of the table in the dataset, and you pass in the query you wish to make. It doesn't matter which query I give it (even something simple like SELECT * FROM TableName) I still get thrown an OleDbException, stating that there was en error with the FROM clause of the query. I've just resorted to building the queries with Access, but there's still no use. Obviously there's something wrong with my code, which wouldn't actually surprise me. Here are some wrapper methods I'm using. public static OleDbDataAdapter GetOrderLines(DataSet ds) { OleDbDataAdapter adapter = GenericSelectQuery( ds, "orderlines", "SELECT OrderLine.* FROM OrderLine;"); return adapter; } They all look the same, it's just the SQL that changes.

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  • How to access xmlParserCtxt structure from within xmlSAXHandler callbacks?

    - by Lux In Tenebris
    I'm parsing (X)HTML pages content with libxml using the following call: htmlDocPtr doc = htmlSAXParseDoc(content, NULL, &html_handler, NULL); But for debugging purposes I need to analyze some of the current node properties in the start/end element callbacks. I know that the fourth argument of htmlSAXParseDoc can be used to pass any user defined data to the callbacks, but I don't have a pointer to xmlParserCtxt.

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  • Get service's own handle in Delphi

    - by Tom
    I'm building a service in Delphi that is intended to run on Windows XP-7 and as part of it, I need to get a handle for the service to use for some windows messages to pass between it and a client app. Using the ServiceThread.Handle doesn't work, so I need to get the handle in another way. Can anyone tell me how to get a usable handle for passing Windows messages around? thanks.

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  • Google Maps KML Solution Validation

    - by user728584
    Google Maps newbie (GIS newbie), I'm looking at a solution to map an overlay (number of polygons) on-top of Google maps and wondered if using a KML file was a viable solution? Basically, I have a number of address (address data) that I will pass to our internal GIS system, the GIS system hands me back a KML file (one file with a number of different locations) and then I draw the polygon using the KML Layering options: https://developers.google.com/maps/documentation/javascript/layers Sound like a viable solution? Cheers

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  • How do you programmatically set a Style on a View?

    - by Greg
    I would like to do something like this: <Button android:id="@+id/button" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_cotent" style="@style/SubmitButtonType" /> But in code The xml approach works fine provided that SubmitButtonType is defined. Now what I assume happens is that the appt parser runs through this xml, generates an AttributeSet. That AttributeSet when passed to context/theme#obtainStyledAttributes() will have the style ref mask anything that is not written inline in this tag. Great that's fine! Now how do we do this programmatically. Button, as well as other View types, has a constructor that has the form: <Widget>(Context context, AttributeSet set, int defStyle). So I thought this would work. Button button = new Button(context, null, R.style.SubmitButtonType); However, I am finding that defStyle is badly documented as it really should be written to be a resourceId to an attribute (from R.attrs) that will be passed to obtainStyledAttributes() as the attribute resource, and not the style resource. After looking at the code, all the view implementations seem to pass 0 as the styleRef. I don't see the harm in having it passed as both the attr and the style resource (more flexible and negligible overhead) However I might be approaching this all wrong. How do you do this in code then other than by setting each individual element of the style to the specific widget you want to style (only possible by looking a the code to see what param maps to which method or set of methods). The only way I have found to do this is: <declare-styleable> <attr name="totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case" format="reference"> </declare-styleable> <style name="MyAlreadyExistantTheme" > ... ... <item name="totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case">@style/SubmitButtonType</item> </style> And instead of passing R.style.SubmitButtonType as defStyle, I pass the new R.attr.totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case. Button button = new Button(context, null, R.attr.totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case); This works but sounds way too complicated.

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  • How to infer the type of a derived class in base class?

    - by enzi
    I want to create a method that allows me to change arbitrary properties of classes that derive from my base class, the result should look like this: SetPropertyValue("size.height", 50); – where size is a property of my derived class and height is a property of size. I'm almost done with my implementation but there's one final obstacle that I want to solve before moving on, to describe this I will first have to explain my implementation a bit: Properties that can be modified are decorated with an attribute There's a method in my base class that searches for all derived classes and their decorated properties For each property I generate a "property modifier", a class that contains 2 delegates: one to set and one to get the value of the property. Property Modifiers are stored in a dictionary, with the name of the property as key In my base class, there is another dictionary that contains all property-modifier-dictionaries, with the Type of the respective class as key. What the SetPropertyValue method does is this: Get the correct property-modifier-dictionary, using the concrete type of the derived class (<- yet to solve) Get the property modifier of the property to change (e.g. of the property size) Use the get or set delegate to modify the property's value Some example code to clarify further: private static Dictionary<RuntimeTypeHandle, object> EditableTypes; //property-modifier-dictionary protected void SetPropertyValue<T>(EditablePropertyMap<T> map, string property, object value) { var property = map[property]; // get the property modifier property.Set((T)this, value); // use the set delegate (encapsulated in a method) } In the above code, T is the Type of the actual (derived) class. I need this type for the get/set delegates. The problem is how to get the EditablePropertyMap<T> when I don't know what T is. My current (ugly) solution is to pass the map in an overriden virtual method in the derived class: public override void SetPropertyValue(string property, object value) { base.SetPropertyValue((EditablePropertyMap<ExampleType>)EditableTypes[typeof(ExampleType)], property, value); } What this does is: get the correct dictionary containing the property modifiers of this class using the class's type, cast it to the appropiate type and pass it to the SetPropertyValue method. I want to get rid of the SetPropertyValue method in my derived class (since there are a lot of derived classes), but don't know yet how to accomplish that. I cannot just make a virtual GetEditablePropertyMap<T> method because I cannot infer a concrete type for T then. I also cannot acces my dictionary directly with a type and retrieve an EditablePropertyMap<T> from it because I cannot cast to it from object in the base class, since again I do not know T. I found some neat tricks to infere types (e.g. by adding a dummy T parameter), but cannot apply them to my specific problem. I'd highly appreciate any suggestions you may have for me.

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  • Linq to Entity Dynamic where clause

    - by GodSmart
    I have Linq to Entity query like you can see below I am using it five times in my code, everything that change is where clause. is it possible to create a method and pass just where values, not to write all code five times. Thank you items = from t1 in _entities.table1 join t2 in _entities.Table2 on t1.column1 equals t2.column1 join t3 in _entities.Table3 on t1.column2 equals t3.column2 join t4 in _entities.Table4 on t1.column3 equals t4.column3 where **t1.column5 == Something** select new { t1.column7, t2.column8, t3.column9, t4.column10 };

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  • Android: passing paramters between classes

    - by Yang
    I have a class2 which is involved by class1 when clicks are made. I have to pass some parameters/objects from class1 to class2. I only know the standard way which does not have an option of passing parameters. // launch the full article Intent i = new Intent(this, Class2.class); startActivity(i);

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  • Function returning MYSQL_ROW

    - by Gabe
    I'm working on a system using lots of MySQL queries and I'm running into some memory problems I'm pretty sure have to do with me not handling pointers right... Basically, I've got something like this: MYSQL_ROW function1() { string query="SELECT * FROM table limit 1;"; MYSQL_ROW return_row; mysql_init(&connection); // "connection" is a global variable if (mysql_real_connect(&connection,HOST,USER,PASS,DB,0,NULL,0)){ if (mysql_query(&connection,query.c_str())) cout << "Error: " << mysql_error(&connection); else{ resp = mysql_store_result(&connection); //"resp" is also global if (resp) return_row = mysql_fetch_row(resp); mysql_free_result(resp); } mysql_close(&connection); }else{ cout << "connection failed\n"; if (mysql_errno(&connection)) cout << "Error: " << mysql_errno(&connection) << " " << mysql_error(&connection); } return return_row; } And function2(): MYSQL_ROW function2(MYSQL_ROW row) { string query = "select * from table2 where code = '" + string(row[2]) + "'"; MYSQL_ROW retorno; mysql_init(&connection); if (mysql_real_connect(&connection,HOST,USER,PASS,DB,0,NULL,0)){ if (mysql_query(&connection,query.c_str())) cout << "Error: " << mysql_error(&conexao); else{ // My "debugging" shows me at this point `row[2]` is already fubar resp = mysql_store_result(&connection); if (resp) return_row = mysql_fetch_row(resp); mysql_free_result(resp); } mysql_close(&connection); }else{ cout << "connection failed\n"; if (mysql_errno(&connection)) cout << "Error : " << mysql_errno(&connection) << " " << mysql_error(&connection); } return return_row; } And main() is an infinite loop basically like this: int main( int argc, char* args[] ){ MYSQL_ROW row = NULL; while (1) { row = function1(); if(row != NULL) function2(row); } } (variable and function names have been generalized to protect the innocent) But after the 3rd or 4th call to function2, that only uses row for reading, row starts losing its value coming to a segfault error... Anyone's got any ideas why? I'm not sure the amount of global variables in this code is any good, but I didn't design it and only got until tomorrow to fix and finish it, so workarounds are welcome! Thanks!

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  • How to animate the frame of an layer with CABasicAnimation?

    - by mystify
    I guess I have to convert the CGRect into an object to pass it to fromValue? This is how I try it, but it doesn't work: CABasicAnimation *frameAnimation = [CABasicAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"frame"]; frameAnimation.duration = 2.5; frameAnimation.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionEaseInEaseOut]; frameAnimation.fromValue = [NSValue valueWithCGRect:myLayer.frame]; frameAnimation.toValue = [NSValue valueWithCGRect:theNewFrameRect]; [myLayer addAnimation:frameAnimation forKey:@"MLC"];

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  • passing a scalar query result to coalesce

    - by Fakrudeen
    How can I pass the result from a scalar [single row, single value] query to coalesce? I am trying to pick the priority as (the biggest priority so far in the table) + 1. [0 if it is the first row.] create trigger priority_SuperRuleSamples before insert on SuperRuleSamples FOR EACH ROW SET NEW.Priority=coalesce(NEW.Priority, coalesce( select Priority from SuperRuleSamples order by Priority desc limit 1, -1 )+1 )

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  • Java Filepath Question

    - by JJ Nooby
    I am trying to finish a java program that uploads a file from a client machine to a webserver. The java program is executed with a bat script. I need to pass in a file name to the java program somehow since the filename is different every time. Or can i somehow use %1 instead of the filepath? I dont know.

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  • Is it necessary to write ROLLBACK if queries fail?

    - by Donator
    I write mysql_query("SET AUTOCOMMIT=0"); mysql_query("START TRANSACTION"); before I write all queries. Then check if all of them are true and then write: mysql_query("COMMIT"); But if one of query fails, I just pass COMMIT query. So do I really need ROLLBACK function if one of the queries fail? Because without ROLLBACK it also works. Thanks.

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  • ruby inject recursion?

    - by Matt Humphrey
    the goal is to start with ['a','b','c'] and end up with {'a'={'b'={'c'={}}}} so, getting my bearings, i did this: ruby-1.8.7-p174 ['a','b','c'].inject({}){|h,v| h.update(v = {})} = {"a"={}, "b"={}, "c"={}} and then figured, if i actually pass on the result hash, it will recurse and nest, but: ruby-1.8.7-p174 ['a','b','c'].inject({}){|h,v| h.update(v = {}); h[v]} = {} why is this? any idea how to achieve the desired result in an elegant one-liner?

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  • What are the rules governing how a bind variable can be used in Postgres and where is this defined?

    - by Craig Miles
    I can have a table and function defined as: CREATE TABLE mytable ( mycol integer ); INSERT INTO mytable VALUES (1); CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION myfunction (l_myvar integer) RETURNS mytable AS $$ DECLARE l_myrow mytable; BEGIN SELECT * INTO l_myrow FROM mytable WHERE mycol = l_myvar; RETURN l_myrow; END; $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; In this case l_myvar acts as a bind variable for the value passed when I call: SELECT * FROM myfunction(1); and returns the row where mycol = 1 If I redefine the function as: CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION myfunction (l_myvar integer) RETURNS mytable AS $$ DECLARE l_myrow mytable; BEGIN SELECT * INTO l_myrow FROM mytable WHERE mycol IN (l_myvar); RETURN l_myrow; END; $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; SELECT * FROM myfunction(1); still returns the row where mycol = 1 However, if I now change the function definition to allow me to pass an integer array and try to this array in the IN clause, I get an error: CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION myfunction (l_myvar integer[]) RETURNS mytable AS $$ DECLARE l_myrow mytable; BEGIN SELECT * INTO l_myrow FROM mytable WHERE mycol IN (array_to_string(l_myvar, ',')); RETURN l_myrow; END; $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; Analysis reveals that although: SELECT array_to_string(ARRAY[1, 2], ','); returns 1,2 as expected SELECT * FROM myfunction(ARRAY[1, 2]); returns the error operator does not exist: integer = text at the line: WHERE mycol IN (array_to_string(l_myvar, ',')); If I execute: SELECT * FROM mytable WHERE mycol IN (1,2); I get the expected result. Given that array_to_string(l_myvar, ',') evaluates to 1,2 as shown, why arent these statements equivalent. From the error message it is something to do with datatypes, but doesnt the IN(variable) construct appear to be behaving differently from the = variable construct? What are the rules here? I know that I could build a statement to EXECUTE, treating everything as a string, to achieve what I want to do, so I am not looking for that as a solution. I do want to understand though what is going on in this example. Is there a modification to this approach to make it work, the particular example being to pass in an array of values to build a dynamic IN clause without resorting to EXECUTE? Thanks in advance Craig

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  • Customising log4j logging for sensitive data

    - by Xetius
    I have a class which contains sensitive information (Credit card info, phone numbers etc). I want to be able to pass this class to log4j, but have it obscure certain information. If I have a class UserInformation which has getPhoneNumber, getCreditCardNumber methods, how would I customise log4j or this class so that it will obscure the numbers correctly. I want the credit card number to be output as xxxx-xxxx-xxxx-1234 and the phone number to be output as xxxx-xxx-xxx given that these would be 1234-1234-1234-1234 and 1234-567-890 Thanks

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  • How to compress/decompress a long query string in PHP?

    - by jodeci
    I doubt if this is encryption but I can't find a better phrase. I need to pass a long query string like this: http://test.com/test.php?key=[some_very_loooooooooooooooooooooooong_query_string] The query string contains NO sensitive information so I'm not really concerned about security in this case. It's just...well, too long and ugly. Is there a library function that can let me encode/encrypt/compress the query string into something similar to the result of a md5() (similar as in, always a 32 character string), but decode/decrypt/decompress-able?

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  • How do I get the current Cmdlet from another object?

    - by John Vottero
    What's the best way to get the current PowerShell Cmdlet from another object? If I create a helper object that is not a Cmdlet but will be called by Cmdlets, the helper methods may want to call WriteVerbose, WriteDebug etc. What's the best way to get access to that? Is there a static PowerShell method that will return the current Cmdlet or do I need to have the Cmdlet pass itself to the helper?

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  • Using an ObjectCollection as a parameter create a new Control?

    - by Luis
    I was using something like public int Test(System.Windows.Forms.ListBox.ObjectCollection Colecction) { } With this I want to pass just the ObjectCollection of the control, to sort, add and delete elements without passing the entire control, but someone told me that, this way of calling the collection, actualy, create an entire ListBox, making it a worst decition, than, passing a ListBox as a parameter. Is it true? An if, what's the best way of working whit the collection?

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