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  • Use Apache authentication + authorization to control access to Subversion subdirectories

    - by Stefan Lasiewski
    I have a single SVN repo at /var/svn/ with a few subdirectories. Staff must be able to access the top-level directory and all subdirectories within it, but I want to restrict access to subdirectories using alternate htpasswd files. This works for our Staff. <Location /> DAV svn SVNParentPath /var/svn AuthType Basic AuthBasicProvider ldap # mod_authnz_ldap AuthzLDAPAuthoritative off AuthLDAPURL "ldap.example.org:636/ou=people,ou=Unit,ou=Host,o=ldapsvc,dc=example,dc=org?uid?sub?(objectClass=PosixAccount)" AuthLDAPGroupAttribute memberUid AuthLDAPGroupAttributeIsDN off Require ldap-group cn=staff,ou=PosixGroup,ou=Unit,ou=Host,o=ldapsvc,dc=example,dc=org </Location> Now, I am trying to restrict access to a subdirectory with a separate htpasswd file, like this: <Location /customerA> DAV svn SVNParentPath /var/svn # mod_authn_file AuthType Basic AuthBasicProvider file AuthUserFile /usr/local/etc/apache22/htpasswd.customerA Require user customerA </Location> I can use Firefox and curl to browse to this folder fine: curl https://svn.example.org/customerA/ --user customerA:password But I cannot use check out this SVN repository: $ svn co https://svn.example.org/customerA/ svn: Repository moved permanently to 'https://svn.example.org/customerA/'; please relocate And on the server logs, I get this strange error: # httpd-access.log 192.168.19.13 - - [03/May/2010:16:40:00 -0700] "OPTIONS /customerA HTTP/1.1" 401 401 192.168.19.13 - customerA [03/May/2010:16:40:00 -0700] "OPTIONS /customerA HTTP/1.1" 301 244 # httpd-error.log [Mon May 03 16:40:00 2010] [error] [client 192.168.19.13] Could not fetch resource information. [301, #0] [Mon May 03 16:40:00 2010] [error] [client 192.168.19.13] Requests for a collection must have a trailing slash on the URI. [301, #0] My question: Can I restrict access to Subversion subdirectories using Apache access controls? DocumentRoot is commented out, so it's not clear that the FAQ at http://subversion.apache.org/faq.html#http-301-error applies.

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  • Why can't I renew my dynamic IP address?

    - by qwerty
    So, I'm going to explain this from the start. I've started a project with a friend of mine which includes a webspider, that crawls through all pages on a site and stores them in a DB. Since I've never done this before, I didn't think about the amount of requests I was actually sending to the site, and after a day or two I finally got my IP blocked. I need to be able to visit that site as it's very important to me. Not only for my project, but for other reasons too. (and if I'm able to renew my IP I'm going to set a delay on the crawler so I don't get blocked & DDOS the site) I have a dynamic IP address, at least that's what my router settings say. I've tried ipconfig /flushdns, ipconfig /release, restart computer. No result. I end up with the same IP address. I've also tried renewing it from the router, however, I think it uses the same method which isn't working. Is it possible that site has blocked my mac address? Can a site even access my mac address?

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  • IIS 7.0 - responses throttled to 500ms blocks?

    - by Julia Hayward
    Scenario: ASP.NET MVC wep app sitting on my local machine (Vista Ultimate, IIS 7.0), nothing going on except one user (me) logged in and viewing an index page. The page includes 9 dynamic images drawn from the underlying DB and returned from a controller action. I have got the actual processing time for these images down to 15ms each. Turn on Firebug and watch the page load. What I see is 9 requests for images firing off together – no surprise – but four come back to me almost immediately; two more after 0.5s; another after 1s; then at 1.5s and 2s. Logging on the server side suggests the individual responses are still only taking 15ms. So it appears IIS is queueing things up into 500ms chunks. (Repeating the experiment produces different results, but each time the images return in similar blocks – you might get three in the first group, then three at 0.5s, two at 1s etc, for example – and it’s always at 500ms intervals, not anything else.) It’s also repeatable cross-browser, and it’s not repeatable with other forms of content. I haven't found any particular mention of this problem out there, so I'm sort of assuming it's not an IIS bug, so is it: i) IIS on desktop OSs deliberately does it, to make you use server OSs in production? ii) There is some magical setting that has eluded me for as long as I’ve known IIS? iii) Something peculiar to MVC or SQL Server 2008? or something else?

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  • File uploads and client_max_body_size in nginx + gunicorn + django

    - by carlosescri
    I need to configure nginx + gunicorn to be able to upload files greater than the default max size in both servers. My nginx .conf file looks like this: server { # ... location / { proxy_pass_header Server; proxy_set_header Host $http_host; proxy_redirect off; proxy_set_header X-Real-IP $remote_addr; proxy_set_header X-Scheme $scheme; proxy_connect_timeout 60; proxy_pass http://localhost:8000/; } } The idea is to allow requests of 20M for two locations: /admin/path/to/upload?param=value /installer/other/path/to/upload?param=value I've tried to add location directives at the same level than the one I've pasted here (getting 404 errors) and also tried to add them inside the location / directive (getting 413 Entity Too Large errors). My location directives look like these in their simplest form: location /admin/path/to/upload/ { client_max_body_size 20M; } location /installer/other/path/to/upload/ { client_max_body_size 20M; } But they don't work (actually I tested lots of combinations and I'm desperate thinking about this. Please, help If you can: What settings do I need to set to make this work? Thank you so much!

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  • Apache Proxy and Rewrite, append directory to URL

    - by ionFish
    I have a backend server running on http://10.0.2.20/ from the local network, which serves similar to this: / (root) | |_user1/ | |_www/ | |_private/ | |_user2/ |_www/ |_private/ (etc.) Accessing http://10.0.2.20/user1/ of course, contains 'www' and 'private' folders and is proxied through a public server using Apache's Reverse Proxy. I'd like it so the following happens: http://public-proxy-server/user1/ actually shows the content from http://10.0.2.20/user1/www/ without indicating it in the URL. (/private/ would not be accessible via the public proxy server). The key here, is for it to be dynamic, so all requests to http://public-proxy-server/*/should show content from http://10.0.2.20/*/www/. Again, the proxy currently works fine; below is the config: (On the public server) <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName www.domain.com ProxyRequests Off ProxyPreserveHost On ProxyVia full ProxyPass / http://10.0.2.20/ ProxyPassReverse / http://10.0.2.20/ </VirtualHost> (On the backend server) <VirtualHost *:80> ... #this directory contains folders 'user1' and 'user2' DocumentRoot /var/www/ ... </VirtualHost>

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  • Does MySQL log successful or attempted queries?

    - by Nathan Long
    I'm trying to track down a hit-or-miss bug in a web application. Sometimes a request completes just fine; sometimes it hangs and never finishes. I see that Apache now has several requests listed on the server-status page as "sending reply," and that doesn't change. I'm testing on localhost, so there shouldn't ever be more than one. Out of curiosity, I set MySQL to log all queries and I'm tail -fing the log file. When things go OK, I see a pattern like this: 20 Connect root@localhost on dbname 20 Query (some query #1) 20 Query (some query #2) (etc) 20 Quit 21 Connect (etc) When it hangs, I see a pattern like this: 22 Connect root@localhost on dbname 22 Query (some query #1) //nothing happens, so I try the post again 23 Connect root@localhost on dbname 23 Query (some query #1) //nothing happens; try again 24 Connect (etc) Here's my question: is MySQL logging attempted queries, or successful queries? In other words, if the last line I see is query #1, does that imply that query #1 or query #2 is hanging? My guess is that the one I don't see is the problem, because the last one I see looks fine, but maybe the one I don't see is too screwed-up for MySQL to process. Thoughts?

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  • memory tuning with rails/unicorn running on ubuntu

    - by user970193
    I am running unicorn on Ubuntu 11, Rails 3.0, and Ruby 1.8.7. It is an 8 core ec2 box, and I am running 15 workers. CPU never seems to get pinned, and I seem to be handling requests pretty nicely. My question concerns memory usage, and what concerns I should have with what I am seeing. (if any) Here is the scenario: Under constant load (about 15 reqs/sec coming in from nginx), over the course of an hour, each server in the 3 server cluster loses about 100MB / hour. This is a linear slope for about 6 hours, then it appears to level out, but still maybe appear to lose about 10MB/hour. If I drop my page caches using the linux command echo 1 /proc/sys/vm/drop_caches, the available free memory shoots back up to what it was when I started the unicorns, and the memory loss pattern begins again over the hours. Before: total used free shared buffers cached Mem: 7130244 5005376 2124868 0 113628 422856 -/+ buffers/cache: 4468892 2661352 Swap: 33554428 0 33554428 After: total used free shared buffers cached Mem: 7130244 4467144 2663100 0 228 11172 -/+ buffers/cache: 4455744 2674500 Swap: 33554428 0 33554428 My Ruby code does use memoizations and I'm assuming Ruby/Rails/Unicorn is keeping its own caches... what I'm wondering is should I be worried about this behaviour? FWIW, my Unicorn config: worker_processes 15 listen "#{CAPISTRANO_ROOT}/shared/pids/unicorn_socket", :backlog = 1024 listen 8080, :tcp_nopush = true timeout 180 pid "#{CAPISTRANO_ROOT}/shared/pids/unicorn.pid" GC.respond_to?(:copy_on_write_friendly=) and GC.copy_on_write_friendly = true before_fork do |server, worker| STDERR.puts "XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX BEFORE FORK" print_gemfile_location defined?(ActiveRecord::Base) and ActiveRecord::Base.connection.disconnect! defined?(Resque) and Resque.redis.client.disconnect old_pid = "#{CAPISTRANO_ROOT}/shared/pids/unicorn.pid.oldbin" if File.exists?(old_pid) && server.pid != old_pid begin Process.kill("QUIT", File.read(old_pid).to_i) rescue Errno::ENOENT, Errno::ESRCH # already killed end end File.open("#{CAPISTRANO_ROOT}/shared/pids/unicorn.pid.ok", "w"){|f| f.print($$.to_s)} end after_fork do |server, worker| defined?(ActiveRecord::Base) and ActiveRecord::Base.establish_connection defined?(Resque) and Resque.redis.client.connect end Is there a need to experiment enforcing more stringent garbage collection using OobGC (http://unicorn.bogomips.org/Unicorn/OobGC.html)? Or is this just normal behaviour, and when/as the system needs more memory, it will empty the caches by itself, without me manually running that cache command? Basically, is this normal, expected behaviour? tia

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  • virtualbox instances dedicated-server with custom dnsmasq

    - by ovanes
    I have dedicated server where I planned to run virtualbox virtual machines. Since the VMs are managed with vagrant/chef I may end up with many different ones. I thought it would be a great idea to deploy a dnsmasq on the server, which is going to dynamically assign the ip addresses to the VMs. Since each Vagrant/Chef recipe is configured to set the VM's host name I can find/reference the appropriate VM by the host name. Finally, the entire infrastructure is not directly accessible via internet, so the dedicated Server is the OpenVPN host. So the entire infrastructure may be seen as: +-------------------------------------+ | Dedicated Server | | | | +-------------+ +------------+ | +------------------+ | | DNSMasq | | OpenVPN |<==========>| Client | | +-------------+ +------------+ | | | | ^ ^ | +------------------+ | | | | | +--+ | | | | +-------+ | | | | VM1 | | | | +-------+ | | | ... | | | +-------+ | | +-| VM2 | | | +-------+ | +-------------------------------------+ Now some questions which I am struggling with: Are there any other suggestions to access private infrastructure, because I don't want to reinvent the wheel. On the Dedicated Server I don't see the vboxnet0 interface but VirtualBox is installed without GUI. Accessing of virtual boxes via ssh works fine. Did I miss smth? DNSMasq must serve the local VMs only, otherwise there is a chance that local DNSMasq start to serve other server's on the network, what I don't want. Because I don't see vboxnet0 I tend to use no-dhcp-interface=eth0 config option. Are there any thoughts on that despite, the fact that a second NW-card (which is not the case), might start serving DHCP-Requests? How should I config the VM's network interface that I am able to access it via OpenVPN and resolve the hostnames using the DNSMasq. I think it should be the host-only network card. Should I do bridging in the OpenVPN config or is it sufficient to use routing.

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  • What is the best way to create a failover cluster for my IIS website?

    - by ObligatoryMoniker
    Our eCommerce website www.tervis.com currently runs on two servers: SQL server: 2005 x 86 on Windows Server 2003 Standard x86 with a single dual core processor and 4 gb of memeory IIS server: Windows Server 2008 Web edition x64 with dual quad core hyper threaded processors and 32 gb of memory Tervis.com's revenue has steadily grown to the point where we need to have redundant servers deployed with a fail over mechanism so that we do not have any down time. Because the SQL server is so underpowered compared to the web server my thought was to purchase: 2 x SQL Server 2008 R2 web edition x64 single processor license 2 x Windows Server 2008 R2 Web Edition Licenses 1 x New Physical dual quad core 32 GB server 1 x F5 Load Balancer I need the Windows Server 2008 R2 Web Edition licenses so that I can run SQL and IIS on the same box for both of these servers. The thought is to run this as an active/passive fail over cluster that could be upgraded to an active/active cluster if we purchased the additional SQL licensing. The F5 load balancer would serve as the device that monitors the two servers and if the current active one stops responding then fails over to using the other server. To be clear this is not windows clustering but simply using a load balancer to fail over between two computers so that you now have a cluster in the general sense. Is this really the best way to accomplish what I need? Is there some way to leverage the old server 2003 SQL server to function as the devices that funnels http requests to the appropriate active server and then fails over if a problem occurs? Is there any third party clustering software that might help me accomplish this in a simpler fashion?

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  • fail2ban regex working but no action being taken

    - by fpghost
    I have the following snippet of fail2ban configuration on Ubuntu 13.10 server: #jail.conf [apache-getphp] enabled = true port = http,https filter = apache-getphp action = iptables-multiport[name=apache-getphp, port="http,https", protocol=tcp] mail-whois[name=apache-getphp, dest=root] logpath = /srv/apache/log/access.log maxretry = 1 #filter.d/apache-getphp.conf [Definition] failregex = ^<HOST> - - (?:\[[^]]*\] )+\"(GET|POST) /(?i)(PMA|phptest|phpmyadmin|myadmin|mysql|mysqladmin|sqladmin|mypma|admin|xampp|mysqldb|mydb|db|pmadb|phpmyadmin1|phpmyadmin2|cgi-bin) ignoreregex = I know the regex is good, because if I run the test command on my access.log: fail2ban-regex /srv/apache/log/access.log /etc/fail2ban/filter.d/apache-getphp.conf I get a SUCCESS result with multiple hits, and in my log I see entries like 187.192.89.147 - - [13/Apr/2014:11:36:03 +0100] "GET /phpTest/zologize/axa.php HTTP/1.1" 301 585 "-" "-" 187.192.89.147 - - [13/Apr/2014:11:36:03 +0100] "GET /phpMyAdmin/scripts/setup.php HTTP/1.1" 301 593 "-" "-" Secondly I know email is configured correctly, as each time I service fail2ban restart I get an email for each of the filters stopping/starting. However despite all this no action seems to be taken when one of these requests comes in. No email with whois, and no entries in iptables. What possibly could be preventing fail2ban from taking action? (everything looks in order in fail2ban-client -d and I can see the chains have loaded with iptables -L)

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  • Five stars of open data - example and review

    - by Joe
    (there may be a more suited SE site for this question so feel free to shift) I have some data I'd like to make open to the public - It's synatesis of some related data retrived from freedom of infomation requests over the last year. The data itself is at http://www.cs.rhul.ac.uk/home/joseph/domesday/Domesday-Scotland.csv or for fans of Excel, at http://www.cs.rhul.ac.uk/home/joseph/domesday/Domesday-Scotland.xlsx . It's no more than a table with about five columns. I'd like to make this properly open data, so I was looking at the 5 star deployment scheme for Open Data. Much of which is fine but I'm confused towards the end and I could do with an explenation from people who know the answers. So to get achieve the star levels I need: "make your stuff available on the Web (whatever format) under an open license" trival - all I have to do is put the notes up on the page that will give the provance of the data. "make it available as structured data (e.g., Excel instead of image scan of a table)"… done… "use non-proprietary formats (e.g., CSV instead of Excel)" - done… "use URIs to identify things, so that people can point at your stuff" - this is where I start to get a bit hazy - does this mean there should be an URI for every line in the table? "link your data to other data to provide context" - this isn't massively clear to me - does this mean to give the provence of the data? One column of the data I've put out is a link to where the data came from - is that the sort of thing we're looking at? Any and all information and answers welcome… EDIT - or if anyone wants to recommend a place SE or other place to ask the question - that would be cool...

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  • URL Redirect Configuration in Virtualhost for a Single Page Web Application

    - by fenderplayer
    I have a web application under development that I am running locally. The home page of the application is fetched with the following url: http://local.dev/myapp/index.shtml When the app runs, javascript on the webpage maintains the url and the app state internally. Some of the other urls read as: http://local.dev/myapp/results?param1=val1&param2=val2 http://local.dev/myapp/someResource Note that there are no pages named results.html or someResource.html on my web server. They are just made up URLs to simulate RESTfulness in the single page app. All the app code - javascript, css etc - is present in the index.shtml file So, essentially, the question is how can I redirect all requests to the first URL above? Here's how the vhost configuration looks like: <VirtualHost 0.0.0.0:80> ServerAdmin [email protected] DocumentRoot "/Users/Me/mySites" ServerName local.dev RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(myapp|myapp2)\/results\?.+$ $1/index.shtml [R=301,L] <Directory "/Users/Me/mySites/"> Options +Includes Indexes MultiViews FollowSymlinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> ErrorLog "/private/var/log/apache2/error.log" CustomLog "/private/var/log/apache2/access.log" common </VirtualHost> But this doesn't seem to work. Requesting the other URLs directly results in 404 error.

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  • Does IIS Sometimes Allocate More Worker Processes Than Configured?

    - by Paul Williams
    We have an IIS 7.5 web service on Windows Server 2008 that handles WCF requests from C# clients. This service is configured to have Maximum Worker Processes = 1, so it is not a web garden. IIS is setup to recycle itself at the same time every day (3 AM). I am trying to debug gnarly connection issues, so I wanted to be sure the application pool was not recycling itself. I configured the pool to log an event when it recycles itself. To my surprise, I see the following entries in the System event log: Level: Information Date/Time: 3/23/2012 3:00:00 AM - Source: WAS - Event ID: 5076 A worker process with process id of '6636' serving application pool 'MyAppPool' has requested a recycle because it reached its scheduled recycle time. Level: Information Date/Time: 3/23/2012 2:59:39 AM - Source: WAS - Event ID: 5076 A worker process with process id of '9364' serving application pool 'MyAppPool' has requested a recycle because it reached its scheduled recycle time. IIS is correctly recycling the application pool at 3 AM. However, I do not understand why I would be getting two recycle events in the log within a few seconds of each other. The maximum number of processes is 1. Does IIS sometimes allocate multiple processes for an application pool that is specified as having 1 process? -- edit -- I connected at about 4 PM today and only saw 1 w3wp.exe process. There are no other event log entries that would indicate a crash.

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  • Nginx + php-fpm - recv() error

    - by Ilya Biryukov
    I get the follow error in the nginx log [error] 17734#0: *6643 recv() failed (104: Connection reset by peer) while reading response header from upstream, client: [cut], server: [cut], request: "GET /venues HTTP/1.1", upstream: "fastcgi://127.0.0.1:9000", host: "[cut]" I have a dedicated box with 8 gb ram, quad core chip. Good server. Nginx, php-fpm & mysql all latest versions running under ubuntu 10.04 I only get this when I stress test the server with siege. If I increase the number of concurrent connections to 100, I can get up to 20% of all requests to fail. Furthermore, I don't get this on pages that have no mysql queries. And only a few failures on pages with moderate number of queries. Bit, I'm not sure if that's got to do anything with it. I have a feeling this is something to do with php. But I can't figure it out. Any suggestions of where to even start looking? Update: and the php error log is silent. No record of anything going wrong

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  • DNS failover in a two datacenter scenario

    - by wanson
    I'm trying to implement a low-cost solution for website high availability. I'm looking for the downsides of the following scenario: I have two servers with the same configuration, content, mysql replication (dual-master). They are in different datacenters - let's call them serverA and serverB. Users use serverA - serverB is more like a backup. Now, I want to use DNS failover, to switch users from serverA to serverB when serverA goes down. My idea is that I setup DNS servers (bind/powerdns) on serverA and serverB - let's call them ns1.website.com and ns2.website.com (assuming I own website.com). Then I configure my domain to use them as its nameservers. Both DNS servers will return serverA IP as my website's IP. If serverA goes down I can (either manually or automatically from serverB) change configuration of serverB's DNS, to return IP of serverB as website's IP. Of course the TTL will be low, as it's supposed to be in DNS failovers. I know that it may take some time to switch to serverB (DNS ttl, time to detect serverA failure, serverB DNS reconfiguration etc), and that some small part of users won't use serverB anyway. And I'm OK with that. But what are other downsides of such an approach? An alternative scenario is that ns1.website.com will return serverA IP as website's IP, and ns2.website.com will return serverB IP as website's IP. But AFAIK clients not always use primary nameserver and sometimes would use secondary one. So some small part of users would use serverB instead of serverA which is not quite what I'd like. Can you confirm that DNS clients behave like that and can you tell what percentage of clients would possibly use serverB instead of serverA (statistically)? This one also has the downside that when serverA goes back up, it will be automatically used as website's primary server, which is also a bad situation (cold cache, mysql replication could fail in the meantime etc). So I'm adding it only as a theoretical alternative. I was thinking about using some professional DNS failover companies but they charge for the number of DNS requests and the fees are very high (why?)

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  • Squid3 not caching simple request and response

    - by Nick Spacek
    Hi folks, I've pared down my squid.conf to try to figure this out: http_port 80 accel defaultsite=host.to.cache cache_peer ip.to.cache parent 80 0 no-query originserver acl our_sites dstdomain host.to.cache http_access allow our_sites refresh_pattern . 1 20% 4320 Requests are being proxied correctly, so that's a start. Here's a request: GET http://host.to.cache/path?some_param=true Accept: */* Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate,sdch Accept-Language: en-US,en Connection: keep-alive Host: host.to.cache User-Agent: myuseragent And the response: Connection: keep-alive Content-Length: 585 Content-Type: application/xml Date: Thu, 06 Jan 2011 18:33:11 GMT Via: 1.0 localhost (squid/3.0.STABLE19) X-Cache: MISS from localhost X-Cache-Lookup: MISS from localhost:80 The response has no caching-related headers, but I thought that refresh_pattern would set a default behavior for responses without caching-related headers. For my test, I wanted to cache everything for one minute at minimum. Am I missing something obvious? I did take a peek at this question: Squid isn't caching ...and ran through the page here: http://www.mnot.net/cache_docs/ briefly, but didn't see anything relevant (not to say that there isn't, I could have missed something). Thanks for any help.

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  • SSH into remote server using Public-private keys

    - by maria
    Hi, I have recently setup ssh on two linux machines (lets call them server-a, client-b). I have generated two ssh auth files on client-b machine using ssh key gen and can see both public and private files in .ssh dir. I have named them 'example' and 'example.pub'. Then I have added example.pub to sever-a's auth file. When I try to ssh into server-a it still requests a password authentication where as I want a password less login (private key on client-b is setup without password). When I try to ssh with '-v' .. get the following output: debug1: Next authentication method: publickey debug1: Trying private key: /Users/abc/.ssh/identity debug1: Offering public key: /Users/abc/.ssh/id_rsa debug2: we sent a publickey packet, wait for reply debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey,keyboard-interactive debug1: Offering public key: /Users/abc/.ssh/id_dsa debug2: we sent a publickey packet, wait for reply debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey,keyboard-interactive debug2: we did not send a packet, disable method debug1: Next authentication method: keyboard-interactive debug2: userauth_kbdint debug2: we sent a keyboard-interactive packet, wait for reply debug2: input_userauth_info_req debug2: input_userauth_info_req: num_prompts 1 Password: Please help.

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  • how to block spam email using Microsoft Outlook 2011 (Mac)?

    - by tim8691
    I'm using Microsoft Outlook 2011 for Mac and I'm getting so much spam I'm not sure how to control it. In the past, I always applied "Block Sender" and "Mark as Junk" to any spam email messages I received. This doesn't seem to be enough nowadays. Then I've started using Tools Rules to create rules based on subject, but the same spammer keeps changing subject lines, so this isn't working. I've been tracking the IP addresses they also seem to be changing with each email. Is there any key information I can use in the email to apply a rule to successfully place these spam emails in the junk folder? I'm using a "Low" level of junk email protection. The next higher level, "high", says it may eliminate valid emails, so I prefer not to use this option. There's maybe one or two spammers sending me emails, but the volume is very high now. I'm getting a variation of the following facebook email spam: Hi, Here's some activity you have missed. No matter how far away you are from friends and family, we can help you stay connected. Other people have asked to be your friend. Accept this invitation to see your previous friend requests Some variations on the subject line they've used include: Account Info Change Account Sender Mail Pending ticket notification Pending ticket status Support Center Support med center Pending Notification Reminder: Pending Notification How do people address this? Can it be done within Outlook or is it better to get a third party commercial software to plug-in or otherwise manage it? If so, why would the third party be better than Outlook's internal tools (e.g. what does it look for in the incoming email that Outlook doesn't look at)?

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  • Removing/modifying LDAP objectclasses/attributes using olc

    - by Foezjie
    I'm having trouble using openldap's olc to modify a schema without shutting down the server. To test some things out, I made the following schema: objectIdentifier tests orgUlyssisOID:4 objectIdentifier testAttribute tests:1 objectIdentifier testObjectClass tests:2 attributeType ( testAttribute:1 NAME 'attr1' DESC 'attribuut 1' SYNTAX '1.3.6.1.4.1.1466.115.121.1.40' ) attributeType ( testAttribute:2 NAME 'attr2' DESC 'attribuut 2' SUP userPassword SINGLE-VALUE ) objectclass ( testObjectClass:1 NAME 'class1' DESC 'objectclass 1' SUP top STRUCTURAL MUST (attr1 $ attr2 ) ) And added it to a new schema called test. (cn={9}test.ldif in cn=schema). Now I can't seem to figure out how to delete class1 from that schema. I use the following LDIF (and tried lots of variations too, to no avail) dn : cn={9}test,cn=schema,cn=config changetype: modify delete: olcObjectClasses olcObjectClasses: ( testObjectClass:1 NAME 'class1' DESC 'objectclass 1' SUP top STRUCTURAL MUST ( attr1 $ attr2 ) ) Running ldapmodify -x -W -D cn=admin,cn=config -f test.ldif -d 0 gives no output. -d 1 gives this: ldap_create ldap_sasl_bind ldap_send_initial_request ldap_new_connection 1 1 0 ldap_int_open_connection ldap_connect_to_host: TCP localhost:389 ldap_new_socket: 4 ldap_prepare_socket: 4 ldap_connect_to_host: Trying 127.0.0.1:389 ldap_pvt_connect: fd: 4 tm: -1 async: 0 ldap_open_defconn: successful ldap_send_server_request ber_scanf fmt ({it) ber: ber_scanf fmt ({i) ber: ber_flush2: 38 bytes to sd 4 ldap_result ld 0x7f2a8ccf3430 msgid 1 wait4msg ld 0x7f2a8ccf3430 msgid 1 (infinite timeout) wait4msg continue ld 0x7f2a8ccf3430 msgid 1 all 1 ** ld 0x7f2a8ccf3430 Connections: * host: localhost port: 389 (default) refcnt: 2 status: Connected last used: Mon Sep 10 11:29:57 2012 ** ld 0x7f2a8ccf3430 Outstanding Requests: * msgid 1, origid 1, status InProgress outstanding referrals 0, parent count 0 ld 0x7f2a8ccf3430 request count 1 (abandoned 0) ** ld 0x7f2a8ccf3430 Response Queue: Empty ld 0x7f2a8ccf3430 response count 0 ldap_chkResponseList ld 0x7f2a8ccf3430 msgid 1 all 1 ldap_chkResponseList returns ld 0x7f2a8ccf3430 NULL ldap_int_select read1msg: ld 0x7f2a8ccf3430 msgid 1 all 1 ber_get_next ber_get_next: tag 0x30 len 12 contents: read1msg: ld 0x7f2a8ccf3430 msgid 1 message type bind ber_scanf fmt ({eAA) ber: read1msg: ld 0x7f2a8ccf3430 0 new referrals read1msg: mark request completed, ld 0x7f2a8ccf3430 msgid 1 request done: ld 0x7f2a8ccf3430 msgid 1 res_errno: 0, res_error: <>, res_matched: <> ldap_free_request (origid 1, msgid 1) ldap_parse_result ber_scanf fmt ({iAA) ber: ber_scanf fmt (}) ber: ldap_msgfree ldap_free_connection 1 1 ldap_send_unbind ber_flush2: 7 bytes to sd 4 ldap_free_connection: actually freed So no real indication of an error. Where am I doing it wrong? Bonus question: If I have some entries of a certain objectclass, can I modify it (add/remove attributeTypes) without removing the entries? Thanks in advance for all help.

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  • Is my webserver being abused for banking fraud?

    - by koffie
    Since a few weeks i'm getting a lot of 403 errors from apache in my log files that seem to be related to a bank frauding scheme. The relevant log entries look like this (The ip 1.2.3.4 is one I made up, I did not modify the rest of each line) www.bradesco.com.br:80 / 1.2.3.4 - - [01/Dec/2012:07:20:32 +0100] "GET / HTTP/1.1" 403 427 "-" "Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 5.1) AppleWebKit/535.11 (KHTML, like Gecko) Chrome/17.0.963.56 Safari/535.11" www.bb.com.br:80 / 1.2.3.4 - - [01/Dec/2012:07:20:32 +0100] "GET / HTTP/1.1" 403 370 "-" "Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 5.1) AppleWebKit/535.11 (KHTML, like Gecko) Chrome/17.0.963.56 Safari/535.11" www.santander.com.br:80 / 1.2.3.4 - - [01/Dec/2012:07:20:33 +0100] "GET / HTTP/1.1" 403 370 "-" "Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 5.1) AppleWebKit/535.11 (KHTML, like Gecko) Chrome/17.0.963.56 Safari/535.11" www.banese.com.br:80 / 1.2.3.4 - - [01/Dec/2012:07:20:33 +0100] "GET / HTTP/1.1" 403 370 "-" "Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 5.1) AppleWebKit/535.11 (KHTML, like Gecko) Chrome/17.0.963.56 Safari/535.11" the logformat I use is: LogFormat "%V:%p %U %h %l %u %t \"%r\" %>s %O \"%{Referer}i\" \"%{User-Agent}i\"" The strange thing is that all these domains are domains of banks and 3 out of the 4 domains are also in the list of the bank frauding scheme described on: http://www.abuse.ch/?p=2925 I would really like to know if my server is being abused for bank frauding or not. I suspect not, because it's giving 403 to all requests. But any extra checks that I can do to ensure that my server is not being abused are welcome. I'm also curious on how the "bad guys" expected my server to behave. I.e. are they just expecting my server to act as a proxy to hide the ip of the fake site, or are they expecting that my server will actually serve the fake banking website? Is the ip 1.2.3.4 more likely to be the ip of a victim or the ip of a bad guy. I suspect a bad guy, because it's quite unlikely that a real person would visit 4 bank sites in a second. If it's from a bad guy I'm very curious at what he is trying to do.

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  • Show full URI/URL in Chrome's developer tools Network tab

    - by Lev
    When using Chrome to debug, I find it incredibly difficult to be efficient due to the fact that I don't see how I can force the "Network" tab of the developer tools to show the full request URI. It will show the full URI if you hover the link and wait a second, but this is incredibly counterproductive. All of my AJAX requests are sent to ajax.php, and handled by using query string arguments, like: ajax.php?do=profile-set ajax.php?do=game-save ... etc. Since I use AJAX extensively, my network tab is filled with "ajax.php", but I have to manually hover each and every entry to find the request I am looking for. Surely there has got to be another way!? I am constantly fed up by something new in Firefox and immediately force myself back into Chrome, but it is always the developer tools in Chrome that keep me from using it for an extended period of time. Hopefully I can find out how to do this so I can continue using Chrome as my numero uno. I've provided a screen shot to show you where I mean:

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  • How do I run multiple MVC apps within a subdomain on IIS7?

    - by Matthew Patrick Cashatt
    Hello and thanks for looking. Background I am currently wrapping up a development contract and the client would like for me to push a build of the application to their IIS 7-based server in which they would like to run multiple MVC apps. One of the issues I have off of the bat is that this server is already a subdomain on their larger network. So, if I enter SERVERNAME in my browser, it automatically directs to SERVERNAME.COMPANYNAME.COM. Now, this is just fine if I place my application in the default website/root. In this scenario, clicking a link that requests admin.html directs to `SERVERNAME.COMPANYNAME.COM/admin.html' as usual. BUT they want me to place the app in a subdomain on this server so that they can also run other apps on the same server. So I assume that I need MYAPP.SERVERNAME.COMPANYNAME.COM but I have no idea how to do that. Complicating matters is that my app and the future ones they wish to install are all MVC based which intercepts and re-writes URLs. I assume that this takes care of itself if I can just successfully get my app into a subdomain to begin with. What I have tried Creating a new site on the server in it's own app pool Setting the binding for that site to MYAPP.SERVERNAME.COMPANYNAME.COM Setting the binding for that site to MYAPP Setting the binding for that site to MYAPP.SERVERNAME Setting the binding for that site to MYAPP.SERVERNAME.COM Setting the binding for that site to MYAPP.COMPANYNAME.COM Nothing is working. Am I missing something simple here? Thanks, Matt

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  • What does "incoming" and "outgoing" traffic mean?

    - by mgibsonbr
    I've seen many resources explaining how to set up a server's firewall to allow incoming and outgoing traffic on HTTP standard ports (80 and 443), but I can't figure out why I would need either of them. Do I need to unblock both for a "regular" web site to work? For file uploads to work? Are there situations where it would be advisable to unblock one and leave the other blocked? Sorry if that's a basic question, but I couldn't find it explained anywhere (also I'm not a native english speaker). I know in a "regular" web site the client is always the one who initiates a request, so I'm assuming a web server must accept incoming traffic on those ports, and my common sense tells me the server is allowed to send a response without unblocking anything else (otherwise it wouldn't make sense to have two types of rules). Is that correct? But what is an outgoing web (service) traffic, and what would be its use? AFAIK if the server wanted to initiate a connection with another machine, the specific port that matters is the one in the other end (i.e. the destination port would be 80), on its end any free port could be used (the source port would be random). I can open HTTP requests from my server (using wget for instance) without unblocking anything. So I'm assuming my concepts of "incoming" and "outgoing" are wrong somehow.

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  • Install Windows 7 from ISO image

    - by Albert
    Hi, I have an ISO file of the Windows 7 DVD and I want to install it on my PC which currently only runs Linux. I don't have any DVD drive. I have some unpartitioned space on one disk where I want to install it in. When I am doing this for Linux, I usually just create the partitions from the running system, format them, mount them, copy files over, chroot into it, setup the stuff and I can boot into it (or I use some of the uncountable available scripts which do exactly that automatically). However, I have no idea how to do the same thing with Windows. So far, I tried with VMware, i.e. I gave it direct full access to the disk where I want to install it in, installed it there, then tried to boot natively into it. The Windows logo showed up but after maybe 3 seconds or so, it crashes. Safe mode also crashes. I already expected that this probably would exactly behave the way it does right now because I have heard that Windows is quite sensible about hardware changes (i.e. the VMware hardware and the real hardware). However, how can I fix it now that it works? Or I could also just delete it again and try just over. But how exactly? I also searched for ways to boot directly into an ISO file. There seem to be ways to do that via GRUB (and maybe some additional boot loader), although quite complicated. I already tried one method (GRUB: map ...iso (hdX)), however, that didn't worked. Also, even if it does work, I will get into trouble when I boot into the newly installed Windows and it requests for the DVD (because it does that at the first boot into the new system). Seems all quite complicated. Isn't there some easy way like I would do it for Linux? Or what would be the easiest way to get what I want?

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  • How do you get AWS VPC EC2 instances to be able to see the AWS APIs?

    - by Peter Mounce
    We're spinning up infrastructure inside of an AWS VPC via CloudFormation. We're using auto-scaling groups to bring up VPC-EC2 instances (so, we don't bring up instances directly; ASGs manage that). Inside of a PVC, EC2 instances only have a private IP; they cannot see the outside world without further work. When these instances spin up, we have some bootstrap tasks that require talking to the various AWS APIs. We also have some ongoing tasks that require AWS API traffic. How are you tackling this apparent chicken-egg problem? We've read about: NAT instances - but don't like this so much because it's another layer to our stack. assigning elastic-IPs to each VPC instance that needs to talk - but a) they all do, and b) since we're using ASGs, we don't know which instances to assign EIPs to at provision-time, and c) we'd need to set up something to monitor those ASGs and assign EIPs when instances are terminated and replaced spinning up an instance (actually, a load-balanced pair, probably spanning AZs) to act as an AWS-API proxy for all API traffic I guess I'm wondering whether there's some kind of back-door we can open that allows our VPC EC2 instances access to the AWS API endpoints, but nothing else, for cheap-complexity setup, that doesn't add another network-hop layer to our infrastructure for serving requests.

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