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  • Generate number sequences with LINQ

    - by tanascius
    I try to write a LINQ statement which returns me all possible combinations of numbers (I need this for a test and I was inspired by this article of Eric Lippert). The method's prototype I call looks like: IEnumerable<Collection<int>> AllSequences( int start, int end, int size ); The rules are: all returned collections have a length of size number values within a collection have to increase every number between start and end should be used So calling the AllSequences( 1, 5, 3 ) should result in 10 collections, each of size 3: 1 2 3 1 2 4 1 2 5 1 3 4 1 3 5 1 4 5 2 3 4 2 3 5 2 4 5 3 4 5 Now, somehow I'd really like to see a pure LINQ solution. I am able to write a non LINQ solution on my own, so please put no effort into a solution without LINQ. My tries so far ended at a point where I have to join a number with the result of a recursive call of my method - something like: return from i in Enumerable.Range( start, end - size + 1 ) select BuildCollection(i, AllSequences( i, end, size -1)); But I can't manage it to implement BuildCollection() on a LINQ base - or even skip this method call. Can you help me here?

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  • Random String Generator creates same string on multiple calls

    - by rockinthesixstring
    Hi there. I've build a random string generator but I'm having a problem whereby if I call the function multiple times say in a Page_Load method, the function returns the same string twice. here's the code ''' <summary>' ''' Generates a Random String' ''' </summary>' ''' <param name="n">number of characters the method should generate</param>' ''' <param name="UseSpecial">should the method include special characters? IE: # ,$, !, etc.</param>' ''' <param name="SpecialOnly">should the method include only the special characters and excludes alpha numeric</param>' ''' <returns>a random string n characters long</returns>' Public Function GenerateRandom(ByVal n As Integer, Optional ByVal UseSpecial As Boolean = True, Optional ByVal SpecialOnly As Boolean = False) As String Dim chars As String() ' a character array to use when generating a random string' Dim ichars As Integer = 74 'number of characters to use out of the chars string' Dim schars As Integer = 0 ' number of characters to skip out of the characters string' chars = { _ "A", "B", "C", "D", "E", "F", _ "G", "H", "I", "J", "K", "L", _ "M", "N", "O", "P", "Q", "R", _ "S", "T", "U", "V", "W", "X", _ "Y", "Z", "0", "1", "2", "3", _ "4", "5", "6", "7", "8", "9", _ "a", "b", "c", "d", "e", "f", _ "g", "h", "i", "j", "k", "l", _ "m", "n", "o", "p", "q", "r", _ "s", "t", "u", "v", "w", "x", _ "y", "z", "!", "@", "#", "$", _ "%", "^", "&", "*", "(", ")", _ "-", "+"} If Not UseSpecial Then ichars = 62 ' only use the alpha numeric characters out of "char"' If SpecialOnly Then schars = 62 : ichars = 74 ' skip the alpha numeric characters out of "char"' Dim rnd As New Random() Dim random As String = String.Empty Dim i As Integer = 0 While i < n random += chars(rnd.[Next](schars, ichars)) System.Math.Max(System.Threading.Interlocked.Increment(i), i - 1) End While rnd = Nothing Return random End Function but if I call something like this Dim str1 As String = GenerateRandom(5) Dim str2 As String = GenerateRandom(5) the response will be something like this g*3Jq g*3Jq and the second time I call it, it will be 3QM0$ 3QM0$ What am I missing? I'd like every random string to be generated as unique.

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  • CI+JQuery+Ajax problem

    - by Sadat
    Calling the ajax called URL works well without ajax eg. http://localhost/ci/controller/method/param_value. But using ajax it doesnt work. Following are the code segment, i have just started with JQuery+Ajax with CI. Here is my controller: <?php class BaseController extends Controller{ public function BaseController(){ parent::Controller(); $this->load->helper('url'); } function index(){ $this->load->view('header'); $this->load->view('body'); $this->load->view('footer'); } function ajaxTest($testData=""){ $this->load->view('ajaxtest',array('test_data'=>$testData)); } } ? Here is View <?php echo $test_data; ? Ajax Call Function function testAjaxCall(){ $.get( base_url+'basecontroller/ajaxtest/test-value', function(responseData) { $("#test-div").html(responseData); } ); } Ajax Calling Page(button) <div id="test-div"></div><input type="button" onclick="testAjaxCall()" name="ajax-test" value="Test Ajax" /> JS base_url declaration <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php echo base_url();?>js/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php echo base_url();?>js/application-ajax-call.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> /* to make ajax call easy */ base_url = '<?php echo base_url();?>'; </script>

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  • Loading the target of a link in a <DIV> via jQuery's .live event into the same <DIV>??

    - by Martin Pescador
    Hello together I call a certain div from another page with jquery to be loaded into a div on my main page like this: <script type="text/javascript"> $("#scotland").load("http://www.example.com/scotland .gallery"); </script> <div id="scotland"></div> The div I call is a piece of code which is automatically generated by a CMS made simple module, by the way. Now it comes to my problem: The .gallery div I call, looks, a little simplified, like this: <div class="gallery"> <span><img src="http://www.example.com/scotlandimage1.jpg"></span> <span class="imgnavi"><a href="link_to_next_page_with_one_image">Next image</href></span> </div> I want the "next image"-link to load the next page into the .gallery div (it is always a page with one image on it). But what it does, is, it opens the new page http://www.example.com/scotland only. I tried to use jquerys .live event to load the linked page (that would be "scotlandimage2" and the navigation, as you can see in the upper part - not only the image!), but I must have done something wrong. I tried different ways, but never got it to work. This was my last try: $(".imgnavi a").click(function() { var myUrl = $(this).attr("href"); $(".gallery").load(myUrl); return false; }); I have to admit that I am very new to jquery... But does someone know what I did wrong (do I even follow the right handlers?)? Thanks very much in advance! Martin

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  • SQL ORACLE - Datatable in where clause

    - by Gage
    Currently I have a sql call returning a dataset from a MSSQL database and I want to take a column from that data and return ID's based off that column from the ORACLE database. I can do this one at a time but that requires multiple calls, I am wondering if this can be done with one call. String sql=String.Format(@"Select DIST_NO FROM DISTRICT WHERE DIST_DESC = '{0}'", row.Table.Rows[0]["Op_Centre"].ToString()); Above is the string I am using to return one ID at a time. I know the {0} can be used to format your value into the string and maybe there is a way to do that with a datatable. Also to use multiple values in the where clause it would be: String sql=String.Format(@"Select DIST_NO FROM DISTRICT WHERE DIST_DESC in ('{0}')", row.Table.Rows[0] ["Op_Centre"].ToString()); Although I realize all of this can be done I am wondering if theres an easy way to add it all to the sql string in one call. As I am writing this I am realizing I could break the string into sections then just add every row value to the SQL string within the "WHERE DIST_DESC IN (" clause... I am still curious to see if there is another way though, and because someone else may come across this problem I will post a solution if I develop one. Thanks in advance.

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  • Capturing time intervals when somebody was online? How would you impement this feature?

    - by Kirzilla
    Hello, Our aim is to build timelines saying about periods of time when user was online. (It really doesn't matter what user we are talking about and where he was online) To get information about onliners we can call API method, someservice.com/api/?call=whoIsOnline whoIsOnline method will give us a list of users currently online. But there is no API method to get information about who IS NOT online. So, we should build our timelines using information we got from whoIsOnline. Of course there will be a measurement error (we can't track information in realtime). Let's suppose that we will call whoIsOnline method every 2 minutes (yes, we will run our script by cron every 2 minutes). For example, calling whoIsOnline at 08:00 will return Peter_id Michal_id Andy_id calling whoIsOnline at 08:02 will return Michael_id Andy_id George_id As you can see, Peter has gone offline, but we have new onliner - George. Available instruments are Db(MySQL) / text files / key-value storage (Redis/memcache); feel free to choose any of them (or even all of them). So, we have to get information like this George_id was online... 12 May: 08:02-08:30, 12:40-12:46, 20:14-22:36 11 May: 09:10-12:30, 21:45-23:00 10 May: was not online And now question... How would you store information to implement such timelines? How would you query/calculate information about periods of time when user was online? Additional information.. You cannot update information about offline users, only users who are "currently" online. Solution should be flexible: timeline information could be represented relating to any timezone. We should keep information only for last 7 days. Every user seen online is automatically getting his own identifier in our database. Uff.. it was really hard for me to write it because my English is pretty bad, but I hope my question will be clear for you. Thank you.

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  • Missing elements of collection

    - by Neir0
    I have a collection ObservableCollection<string> outoverList And i have a function which call collection outoverList.Add("out:"+element.tagName); Function call collection a few times, but sometimes collection lost elements. We call a function - function adds element - collection has 9 elements(for example) - in the next function calling collection has only 8 elements. One elements be missing. Here Resharpers Find usages log: Search target FindElementHandler.outoverList:ObservableCollection<string> Found 3 usages in solution <FindElementExperiments> (3 items) FindElementHandler.cs (3 items) (50,13) outoverList = new ObservableCollection<string>(); (94,13) outoverList.Add("out:"+element.tagName); (118,13) outoverList.Add("over:" + element.tagName); As you can see i just add elements to collection everywhere. i havent remove elements code. Maybe i did something wrong you can look at screen capture: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Ei6dQnHCMIc I am newbie and often encounter with various problems but this bug looks mystic for me. P/S/ Sorry for english

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  • Problems in getting data from CFStreamCreatePairWithSocketToHost

    - by gkedmi
    Hi I'm building an iPhoe app with a socket to a PC app , I need to get an image from this PC app. It's my first time using "CFStreamCreatePairWithSocketToHost".After I establish the socket with "NSOperation" I call CFStreamClientContext streamContext = {0, self, NULL, NULL, NULL}; BOOL success = CFReadStreamSetClient(myReadStream, kMyNetworkEvents,MyStreamCallBack,&streamContext); CFReadStreamScheduleWithRunLoop(myReadStream, CFRunLoopGetCurrent(), kCFRunLoopDefaultMode); then I call CFWriteStreamWrite(myWriteStream, &writeBuffer, 3); // Open read stream. if (!CFReadStreamOpen(myReadStream)) { // Notify error } . . . while(!cancelled && !finished) { SInt32 result = CFRunLoopRunInMode(kCFRunLoopDefaultMode, 0.25, NO); if (result == kCFRunLoopRunStopped || result == kCFRunLoopRunFinished) { break; } if (([NSDate timeIntervalSinceReferenceDate] - _lastRead) MyConnectionTimeout) { // Call timed out cancelled = YES; break; } // Also handle stream status CFStreamStatus status = CFReadStreamGetStatus(myReadStream); } and then when I get "kCFStreamEventHasBytesAvailable" I use while (CFReadStreamHasBytesAvailable(myReadStream)) { CFReadStreamRead(myReadStream, readBuffer, 1000); //and buffer the the bytes } It's unpredictable , sometimes I get the whole picture , sometime I got just part of it , and I can't understand what make the different. can someone has an idea what is wrong here? thanks

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  • What is the best testing pattern for checking that parameters are being used properly?

    - by Joseph
    I'm using Rhino Mocks to try to verify that when I call a certain method, that the method in turn will properly group items and then call another method. Something like this: //Arrange var bucketsOfFun = new BucketGame(); var balls = new List<IBall> { new Ball { Color = Color.Red }, new Ball { Color = Color.Blue }, new Ball { Color = Color.Yellow }, new Ball { Color = Color.Orange }, new Ball { Color = Color.Orange } }; //Act bucketsOfFun.HaveFunWithBucketsAndBalls(balls); //Assert ??? Here is where the trouble begins for me. My method is doing something like this: public void HaveFunWithBucketsAndBalls(IList<IBall> balls) { //group all the balls together according to color var blueBalls = GetBlueBalls(balls); var redBalls = GetRedBalls(balls); // you get the idea HaveFunWithABucketOfBalls(blueBalls); HaveFunWithABucketOfBalls(redBalls); // etc etc with all the different colors } public void HaveFunWithABucketOfBalls(IList<IBall> colorSpecificBalls) { //doing some stuff here that i don't care about //for the test i'm writing right now } What I want to assert is that each time I call HaveFunWithABucketOfBalls that I'm calling it with a group of 1 red ball, then 1 blue ball, then 1 yellow ball, then 2 orange balls. If I can assert that behavior then I can verify that the method is doing what I want it to do, which is grouping the balls properly. Any ideas of what the best testing pattern for this would be?

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  • How would I go about sharing variables in a class with Lua?

    - by Nicholas Flynt
    I'm fairly new to Lua, I've been working on trying to implement Lua scripting for logic in a Game Engine I'm putting together. I've had no trouble so far getting Lua up and running through the engine, and I'm able to call Lua functions from C and C functions from Lua. The way the engine works now, each Object class contains a set of variables that the engine can quickly iterate over to draw or process for physics. While game objects all need to access and manipulate these variables in order for the Game Engine itself to see any changes, they are free to create their own variables, a Lua is exceedingly flexible about this so I don't forsee any issues. Anyway, currently the Game Engine side of things are sitting in C land, and I really want them to stay there for performance reasons. So in an ideal world, when spawning a new game object, I'd need to be able to give Lua read/write access to this standard set of variables as part of the Lua object's base class, which its game logic could then proceed to run wild with. So far, I'm keeping two separate tables of objects in place-- Lua spawns a new game object which adds itself to a numerically indexed global table of objects, and then proceeds to call a C++ function, which creates a new GameObject class and registers the Lua index (an int) with the class. So far so good, C++ functions can now see the Lua object and easily perform operations or call functions in Lua land using dostring. What I need to do now is take the C++ variables, part of the GameObject class, and expose them to Lua, and this is where google is failing me. I've encountered a very nice method here which details the process using tags, but I've read that this method is deprecated in favor of metatables. What is the ideal way to accomplish this? Is it worth the hassle of learning how to pass class definitions around using libBind or some equivalent method, or is there a simple way I can just register each variable (once, at spawn time) with the global lua object? What's the "current" best way to do this, as of Lua 5.1.4?

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  • (ASP.NET) Problem with a repeater nested in a repeater, how to know when it is a itemCommand?

    - by NoProblemBabe
    I have the following problem: Keeping in mind the following structure: <repeater> <updatepanel> <div> <link id="fatherLink" /> </div> <div> <repeater> <link id="childLink"/> </repeater> <div> </updatepanel> </repeater> right? I am using updatepanel, so, when i click in the fatherlink, i put a click method in the server side, so it populates it's child repeater. no problems in there, but I need that the childLink to perform a action on the server side, like take in account some data and then sending to a given page to do something else. When doing this I happen to notice that there are three situations: 1 - First server call, is not a postback it populates the father repeater (no problems here). 2 - Second server call, when the father link is clicked i populate the child repeater. Something like a "fatherLink_Click" function (no problems here). 3 - Third server call, when the child is clicked: i can't seem to know that it is the child's item command, so i can't stop it from databinding all over again, which kills my itemcommand event... (the problem). What can I do?

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  • GoDaddy Subdomain Hosting Issue/Question with Disk Access (C#/ASP.NET 3.5)

    - by Vogel
    This isn't a very complicated scenario really, but as I start to type out the problem I'm realizing how convoluted it can become textually. Let me try and be very clear: First, the set up... I have a C#/ASP.NET web application that is publicly facing on my main domain (www), let's call it www.mysite.com. Nothing fancy, just a front-end that connects to SQL to display records. Then, I have a second C#/ASP.NET web application that is secured using forms authentication running on a subdomain, let's call it admin.mysite.com. This is a very light-weight CMS system to administer the public site. Now, the problem... Both of these sites run fine for basic tasks, however, my problem arises when I try to gain access to the file system for uploading. GoDaddy requires subdomains to run as a virtual directories under the main application in IIS (so the subdomains actually resolve/re-direct to www.mysite.com/admin when you type in admin.mysite.com), but because of this I am unable to write to my website root from the subfolder. Let me explain a little more... The CMS system (running as a virtual directory) gives the admin the ability to upload photos for display on the main site, the target folder of which is www.mysite.com/images - when attempting disk access from the root app, I am able to write to the virtual directory, but cannot do the opposite -- that is, write to the root from the virtual directory, getting security violations. If I can only upload to the /admin/ virtual directory, the entire point is moot because it's a secured folder that the public can't see! The only solution I can think of is to upload the files to the /admin/ virtual directory, then call a URL in the root that moves files from /admin/ back to the root, but that is entirely ghetto. I hope this post makes sense. Anyone else experience anything like this? The bottom line is that it seems virtual directories ONLY have access to themselves, and not their parent directories, no matter what credentials are used. Thanks!

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  • Is ASP.NET MVC is really MVC? Or how to separate model from controller?

    - by Andrey
    Hi all, This question is a bit rhetorical. At some point i got a feeling that ASP.NET MVC is not that authentic implementation of MVC pattern. Or i didn't understood it. Consider following domain: electric bulb, switch and motion detector. They are connected together and when you enter the room motion detector switches on the bulb. If i want to represent them as MVC: switch is model, because it holds the state and contains logic bulb is view, because it presents the state of model to human motion detector is controller, because it converts user actions to generic model commands Switch has one private field (On/Off) as a State and two methods (PressOn, PressOff). If you call PressOn when it is Off it goes to On, if you call it again state doesn't change. Bulb can be replaced with buzzer, motion detector with timer or button, but the model still represent the same logic. Eventually system will have same behavior. This is how i understand classical MVC decomposition, please correct me if i am wrong. Now let's decompose it in ASP.Net MVC way. Bulb is still a view Controller will be switch + motion detector Model is some object that will just pass state to bulb. So the logic that defines behavior moves to controller. Question 1: Is my understanding of MVC and ASP.NET MVC correct? Question 2: If yes, do you agree that ASP.NET MVC is not 100% accurate implementation? And back to life. The final question is how to separate model from controller in case of ASP.NET MVC. There can be two extremes. Controller does basic stuff and call model to do all the logic. Another is controller does all the logic and model is just something like class with properties that is mapped to DB. Question 3: Where should i draw the line between this extremes? How to balance? Thanks, Andrey

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  • Adding custom methods to a subclassed NSManagedObject

    - by CJ
    I have a Core Data model where I have an entity A, which is an abstract. Entities B, C, and D inherit from entity A. There are several properties defined in entity A which are used by B, C, and D. I would like to leverage this inheritance in my model code. In addition to properties, I am wondering if I can add methods to entity A, which are implemented in it's sub-entities. For example: I add a method to the interface for entity A which returns a value and takes one argument I add implementations of this method to A, B, C, D Then, I call executeFetchRequest: to retrieve all instances of B I call the method on the objects retrieved, which should call the implementation of the method contained in B's implementation I have tried this, but when calling the method, I receive: [NSManagedObject methodName:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance I presume this is because the objects returned by executeFetchRequest: are proxy objects of some sort. Is there any way to leverage inheritance using subclassed NSManagedObjects? I would really like to be able to do this, otherwise my model code would be responsible for determining what type of NSManagedObject it's dealing with and perform special logic according to the type, which is undesirable. Any help is appreciated, thanks in advance.

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  • Writing language converter in ANTLR

    - by Stefan
    I'm writing a converter between some dialects of the same programming language. I've found a grammar on the net - it's complex and handles all the cases. Now I'm trying to write the appropriate actions. Most of the input is just going to be rewritten to output. What I need to do is parse function calls, do my magic (rename function, reorder arguments, etc) and write it. I'm using AST as output. When I come across a function call, I build a custom object structure (from classes defined in my target language), call the appropriate function and I have a string that represents the transformed function that I want to get. The problem is, what I'm supposed to do with that string? I'd like to replace the .text attribute of the enclosing rule, but setText() is only available on lexer rules and the rule's .text attribute is read-only. How to solve this problem? program : statement_list { output = $statement_list.text; } ; //... statement : expression_statement // ... ; expression_statement : function_call // ... ; function_call : ID '(' { /* build the object, assign name */ Function function = new Function(); //... } ( arg1 = expression { /* add first parameter */ } ( ',' arg2 = expression { /* add the rest of parameters */ } )* )? ')' { /* convert the function call */ string converted = Tools.Convert(function); // $setText(converted); // doesn't work // $functionCall.text = converted; // doesn't work } ;

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  • Overload Resolution and Optional Arguments in C# 4

    - by Dale McCoy
    I am working with some code that has seven overloads of a function TraceWrite: void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, string Data = ""); void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, bool LogToFileOnly, string Data = ""); void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, string PieceID, string Data = ""); void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, LogWindowCommandENUM LogWindowCommand, string Data = ""); void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, bool UserMessage, int UserMessagePercent, string Data = ""); void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, string PieceID, LogWindowCommandENUM LogWindowCommand, string Data = ""); void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, LogWindowCommandENUM LogWindowCommand, bool UserMessage, int UserMessagePercent, string Data = ""); (All public static, namespacing noise elided above and throughout.) So, with that background: 1) Elsewhere, I call TraceWrite with four arguments: string, LogLevelENUM, string, bool, and I get the following errors: error CS1502: The best overloaded method match for 'TraceWrite(string, LogLevelENUM, string, string)' has some invalid arguments error CS1503: Argument '4': cannot convert from 'bool' to 'string' Why doesn't this call resolve to the second overload? (TraceWrite(string, LogLevelENUM, string, bool, string = "")) 2) If I were to call TraceWrite with string, LogLevelENUM, string, string, which overload would be called? The first or the third? And why?

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  • PHP/Java Bridge - Access Java objects in PHP

    - by Omer Hassan
    I have a Red5 application which defines some public Java methods. When I start the server, an object of the application class gets created. I am trying to call the public methods of the application class from PHP using the existing instance of the Java application class. So here's my Java application: public class App extends org.red5.server.adapter.ApplicationAdapter { public boolean appStart(IScope app) { // This method gets called when the application starts // and an object of this App class is created. return true; } // This is the method I would like to call from PHP. public void f() { } } From PHP, I would like to get access to the App object that is created and call the method f() on it. I have tried playing around with this thing called "context". So in the Java method App.appStart(), I did this: // Save a reference to this App object to be retrieved later in PHP. new PhpScriptContextFactory().getContext().put("x", this); And in PHP, I tried to access the saved object like this: require_once("http://localhost:5080/JavaBridge/java/Java.inc"); var_dump(java_is_null(java_context()->get("x"))); Unfortunately, the java_is_null() function in PHP returns true. I also tried saving the App object in a static variable of App class but when I access that variable in PHP, its value is null.

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  • Rails named_scope across multiple tables

    - by wakiki
    I'm trying to tidy up my code by using named_scopes in Rails 2.3.x but where I'm struggling with the has_many :through associations. I'm wondering if I'm putting the scopes in the wrong place... Here's some pseudo code below. The problem is that the :accepted named scope is replicated twice... I could of course call :accepted something different but these are the statuses on the table and it seems wrong to call them something different. Can anyone shed light on whether I'm doing the following correctly or not? I know Rails 3 is out but it's still in beta and it's a big project I'm doing so I can't use it in production yet. class Person < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :connections has_many :contacts, :through => :connections named_scope :accepted, :conditions => ["connections.status = ?", Connection::ACCEPTED] # the :accepted named_scope is duplicated named_scope :accepted, :conditions => ["memberships.status = ?", Membership::ACCEPTED] end class Group < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :memberships has_many :members, :through => :memberships end class Connection < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :person belongs_to :contact, :class_name => "Person", :foreign_key => "contact_id" end class Membership < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :person belongs_to :group end I'm trying to run something like person.contacts.accepted and group.members.accepted which are two different things. Shouldn't the named_scopes be in the Membership and Connection classes? One solution is to just call the two different named scope something different in the Person class or even to create separate associations (ie. has_many :accepted_members and has_many :accepted_contacts) but it seems hackish and in reality I have many more than just accepted (ie. banned members, ignored connections, pending, requested etc etc)

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  • Passing data to a non-static listBox, by calling function from another class

    - by Andrew A
    I have a simple forms program that I have been fighting with for a while now. I simply want to be able to call a method from a different class file (when a certain step is triggered in the code in that class file) in order to insert a string in the listBox. Here is my main method, pretty standard: class Program { [STAThread] static void Main(string[] args) { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new MainForm()); } } Here is the function which resides in my MainForm.cs file, which I can call just fine from that class file (via 'TextToBox(myString);'): public partial class MainForm : Form { ... // Function to output results to main Listbox window public void TextToBox(string aString) { // Place messages in Main Display list box window this.listBox1.Items.Insert(0, aString); } ... } But my problem is when I am in another class and I want to call 'TextToBox(myString);'. If I create another object reference of the MainForm, the code compiles fine but nothing will show up in the listBox. How do I do this? I cannot simply make TextToBox() static. I know I must create the object reference but I can't figure out how to reference the ORIGINAL MainForm, the one that was created in the Main method. Thanks in advance...

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  • NHibernate: how to handle entity-based validation using session-per-request pattern, without control

    - by Seth Petry-Johnson
    What is the best way to do entity-based validation (each entity class has an IsValid() method that validates its internal members) in ASP.NET MVC, with a "session-per-request" model, where the controller has zero (or limited) knowledge of the ISession? Here's the pattern I'm using: Get an entity by ID, using an IFooRepository that wraps the current NH session. This returns a connected entity instance. Load the entity with potentially invalid data, coming from the form post. Validate the entity by callings its IsValid() method. If valid, call IFooRepository.Save(entity). Otherwise, display error message. The session is currently opened when the request begins and flushed when the request ends. Since my entity is connected to a session, flushing the session attempts to save the changes even if the object is invalid. What's the best way to keep validation logic in the entity class, limit controller knowledge of NH, and avoid saving invalid changes at the end of a request? Option 1: Explicitly evict on validation failure, implicitly flush: if the validation fails, I could manually evict the invalid object in the action method. If successful, I do nothing and the session is automatically flushed. Con: error prone and counter-intuitive ("I didn't call .Save(), why are my invalid changes being saved anyways?") Option 2: Explicitly flush, do nothing by default: By default I can dispose of the session on request end, only flushing if the controller indicates success. I'd probably create a SaveChanges() method in my base controller that sets a flag indicating success, and then query this flag when closing the session at request end. Pro: More intuitive to troubleshoot if dev forgets this step [relative to option 1] Con: I have to call IRepository.Save(entity)' and SaveChanges(). Option 3: Always work with disconnected objects: I could modify my repositories to return disconnected/transient objects, and modify the Repo.Save() method to re-attach them. Pro: Most intuitive, given that controllers don't know about NH. Con: Does this defeat many of the benefits I'd get from NH?

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  • multiple redirect??

    - by Ryan Pitts
    Ok, i won't go into the full details (too much to explain) but here is what i am trying to do. I have a button on a webpage (we'll call page-1) that links to a page (we'll call it page-2). This page opens in the same window. However, i need the page (page-2) that opens to open up a new window with another page (we'll call this one page-3) when it loads. So virtually when you click the initial button (on page-1) it will go to a new page (page-2) AND a window will open as well with a different page (page-3). This is where it gets tricky. I need page-2 to automatically redirect back to page-1 after it launches page-3. Is this possible and if so, how?? Could it be a JQuery thing? Please just give some answers...i know this is way crazy and a huge workaround - but this is my last resort for this particular website. I have to do it this way because of the lack of control over some of the code.

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  • How do I get LongVarchar out param from SPROC in ADO.NET 2.0 with SQLAnywhere 10?

    - by todthomson
    Hi All, I have sproc 'up_selfassessform_view' which has the following parameters: in ai_eqidentkey SYSKEY in ai_acidentkey SYSKEY out as_eqcomments TEXT_STRING out as_acexplanation TEXT_STRING  -  which are domain objects - SYSKEY is 'integer' and TEXT_STRING is 'long varchar'. I can call the sproc fine from iSQL using the following code: create variable @eqcomments TEXT_STRING; create variable @acexamples TEXT_STRING; call up_selfassessform_view (75000146, 3, @eqcomments, @acexamples); select @eqcomments, @acexamples;  - which returns the correct values from the DB (so I know the SPROC is good). I have configured the out param in ADO.NET like so (which has worked up until now for 'integer', 'timestamp', 'varchar(255)', etc): SAParameter as_acexplanation = cmd.CreateParameter(); as_acexplanation.Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; as_acexplanation.ParameterName = "as_acexplanation"; as_acexplanation.SADbType = SADbType.LongVarchar; cmd.Parameters.Add(as_acexplanation); When I run the following code: SADataReader reader = cmd.ExecuteReader(); I receive the following error: Parameter[2]: the Size property has an invalid size of 0. Which (I suppose) makes sense... But the thing is, I don't know the size of the field (it's just "long varchar" it doesn't have a predetermined length - unlike varchar(XXX)). Anyhow, just for fun, I add the following: as_acexplanation.Size = 1000; and the above error goes away, but now when I call: as_acexplanation.Value i get back a string of length = 1000 which is just '\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0...' (\0 repeated 1000 times). So I'm really really stuck... Any help one this one would be much appreciated. Cheers! ;) Tod T.

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  • jQuery date picker not persistant after AJAX

    - by ILMV
    So I'm using the jQuery date picker, and it works well. I am using AJAX to go and get some content, obviously when this new content is applied the bind is lost, I learnt about this last week and discovered about the .live() method. But how do I apply that to my date picker? Because this isn't an event therefore .live() won't be able to help... right? This is the code I'm using to bind the date picker to my input: $(".datefield").datepicker({showAnim:'fadeIn',dateFormat:'dd/mm/yy',changeMonth:true,changeYear:true}); I do not want to call this metho everytime my AJAX fires, as I want to keep that as generic as possible. Cheers :-) EDIT As @nick requested, below is my wrapper function got the ajax() method: var ajax_count = 0; function getElementContents(options) { if(options.type===null) { options.type="GET"; } if(options.data===null) { options.data={}; } if(options.url===null) { options.url='/'; } if(options.cache===null) { options.cace=false; } if(options.highlight===null || options.highlight===true) { options.highlight=true; } else { options.highlight=false; } $.ajax({ type: options.type, url: options.url, data: options.data, beforeSend: function() { /* if this is the first ajax call, block the screen */ if(++ajax_count==1) { $.blockUI({message:'Loading data, please wait'}); } }, success: function(responseText) { /* we want to perform different methods of assignment depending on the element type */ if($(options.target).is("input")) { $(options.target).val(responseText); } else { $(options.target).html(responseText); } /* fire change, fire highlight effect... only id highlight==true */ if(options.highlight===true) { $(options.target).trigger("change").effect("highlight",{},2000); } }, complete: function () { /* if all ajax requests have completed, unblock screen */ if(--ajax_count===0) { $.unblockUI(); } }, cache: options.cache, dataType: "html" }); } What about this solution, I have a rules.js which include all my initial bindings with the elements, if I were to put these in a function, then call that function on the success callback of the ajax method, that way I wouldn't be repeating code... Hmmm, thoughts please :D

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  • Multiple WCF calls for a single ASP.NET page load

    - by Rodney Burton
    I have an existing asp.net web application I am redesigning to use a service architecture. I have the beginnings of an WCF service which I am able to call and perform functions with no problems. As far as updating data, it all makes sense. For example, I have a button that says Submit Order, it sends the data to the service, which does the processing. Here's my concern: If I have an ASP.NET page that shows me a list of orders (View Orders page), and at the top I have a bunch of drop down lists for order types, and other search criteria which is populated by querying different tables from the database (lookup tables, etc). I am hoping to eventually completely decouple the web application from the DB, and use data contracts to pass information between the BLL, the SOA, and the web app. With that said, how can I reduce the # of WCF calls needed to load my "View Orders" page? I would need to make 1 call get the list of orders, and 1 call for each drop down list, etc because those are populated by individual functions in my BLL. Is it good architecture to create a web service method that returns back a specialized data contract that consists of everything you would need to display a View Orders page, in 1 shot? Something like this pseudocode: public class ViewOrderPageDTO { public OrderDTO[] Orders { get; set; } public OrderTypesDTO[] OrderTypes { get; set; } public OrderStatusesDTO[] OrderStatuses { get; set; } public CustomerListDTO[] CustomerList { get; set; } } Or is it better practice in the page_load event to make 5 or 6 or even 15 individual calls to the SOA to get the data needed to load the page? Therefore, bypassing the need for specialized wcf methods or DTO's that conglomerate other DTO? Thanks for your input and suggestions.

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  • Calling Java classes from IzPack

    - by bguiz
    I am trying to write an IzPack installer which is able to detect a previously installed version of the application. After finding out that it doesn't really support this feature, I think the only way to do this is through writing a Java class and calling it from IzPack. Tim Williscroft has previously suggested this method: <condition type="java" id="jbossEnv"> <java> <class>au.com.codarra.ela.installer.JBossChecker</class <field>hasJBossEnv</field> </java> <returnvalue type="boolean">true</returnvalue> </condition> However, is it possible to call <java> from somewhere other than a <condition> tag? I want to be able to call it from a <variable> tag. Also, is it possible to call a method from a Java class instead of reading a value of a field? I want to be able to pass parameters to my class. Thank you!

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