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• Problem Rendering SIFR with revision 436 on IE6 and IE7

  - by Mark

  Hi, I seem to have a problem with SIFR3. I'm using version 436 and from all my testing it appears to be a problem associated with IE6 and IE7 as I cannot replicate the issue in Firefox, Chrome, Safari for Windows, or even IE8. The problem is occurring on my company's website and can be seen here: http://www.wyldeia.co.uk/blog.php When you first go to the page in IE6 or IE7 it appears to render fine. However if you click away onto another page and then click the back button in the browser, all of the text is replaced by an error saying "Rendered with sIFR3 revision 436". If you refresh the page, then the problem goes away, that is until you browse away and come back again. I've tried this on two separate machines both running IE7.0.6000.16809, and a further separate machine running IE6 which I then upgraded to IE8. I thought initially it might be Flash player related but on upgrading from version 9 to 10 of the flash player the problem remains. Further digging around indicated that the error can be caused by having a corrupted flash font file, or having one present that was generated with a previous revision of SIFR3. However I have exported the flash font file using the supplied fla with revision 436 but the problem remains. Usually I like to track the answer down myself but as it is I'm at a bit of a loss on this one so if anyone has any ideas what might be happening here then I would be very grateful! Regards, Mark

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• Entity Data Model & DataGridView - Creating new objects

  - by AcousticBoom

  I'm pretty new to the EDM, so bear with me. I have a windows form that has a DataGridView on it that's bound from the EDM I created. I figured out how to update my changes fine, but it's when the user creates a new row that I'm having a problem. I tried numerous ways and many google searches, but came up with nothing so far. Here's how the data is loaded: Dim boilerID As Integer = DirectCast(ddlBoiler.SelectedValue, Integer) Dim countryID As Integer = DirectCast(ddlCountry.SelectedValue, Integer) Dim ratings = From r In _Context.Rating _ Where r.Boiler.Boiler_ID = boilerID _ And r.Country.Country_ID = countryID _ Order By r.Sequence _ Select r RatingBindingSource.DataSource = ratings.ToList() Also, all I'm doing to save the information right now is the following: Private Sub btnSave_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnSave.Click _Context.SaveChanges() End Sub I want the user to be able to use the grid's "new row" feature to add new items to the database instead of having to click a button and open a new dialog. How would this be accomplished? I can include some of the methods i tried for adding new items if anyone needs to see. Thanks!

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• Ajax actionlinks straight from a DropDownList

  - by Ingó Vals

  I've got a small linkbox on the side of my page that is rendered as a PartialView. In it I have a dropDownlist the should change the routing value of the links in the box but I'm having difficulty doing so. My current plan is to call on something similar to a Ajax.ActionLink to reload the partial view into the with a different parameter based on the value of the dropdown selection. However I'm having multiple problems with this, for example as a novice in using dropdownlists I have no idea how to call on the selected value for example. <%= Html.DropDownList("DropDownList1", new SelectList(Model, "ID", "Name"), "--Pick--", new { AutoPostBack = "true", onchange = "maybe something here" })%> I tried putting in the sys.mvc.AsyncHyperlink into the onchange attribute and that worked except I don't know how to put in the route value for it. Sys.Mvc.AsyncHyperlink.handleClick(this, new Sys.UI.DomEvent(event), { insertionMode: Sys.Mvc.InsertionMode.replace, updateTargetId: 'SmallMenu' } Is there no straight Ajax drop down list that fires events onchange? Any way this is possible? I have later in the Partial view the Ajax actionlinks but they need to have their id's updated by the value in the dropdownlist and if I could do that somehow else I would appreciate a suggestion.

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• codeigniter & cjax framework, fatal error class 'CI_Controller' not found

  - by Martin

  I'm having this weird error with Codeigniter 2.1.3 and latest cjax for codeigniter. Weird thing is, when I download the latest codeigniter, and latest cjax framework for codeitniger and copy to my friends server, and call: domain.com/ajax.php?test/test2 to show the test ajax examples ... it works like a breeze, but when I do this on my server, I get server error (even tho, we both have same php version and such). Server then throws in error log file this error: PHP Fatal error: Class 'CI_Controller' not found in /hosting/www/domain.com/www/application/response/test.php on line 3 Now, I've read thru stackoverflow with people having this problem and solving by changing the construct and calling CI_Controller instead of Controller. But I already do that ... - I mean it's in the basic example that is suppose to work without touching the code, and it does, just not on my domain for some crappy reason. Ajax.php from cjax framework for codeingter should load controller from folder response, named test and call function test2, which looks like this (the actual file named test.php): class Test extends CI_Controller { function __construct() { parent::__construct(); } /** * * ajax.php?test/test/a/b/c * * @param unknown_type $a * @param unknown_type $b * @param unknown_type $c */ function test($a = null,$b = null, $c = null) { $this->load->view('test', array('data' => $a .' '.$b.' '.$c)); } /** * ajax.php?test/test2 * * Here we are testing out the javascript library. * * Note: the library it is not meant to be included in ajax controllers - but in front-controllers, * it is being used here for the sake of simplicity in testing. */ function test2() { $ajax = ajax(); $ajax->update('response','Cjax Works'); $ajax->append('#response','<br /><br />version: '.$ajax->version); $ajax->success('Cjax was successfully installed.', 5); //see application/views/test2.php $this->load->view('test2'); } I was hoping someone could bring some light into this problem - or maybe someone has already experienced it? Thanks for your time! Mart

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• Making a Text-To-Speech Wrapper in Android

  - by John Montgomery

  I am attempting to create a wrapper class for Google Android's Text-To-Speech functionality. However, I'm having trouble finding a way to have the system pause until after the onInit function has finished. Attached at the bottom is something of a solution I created based on what I found here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1160876/android-speech-how-can-you-read-text-in-android However, this solution does not seem to work. Any thoughts on why this might not be working, or what would be a good idea in order to make sure that any Speak() calls happen after my onInit() call? public class SpeechSynth implements OnInitListener { private TextToSpeech tts; static final int TTS_CHECK_CODE = 0; private int ready = 0; private ReentrantLock waitForInitLock = new ReentrantLock(); SpeechSynth( Activity screen ) { ready = 0; tts = new TextToSpeech( screen, this ); waitForInitLock.lock(); } public void onInit(int status) { if (status == TextToSpeech.SUCCESS) { ready = 1; } waitForInitLock.unlock(); } public int Speak( String text ) { if( ready == 1 ) { tts.speak(text, TextToSpeech.QUEUE_ADD, null); return 1; } else { return 0; } } } I have been able to make it so that I can pass a string of text through the constructor, then have it played in the onInit() function. However, I would really like to avoid having to destroy and re-create the whole text-to-speech engine every time I need to have my program say something different.

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• Deleting a user > need to also delete their project, and then activities for that project? (PHP, MyS

  - by Jamie

  Hi guys, Really stuck with this... basically my system has 4 tables; users, projects, user_projects and activities. The user table has a usertype field which defines whether or not they are admin or user (by an integer)... An admin can create a project, create an acitivity for the project and assign a user (limited access user) an activity. Therefore, this setup means that an admin is never directly associated with an activity (instead a project). When my head admin user deletes an admin, I need all projects and activities (for their projects) to be deleted also. My delete script for a user is simple so far and works, but I'm having trouble on how to gain the projectID in order to know which activities to remove (associated with the projects which are about to be deleted): $userid = $_GET['userid']; $query = "DELETE FROM users WHERE userid=".$userid; $result = mysql_query($sql, $connection) or die("Error: ".mysql_error()); $query = "DELETE FROM projects WHERE userid=".$userid; $result = mysql_query($sql, $connection) or die("Error: ".mysql_error()); $query = "DELETE FROM userprojects WHERE userid=".$userid; $result = mysql_query($sql, $connection) or die("Error: ".mysql_error()); $query = "DELETE FROM activities WHERE projectid=".$projectid; $result = mysql_query($sql, $connection) or die("Error: ".mysql_error()); Now the first three queries execute fine, obviously because the userid is being retrieved successfully. However the 4th and final query I know is wrong, because there is no projectid to be gained from anywhere, however I put it there to help understand what I am trying to get!! :D Im guessing that i would need something like 'WHERE projectid=' then something to gather the removed projects from the userid which can be related to the activities for that project(s)!! Its a simple concept but I'm having trouble...please excuse any bad code as I am learning also. Thanks for any help!

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• How does Visual Studio decide the order in which stack variables should be allocated?

  - by Jason

  I'm trying to turn some of the programs in gera's Insecure Programming by example into client/server applications that could be used in capture the flag scenarios to teach exploit development. The problem I'm having is that I'm not sure how Visual Studio (I'm using 2005 Professional Edition) decides where to allocate variables on the stack. When I compile and run example 1: int main() { int cookie; char buf[80]; printf("buf: %08x cookie: %08x\n", &buf, &cookie); gets(buf); if (cookie == 0x41424344) printf("you win!\n"); } I get the following result: buf: 0012ff14 cookie: 0012ff64 buf starts at an address eighty bytes lower than cookie, and any four bytes that are copied in buf after the first eighty will appear in cookie. The problem I'm having is when I place this code in some other function. When I compile and run the following code, I get a different result: buf appears at an address greater than cookie's. void ClientSocketHandler(SOCKET cs){ int cookie; char buf[80]; char stringToSend[160]; int numBytesRecved; int totalNumBytes; sprintf(stringToSend,"buf: %08x cookie: %08x\n",&buf,&cookie); send(cs,stringToSend,strlen(stringToSend),NULL); The result is: buf: 0012fd00 cookie: 0012fcfc Now there is no way to set cookie to arbitrary data via overwriting buf. Is there any way to tell Visual Studio to allocate cookie before buf? Is there any way to tell beforehand how the variables will be allocated? Thanks, Jason

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• MySQL Relational Database Foreign Key

  - by user623879

  To learn databasing, I am creating a movie database. To associate multiple directors with a movie, I have the following schema: movie(m_ID, ....) m_director(dirID, dirName)//dirID is a autoincrement primary key m_directs(dirID, m_ID) //dirID, m_ID are set as foreign Keys in the mysql database(InnoDB engine) I have a program that connects to the db that needs to add a movie to the database. I can easily add a new entry to the movie table and the m_director table, but I am having trouble adding a entry in the m_directs table. INSERT INTO m_director (dirName) VALUES("Jason Reitman"); INSERT INTO m_directs (dirID, m_ID) VALUES(LAST_INSERT_ID(), "tt0467406"); I am using this sql statement to insert a new director and add the association to the movie. I know the primary key of the movie, but I don't know the dirID, so I use LAST_INSERT_ID() to get the last id of the director just inserted. The problem I am having is that I get the following error: MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlException (0x80004005): Cannot add or update a child row: a foreign key constraint fails (`siteproducts`. `m_directs`, CONSTRAINT `m_directs_ibfk_2` FOREIGN KEY (`dirID`) REFERENCES `m_directs` (`dirID`) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE CASCADE) Any ideas?

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• Cannot update a single field using Linq to Sql

  - by KallDrexx

  I am having a hard time attempting to update a single field without having to retrieve the whole record prior to saving. For example, in my web application I have an in place editor for the Name and Description fields of an object. Once you edit either field, it sends the new field (with the object's ID value) to the web server. What I want is the webserver to take that value and ID and only update the one field. There are only two ways google tells me to do this: 1) When I get the value I want to change, the value and the ID, retrieve the record from the database, update the field in the c# object, and then send it back to the server. I don't like this method because not only does it include a completely unnecessary database read call (which includes two tables due to the way my schema is). 2) Set UpdateCheck for all the fields (but the primary keys) to UpdateCheck.Never. This doesn't work for me (I think) due to my mapping layer between the Linq to Sql and my Entity/ViewModel layer. When I convert my entity into the linq to sql db object it seems to be updating those fields regardless of the UpdateCheck setting. This might be just because of integers, since not setting an int means it is a zero (and no, I can't use int? instead). Are there any other options that I have?

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• auto Focus (Hit Enter) Javascript function is working good in IE7 but not working in IE8

  - by James123

  Hi, I used a javascript FocusChange() in my aspx page. I have couple of controls and I need Hit enter key need to move next control based on tab index. It is working good in IE7 but not working in IE8... Please help me on this.. Thanks for your help in advance. The java script is given below. function FocusChange() { if (window.event.keyCode == 13) { var formLength = document.form1.length; // Get number of elements in the form var src = window.event.srcElement; // Gets the field having focus var currentTabIndex = src.getAttribute('tabindex'); // Gets its tabindex // scroll through all form elements and set focus in field having next tabindex for (var i = 0; i < formLength; i++) { if (document.form1.elements[i].getAttribute('tabindex') == currentTabIndex + 1) { for (var j = i; j <= formLength; j++) { if (document.form1.elements[j].disabled == false) { document.form1.elements[j].focus(); event.returnValue = false; event.cancel = true; return; } } } } } }

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• user input question

  - by jdbeverly87

  My program checks to test if a word or phrase is a palindrome (reads the same both backward and forward, ex "racecar"). The issue I'm having is after someone enters in "racecar" getting it to actually test. In the below code, I marked where if I type in "racecar" and run, Java returns the correct answer so I know I'm right there. But what am I missing as far as entering it into the console. I think my code is ok, but maybe I have something missing or in the wrong spot? Not really looking for a new answer unless I'm missing something, but if possible perhaps a pro at this moving my code to the correct area bc I'm stuck! `import java.util.*; public class Palindrome { public static void main(String[] args) { String myInput; Scanner in = new Scanner(System.in); System.out.println("Enter a word or phrase: "); **//this asks user for input but doesn't check for whether or not it is a palindrome** myInput = in.nextLine(); in.close(); System.out.println("You entered: " + myInput); } { String s="racecar"; **//I can type a word here and it works but I need** int i; **//I need it to work where I ask for the input** int n=s.length(); String str=""; for(i=n-1;i>=0;i--) str=str+s.charAt(i); if(str.equals(s)) System.out.println(s+ " is a palindrome"); else System.out.println(s+ " is not a palindrome"); } }` I'm new at programming so I'm hoping what I got is ok. I know the palindrome test works I'm just needing helping having it test thru where I'm entering it into the console. Thanks

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• Any way to avoid creating a huge C# COM interface wrapper when only a few methods needed?

  - by Paul Accisano

  Greetings all, I’m working on a C# program that requires being able to get the index of the hot item in Windows 7 Explorer’s new ItemsView control. Fortunately, Microsoft has provided a way to do this through UI Automation, by querying custom properties of the control. Unfortunately, the System.Windows.Automation namespace inexplicably does not seem to provide a way to query custom properties! This leaves me with the undesirable position of having to completely ditch the C# Automation namespace and use only the unmanaged COM version. One way to do it would be to put all the Automation code in a separate C++/CLI module and call it from my C# application. However, I would like to avoid this option if possible, as it adds more files to my project, and I’d have to worry about 32/64-bit problems and such. The other option is to make use of the ComImport attribute to declare the relevant interfaces and do everything through COM-interop. This is what I would like to do. However, the relevant interfaces, such as IUIAutomation and IUIAutomationElement, are FREAKING HUGE. They have hundreds of methods in total, and reference tons and tons of interfaces (which I assume I would have to also declare), almost all of which I will never ever use. I don’t think the UI Automation interfaces are declared in any Type Library either, so I can’t use TLBIMP. Is there any way I can avoid having to manually translate a bajillion method signatures into C# and instead only declare the ten or so methods I actually need? I see that C# 4.0 added a new “dynamic” type that is supposed to ease COM interop; is that at all relevant to my problem? Thanks

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• json_encode with mysql content and umlauts in utf-8

  - by i3rutus

  Hey, i feel my beard growing while trying to find out the Problem here. Basic the Problem is, that Umlauts/Special Signs äöß ... don't work. I guess everyone is sick and tired of that questions but all the solutions found online don't seem to work. Im having utf-8 content in a utf-8 Mysql Database. I feel the Problem ist somewhere in the Database connection but i just can't figure out. character_set_client utf8 character_set_connection utf8 character_set_database utf8 character_set_filesystem binary character_set_results utf8 character_set_server latin1 character_set_system utf8 Im not sure if the problem is the latin1 for character_set_server because im not into that mysql stuff. I also dont know how to change cause i can't access the mysql server's config files. Whatever is confusing me, that if i get my results from the Database and echo it, print_r gives the right result. ini_set('default_charset','utf-8'); header('Content-Type: text/plain; > charset=utf-8'); Firefox says char encode is utf-8 but if when i output: print_r($listnew); echo json_encode($listnew[5]); print_r results everything right but json_encode does wrong. print_r: [5] => Array ( [id] => 5 [data] => U-Bahnhof Theresienstraße [size] => 17 ) json_encode: {"id":5,"data":"U-Bahnhof Theresienstra\u00dfe","size":17} i know json_encode needs a utf-8 string to work properly there and i feel im having a encode trouble here but i just can't firgure out where it is. Any help would be appreciated, thanks in advance. i3

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• Parallel WCF calls to multiple servers

  - by gregmac

  I have a WCF service (the same one) running on multiple servers, and I'd like to call all instances in parallel from a single client. I'm using ChannelFactory and the interface (contract) to call the service. Each service has a local <endpoint> client defined in the .config file. What I'm trying to do is build some kind of generic framework to avoid code duplication. For example a synchronous call in a single thread looks something like this: Dim remoteName As String = "endpointName1" Dim svcProxy As ChannelFactory(Of IMyService) = New ChannelFactory(Of IMyService)(remoteName) Try svcProxy.Open() Dim svc As IMyService = svcProxy.CreateChannel() nodeResult = svc.TestRemote("foo") Finally svcProxy.Close() End Try The part I'm having difficulty with is how to specify and actually invoke the actual remote method (eg "TestRemote") without having to duplicate the above code, and all the thread-related stuff that invokes that, for each method. In the end, I'd like to be able to write code along the lines of (consider this psuedo code): Dim results as Dictionary(Of Node, ExpectedReturnType) results = ParallelInvoke(IMyService.SomeMethod, parameter1, parameter2) where ParallelInvoke() will take the method as an argument, as well as the parameters (paramArray or object() .. whatever) and then go run the request on each remote node, block until they all return an answer or timeout, and then return the results into a Dictionary with the key as the node, and the value as whatever value it returned. I can then (depending on the method) pick out the single value I need, or aggregate all the values from each server together, etc. I'm pretty sure I can do this using reflection and InvokeMember(), but that requires passing the method as a string (which can lead to errors like calling a non-existing method that can't be caught at compile time), so I'd like to see if there is a cleaner way to do this. Thanks

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• Automatic linebreak in WPF label

  - by Vlad

  Dear all, is it possible for a WPF Label to split itself automatically into several lines? In my following example, the text is cropped at the right. <Window x:Class="..." xmlns="..." xmlns:x="..." Height="300" Width="300"> <Grid> <Label> `_Twas brillig, and the slithy toves did gyre and gimble in the wabe: all mimsy were the borogoves, and the mome raths outgrabe.</Label> </Grid> </Window> Am I doing something wrong? Taking other controls is unfortunately not a good option, since I need support of access keys. Replacing the Label with a TextBlock (having TextWrapping="Wrap"), and adjusting its control template to recognize access keys would be perhaps a solution, but isn't it an overkill? Edit: having a non-standard style for label will break skinning, so I would like to avoid it if possible.

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• Iphone application crashes when poping to rootController of UITabBar tab

  - by sniurkst

  Hello, I'm having this bug I can't figure out and it is making my head hurt. So, basically, in my iphone application I have UITabBar with some tabs each having UINavigationControllers inside. Something like this: someViewController *someController = [[someViewController alloc] myInit]; UINavigationController *someNav = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:someController]; tab = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; tab.viewControllers = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:otherNav, otherNav, evilNav, nil]; [window addSubview:tab.view]; So to reproduce my "precious" bug I go like this: click evilNav tab -> push tableListView (category list) -> push otherTableListView (category items list) -> push someOtherView (single item) -> popToRoot || popToController withindex:0 || click on evilNav tab again || pop to otherTableListView -> pop to tableListView -> crash (with no notable error) So if I go so far to someOtherView I can't go back to first tableListView (rootViewController) without application crashing. Meanwhile I can go to other tabs and then even click evilNav (when it is in otherTableListView or someOtherView state) without crashing. What could be causing this problem? (If you need I will post more code)

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• How to explain to users the advantages of dumb primary key?

  - by Hao

  Primary key attractiveness I have a boss(and also users) that wants primary key to be sophisticated/smart/attractive control number(sort of like Social Security number, or credit card number format) I just padded the primary key(in Views) with zeroes to appease their desire to make the control number sophisticated,smart and attractive. But they wanted it as: first 2 digits as client code, then 4 digits as year year, then last 4 digits as transaction number on that client on a given year, then reset the transaction number of client to 1 when next year flows. Each client's transaction starts with 1. e.g. WM20090001, WM20090002, BB2009001, WM20100001, BB20100001 But as I wanted to make things as simple as possible, I forgo embedding their suggested smartness in primary key, I just keep the primary key auto increments regardless of client and year. But to make it not dull-looking(they really are adamant to make the primary key as smart control number), I made the primary key appears to them smart, on view query, I put the client code and four digit year code on front of the eight-zero padded autoincrement key, i.e. WM200900000001. Sort of slug-like information on autoincremented primary key. Keeping primary key autoincrement regardless of any other information, we are able keep other potential side effects problem when they edit a record, for example, if they made a mistake of entering the transaction on WM, then they edit the client code to BB, if we use smart primary key, the primary keys of WM customer will have gaps in their control number. Or worse yet, instead of letting the control numbers have gaps/holes, the user will request that subsequent records of that gap should shift up to that gap and have their subsequent primary keys re-adjust(decremented). How do you deal with these user requests(reasonable or otherwise)? Do you yield to their request? Or just continue using dumb primary key and explain them the repercussions of having a very smart/sophisticated primary key and educate them the significant advantages of having a dumb primary key? P.S. quotable quote(http://articles.techrepublic.com.com/5100-10878_11-1044961.html): "If you hold your tongue the first time users ask what is for them a reasonable request, things will work a lot better in the end."

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• File Format Conversion to TIFF. Some issues???

  - by Nains

  I'm having a proprietary image format SNG( a proprietary format) which is having a countinous array of Image data along with Image meta information in seperate HDR file. Now I need to convert this SNG format to a Standard TIFF 6.0 Format. So I studied the TIFF format i.e. about its Header, Image File Directories( IFD's) and Stripped Image Data. Now I have few concerns about this conversion. Please assist me. SNG Continous Data vs TIFF Stripped Data: Should I convert SNG Data to TIFF as a continous data in one Strip( data load/edit time problem?) OR make logical StripOffsets of the SNG Image data. SNG Data Header uses only necessary Meta Information, thus while converting the SNG to TIFF, some information can’t be retrieved such as NewSubFileType, Software Tag etc. So this raises a concern that after conversion whether any missing directory information such as NewSubFileType, Software Tag etc is necessary and sufficient condition for TIFF File. Encoding of each pixel component of RGB Sample in SNG data: Here each SNG Image Data Strip per Pixel component is encoded as: Out^[i] := round( LineBuffer^[i * 3] * **0.072169** + LineBuffer^[i * 3 + 1] * **0.715160** + LineBuffer^[i * 3+ 2]* **0.212671**); Only way I deduce from it is that each Pixel is represented with 3 RGB component and some coefficient is multiplied with each component to make the SNG Viewer work RGB color information of SNG Image Data. (Developer who earlier work on this left, now i am following the trace :)) Thus while converting this to TIFF, the decoding the same needs to be done. This raises a concern that the how RBG information in TIFF is produced, or better do we need this information?. Please assist...

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• OJB Reference Descriptor 1:0 relationship? Should I set auto-retrieve to false?

  - by godzillasdm

  Hi, I am having an issue while using Apache OJB with Spring 2 inside my web app. I'm using OJB reference-descriptor with 2 foreign key properties. I have an object A (parent) and object B (referenced object). The thing is, for an object A, there may or may not be an object B. In the case where there is no object B to go with Object A, the object B seems to be instantiated (through Spring?) anyways. However, I am unable to access object B's members. Whenever I test if Object B == null, it always returns false even though there is no matching value in the database. Since this Object is never null, I figured I can test the object's member like so: if( objectb.getDocumentNumber == null) { return false; } However, I get an exception in the jsp: javax.servlet.jsp.el.ELException: An error occurred while getting property "documentNumber" from an instance class org.sample.pojo.Objectb$$EnhancerByCGLIB$$78022a2 and this exception in the debugger when it's creating the objectB: com.sun.jdi.InvocationException occurred invoking method. I am guessing that the reference-descriptor must be a 1:1+ relationship, instead of a 1:0+ relationship. I was wondering if I should set the property 'auto-retrieve' to false, and then use the PersistenceBroker.retrieveAllReferences(Object obj); method as directed. However, this method's return value is 'void', so I am guessing that Spring somehow creates, and sets the reference class for me. (Returning me back to the same issue I'm having.) I will need a way to test whether the reference object exists first. If not, don't call this retrieveAllReferences method, but I don't see how. Am I going about this all wrong? Does reference-descriptor not allow 1:0 relations? Any work around to my problem? Your suggestions are greatly appreciated!

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• How to write an iphone application to control a device that exposes a telnet api

  - by MAC

  Hi! I have to write an iphone application that controls a device. This device exposes a telnet based interface. The application should ideally have user access control and customizability for each user. I was thinking of writing C++ classes that would communicate with the device using sockets. This functionality can then be exposed through web-services that can be called by the iphone application. However as i looked into it deeper, the api allows you to register for events using telnet and then you can receive notification when those events occur. That kinda put a spanner in the works for me. I for one dont know a "push" scenario can work with webservices. First off i have never programmed for the iphone so far. So i am not really sure what can be done. So i was thinking if instead of having a webserver to go through, why not have the application independently running on the iphone, directly communicating with the device using sockets. The question though is, is that possible and second i am thinking it would raise a security aspect. First we could control security as everything was going through our central server. Is there a way to handle security (in the sense who has access to the device) without having a central server. I am sorry that this seems like an unorganized post, but iam trying to brainstorm here. Looking forward to hear your opinions.

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• Getting a new session key after Facebook offline_access permission

  - by Richard

  I have a mobile application that I'm using with Facebook connect. I'm having trouble getting an offline_access session key after a user has granted extended permissions. Here's the user flow: User goes to my site for the first time I send them to m.facebook.com/tos.php? and pass my api key and secret The user logs in using Facebook connect Facebook returns them to a page in my site, mysite/login-success.php with an auth_token in the query string On mysite/login-success.php I instantiate the FB api client and check to see if I already have an offline_access session key for them: $facebook = new Facebook($appapikey, $appsecret); If they haven't already provided offline_access FB gives me a temporary session key I need to get offline_access permission from the user so I forward them on to www.facebook.com/connect/prompt_permissions.php? and pass offline_access in the querystring. The user authorizes offline_access and get forwarded to mysite/permissions-success.php The problem I'm having is that after instantiating the API client on permissions-success.php the session key I have is still the temporary session key, not a new offline_access session key. The only way I've found to get the offline_access key is to delete all cookies for the user and then have them login again using Facebook connect. A fairly poor user experience. Can anyone shed some light on how to use the Facebook api to generate a new session key even if one already exists (in my case a temporary session key)?

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• Java Classpath Issues with Webservices(CXF) and Jboss

  - by JohnC

  I am using CXF(which autogenerates my webservices in my pom.xml from my wsdl) with JBoss(eclipse ide), and I am having some trouble accessing the webservice from my web application. I found this resource: http://blog.progs.be/?p=92 but I am having a really hard time using WSDL_LOCATION = cl.getResource( "my/progam/pack/wsdl/myService.wsdl" ); to work properly in my code. I have my wsdls located in src/main/wsdl and have added the following line to the .classpath file: classpathentry kind="src" path="src/main/wsdl" I also created the folders my,program,pack,wsdl and dropped my wsdls into that location, so it is accessible. However, the classloader.getResource call always returns null no matter what. When I specify getResource( "/wsdl/myService.wsdl" ) it does not return null, but I believe it looks at the full file path and not what I need (considering part of the URL contains the path to the wsdl file all the way through the jboss server directory and includes the WEB-INF dir. Is my .classpath file set up incorrectly or am I missing something else? if the WSDL Location is not correct it always throws a ClassCast Exception like so: java.lang.ClassCastException: org.apache.cxf.jaxws.ServiceImpl at javax.xml.ws.Service.(Service.java:81)

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• Help with inner content box margins/padding

  - by Wolfgang

  I am working on a layout for a new site, and I'm having some trouble achieving what I want with the CSS. First of all, I want everything to always stay within the view of the current browser window, with scroll being in my content and not the browser itself. I have an outermost DIV which acts as my "wrapper" for the site displayed centered, with a set width, and having 100% height of the bowser window. Inside of this I place a header and all of this works as intended in all interested browsers. However, once I place my actual content DIV inside this "wrapper" I am unable to define it to be the size I want. If I simply give it margins or padding to make up for the header I have absolutely positioned, the content will overflow and I can't set scroll. And if I try to set the size directly, there are no values I can put in that will work since the margins/padding will add to the size and it will now be bigger than the current browser window, and overflow. Are there any styles people can think of I can use on the wrapper/content DIV(s) to get the desired look? Here is a diagram illustrating the look I want.

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• Rails: Should partials be aware of instance variables?

  - by Alexandre

  Ryan Bates' nifty_scaffolding, for example, does this edit.html.erb <%= render :partial => 'form' %> new.html.erb <%= render :partial => 'form' %> _form.html.erb <%= form_for @some_object_defined_in_action %> That hidden state makes me feel uncomfortable, so I usually like to do this edit.html.erb <%= render :partial => 'form', :locals => { :object => @my_object } %> _form.html.erb <%= form_for object %> So which is better: a) having partials access instance variables or b) passing a partial all the variables it needs? I've been opting for b) as of late, but I did run into a little pickle: some_action.html.erb <% @dad.sons.each do |a_son| %> <%= render :partial => 'partial', :locals => { :son => a_son } %> <% end %> _partial.html.erb The son's name is <%= son.name %> The dad's name is <%= son.dad.name %> son.dad makes a database call to fetch the dad! So I would either have to access @dad, which would be going back to a) having partials access instance variables or I would have to pass @dad in locals, changing render :partial to <%= render :partial = 'partial', :locals = { :dad = @dad, :son = a_son } %, and for some reason passing a bunch of vars to my partial makes me feel uncomfortable. Maybe others feel this way as well. Hopefully that made some sense. Looking for some insight into this whole thing... Thanks!

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• Jasper Reports and iReport issue

  - by William

  I am having an issue with JasperReports I can not solve. I am using Eclipse, OpenReports 3.2 and IReport 3.7 The issue I am having is that the report does nothing. When I preview the report in IReport I can at least get a "Document has no pages" message but when I try to open it using OpenReports it doesn't do anything. I get the open reports header and the copyright message but nothing between them. I was able to track it down to line 150 in ReportRunAction.java in OpenReports. That line is: jasperPrint = jasperEngine.fillReport(reportInput); At least that is the line the page dies on. I can't swear that the issue isn't that parameter. Through looking around all I have been able to find is something about how the report needs to be compiled with the same version of the jasperreports.jar that OpenReports uses. I have no idea how to tell if/what version of jasper reports is being bundled into the .jasper file though. Is that my problem? If so how do I tell/set the version of the jar that gets bundled? If not; help!

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