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  • Problem after dismissing a modal view used in conjunction with a uisplitviewcontroller

    - by user336274
    I'm having a hard time understanding why the following is happening (and how to fix it). I've created an application using the split-view based application. I've added a UiBarButtonItem called showTheModal which calls this method found in RootViewController.m: - (IBAction)showTheModal:(id)sender { theModalController.modalPresentationStyle = UIModalPresentationFullScreen; theModalController.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleCrossDissolve; [self presentModalViewController:theModalController animated:YES]; if ([detailViewController popoverController] != nil) [[detailViewController popoverController] dismissPopoverAnimated:YES]; The BarButtonItem of course, is shown at the bottom of the Default Root Controller (left side of the of the split view in landscape) or at the bottom of the popup (if in landscape). The modal view is dismissed by a button placed in a toolbar. It calls the following: [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated: YES]; The problem I'm having is if rotate the screen, while the modal is up. Here is what happens in different scenarios (start refers to the orientation when the showTheModal button is hit, end refers to the orientation when I hit the dismissModal button). 1)Start landscape, end landscape: Everything appears fine. willHideViewController and willShowViewController methods are not called in the RootViewController (as expected) 2) Start landscape, end portrait: UI appears fine. willHideViewController is run TWICE (WHY?) 3) Start portrait, end portrait: UI appears fine. willHideViewController is run once (as expected) 4) Start portrait, end landscape: The 'Root List' button remains in the detail view (right side of the split view. Neither willHideViewController and willShowViewController are invoked (WHY??) Any thoughts as to why #2 and #4 don't behave quite the expected way?

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  • singleton pattern in Windows Activation Service

    - by Joshua
    Hello I have a few WCF services that are currently being self hosted, in a very basic NT Service. I want to expand my application to add provisioning of WCF Services, and updates, as well as isolation (I want each WCF Service to be in its own AppDomain). These WCF Services contain logic that needs to be run on a regular basis, pinging the database, and getting information from external devices so that when a request comes in the data is readily available. I'm thinking about trying out Windows Activation Service, because i really like the provisioning, and isolation that comes with a managed services infrastructure. If I didn't use WAS I would essentially have to write the same code myself. From what I understand though WAS does not really support the model of having a service that is running before someone actually calls a method on the service. the article I read here MSDN Article Link states "That means in essence that out-of-the-box WAS hosting is not something that is really suited for sessionful or singleton services. It is more suitable for stateless per-call services." it does say that "Out of the box" so I'm wondering if anyone has used WAS to host a WCF service that really behaves more like an NT Service (starting and stopping independantly of having a method called upon it). Or any other ideas would be great. I was planning on writting this infrastructure myself, to host WCF services in a custom ServiceHost, and put their execution in a seporate AppDomain, as well as allow for provision of these services after initial installation, along with updates. However, I would MUCH MUCH MUCH rather not own that code if I don't have to. thanks Joshua

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  • window.onload seems to trigger before the DOM is loaded (JavaScript)

    - by Dr. Monkey
    I am having trouble with the window.onload and document.onload events. Everything I read tells me these will not trigger until the DOM is fully loaded with all its resources, it seems like this isn't happening for me: I tried the following simple page in Chrome 4.1.249.1036 (41514) and IE 8.0.7600.16385 with the same result: both displayed the message "It failed!", indicating that myParagraph is not loaded (and so the DOM seems incomplete). <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.1//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml11/DTD/xhtml11.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en"> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> window.onload = doThis(); // document.onload gives the same result function doThis() { if (document.getElementById("myParagraph")) { alert("It worked!"); } else { alert("It failed!"); } } </script> </head> <body> <p id="myParagraph">Nothing is here.</p> </body> </html> I am using more complex scripts than this, in an external .js file, but this illustrates the problem. I can get it working by having window.onload set a timer for half a second to run doThis(), but this seems like an inelegant solution, and doesn't answer the question of why window.onload doesn't seem to do what everyone says it does. Another solution would be to set a timer that will check if the DOM is loaded, and if not it will just call itself half a second later (so it will keep checking until the DOM is loaded), but this seems overly complex to me. Is there a more appropriate event to use?

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  • Eclipse PDE - Plug-in, Feature, and Product Versioning

    - by Michael
    I am having much confusion over the process of upgrading version numbers in dependent plug-ins, features, and products in a fairly large eclipse workspace. I have made API changes to java code residing in an existing plug-in and thus requires an increase of the Major part of the version identifier. This plug-in serves as a dependency to a given feature, where the feature is later included in a product. From the documentation at http://wiki.eclipse.org/Version_Numbering, I understand (for the most part) when the proper number should be increased on the containing plug-in itself. However, how would this Major version number change on the plug-in affect dependent, "down-the-line" items (e.g., features, products)? For example, assume we have the typical "Hello World" setup as follows: Plug-in: com.example.helloworld, version 1.0.0 Feature: com.example.helloworld.feature, version 1.0.0 Product: com.example.helloworld.product, version 1.0.0 If I were to make an API change in the plug-in, this would require a version update to be that of 2.0.0. What would then be the version of the feature, 1.1.0? The same question can be applied for the product level as well (e.g., if the feature is 1.1.0 OR 2.0.0, what is the product version number)? I'm sure this is quite the newbie question so I apologize for wasting anyone's time and effort. I have searched for this type of content but all I am finding is are examples showing how to develop a plug-in, feature, product, and update site for the first time. The only other content related to my search has been developing feature patches and have not touched on the versioning aspect as much as I would prefer. I am having difficulty coming into (for the first time) an Eclipse RCP / PDE environment and need to learn the proper way and / or best practices for making such versioning updates and how to best reflect this throughout other dependent projects in the workspace.

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  • Asp.Net MVC 2: How exactly does a view model bind back to the model upon post back?

    - by Dr. Zim
    Sorry for the length, but a picture is worth 1000 words: In ASP.NET MVC 2, the input form field "name" attribute must contain exactly the syntax below that you would use to reference the object in C# in order to bind it back to the object upon post back. That said, if you have an object like the following where it contains multiple Orders having multiple OrderLines, the names would look and work well like this (case sensitive): This works: Order[0].id Order[0].orderDate Order[0].Customer.name Order[0].Customer.Address Order[0].OrderLine[0].itemID // first order line Order[0].OrderLine[0].description Order[0].OrderLine[0].qty Order[0].OrderLine[0].price Order[0].OrderLine[1].itemID // second order line, same names Order[0].OrderLine[1].description Order[0].OrderLine[1].qty Order[0].OrderLine[1].price However we want to add order lines and remove order lines at the client browser. Apparently, the indexes must start at zero and contain every consecutive index number to N. The black belt ninja Phil Haack's blog entry here explains how to remove the [0] index, have duplicate names, and let MVC auto-enumerate duplicate names with the [0] notation. However, I have failed to get this to bind back using a nested object: This fails: Order.id // Duplicate names should enumerate at 0 .. N Order.orderDate Order.Customer.name Order.Customer.Address Order.OrderLine.itemID // And likewise for nested properties? Order.OrderLine.description Order.OrderLine.qty Order.OrderLine.price Order.OrderLine.itemID Order.OrderLine.description Order.OrderLine.qty Order.OrderLine.price I haven't found any advice out there yet that describes how this works for binding back nested ViewModels on post. Any links to existing code examples or strict examples on the exact names necessary to do nested binding with ILists? Steve Sanderson has code that does this sort of thing here, but we cannot seem to get this to bind back to nested objects. Anything not having the [0]..[n] AND being consecutive in numbering simply drops off of the return object. Any ideas?

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  • Silverlight 4 race condition with DataGrid master details control

    - by Simon_Weaver
    Basically I want a DataGrid (master) and details (textbox), where DataGrid is disabled during edit of details (forcing people to save/cancel)... Here's what I have... I have a DataGrid which serves as my master data. <data:DataGrid IsEnabled="{Binding CanLoad,ElementName=dsReminders}" ItemsSource="{Binding Data, ElementName=dsReminders}" > Its data comes from a DomainDataSource: <riaControls:DomainDataSource Name="dsReminders" AutoLoad="True" ... I have a bound Textbox which is the 'details' (very simple right now). There are buttons (Save/Cancel) which should be enabled when user tries to edit the text. Unfortunately Silverlight doesn't support UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged so I have to raise an event: <TextBox Text="{Binding SelectedItem.AcknowledgedNote, Mode=TwoWay, UpdateSourceTrigger=Explicit, ElementName=gridReminders}" TextChanged="txtAcknowledgedNote_TextChanged"/> The event to handle this calls BindingExpression.UpdateSource to update the source immediately: private void txtAcknowledgedNote_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { BindingExpression be = txtAcknowledgedNote.GetBindingExpression(TextBox.TextProperty); be.UpdateSource(); } IN other words - typing in the textbox causes CanLoad of the DomainDataSource to become False (because we're editing). This in turn disables the DataGrid (IsEnabled is bound to it) and enables 'Cancel' and 'Save' buttons. However I'm running up against a race condition if I move quickly through rows in the DataGrid (just clicking random rows). The TextChanged presumably is being called on the textbox and confusing the DomainDataSource which then thinks there's been a change. So how should I disable the DataGrid while editing without having the race condition? One obvious solution would be to use KeyDown events to trigger the call to UpdateSource but I always hate having to do that.

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  • Understanding CABasicAnimation when spinning an object from a random angle....

    - by user157733
    I have spent ages trying to figure this out and I am still having problems. I want to rotate an image a random number of time - say 5 and a bit - then have it stop. I then want to rotate it again FROM ITS STOPPED POSITION. I am having difficulty with this so maybe someone can advise me on the right way to do it. Ok so I am using a CABasicAnimation for the spin like this... CABasicAnimation* rotationAnimation; rotationAnimation = [NSNumber numberWithFloat: 0.0]; rotationAnimation.toValue = [NSNumber numberWithFloat: M_PI * 1.0]; rotationAnimation.duration = 100; rotationAnimation.cumulative = YES; rotationAnimation.repeatCount = 5.2; rotationAnimation.removedOnCompletion = NO; rotationAnimation.fillMode = kCAFillModeForwards; [myView.layer addAnimation:rotationAnimation forKey:@"rotationAnimation"]; This works fine. I use a animationDidStop function to transform the image to the new angle so that it actually in the new position (not just appearing that way). This is where my problems start. I have tried the following... removing the toValue line which means the animation starts from where it currently is but when the animation block is repeated it jumps back to this start position every time the block is run storing the value of the end rotation and using this in the toValue so the 2 lines of code become... rotationAnimation = [NSNumber numberWithFloat: previousVal]; rotationAnimation.toValue = [NSNumber numberWithFloat: (M_PI * 1.0)+previousVal]; when I do this the animation still jumps because it is flicking back to the previousVal everytime the block is repeated Therefore my final thought is to check to see if the image is at zero, if not then rotate it to zero, then impliment the block of code to spin multiple times. This seems complicated but is this the ONLY way to achieve this? I am concerned about getting the timings smooth with this method. Any suggestions would be amazing! Thanks

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  • Amazon S3 and swfaddress

    - by justinbach
    I recently migrated a large AS3 site (lots of swfs, lots of flvs) to Amazon S3. Pretty much everything but HTML and JS files is being stored/served from Amazon, and it's working well. The only problem I'm having is that I built the site using SWFaddress (actually, via the Gaia framework which uses SWFaddress), and for some reason, SWFaddress is no longer updating the address bar correctly as users navigate from page to page. In other words, the URL persistently remains http://www.mysite.com, not http://www.mysite.com/#/section as would be the case were SWFaddress functioning correctly (and as it was functioning prior to the migration). Stranger yet, if I go to (e.g.) http://www.mysite.com/#/section directly, the deeplinking functions as you'd expect--I arrive directly at the correct section. However, navigating away from that section doesn't have any effect on the address bar, despite the fact that it should be dynamically updated. I've got a crossdomain.xml file set up on the site that allows access from all domains, so that's not the issue, and I don't know what else might be. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated! P.S. I integrated S3 by putting pretty much the entire site in an S3 bucket and then just changing the initial swfobject embed to point to the S3 instance of main.swf, passing in the S3 path as the "base" param to the embedded swf so that all dynamically loaded assets and swfs would also be sourced from s3. Dunno if that's related to the troubles I'm having.

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  • extract specific element from nested elements using lxml html

    - by Dan.StackOverflow
    Hi all I am having some problems that I think can be attributed to xpath problems. I am using the html module from the lxml package to try and get at some data. I am providing the most simplified situation below, but keep in mind the html I am working with is much uglier. <table> <tr> <td> <table> <tr><td></td></tr> <tr><td> <table> <tr><td><u><b>Header1</b></u></td></tr> <tr><td>Data</td></tr> </table> </td></tr> </table> </td></tr> </table> What I really want is the deeply nested table, because it has the header text "Header1". I am trying like so: from lxml import html page = '...' tree = html.fromstring(page) print tree.xpath('//table[//*[contains(text(), "Header1")]]') but that gives me all of the table elements. I just want the one table that contains this text. I understand what is going on but am having a hard time figuring out how to do this besides breaking out some nasty regex. Any thoughts?

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  • Python metaclass for enforcing immutability of custom types

    - by Mark Lehmacher
    Having searched for a way to enforce immutability of custom types and not having found a satisfactory answer I came up with my own shot at a solution in form of a metaclass: class ImmutableTypeException( Exception ): pass class Immutable( type ): ''' Enforce some aspects of the immutability contract for new-style classes: - attributes must not be created, modified or deleted after object construction - immutable types must implement __eq__ and __hash__ ''' def __new__( meta, classname, bases, classDict ): instance = type.__new__( meta, classname, bases, classDict ) # Make sure __eq__ and __hash__ have been implemented by the immutable type. # In the case of __hash__ also make sure the object default implementation has been overridden. # TODO: the check for eq and hash functions could probably be done more directly and thus more efficiently # (hasattr does not seem to traverse the type hierarchy) if not '__eq__' in dir( instance ): raise ImmutableTypeException( 'Immutable types must implement __eq__.' ) if not '__hash__' in dir( instance ): raise ImmutableTypeException( 'Immutable types must implement __hash__.' ) if _methodFromObjectType( instance.__hash__ ): raise ImmutableTypeException( 'Immutable types must override object.__hash__.' ) instance.__setattr__ = _setattr instance.__delattr__ = _delattr return instance def __call__( self, *args, **kwargs ): obj = type.__call__( self, *args, **kwargs ) obj.__immutable__ = True return obj def _setattr( self, attr, value ): if '__immutable__' in self.__dict__ and self.__immutable__: raise AttributeError( "'%s' must not be modified because '%s' is immutable" % ( attr, self ) ) object.__setattr__( self, attr, value ) def _delattr( self, attr ): raise AttributeError( "'%s' must not be deleted because '%s' is immutable" % ( attr, self ) ) def _methodFromObjectType( method ): ''' Return True if the given method has been defined by object, False otherwise. ''' try: # TODO: Are we exploiting an implementation detail here? Find better solution! return isinstance( method.__objclass__, object ) except: return False However, while the general approach seems to be working rather well there are still some iffy implementation details (also see TODO comments in code): How do I check if a particular method has been implemented anywhere in the type hierarchy? How do I check which type is the origin of a method declaration (i.e. as part of which type a method has been defined)?

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  • Is possible to reuse subqueries?

    - by Gothmog
    Hello, I'm having some problems trying to perform a query. I have two tables, one with elements information, and another one with records related with the elements of the first table. The idea is to get in the same row the element information plus several records information. Structure could be explain like this: table [ id, name ] [1, '1'], [2, '2'] table2 [ id, type, value ] [1, 1, '2009-12-02'] [1, 2, '2010-01-03'] [1, 4, '2010-01-03'] [2, 1, '2010-01-02'] [2, 2, '2010-01-02'] [2, 2, '2010-01-03'] [2, 3, '2010-01-07'] [2, 4, '2010-01-07'] And this is want I would like to achieve: result [id, name, Column1, Column2, Column3, Column4] [1, '1', '2009-12-02', '2010-01-03', , '2010-01-03'] [2, '2', '2010-01-02', '2010-01-02', '2010-01-07', '2010-01-07'] The following query gets the proper result, but it seems to me extremely inefficient, having to iterate table2 for each column. Would be possible in anyway to do a subquery and reuse it? SELECT a.id, a.name, (select min(value) from table2 t where t.id = subquery.id and t.type = 1 group by t.type) as Column1, (select min(value) from table2 t where t.id = subquery.id and t.type = 2 group by t.type) as Column2, (select min(value) from table2 t where t.id = subquery.id and t.type = 3 group by t.type) as Column3, (select min(value) from table2 t where t.id = subquery.id and t.type = 4 group by t.type) as Column4 FROM (SELECT distinct id FROM table2 t WHERE (t.type in (1, 2, 3, 4)) AND t.value between '2010-01-01' and '2010-01-07') as subquery LEFT JOIN table a ON a.id = subquery.id

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  • Why does VBA Find loop fail when called from Evaluate?

    - by Abiel
    I am having some problems running a find loop inside of a subroutine when the routine is called using the Application.Evaluate or ActiveSheet.Evaluate method. For example, in the code below, I define a subroutine FindSub() which searches the sheet for a string "xxx". The routine CallSub() calls the FindSub() routine using both a standard Call statement and Evaluate. When I run Call FindSub, everything will work as expected: each matching address gets printed out to the immediate window and we get a final message "Finished up" when the code is done. However, when I do Application.Evaluate "FindSub()", only the address of the first match gets printed out, and we never reach the "Finished up" message. In other words, an error is encountered after the Cells.FindNext line as the loop tries to evaluate whether it should continue, and program execution stops without any runtime error being printed. I would expect both Call FindSub and Application.Evaluate "FindSub()" to yield the same results in this case. Can someone explain why they do not, and if possible, a way to fix this? Thanks. Note: In this example I obviously do not need to use Evaluate. This version is simplified to just focus on the particular problem I am having in a more complex situation. Sub CallSub() Call FindSub Application.Evaluate "FindSub()" End Sub Sub FindSub() Dim rngFoundCell As Range Dim rngFirstCell As Range Set rngFoundCell = Cells.Find(What:="xxx", after:=ActiveCell, LookIn:=xlValues, _ LookAt:=xlPart, SearchOrder:=xlByRows, SearchDirection:=xlNext, _ MatchCase:=False, SearchFormat:=False) If Not rngFoundCell Is Nothing Then Set rngFirstCell = rngFoundCell Do Debug.Print rngFoundCell.Address Set rngFoundCell = Cells.FindNext(after:=rngFoundCell) Loop Until (rngFoundCell Is Nothing) Or (rngFoundCell.Address = rngFirstCell.Address) End If Debug.Print "Finished up" End Sub

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  • How can I write classes that don't rely on "global" variables?

    - by Joel
    When I took my first programming course in university, we were taught that global variables were evil & should be avoided at all cost (since you can quickly develop confusing and unmaintainable code). The following year, we were taught object oriented programming, and how to create modular code using classes. I find that whenever I work with OOP, I use my classes' private variables as global variables, i.e., they can be (and are) read and modified by any function within the class. This isn't really sitting right with me, as it seems to introduce the same problems global variables had in languages like C. So I guess my question is, how do I stop writing classes with "global" variables? Would it make more sense to pretend I'm writing in a functional language? By this I mean having all functions take parameters & return values instead of directly modifying class variables. If I need to set any fields, I can just take the output of the function and assign it instead of having the function do it directly. This seems like it might make more maintainable code, at least for larger classes. What's common practice? Thanks!

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  • Java design: too many getters

    - by dege
    After writing a few lesser programs when learning Java the way I've designed the programs is with Model-View-Control. With using MVC I have a plethora of getter methods in the model for the view to use. It feels that while I gain on using MVC, for every new value added I have to add two new methods in the model which quickly get all cluttered with getter & setters. So I was thinking, maybe I should use the notifyObserver method that takes an argument. But wouldn't feel very smart to send every value by itself either so I figured, maybe if I send a kind of container with all the values, preferably only those that actually changed. What this would accomplish would be that instead of having a whole lot of getter methods I could just have one method in the model which put all relevant values in the container. Then in the view I would have a method called from the update which extracted the values from the container and assigning them to the correct fields. I have two questions concerning this. First: is this actually a viable way to do this. Would you recommend me doing something along these lines? Secondly: if I do use this plan and I don't want to keep sending fields that didn't actually change. How would I handle that without having to have if statements to check if the value is not null for every single value?

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  • Access SSAS cube from across domains without direct database connection

    - by SuperKing
    Hello, I'm working with SQL Server Analysis Services for the first time and have the dilemma of working on a project in which users must be able to access SSAS Cubes (via a custom web dashboard) that live across different servers and domains, but without having access to the other server's SSAS database connection strings. So Organization A and Organization B will have their own cubes on their own servers, but Organization A users must be able to view Organization B's cubes, and Organization B users must be able to view Organization A's cubes, but neither organization should have access to the connection string. I've read about allowing HTTP access to the SSAS server and cube from the link below, but that requires setting up users for authentication or allowing anonymous access to one organization's server for users of another organization, and I'm not sure this would be acceptable for this situation, or if this is the preferred way to do this. Is performance acceptable here? http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc917711.aspx I also wonder if perhaps it makes sense to run a nightly/weekly process that accesses the other organization's SSAS database via a web service or something, and pull that data into a database on the organization's server, and then rebuild the cube. Then that cube would be queried without having to go and connect to the other organization server when viewing the cube. Has anyone else attempted to accomplish something similar? Is HTTP access the standard way to go for this? Or any other possible options? Thanks, and please let me know if you need more info, still unclear on how some of this works.

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  • Implementing IDisposable on a subclass when the parent also implements IDisposable

    - by Tanzelax
    I have a parent and child class that both need to implement IDisposable. Where should virtual (and base.Dispose()?) calls come into play? When I just override the Dispose(bool disposing) call, it feels really strange stating that I implement IDisposable without having an explicit Dispose() function (just utilizing the inherited one), but having everything else. What I had been doing (trivialized quite a bit): internal class FooBase : IDisposable { Socket baseSocket; private void SendNormalShutdown() { } public void Dispose() { Dispose(true); GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } private bool _disposed = false; protected virtual void Dispose(bool disposing) { if (!_disposed) { if (disposing) { SendNormalShutdown(); } baseSocket.Close(); } } ~FooBase() { Dispose(false); } } internal class Foo : FooBase, IDisposable { Socket extraSocket; private bool _disposed = false; protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) { if (!_disposed) { extraSocket.Close(); } base.Dispose(disposing); } ~Foo() { Dispose(false); } }

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  • How to create reactive tasks for programming competitions?

    - by directx
    A reactive task is sometimes seen in the IOI programming competition. Unlike batch tasks, reactive solutions take input from another program as well as outputting it. The program typically 'query' the judge program a certain number of times, then output a final answer. An example The client program accepts lines one by one, and simply echoes it back. When it encountered a line with "done", it exists immediately. The client program in Java looks like this: import java.util.*; class Main{ public static void main (String[] args){ Scanner in = new Scanner(System.in); String s; while (!(s=in.nextLine()).equals("done")) System.out.println(s); } } The judge program gives the input and processes output from the client program. In this example, it feeds it a predefined input and checks if the client program has echoed it back correctly. A session might go like this: Judge Client ------------------ Hello Hello World World done I'm having trouble writing the judge program and having it judge the client program. I'd appreciate if someone could write a judge program for my example.

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  • jQuery1.4.2 $.ajax crashes IE6/7

    - by Kenny Eliasson
    Hello there! I'm having a really hard time debugging one of our latest reported bugs. The problem occurs "randomly", not on every page load, sometimes I can "click" around for a minute or two before IE6/7 crashes. By crash I mean that the IE-window shuts down and I get the option to send the crash info to Microsoft. In FF, Chrome, Safari, IE8 everything is working perfectly. What the page does is issuing 2 AJAX Jsonp calls and building some menus with the data returned. The data brought back can be from ~500b to approx. 35kb. The JSON is valid (else it wouldn't have loaded at all in FF etc), and as i told previous, it works for when navigating around the site soemtimes in IE6/7. I've tested to comment out the callbacks, still crashes. If I remove the $.ajax calls the page will work again. Whats strange is that if I downgrade to jQuery 1.3.2 everything works in all browsers including IE6/7. I've taken the crash-logs and looked at them in WinDbg and what happens seems to be a NULL POINTER reference. The last entries of the stack trace is as follows mshtml!CTreePos::SourceIndex+0x9 mshtml!CMarkup::InsertElementInternal+0x3a8 mshtml!CDoc::InsertElement+0x98 mshtml!CDocument::get_implementation+0x144 Anyone having a clue what could cause this?

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  • Should I store generated code in source control

    - by Ron Harlev
    This is a debate I'm taking a part in. I would like to get more opinions and points of view. We have some classes that are generated in build time to handle DB operations (in This specific case, with SubSonic, but I don't think it is very important for the question). The generation is set as a pre-build step in Visual Studio. So every time a developer (or the official build process) runs a build, these classes are generated, and then compiled into the project. Now some people are claiming, that having these classes saved in source control could cause confusion, in case the code you get, doesn't match what would have been generated in your own environment. I would like to have a way to trace back the history of the code, even if it is usually treated as a black box. Any arguments or counter arguments? UPDATE: I asked this question since I really believed there is one definitive answer. Looking at all the responses, I could say with high level of certainty, that there is no such answer. The decision should be made based on more than one parameter. Reading the answers below could provide a very good guideline to the types of questions you should be asking yourself when having to decide on this issue. I won't select an accepted answer at this point for the reasons mentioned above.

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  • jQuery ajax call doesn't seem to do anything at all

    - by icemanind
    I am having a problem with making an ajax call in jQuery. Having done this a million times, I know I am missing something really silly here. Here is my javascript code for making the ajax call: function editEmployee(id) { $('#<%= imgNewEmployeeWait.ClientID %>').hide(); $('#divAddNewEmployeeDialog input[type=text]').val(''); $('#divAddNewEmployeeDialog select option:first-child').attr("selected", "selected"); $('#divAddNewEmployeeDialog').dialog('open'); $('#createEditEmployeeId').text(id); var inputEmp = {}; inputEmp.id = id; var jsonInputEmp = JSON.stringify(inputEmp); debugger; alert('Before Ajax Call!'); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Configuration.aspx/GetEmployee", data: jsonInputEmp, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { alert('success'); }, error: function (msg) { alert('failure'); } }); } Here is my CS code that is trying to be called: [WebMethod] public static string GetEmployee(int id) { var employee = new Employee(id); return Newtonsoft.Json.JsonConvert.SerializeObject(employee, Newtonsoft.Json.Formatting.Indented); } When I try to run this, I do get the alert that says Before Ajax Call!. However, I never get an alert back that says success or an alert that says failure. I did go into my CS code and put a breakpoint on the GetEmployee method. The breakpoint did hit, so I know jQuery is successfully calling the method. I stepped through the method and it executed just fine with no errors. I can only assume the error is happening when the jQuery ajax call is returning from the call. Also, I looked in my event logs just to make sure there wasn't an ASPX error occurring. There is no error in the logs. I also looked at the console. There are no script errors. Anyone have any ideas what I am missing here? `

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  • App session cookie not being created in Rails, sporadically

    - by James
    Hi everyone, This is an issue sporadically for very few users, however we haven't been able to replicate it. However I have now got a Chrome instance (Mac) which is reproducing the error (for some unknown reason), and I hope to not restart it until I have this nailed! Rails application, using memcached for session store. While the bug manifests in the _app_session_id cookie not being created, our javascript-generated cookie test and app-generated language cookies are being created successfully. This means that InvalidAuthenticityToken errors are thrown for every form that is submitted by those afflicted - people can't log into the app. The error occurs across all browsers - had reports for IE7 and Firefox (which most users use). Switching to another browser often fixes the issue (though not always), and standard cache-cookie-clear tactics do not. So now that I have got Chrome open which is having the same issue - in development, staging and live environments (meaning http and https). All other browsers are fine. I've restarted the servers and restarted memcached. I don't really want to restart Chrome - in the risk that the issue does go away with that (having said that, it hasn't worked for users). I've been tcpdumping the requests - and although I'll keep digging, I'd love it if anyone had any suggestions, places to start looking, anything. This is really painful ;) Thanks!

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  • To have an Integer pointing to 3 ordered lists in Java

    - by Masi
    Which datastructure would you use in the place of X to have efficient merges, sorts and additions as described below? #1 Possible solution: one HashMap to X -datastructure Having a HashMap pointing from fileID to some datastructure linking word, wordCount and wordID may be a good solution. However, I have not found a way to implement it. I am not allowed to use Postgres or any similar tool to keep my data neutralized. I want to have efficient merges, sorts and additions according to fileID, wordID or wordCount for the type below. I have the type Words which has th field fileID that points to a list of words and to relating pieces of information: The Type class Words =================================== fileID: int [list of words] : ArrayList [list of wordCounts] : ArrayList [list of wordIDs] : ArrayList Example of the data in fileID word wordCount wordID instance1 of words 1 He 123 1111 1 llo 321 2 instance2 of words 2 Van 213 666 2 cou 777 932 Example of needed merge fileID wordID fileID wordID 1 2 1 3 wordID=2 2 2 ========> 1 2 2 3 2 2 I cannot see any usage of set-operations such as intersections here because order is needed. Having about three HashMaps makes sorting difficult: from word to wordID in a given fileID from wordID to fileID from wordID to wordCount in a given fileID

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  • TDD test data loading methods

    - by Dave Hanson
    I am a TDD newb and I would like to figure out how to test the following code. I am trying to write my tests first, but I am having trouble for creating a test that touches my DataAccessor. I can't figure out how to fake it. I've done the extend the shipment class and override the Load() method; to continue testing the object. I feel as though I end up unit testing my Mock objects/stubs and not my real objects. I thought in TDD the unit tests were supposed to hit ALL of the methods on the object; however I can never seem to test that Load() code only the overriden Mock Load My tests were write an object that contains a list of orders based off of shipment number. I have an object that loads itself from the database. public class Shipment { //member variables protected List<string> _listOfOrders = new List<string>(); protected string _id = "" //public properties public List<string> ListOrders { get{ return _listOfOrders; } } public Shipment(string id) { _id = id; Load(); } //PROBLEM METHOD // whenever I write code that needs this Shipment object, this method tries // to hit the DB and fubars my tests // the only way to get around is to have all my tests run on a fake Shipment object. protected void Load() { _listOfOrders = DataAccessor.GetOrders(_id); } } I create my fake shipment class to test the rest of the classes methods .I can't ever test the Real load method without having an actual DB connection public class FakeShipment : Shipment { protected new void Load() { _listOfOrders = new List<string>(); } } Any thoughts? Please advise. Dave

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  • How to make comment reply query in MYSQL?

    - by Prashant
    I am having comment reply (only till one level) functionality. All comments can have as many as replies but no replies can have their further replies. So my database table structure is like below Id ParentId Comment 1 0 this is come sample comment text 2 0 this is come sample comment text 3 0 this is come sample comment text 4 1 this is come sample comment text 5 0 this is come sample comment text 6 3 this is come sample comment text 7 1 this is come sample comment text In the above structures, commentid, 1 (has 2 replies) and 3 (1 reply) has replies. So to fetch the comments and their replies, one simple method is first I fetch all the comments having ParentId as 0 and then by running a while loop fetch all the replies of that particular commentId. But that seems to be running hundreds of queries if I'll have around 200 comments on a particular record. So I want to make a query which will fetch Comments with their replies sequentially as following; Id ParentId Comment 1 0 this is come sample comment text 4 1 this is come sample comment text 7 1 this is come sample comment text 2 0 this is come sample comment text 3 0 this is come sample comment text 6 3 this is come sample comment text 5 0 this is come sample comment text I also have a comment date column in my comment table, if anyone wants to use this with comment query. So finally I want to fetch all the comments and their replies by using one single mysql query. Please tell me how I can do that? Thanks

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  • Problem creating checklist (similar to TouchCells sample code) app for iPhone. Random cells get chec

    - by Jonah
    I've been having a problem creating a checklist in the style of the TouchCells example from the Apple sample code. Basically, it is a table that allows multiple selection of its items and gives each selected item a check mark. The problem I'm having is that when I select an item and then scroll down the screen, another item (off the screen) will randomly be selected. It seems that it is usually the next cell to be loaded on the screen. I couldn't figure out what I was doing wrong so I tested it with Apple's TouchCells code. In their program though, they only have 6 cells and there is no room to scroll. So, I duplicated some of the items from the plist file to make more cells and... the same problem pops up. If you select a cell and then scroll, another cell will randomly be selected. Update I recently tried the iPhone Dev Cookbook sample code named "Checks" and... you guessed it, the same problem. Here's the link: http://code.google.com/p/cookbooksamples/downloads/list This is driving me nuts. Is it a bug or am I doing something wrong? Does anyone know how to fix this? Thanks! Also, does anyone know of any sample code that shows how to do this?

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