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• How to get a physics engine like Nape working?

  - by Glacius

  Introduction: I think Nape is a relatively new engine so some of you may not know it. It's supposedly faster than box2d and I like that there is decent documentation. Here's the site: http://code.google.com/p/nape/ I'm relatively new to programming. I am decent at AS3's basic functionality, but every time I try to implement some kind of engine or framework I can't even seem to get it to work. With Nape I feel I got a little further than before but I still got stuck. My problem: I'm using Adobe CS5, I managed to import the SWC file like described here. Next I tried to copy the source of one of the demo's like this one and get it to work but I keep getting errors. I made a new class file, copied the demo source to it, and tried to add it to the stage. My stage code basically looks like this: import flash.Boot; // these 2 lines are as described in the tutorial new Boot(); var demo = new Main(); // these 2 are me guessing what I'm supposed to do addChild(demo); Well, it seems the source code is not even being recognized by flash as a valid class file. I tried editing it, but even if I get it recognized (give a package name and add curly brackets) but I still get a bunch of errors. Is it psuedo code or something? What is going on? My goal: I can imagine I'm going about this the wrong way. So let me explain what I'm trying to achieve. I basically want to learn how to use the engine by starting from a simple basic example that I can edit and mess around with. If I can't even get a working example then I'm unable to learn anything. Preferably I don't want to start using something like FlashDevelop (as I'd have to learn how to use the program) but if it can't be helped then I can give it a try. Thank you.

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• Openlayers and Bing Maps (POLYGONS)

  - by Jordan

  When trying to draw polygons onto a bing map, the initial marker is set differently on the map. How can I fix this? OpenLayers Bing Example <script src="OpenLayers.js"></script> <script> var map; function init(){ map = new OpenLayers.Map("map"); map.addControl(new OpenLayers.Control.LayerSwitcher()); var shaded = new OpenLayers.Layer.VirtualEarth("Shaded", { type: VEMapStyle.Shaded }); var hybrid = new OpenLayers.Layer.VirtualEarth("Hybrid", { type: VEMapStyle.Hybrid }); var aerial = new OpenLayers.Layer.VirtualEarth("Aerial", { type: VEMapStyle.Aerial }); var POLY_LAYER = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector(); map.addLayers([shaded, hybrid, aerial, POLY_LAYER]); map.setCenter(new OpenLayers.LonLat(-110, 45), 3); var polygon = new OpenLayers.Control.DrawFeature(POLY_LAYER, OpenLayers.Handler.Polygon); map.addControl(polygon); polygon.activate(); } </script> Bing Example <div id="tags"> Bing, Microsoft, Virtual Earth </div> <p id="shortdesc"> Demonstrates the use of Bing layers. </p> <div id="map" class="smallmap"></div> <div id="docs">This example demonstrates the ability to create layers using tiles from Bing maps.</div> Of course the above is being initialized and page works. You can draw the polygon shapes. Notice if you zoom in or out one time, the markers are set at the correct coordinates. My app I was testing this on is really using the bing maps API keys and not VirtualEarth. But it's doing a similar thing. Is this an Openlayers bug? The below source came directly from the open layers example site, I just added and activated polygons to the map. Please let me know how I can fix this for using the Bing Map API.. I've been stuck on this for HOURS! :(

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• Route Angular to New Controller after Login

  - by MizAkita

  I'm kind of stuck on how to route my angular app to a new controller after login. I have a simple app, that uses 'loginservice'... after logging in, it then routes to /home which has a different template from the index.html(login page). I want to use /home as the route that displays the partial views of my flightforms controllers. What is the best way to configure my routes so that after login, /home is the default and the routes are called into that particular templates view. Seems easy but I keep getting the /login page when i click on a link which is suppose to pass the partial view into the default.html template: var app= angular.module('myApp', ['ngRoute']); app.config(['$routeProvider', function($routeProvider) { $routeProvider.when('/login', { templateUrl: 'partials/login.html', controller: 'loginCtrl' }); $routeProvider.when('/home', { templateUrl: 'partials/default.html', controller: 'defaultCtrl' }); }]); flightforms.config(['$routeProvider', function($routeProvider){ //sub pages $routeProvider.when('/home', { templateUrl: 'partials/default.html', controller: 'defaultCtrl' }); $routeProvider.when('/status', { templateUrl: 'partials/subpages/home.html', controller: 'statusCtrl' }); $routeProvider.when('/observer-ao', { templateUrl: 'partials/subpages/aobsrv.html', controller: 'obsvaoCtrl' }); $routeProvider.when('/dispatch', { templateUrl: 'partials/subpages/disp.html', controller: 'dispatchCtrl' }); $routeProvider.when('/fieldmgr', { templateUrl: 'partials/subpages/fieldopmgr.html', controller: 'fieldmgrCtrl' }); $routeProvider.when('/obs-backoffice', { templateUrl: 'partials/subpages/obsbkoff.html', controller: 'obsbkoffCtrl' }); $routeProvider.when('/add-user', { templateUrl: 'partials/subpages/users.html', controller: 'userCtrl' }); $routeProvider.otherwise({ redirectTo: '/status' }); }]); app.run(function($rootScope, $location, loginService) { var routespermission=['/home']; //route that require login $rootScope.$on('$routeChangeStart', function(){ if( routespermission.indexOf($location.path()) !=-1) { var connected=loginService.islogged(); connected.then(function(msg) { if(!msg.data) $location.path('/login'); }); } }); }); and my controllers are simple. Here's a sample of what they look like: var flightformsControllers = angular.module('flightformsController', []); flightforms.controller('fieldmgrCtrl', ['$scope','$http','loginService', function($scope,loginService) { $scope.txt='You are logged in'; $scope.logout=function(){ loginService.logout(); } }]); Any ideas on how to get my partials to display in the /home default.html template would be appreciated.

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• Sitecore E-Commerce Module - Discount/Promotional Codes

  - by Zachary Kniebel

  I am working on a project for which I must use Sitecore's E-Commerce Module (and Sitecore 6.5 rev. 120706 - aka 'Update 5') to create a web-store. One of the features that I am trying to implement is a generic promotional/discount code system - customer enters a code at checkout which grants a discount like 'free shipping', '20% off', etc. At the moment, I am looking for some guidance (a high-level solution, a few pseudo-ideas, some references to review, etc) as to how this can be accomplished. Summary: What I am looking for is a way to detect whether or not the user entered a promo code at a previous stage in the checkout line, and to determine what that promo code is, if they did. Progress Thus Far: I have thoroughly reviewed all of the Sitecore E-Commerce Services (SES) documentation, especially "SES Order Line Extension" documentation (which I believe will have to be modified/extended in order to accomplish this task). Additionally, I have thoroughly reviewed the Sitecore Community article Extending Sitecore E-Commerce - Pricing and believe that it may be a useful guide for applying a discount statically, but does not say much in the way of applying a discount dynamically. After reviewing these documents, I have come up with the following possible high-level solution to start from: I create a template to represent a promotional code, which holds all data relevant to the promotion (percent off, free shipping, code, etc). I then create another template (based on the Product Search Group template) that holds a link to an item within a global "Promotional Code" items folder. Next, I use the Product Search Group features of my new template to choose which products to apply the discount to. In the source code for the checkout I create a class that checks if a code has been entered and, if so, somehow carry it through the rest of the checkout process. This is where I get stuck. More Details: No using cookies No GET requests No changing/creating/deleting items in the Sitecore Database during the checkout process (e.g., no manipulation of fields of a discount item during checkout to signal that the discount has been applied) must stay within the scope of C# Last Notes: I will update this post with any more information that I find/progress that I make. I upgrade all answers that are relevant and detailed, thought-provoking, or otherwise useful to me and potentially useful to others, in addition to any high-level answers that serve as a feasible solution to this problem; even if your idea doesn't help me, if I think it will help someone else I will still upgrade it. Thanks, in advance, for all your help! :)

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• Multiple layouts in rails [Newbie Q]

  - by BriteLite

  Hi. As a newb, I decided to build a "home inventory" application. I am now stuck on how to programmatically select a layout based on what type of item it is when viewing it in a browser. According to my planning, so far I should have created a few models to represent types of items I can find in my home: Furniture, Electronics and Books. class Book < ActiveRecord::Base end class Furniture < ActiveRecord::Base end class Electronic < ActiveRecord::Base end Now the Books model has things like isbn, pages, address, and category. Furniture model has things like color, price, address, and category. Electronics has things like name, voltage, address, and category. Here is where I got confused. I know the property address is going to be the same for all of them. I also know that, I will need to create multiple "layouts" for 3 different types of items to show the different properties of said items with appropriate graphics and stylesheets. But how will I go about deciding which category the item is so I can determine which layout to render. According to me, this is how I will do it: class DisplayController < ApplicationController def display @item = Params[:item] if @item.category = "electronics" render :layout => 'electronics' end end In my routes.rb map.display ':item', :controller => 'display', :action => 'display' I only seem to have one concern with this, I probably will add a lot of categories later on and think there should be a more DRY-esque way of dealing, rather than hardcoding them. I understand that I need to add into my layout html tags to display relevant information for that particular category. ----Questions---- Is this the right way to approach this type of problem. Will this approach be compatible when I decide to add a gem like *thinking_sphinx* to run search. What issues do you see with my approach and how can I make it better. I was reading something about "Polymorphic Assoc", does that apply in this case, since category exist for all items? Also, I was trying to get a routes to render a URL like "http://localhost/living-room-tv"

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• Loading datasets from datastore and merge into single dictionary. Resource problem.

  - by fredrik

  Hi, I have a productdatabase that contains products, parts and labels for each part based on langcodes. The problem I'm having and haven't got around is a huge amount of resource used to get the different datasets and merging them into a dict to suit my needs. The products in the database are based on a number of parts that is of a certain type (ie. color, size). And each part has a label for each language. I created 4 different models for this. Products, ProductParts, ProductPartTypes and ProductPartLabels. I've narrowed it down to about 10 lines of code that seams to generate the problem. As of currently I have 3 Products, 3 Types, 3 parts for each type, and 2 languages. And the request takes a wooping 5500ms to generate. for product in productData: productDict = {} typeDict = {} productDict['productName'] = product.name cache_key = 'productparts_%s' % (slugify(product.key())) partData = memcache.get(cache_key) if not partData: for type in typeData: typeDict[type.typeId] = { 'default' : '', 'optional' : [] } ## Start of problem lines ## for defaultPart in product.defaultPartsData: for label in labelsForLangCode: if label.key() in defaultPart.partLabelList: typeDict[defaultPart.type.typeId]['default'] = label.partLangLabel for optionalPart in product.optionalPartsData: for label in labelsForLangCode: if label.key() in optionalPart.partLabelList: typeDict[optionalPart.type.typeId]['optional'].append(label.partLangLabel) ## end problem lines ## memcache.add(cache_key, typeDict, 500) partData = memcache.get(cache_key) productDict['parts'] = partData productList.append(productDict) I guess the problem lies in the number of for loops is too many and have to iterate over the same data over and over again. labelForLangCode get all labels from ProductPartLabels that match the current langCode. All parts for a product is stored in a db.ListProperty(db.key). The same goes for all labels for a part. The reason I need the some what complex dict is that I want to display all data for a product with it's default parts and show a selector for the optional one. The defaultPartsData and optionaPartsData are properties in the Product Model that looks like this: @property def defaultPartsData(self): return ProductParts.gql('WHERE __key__ IN :key', key = self.defaultParts) @property def optionalPartsData(self): return ProductParts.gql('WHERE __key__ IN :key', key = self.optionalParts) When the completed dict is in the memcache it works smoothly, but isn't the memcache reset if the application goes in to hibernation? Also I would like to show the page for first time user(memcache empty) with out the enormous delay. Also as I said above, this is only a small amount of parts/product. What will the result be when it's 30 products with 100 parts. Is one solution to create a scheduled task to cache it in the memcache every hour? It this efficient? I know this is alot to take in, but I'm stuck. I've been at this for about 12 hours straight. And can't figure out a solution. ..fredrik

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• sed - trying to replace first occurrence after a match

  - by wakkaluba

  I am facing a situation that drives me nuts. I am setting up an update server which uses a json file. Don't ask why or how, it sucks and is my only possibility to achieve it. I have been trying and researching for HOURS (many) because I went ballistic and wanted to crack this on my own. But I have to realize I got stuck and need help. So sorry for this chunk but I think it is somewhat important to see... The file is a one liner and repeating the following sequence with changing values (of course). "plugin_name_foo_bar": {"buildDate": "bla", "dependencies": [{"name": "bla", "optional": true, "version": "1.00"}], "developers": [{"developerId": "bla", "email": "[email protected]", "name": "Bla bla2nd"}], "excerpt": "some text {excerpt} !bla.png|thumbnail,border=1! ", "gav": "bla", "labels": ["report", "scm-related"], "name": "plugin_name_foo_bar", "previousTimestamp": "bla", "previousVersion": "1.0", "releaseTimestamp": "bla", "requiredCore": "1", "scm": "github.com", "sha1": "ynnBM2jWo25ZLDdP3ybBOnV/Pio=", "title": "bla", "url": "http://bla.org", "version": "1.0", "wiki": "https://bla.org"}, "Exclusion": {"buildDate": "bla", "dependencies": [], and the next plugin block is glued straight afterwards. What I now want to do is to search for "plugin_foo_bar": {" as this is the unique identifier for a new plugin description block. I want to replace the first sha1 value occuring afterwards. That's where I keep failing. I always grab the first,last or any occurrence in the entire file and not the block :( "title" is the unique identifier after the sha1 value. So I tried to make the .* less greedy but it ain't working out. last attempt was heading towards: sed -i 's/("name": "plugin_name_foo_bar.*sha1": ")([a-zA-Z0-9!@#\$%^&*()\[\]]*)(", "title"\)/\1blablabla\2/1' default.json to find the sha1 value of that plugin but still no joy. I hope someone knows - preferably a simpler approach - before I now continue with trial and error until I have to puke and freakout. I am working with SED on Windows, so Unix approach might help me to figure out how to achieve this in batch but please make it as one-liner if possible. Scripts are a real pain to convert. And I just need SED and no other solution with other tools like AWK. That is absolutely out of discussion. Any help is appreciated :) Cheers Jan

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• How Do you Declare a Dependancy Property in VB.Net 3.0

  - by discwiz

  My company is stuck on .Net 3.0. The task I am trying to tackle is simple, I need to bind the IsChecked property of the CheckBoxResolvesCEDAR to the CompletesCEDARWork in my Audio class. The more I read about this it appears that I have to declare CompletesCEDARWork as dependancy propert, but I can not find a good example of how this is done. I found this example, but when I pasted into my code I get an "is not defined" error for GetValue and I have not successfully figure out what MyCode is supposed to represent. Any help/examples would be greatly appreciated. Thanks Public Shared ReadOnly IsSpinningProperty As DependencyProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsSpinning", GetType(Boolean), GetType(MyCode)) Public Property IsSpinning() As Boolean Get Return CBool(GetValue(IsSpinningProperty)) End Get Set(ByVal value As Boolean) SetValue(IsSpinningProperty, value) End Set End Property Here is my slimed down Audio Class as it stands now. Imports System.Xml Imports System Imports System.IO Imports System.Collections.ObjectModel Imports System.ComponentModel Public Class Audio Private mXMLString As String Private mTarpID As Integer Private mStartTime As Date Private mEndTime As Date Private mAudioArray As Byte() Private mFileXMLInfo As IO.FileInfo Private mFileXMLStream As IO.FileStream Private mFileAudioInfo As IO.FileInfo Private mDisplayText As String Private mCompletesCEDARWork As Boolean Private Property CompletesCEDARWork() As Boolean Get Return mCompletesCEDARWork End Get Set(ByVal value As Boolean) mCompletesCEDARWork = value End Set End Property And here is my XML Datatemplate where I set the binding. <DataTemplate x:Key="UploadLayout" DataType="Audio"> <Border BorderBrush="LightGray" CornerRadius="8" BorderThickness="1" Padding="10" Margin="0,3,0,0"> <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=DisplayText}"> </TextBlock> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" VerticalAlignment="Center"> <TextBlock Text="TARP ID" VerticalAlignment="Center"/> <ComboBox x:Name="ListBoxTarpIDs" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=TarpIds}" SelectedValue="{Binding Path=TarpID}" BorderBrush="Transparent" Background="Transparent" > </ComboBox> </StackPanel> <CheckBox x:Name="CheckBoxResolvesCEDAR" Content="Resolves CEDAR Work" IsChecked="{Binding ElementName=Audio,Path=CompletesCEDARWork,Mode=TwoWay}"/> </StackPanel> </Border> </DataTemplate>

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• MVC | Linq Update Query | Help!

  - by 109221793

  Hi guys, I'm making modifications to a C# MVC application that I've inherited. I have a database, and for simplicity I'll just focus on the two tables I'm working with for this linq query. Item ItemID Int PK ItemName RepairSelection (Yes or No) RepairID Int FK Repair RepairID Int PK RepairCategory SubmissionDate DateSentForRepair Ok, so ItemID is pretty much the identifier, and the View to display the Repair details goes like this (snippet): <%= Html.LabelFor(x => x.ItemID)%> <%= Html.DisplayFor(x => x.ItemID)%><br /> <%= Html.LabelFor(x => x.Repair.RepairCategory)%> <%= Html.DisplayFor(x => x.Repair.RepairCategory, "FormTextShort")%><br /> <%= Html.LabelFor(x => x.Repair.SubmissionDate)%> <%= Html.DisplayFor(x => x.Repair.SubmissionDate)%><br /> <%= Html.LabelFor(x => x.Repair.DateSentForRepair)%> <%= Html.DisplayFor(x => x.Repair.DateSentForRepair)%><br /> <%= Html.ActionLink("Edit Repair Details", "Edit", new { ItemID= Model.ItemID})%> Here is the GET Edit action: public ActionResult Edit(Int64? itemId) { ModelContainer ctn = new ModelContainer(); var item = from i in ctn.Items where i.ItemID == itemId select i; return View(item.First()); } This is also fine, the GET Edit view displays the right details. Where I'm stuck is the linq query to update the Repair table. I have tried it so many ways today that my head is just fried (new to Linq as you may have guessed). My latest try is here (which I know is way off so go easy ;-) ): [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Int64 itemId, Repair repair, Item item, FormCollection formValues) { if (formValues["cancelButton"] != null) { return RedirectToAction("View", new { ItemID = itemId }); } ModelContainer ctn = new ModelContainer(); Repair existingData = ctn.Repair.First(a => a.RepairId == item.RepairID && item.ItemID == itemId); existingData.SentForConversion = DateTime.Parse(formValues["SentForConversion"]); ctn.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("View", new { ItemID = itemId }); } For the above attempt I get a Sequence Contains No Elements error. Any help or pointers would be appreciated. Thanks guys.

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• How to solve Only Web services with a [ScriptService] attribute on the class definition can be called from script

  - by NevenHuynh

  I attempt to use webservice return POCO class generated from entity data model as JSON when using Jquery AJAX call method in webservice. but I have problem with error "Only Web services with a [ScriptService] attribute on the class definition can be called from script", and getting stuck in it, Here is my code : namespace CarCareCenter.Web.Admin.Services { /// <summary> /// Summary description for About /// </summary> [WebService(Namespace = "http://tempuri.org/")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] [System.ComponentModel.ToolboxItem(false)] // To allow this Web Service to be called from script, using ASP.NET AJAX, uncomment the following line. // [System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService] public class About : System.Web.Services.WebService { [ScriptMethod(ResponseFormat = ResponseFormat.Json)] [WebMethod] public static Entities.Category getAbout() { Entities.Category about = new Entities.Category(); using (var context = new CarCareCenterDataEntities()) { about = (from c in context.Categories where c.Type == "About" select c).SingleOrDefault(); } return about; } } } aspx page : <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $.ajax({ type: 'POST', dataType: 'json', contentType: 'application/json; charset=utf-8', url: '/Services/About.asmx/getAbout', data: '{}', success: function (response) { var aboutContent = response.d; alert(aboutContent); $('#title-en').val(aboutContent.Name); $('#title-vn').val(aboutContent.NameVn); $('#content-en').val(aboutContent.Description); $('#content-vn').val(aboutContent.DescriptionVn); $('#id').val(aboutContent.CategoryId); }, failure: function (message) { alert(message); }, error: function (result) { alert(result); } }); $('#SaveChange').bind('click', function () { updateAbout(); return false; }); $('#Reset').bind('click', function () { getAbout(); return false; }) }); function updateAbout() { var abt = { "CategoryId": $('#id').val(), "Name": $('#title-en').val(), "NameVn": $('#title-vn').val(), "Description": $('#content-en').val(), "DescriptionVn": $('#content-vn').val() }; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "AboutManagement.aspx/updateAbout", data: JSON.stringify(abt), contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (response) { var aboutContent = response.d; $('#title-en').val(aboutContent.Name); $('#title-vn').val(aboutContent.NameVn); $('#content-en').val(aboutContent.Description); $('#content-vn').val(aboutContent.DescriptionVn); }, failure: function (message) { alert(message); }, error: function (result) { alert(result); } }); } </script> Do any approaches to solve it ? Please help me . Thanks

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• What am I encrypting wrong here?

  - by Katie Krueger

  So I have a wordplay project to do and I have to encrypt some characters. I am at the point where I am stuck, and when I run it and type 1 for encrypt it doesn't shift that many letters. It just prints the work over again. I am wondering what I could do to fix it where if I say "hello" it will print 1 character over and say "ifmmp" Thank you! import java.util.Scanner; public class WordPlayTester{ public static void main(String [] args){ String word, reverse=""; String original; int key= 0; String Menu= "1-Encrypt \n2-Decrypt \n3-Is Palindrome \n0-Quit \n-Select an option-"; Scanner in = new Scanner(System.in); System.out.println("-Type any word-"); word = in.nextLine(); System.out.println(Menu); int choice=in.nextInt(); if(choice==1) { System.out.println("Insert a Key number"); int select= in.nextInt(); for (int i=0; i < word.length(); i++) { char c = word.charAt(i); if (c >= 'A' && c <= 'Z') { c = (char)(c - 64); int n = c+1; n = n % 26; if (n < 0) { n = n + 26; } c = (char)(n + 65); } System.out.println(c); } } else if(choice==3) { int length = word.length(); for ( int i = length - 1 ; i >= 0 ; i-- ) reverse = reverse + word.charAt(i); if (word.equals(reverse)) System.out.println("Your word is a palindrome."); else System.out.println("Your word is not a palindrome."); } else if(choice==0) { System.exit(0); } else { System.out.println(Menu); } } }

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• getting Cannot identify image file when trying to create thumbnail in django

  - by Mo J. Mughrabi

  Am trying to create a thumbnail in django, am trying to build a custom class specifically to be used for generating thumbnails. As following from StringIO import StringIO from PIL import Image class Thumbnail(object): source = '' size = (50, 50) output = '' def __init__(self): pass @staticmethod def load(src): self = Thumbnail() self.source = src return self def generate(self, size=(50, 50)): if not isinstance(size, tuple): raise Exception('Thumbnail class: The size parameter must be an instance of a tuple.') self.size = size # resize properties box = self.size factor = 1 fit = True image = Image.open(self.source) # Convert to RGB if necessary if image.mode not in ('L', 'RGB'): image = image.convert('RGB') while image.size[0]/factor > 2*box[0] and image.size[1]*2/factor > 2*box[1]: factor *=2 if factor > 1: image.thumbnail((image.size[0]/factor, image.size[1]/factor), Image.NEAREST) #calculate the cropping box and get the cropped part if fit: x1 = y1 = 0 x2, y2 = image.size wRatio = 1.0 * x2/box[0] hRatio = 1.0 * y2/box[1] if hRatio > wRatio: y1 = int(y2/2-box[1]*wRatio/2) y2 = int(y2/2+box[1]*wRatio/2) else: x1 = int(x2/2-box[0]*hRatio/2) x2 = int(x2/2+box[0]*hRatio/2) image = image.crop((x1,y1,x2,y2)) #Resize the image with best quality algorithm ANTI-ALIAS image.thumbnail(box, Image.ANTIALIAS) # save image to memory temp_handle = StringIO() image.save(temp_handle, 'png') temp_handle.seek(0) self.output = temp_handle return self def get_output(self): return self.output.read() the purpose of the class is so i can use it inside different locations to generate thumbnails on the fly. The class works perfectly, I've tested it directly under a view.. I've implemented the thumbnail class inside the save method of the forms to resize the original images on saving. in my design, I have two fields for thumbnails. I was able to generate one thumbnail, if I try to generate two it crashes and I've been stuck for hours not sure whats the problem. Here is my model class Image(models.Model): article = models.ForeignKey(Article) title = models.CharField(max_length=100, null=True, blank=True) src = models.ImageField(upload_to='publication/image/') r128 = models.ImageField(upload_to='publication/image/128/', blank=True, null=True) r200 = models.ImageField(upload_to='publication/image/200/', blank=True, null=True) uploaded_at = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) Here is my forms class ImageForm(models.ModelForm): """ """ class Meta: model = Image fields = ('src',) def save(self, commit=True): instance = super(ImageForm, self).save(commit=True) file = Thumbnail.load(instance.src) instance.r128 = SimpleUploadedFile( instance.src.name, file.generate((128, 128)).get_output(), content_type='image/png' ) instance.r200 = SimpleUploadedFile( instance.src.name, file.generate((200, 200)).get_output(), content_type='image/png' ) if commit: instance.save() return instance the strange part is, when i remove the line which contains instance.r200 in the form save. It works fine, and it does the thumbnail and stores it successfully. Once I add the second thumbnail it fails.. Any ideas what am doing wrong here? Thanks Update: I tried earlier doing the following but I still got the same error class ImageForm(models.ModelForm): """ """ class Meta: model = Image fields = ('src',) def save(self, commit=True): instance = super(ImageForm, self).save(commit=True) instance.r128 = SimpleUploadedFile( instance.src.name, Thumbnail.load(instance.src).generate((128, 128)).get_output(), content_type='image/png' ) instance.r200 = SimpleUploadedFile( instance.src.name, Thumbnail.load(instance.src).generate((200, 200)).get_output(), content_type='image/png' ) if commit: instance.save() return instance

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• How do I 'globally' catch exceptions thrown in object instances.

  - by SleepyBobos

  I am currently writing a winforms application (C#). I am making use of the Enterprise Library Exception Handling Block, following a fairly standard approach from what I can see. IE : In the Main method of Program.cs I have wired up event handler to Application.ThreadException event etc. This approach works well and handles the applications exceptional circumstances. In one of my business objects I throw various exceptions in the Set accessor of one of the objects properties set { if (value > MaximumTrim) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("The value of the minimum trim..."); if (!availableSubMasterWidthSatisfiesAllPatterns(value)) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("Another message..."); _minimumTrim = value; } My logic for this approach (without turning this into a 'when to throw exceptions' discussion) is simply that the business objects are responsible for checking business rule constraints and throwing an exception that can bubble up and be caught as required. It should be noted that in the UI of my application I do explictly check the values that the public property is being set to (and take action there displaying friendly dialog etc) but with throwing the exception I am also covering the situation where my business object may not be used by a UI eg : the Property is being set by another business object for example. Anyway I think you all get the idea. My issue is that these exceptions are not being caught by the handler wired up to Application.ThreadException and I don't understand why. From other reading I have done the Application.ThreadException event and it handler "... catches any exception that occurs on the main GUI thread". Are the exceptions being raised in my business object not in this thread? I have not created any new threads. I can get the approach to work if I update the code as follows, explicity calling the event handler that is wired to Application.ThreadException. This is the approach outlined in Enterprise Library samples. However this approach requires me to wrap any exceptions thrown in a try catch, something I was trying to avoid by using a 'global' handler to start with. try { if (value > MaximumTrim) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("The value of the minimum..."); if (!availableSubMasterWidthSatisfiesAllPatterns(value)) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("Another message"); _minimumTrim = value; } catch (Exception ex) { Program.ThreadExceptionHandler.ProcessUnhandledException(ex); } I have also investigated using wiring a handler up to AppDomain.UnhandledException event but this does not catch the exceptions either. I would be good if someone could explain to me why my exceptions are not being caught by my global exception handler in the first code sample. Is there another approach I am missing or am I stuck with wrapping code in try catch, shown above, as required?

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• Which network protocol to use for lightweight notification of remote apps (Delphi 2005)

  - by Chris Thornton

  I have this situation.... Client-initiated SOAP 1.1 communication between one server and let's say, tens of thousands of clients. Clients are external, coming in through our firewall, authenticated by certificate, https, etc.. They can be anywhere, and usually have their own firewalls, NAT routers, etc... They're truely external, not just remote corporate offices. They could be in a corporate/campus network, DSL/Cable, even Dialup. Currently, clients push new data to the server and pull new data from the server on 15-minute polling loop. The server currently does not push data - the client hits the "messagecount" method, to see if there is new data to pull. If 0, it sleeps for another 15 min and checks again. We're trying to get that down to 7 seconds. If this were an internal app, with one or just a few dozen clients, we'd write a cilent "listener" soap service, and would push data to it. But since they're external, sit behind their own firewalls, and sometimes private networks behind NAT routers, this is not practical. So we're left with polling on a much quicker loop. 10K clients, each checking their messagecount every 10 seconds, is going to be 1000/sec messages that will mostly just waste bandwidth, server, firewall, and authenticator resources. So I'm trying to design something better than what would amount to a self-inflicted DoS attack. I don't think it's practical to have the server send soap messages to the client (push) as this would require too much configuration at the client end. But I think there are alternatives that I don't know about. Such as: 1) Is there a way for the client to make a request for GetMessageCount() via Soap 1.1, and get the response, and then perhaps, "stay on the line" for perhaps 5-10 minutes to get additional responses in case new data arrives? i.e the server says "0", then a minute later in response to some SQL trigger (the server is C# on Sql Server, btw), knows that this client is still "on the line" and sends the updated message count of "5"? 2) Is there some other protocol that we could use to "ping" the client, using information gathered from their last GetMessageCount() request? 3) I don't even know. I guess I'm looking for some magic protocol where the client can send a GetMessageCount() request, which would include info for "oh by the way, in case the answer changes in the next hour, ping me at this address...". Also, I'm assuming that any of these "keep the line open" schemes would seriously impact the server sizing, as it would need to keep many thousands of connections open, simultaneously. That would likely impact the firewalls too, I think. Is there anything out there like that? Or am I pretty much stuck with polling? TIA, Chris

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• what is the wrong with this code"length indicator implementation" ?

  - by cj

  Hello, this is an implementation of length indicator field but it hang and i think stuck at a loop and don't show any thing. // readx22.cpp : Defines the entry point for the console application. // #include "stdafx.h" #include "iostream" #include "fstream" #include "stdio.h" using namespace std; class Student { public: string id; size_t id_len; string first_name; size_t first_len; string last_name; size_t last_len; string phone; size_t phone_len; string grade; size_t grade_len; void read(fstream &ven); void print(); }; void Student::read(fstream &ven) { size_t cnt; ven >> cnt; id_len=cnt; id.reserve( cnt ); while ( -- cnt ) { id.push_back( ven.get() ); } ven >> cnt; first_len=cnt; first_name.reserve( cnt ); while ( -- cnt ) { first_name.push_back( ven.get() ); } ven >> cnt; last_len=cnt; last_name.reserve( cnt ); while ( -- cnt ) { last_name.push_back( ven.get() ); } ven >> cnt; phone_len=cnt; phone.reserve( cnt ); while ( -- cnt ) { phone.push_back( ven.get() ); } ven >> cnt; grade_len=cnt; grade.reserve( cnt ); while ( -- cnt ) { grade.push_back( ven.get() ); } } void Student::print() { // string::iterator it; for ( int i=0 ; i<id_len; i++) cout << id[i]; } int main() { fstream in; in.open ("fee.txt", fstream::in); Student x; x.read(in); x.print(); return 0; } thanks

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• assign a model's attribute through association

  - by justcode

  I'm new to rails and working on a rails app and I'm stuck pondering this issue. I have three models class product < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :name, :issn, :category validates_presence_of :name, :issn, :category validates_numericality_of :issn, :message => "has to be a number" has_many :user_products has_many :users, :through => :user_products end class UserProduct < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :price, :category validates_presence_of :price, :category validates_numericality_of :price, :message = "has to be a number" belongs_to :user belongs_to :product end class user < ActiveRecord::Base # devise authentication here # Setup accessible (or protected) attributes for your model attr_accessible :email, :password, :password_confirmation, :remember_me has_many :user_products has_many :products, :through = :user_products end here is my new.html.erb <div class="MainBodyWrapper"> <div class="span8"> <div id="listBoxWrapper"> <fieldset> <%= form_for(@product, :html => { :class => "form-inline" }, :style => "margin-bottom: 60px" ) do |f| %> <div class="control-group"> <label class="control-label" for="name">name</label> <div class="controls"> <%= f.text_field :price, :class => 'input-xlarge input-name', :id => "name" %> </div> </div> <div class="listingButtons"> <button class="btn btn-info"></i>Add</button> <a class="btn">Upload Pictures (anytime)</a> </div> </fieldset> </div> </div> There are reasons why I want to setup the models this way. So the question is this: I want the user to enter the info for the product in the form but it also involves putting in the price of the product which exists in a different model/table (user_product) that is associated with product. How can I do this? You can see that my form_for uses @product. Any help will be appreciated.

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• send data from one table to another page

  - by user91599

  I have this table I want when I click on a link in a table row that do a redirect to another page the data will be sent to the new page that can help me I have not found how to start I'm really stuck code table <table cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" border="0" class="display" id="example"> <thead> <tr> <th>Date</th> <th>provider</th> <th>CI</th> <th>CELL</th> <th>BSC</th> <th>Commentaire</th> <th>nbr</th> <th>Type</th> <th><img src="{{ asset('image/Modify.png') }}" ALIGN="CENTER"/></th> <th><img src="{{ asset('image/Info.png') }}" ALIGN="CENTER"/></th> <th><img src="{{ asset('image/Male.png') }}" ALIGN="CENTER"/></th> <th>type_alertes</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <div class="textbox"> <h2> Information KPI dégradées</h2> <div class="textbox_content" id="kpi_dégrades"> {% for liste in listes %} <tr class="gradeU"> <td>{{ liste.DAT }} </td> <td>{{ liste.PROVIDER}} </td> <td>{{ liste.CI}} </td> <td>{{ liste.CELL}} </td> <td>{{ liste.BSC}}</td> <td>{{ liste.Cmts}}</td> <td >{{ liste.nbr}}</td> <td>{{ liste.TYPE}}</td> <td><a class="edit" href="">Edit</a></td> <td onclick="getInfo('{{ liste.CELL}}')">Information KPI dégradés</td> <td>{{ liste.user_name}}</td> <td>{{ liste.type_alertes}}</td> </tr> {% endfor %} </div> </div> </tbody>

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• Play! Framework - Can my view template be localised when rendering it as an AsyncResult?

  - by avik

  I've recently started using the Play! framework (v2.0.4) for writing a Java web application. In the majority of my controllers I'm following the paradigm of suspending the HTTP request until the promise of a web service response has been fulfilled. Once the promise has been fulfilled, I return an AsyncResult. This is what most of my actions look like (with a bunch of code omitted): public static Result myActionMethod() { Promise<MyWSResponse> wsResponse; // Perform a web service call that will return the promise of a MyWSResponse... return async(wsResponse.map(new Function<MyWSResponse, Result>() { @Override public Result apply(MyWSResponse response) { // Validate response... return ok(myScalaViewTemplate.render(response.data())); } })); } I'm now trying to internationalise my app, but hit the following error when I try to render a template from an async method: [error] play - Waiting for a promise, but got an error: There is no HTTP Context available from here. java.lang.RuntimeException: There is no HTTP Context available from here. at play.mvc.Http$Context.current(Http.java:27) ~[play_2.9.1.jar:2.0.4] at play.mvc.Http$Context$Implicit.lang(Http.java:124) ~[play_2.9.1.jar:2.0.4] at play.i18n.Messages.get(Messages.java:38) ~[play_2.9.1.jar:2.0.4] at views.html.myScalaViewTemplate$.apply(myScalaViewTemplate.template.scala:40) ~[classes/:na] at views.html.myScalaViewTemplate$.render(myScalaViewTemplate.template.scala:87) ~[classes/:na] at views.html.myScalaViewTemplate.render(myScalaViewTemplate.template.scala) ~[classes/:na] In short, where I've got a message bundle lookup in my view template, some Play! code is attempting to access the original HTTP request and retrieve the accept-languages header, in order to know which message bundle to use. But it seems that the HTTP request is inaccessible from the async method. I can see a couple of (unsatisfactory) ways to work around this: Go back to the 'one thread per request' paradigm and have threads block waiting for responses. Figure out which language to use at Controller level, and feed that choice into my template. I also suspect this might not be an issue on trunk. I know that there is a similar issue in 2.0.4 with regards to not being able to access or modify the Session object which has recently been fixed. However I'm stuck on 2.0.4 for the time being, so is there a better way that I can resolve this problem?

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• Copy image to BLOB from client pc aka Java function in Oracle

  - by mumich

  Hi guys, I've been stuck with this for past two days. I've go java function stored in Oracle system which is supposed to copy image from local drive do remote database and store it in BLOB - it's called CopyBLOB and looks like this: import java.sql.*; import oracle.sql.*; import java.io.*; public class CopyBLOB { static int id; static String fileName = null; static Connection conn = null; public CopyBLOB(int idz, String f) { id = idz; fileName = f; } public static void copy(int ident, String path) throws SQLException, FileNotFoundException { CopyBLOB cpB = new CopyBLOB(ident, path); cpB.getConnection(); cpB.callUpdate(id, fileName); } public void getConnection() throws SQLException { DriverManager.registerDriver (new oracle.jdbc.OracleDriver()); try { conn = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:oracle:thin:@oraserv.ms.mff.cuni.cz:1521:db", "xxx", "xxx"); } catch (SQLException sqlex) { System.out.println("SQLException while getting db connection: "+sqlex); if (conn != null) conn.close(); } catch (Exception ex) { System.out.println("Exception while getting db connection: "+ex); if (conn != null) conn.close(); } } public void callUpdate(int id, String file ) throws SQLException, FileNotFoundException { CallableStatement cs = null; try { conn.setAutoCommit(false); File f = new File(file); FileInputStream fin = new FileInputStream(f); cs = (CallableStatement) conn.prepareCall( "begin add_image(?,?); end;" ); cs.setInt(1, id ); cs.setBinaryStream(2, fin, (int) f.length()); cs.execute(); conn.setAutoCommit(true); } catch ( SQLException sqlex ) { System.out.println("SQLException in callUpdateUsingStream method of given status : " + sqlex.getMessage() ); } catch ( FileNotFoundException fnex ) { System.out.println("FileNotFoundException in callUpdateUsingStream method of given status : " + fnex.getMessage() ); } finally { try { if (cs != null) cs.close(); if (conn != null) conn.close(); } catch ( Exception ex ) { System.out.println("Some exception in callUpdateUsingStream method of given status : " + ex.getMessage( ) ); } } } } The wrapper function is defined in package "MyPackage" as folows: procedure image_adder( id varchar2, path varchar2 ) AS language java name 'CopyBLOB.copy(java.lang.String, java.lang.String)'; And the inserting function called image_add is as simple as this: procedure add_image( id numeric(10), pic blob) AS BEGIN insert into pictures values (seq_pic.nextval, id, pic); END add_image; Now the problem: When I type call MyPackage.image_adder(1, 'd:\samples\img.jpg'); I get the ORA-29531 Error: No method copy in class CopyBLOB. Can you help me, please?

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• How come Java doesn't accept my LinkedList in a Generic, but accepts its own?

  - by master chief

  For a class assignment, we can't use any of the languages bultin types, so I'm stuck with my own list. Anyway, here's the situation: public class CrazyStructure <T extends Comparable<? super T>> { MyLinkedList<MyTree<T>> trees; //error: type parameter MyTree is not within its bound } However: public class CrazyStructure <T extends Comparable<? super T>> { LinkedList<MyTree<T>> trees; } Works. MyTree impleements the Comparable interface, but MyLinkedList doesn't. However, Java's LinkedList doesn't implement it either, according to this. So what's the problem and how do I fix it? MyLinkedList: public class MyLinkedList<T extends Comparable<? super T>> { private class Node<T> { private Node<T> next; private T data; protected Node(); protected Node(final T value); } Node<T> firstNode; public MyLinkedList(); public MyLinkedList(T value); //calls node1.value.compareTo(node2.value) private int compareElements(final Node<T> node1, final Node<T> node2); public void insert(T value); public void remove(T value); } MyTree: public class LeftistTree<T extends Comparable<? super T>> implements Comparable { private class Node<T> { private Node<T> left, right; private T data; private int dist; protected Node(); protected Node(final T value); } private Node<T> root; public LeftistTree(); public LeftistTree(final T value); public Node getRoot(); //calls node1.value.compareTo(node2.value) private int compareElements(final Node node1, final Node node2); private Node<T> merge(Node node1, Node node2); public void insert(final T value); public T extractMin(); public int compareTo(final Object param); }

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• jquery in ajax loaded content

  - by Kim Gysen

  My application is supposed to be a single page application and I have the following code that works fine: home.php: <div id="container"> </div> accordion.php: //Click functions: load content $('#parents').click(function(){ //Load parent in container $('#container').load('http://www.blabla.com/entities/parents/parents.php'); }); parents.php: <div class="entity_wrapper"> Some divs and selectors </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ //Some jQuery / javascript }); </script> So the content loads fine, while the scripts dynamically loaded execute fine as well. I apply this system repetitively and it continues to work smoothly. I've seen that there are a lot of frameworks available on SPA's (such as backbone.js) but I don't understand why I need them if this works fine. From the backbone.js website: When working on a web application that involves a lot of JavaScript, one of the first things you learn is to stop tying your data to the DOM. It's all too easy to create JavaScript applications that end up as tangled piles of jQuery selectors and callbacks, all trying frantically to keep data in sync between the HTML UI, your JavaScript logic, and the database on your server. For rich client-side applications, a more structured approach is often helpful. Well, I totally don't have the feeling that I'm going through the stuff they mention. Adding the javascript per page works really well for me. They are html containers with clear scope and the javascript is just related to that part. More over, the front end doesn't do that much, most of the logic is managed based on Ajax calls to external PHP scripts. Sometimes the js can be a bit more extended for some functionalities, but all just loads as smooth in less than a second. If you think that this is bad coding, please tell me why I cannot do this and more importantly, what is the alternative I should apply. At the moment, I really don't see a reason on why I would change this approach as it just works too well. I'm kinda stuck on this question because it just worries me sick as it seems to easy to be true. Why would people go through hard times if it would be as easy as this...

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• Using Selenium-IDE with a rich Javascript application?

  - by Darien

  Problem At my workplace, we're trying to find the best way to create automated-tests for an almost wholly javascript-driven intranet application. Right now we're stuck trying to find a good tradeoff between: Application code in reusable and nest-able GUI components. Tests which are easily created by the testing team Tests which can be recorded once and then automated Tests which do not break after small cosmetic changes to the site XPath expressions (or other possible expressions, like jQuery selectors) naively generated from Selenium-IDE are often non-repeatable and very fragile. Conversely, having the JS code generate special unique ID values for every important DOM-element on the page... well, that is its own headache, complicated by re-usable GUI components and IDs needing to be consistent when the test is re-run. What successes have other people had with this kind of thing? How do you do automated application-level testing of a rich JS interface? Limitations We are using JavascriptMVC 2.0, hopefully 3.0 soon so that we can upgrade to jQuery 1.4.x. The test-making folks are mostly trained to use Selenium IDE to directly record things. The test leads would prefer a page-unique HTML ID on each clickable element on the page... Training the testers to write or alter special expressions (such as telling them which HTML class-names are important branching points) is a no-go. We try to make re-usable javascript components, but this means very few GUI components can treat themselves (or what they contain) as unique. Some of our components already use HTML ID values in their operation. I'd like to avoid doing this anyway, but it complicates the idea of ID-based testing. It may be possible to add custom facilities (like a locator-builder or new locator method) to the Selenium-IDE installation testers use. Almost everything that goes on occurs within a single "page load" from a conventional browser perspective, even when items are saved Current thoughts I'm considering a system where a custom locator-builder (javascript code) for Selenium-IDE will talk with our application code as the tester is recording. In this way, our application becomes partially responsible for generating a mostly-flexible expression (XPath or jQuery) for any given DOM element. While this can avoid requiring more training for testers, I worry it may be over-thinking things.

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• Improving Javascript Load Times - Concatenation vs Many + Cache

  - by El Yobo

  I'm wondering which of the following is going to result in better performance for a page which loads a large amount of javascript (jQuery + jQuery UI + various other javascript files). I have gone through most of the YSlow and Google Page Speed stuff, but am left wondering about a particular detail. A key thing for me here is that the site I'm working on is not on the public net; it's a business to business platform where almost all users are repeat visitors (and therefore with caches of the data, which is something that YSlow assumes will not be the case for a large number of visitors). First up, the standard approach recommended by tools such as YSlow is to concatenate it, compress it, and serve it up in a single file loaded at the end of your page. This approach sounds reasonably effective, but I think that a key part of the reasoning here is to improve performance for users without cached data. The system I currently have is something like this * All javascript files are compressed and loaded at the bottom of the page * All javascript files have far future cache expiration dates, so will remain (for most users) in the cache for a long time * Pages only load the javascript files that they require, rather than loading one monolithic file, most of which will not be required Now, my understanding is that, if the cache expiration date for a javascript file has not been reached, then the cached version is used immediately; there is no HTTP request sent at to the server at all. If this is correct, I would assume that having multiple tags is not causing any performance penalty, as I'm still not having any additional requests on most pages (recalling from above that almost all users have populated caches). In addition to this, not loading the JS means that the browser doesn't have to interpret or execute all this additional code which it isn't going to need; as a B2B application, most of our users are unfortunately stuck with IE6 and its painfully slow JS engine. Another benefit is that, when code changes, only the affected files need to be fetched again, rather than the whole set (granted, it would only need to be fetched once, so this is not so much of a benefit). I'm also looking at using LabJS to allow for parallel loading of the JS when it's not cached. So, what do people think is a better approach? In a similar vein, what do you think about a similar approach to CSS - is monolithic better?

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• Getting up to speed on modern architecture

  - by Matt Thrower

  Hi, I don't have any formal qualifications in computer science, rather I taught myself classic ASP back in the days of the dotcom boom and managed to get myself a job and my career developed from there. I was a confident and, I think, pretty good programmer in ASP 3 but as others have observed one of the problems with classic ASP was that it did a very good job of hiding the nitty-gritty of http so you could become quite competent as a programmer on the basis of relatively poor understanding of the technology you were working with. When I changed on to .NET at first I treated it like classic ASP, developing stand-alone applications as individual websites simply because I didn't know any better at the time. I moved jobs at this point and spent the next several years working on a single site whose architecture relied heavily on custom objects: in other words I gained a lot of experience working with .NET as a middle-tier development tool using a quite old-fashioned approach to OO design along the lines of the classic "car" class example that's so often used to teach OO. Breaking down programs into blocks of functionality and basing your classes and methods around that. Although we worked under an Agile approach to manage the work the whole setup was classic client/server stuff. That suited me and I gradually got to grips with .NET and started using it far more in the manner that it should be, and I began to see the power inherent in the technology and precisely why it was so much better than good old ASP 3. In my latest job I have found myself suddenly dropped in at the deep end with two quite young, skilled and very cutting-edge programmers. They've built a site architecture which is modelling along a lot of stuff which is new to me and which, in truth I'm having a lot of trouble understanding. The application is built on a cloud computing model with multi-tenancy and the architecture is all loosely coupled using a lot of interfaces, factories and the like. They use nHibernate a lot too. Shortly after I joined, both these guys left and I'm now supposedly the senior developer on a system whose technology and architecture I don't really understand and I have no-one to ask questions of. Except you, the internet. Frankly I feel like I've been pitched in at the deep end and I'm sinking. I'm not sure if this is because I lack the educational background to understand this stuff, if I'm simply not mathematically minded enough for modern computing (my maths was never great - my approach to design is often to simply debug until it works, then refactor until it looks neat), or whether I've simply been presented with too much of too radical a nature at once. But the only way to find out which it is is to try and learn it. So can anyone suggest some good places to start? Good books, tutorials or blogs? I've found a lot of internet material simply presupposes a level of understanding that I just don't have. Your advice is much appreciated. Help a middle-aged, stuck in the mud developer get enthusastic again! Please!

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• Can I have a workspace that is both a git workspace and a svn workspace?

  - by Troy

  I have checked out now a local working copy of a codebase that lives in an svn repo. It's a big Java project that I use Eclipse to develop in. Eclipse of course builds everything on the fly, in it's own way with all the binaries ending up in [project root]/bin. That's perfectly fine with me, for development, but when the build runs on the build server, it looks quite a lot different (maven build, binaries end up in a different directory structure, etc). Sometimes I need to recreate the build server environment on my local development system to debug the build or what have you, so I usually end up downloading an entirely new working copy into a new workspace and running the build from there (prevents cluttering my development workspace with all the build artifacts and dirtying up the working copy). Of course sometimes I'm interested in running the full build on code that I don't want to check in yet, so I will manually copy over the "development" workspace onto the "build" workspace. Besides taking a lot of extra time copying a lot of files that I don't actually need (just overlaying the new over the old), this also screws up my svn metadata, meaning that I can't check in changes from that "build workspace" working copy, and I often end up having to re-download the code to get it back into a known state. So I'm thinking I make my svn working copy a local git repo, then "check out" the in-development code from the svn working copy/git master, into the local build workspace. Then I can build, revert my changes, have all the advantages of a version controlled working copy in the build workspace. Then if I need to make changes to the build, push those back into the git master (which is also a svn working copy), then check them into the main svn repo. |-------------| |main svn repo| <------- |---------------------| |-------------| |svn working copy | <------- |--------------------| | (svn dev workspace/ | | non-svn-versioned | | git master) | | build workspace | |---------------------| | (git working copy) | |--------------------| Just switching everything to git would obviously be better, but, big company, too many people using svn, too costly to change everything, etc. We're stuck with svn as the main repo for now. BTW, I know there is a maven plugin for Eclipse and everything, I'm mainly interested to know if there is a way to maintain a workspace that is both a git working copy and an svn working copy. Actually any distributed version control system would probably work (hg possibly?). Advice? How does everybody else handle this situation of having a to manage both a "development" build process and a "production" build process?

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