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• Defining reliable SIlverlight 4 architecture

  - by doteneter

  Hello everybody, It's my first question on SO. I know that there were many topics on Silverlight and architecture but didn't find answers that satisfies me. I'm ASP.NET MVC developer and are used to work on architectures built with the best practices (loose coupling with DI, etc.) Now I'm faced to the new Silverlight 4 project and would like to be sure I'm doing the best choices as I'm not experienced. Main features required by the applications are as follows : use existing SQL Server Database but with possibility to move to the cloud. using EF4 for the data acess with SQL Server. exitensibility : adding new modules without changing the main host. loose coupling. I was looking at different webcasts (Taulty, etc.), blogs about Silverlight and came up with the following architecture. EF 4 for data access (as specified with the requirements) WCF RIA Services for mid-tiers controling access to data for queries and enabling end-to-end support for data validation, authentication and roles. MEF Support for enabling modules. Unity 2.0 for DI. The problem is that I don't know how to define a reliable architecture where all these elements play well together. Should I use a framework instead like Prism or Caliburn? But for now I'm not sure what scenarios they support. What's the best usages for Unity in Silverlight ? I used to use IoC in ASP.NET MVC for loos coupling and other things like interception for audit logging. It seems that for Silverlight Unity doesn't support Interception. I would like to use it to enable loose coupling and to enable to move to the cloud if needed. Thanks in advance for your help.

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• Why is Selenium RC so slow?

  - by Pete

  Hi. For some time I have been investigating Selenium RC in order to do functional testing of my web application. I have now found a test strategy that is so effective, that I do not want to move away from Selenium RC (after spending weeks trying to figure out a good way to validate ASP.NET validation controls). But now that my Selenium RC adventure is moving from a POC to be something that I actually use, I'm running into a problem. It is insanely slow. Executing a single test that loads a page, fills in some fields, and clicks a button takes in the magnitude of seconds to execute. When it is executing, I can easily see each individual field being filled out one at a time. Using Selenium IDE in Firefox is not that slow. I found this page, that clearly specifies that Selenium RC is slow http://selenium-grid.seleniumhq.org/how_it_works.html But why is that? Is it because the browser is polling the selenium server? If so, can this polling interval not be modified? Or is there another reason. I am not accustomed to a remote call taking a humanly noticable amount of time to execute. It is horrible that executing a few tests should take so long. I can execute my entire presentation (MVP), business, and database layer test suite (500+ tests) way quicker than it takes to run 10 tests for a single web page.

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• 'ErrorMessageResourceType' property specified was not found. on XmlSerialise

  - by Redeemed1

  In my ASP.Net MVC app I have a Model layer which uses localised validation annotations on business objects. The code looks like this: [XmlRoot("Item")] public class ItemBo : BusinessObjectBase { [Required(ErrorMessageResourceName = "RequiredField", ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(StringResource))] [HelpPrompt("ItemNumber")] public long ItemNumber { get; set; } This works well. When I want to serialise the object to xml I get the error: "'ErrorMessageResourceType' property specified was not found" (although it is lost beneath other errors, it is the innerexception I am trying to work on. The problem therefore is the use of the DataAnnotations attributes. The relevant resource files are in another assembly and are marked as 'public' and as I said everything works well until I get to serialisation. I have references to the relevant DataAnnotations class etc in my nunit tests and target class. By the way, the HelpPrompt is another data annotation I have defined elsewhere and is not causing the problem. Furthermore if I change the Required attribute to the standard format as follows, the serialisation works ok. [Required(ErrorMessage="Error")] Can anyone help me?

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• GridView doesn't remember state between postbacks

  - by Ryan

  Hi, I have a simple ASP page with databound grid (bound to an object source). The grid is within the page of a wizard and has a 'select' checkbox for each row. In one stage of the wizard, I bind the GridView: protected void Wizard1_NextButtonClick(object sender, WizardNavigationEventArgs e) { ... // Bind and display matches GridViewMatches.EnableViewState = true; GridViewMatches.DataSource = getEmailRecipients(); GridViewMatches.DataBind(); And when the finish button is clicked, I iterate through the rows and check what's selected: protected void Wizard1_FinishButtonClick(object sender, WizardNavigationEventArgs e) { // Set the selected values, depending on the checkboxes on the grid. foreach (GridViewRow gr in GridViewMatches.Rows) { Int32 personID = Convert.ToInt32(gr.Cells[0].Text); CheckBox selected = (CheckBox) gr.Cells[1].FindControl("CheckBoxSelectedToSend"); But at this stage GridViewMatches.Rows.Count = 0! I don't re-bind the grid, I shouldn't need to, right? I expect the view-state to maintain the state. (Also, if I do rebind the grid, my selection checkboxes will be cleared) NB: This page also dynamically adds user controls in OnInit method. I have heard that it might mess with the view state, but as far as I can tell, I am doing it correctly and the viewstate for those added controls seems to work (values are persisted between postbacks) Thanks a lot in advance for any help! Ryan UPDATE: Could this be to do with the fact I am setting the datasource programatically? I wondered if the asp engine was databinding the grid during the page lifecycle to a datasource that was not yet defined. (In a test page, the GridView is 'automatically' databound'. I don't want the grid to re-bound I just want the values from the viewstate from the previous post! Also, I have this in the asp header: ViewStateEncryptionMode="Never" - this was to resolve an occasional 'Invalid Viewstate Validation MAC' message Thanks again Ryan

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• Why use short-circuit code?

  - by Tim Lytle

  Related Questions: Benefits of using short-circuit evaluation, Why would a language NOT use Short-circuit evaluation?, Can someone explain this line of code please? (Logic & Assignment operators) There are questions about the benefits of a language using short-circuit code, but I'm wondering what are the benefits for a programmer? Is it just that it can make code a little more concise? Or are there performance reasons? I'm not asking about situations where two entities need to be evaluated anyway, for example: if($user->auth() AND $model->valid()){ $model->save(); } To me the reasoning there is clear - since both need to be true, you can skip the more costly model validation if the user can't save the data. This also has a (to me) obvious purpose: if(is_string($userid) AND strlen($userid) > 10){ //do something }; Because it wouldn't be wise to call strlen() with a non-string value. What I'm wondering about is the use of short-circuit code when it doesn't effect any other statements. For example, from the Zend Application default index page: defined('APPLICATION_PATH') || define('APPLICATION_PATH', realpath(dirname(__FILE__) . '/../application')); This could have been: if(!defined('APPLICATION_PATH')){ define('APPLICATION_PATH', realpath(dirname(__FILE__) . '/../application')); } Or even as a single statement: if(!defined('APPLICATION_PATH')) define('APPLICATION_PATH', realpath(dirname(__FILE__) . '/../application')); So why use the short-circuit code? Just for the 'coolness' factor of using logic operators in place of control structures? To consolidate nested if statements? Because it's faster?

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• SQL Injection Protection for dynamic queries

  - by jbugeja

  The typical controls against SQL injection flaws are to use bind variables (cfqueryparam tag), validation of string data and to turn to stored procedures for the actual SQL layer. This is all fine and I agree, however what if the site is a legacy one and it features a lot of dynamic queries. Then, rewriting all the queries is a herculean task and it requires an extensive period of regression and performance testing. I was thinking of using a dynamic SQL filter and calling it prior to calling cfquery for the actual execution. I found one filter in CFLib.org (http://www.cflib.org/udf/sqlSafe): <cfscript> /** * Cleans string of potential sql injection. * * @param string String to modify. (Required) * @return Returns a string. * @author Bryan Murphy ([email protected]) * @version 1, May 26, 2005 */ function metaguardSQLSafe(string) { var sqlList = "-- ,'"; var replacementList = "#chr(38)##chr(35)##chr(52)##chr(53)##chr(59)##chr(38)##chr(35)##chr(52)##chr(53)##chr(59)# , #chr(38)##chr(35)##chr(51)##chr(57)##chr(59)#"; return trim(replaceList( string , sqlList , replacementList )); } </cfscript> This seems to be quite a simple filter and I would like to know if there are ways to improve it or to come up with a better solution?

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• Symfony forms question (restoring selected value of a dynamically populated sfWidgetFormSelect widge

  - by Stick it to THE MAN

  I am using Symfony 1.3.2 with Propel ORM on Ubuntu 9.10. I have developed a form that dynamically populates a select widget with cities in a selected country, using AJAX. Before the data entered on the form is saved, I validate the form. If validation fails, the form is presented back to the user for correction. However, because the country list is dynamically generated, the form that is presented for correction does not have a valid city selected (it is empty, since the country widget has not changed yet). This is inconvenient for the user, because it means they have to select ANOTHER country (so the change event is fired), and then change back to the original country they selected, then FINALLY select the city which they had last selected. All of this is forced on the user because another (possibly unrelated) field did not vaildate. I tried $form-getValue('widget_name'), called immediately after $form-bind(), but it seems (infact, IIRC, if form fails to validate, all the values are reset to null) - so that does not work. I am currently trying a nasty hack which involves the use of directly accesing the input (i.e. tainted) data via $_POST, and setting them into a flash variable - but I feel its a very nasty hack) What I'm trying to do is a common use case scenario - is there a better way to do this, than hacking around with $_POST etc?

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• WPF: Textbox not firing onTextInput event

  - by Kay Ell

  So basically, I have a bunch of TextBoxes that the user gets to fill out. I've got a button that I want to keep disabled until all the TextBoxes have had text entered in them. Here is a sample XAML TextBox that I'm using: <TextBox Name="DelayedRecallScore" TextInput="CheckTextBoxFilled" Width="24" /> And here is the function that I'm trying to trigger: //Disables the OK button until all score textboxes have content private void CheckTextBoxFilled(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { /* foreach (TextBox scorebox in TextBoxList) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(scorebox.Text)) { Ok_Button.IsEnabled = false; return; } } Ok_Button.IsEnabled = true; */ MessageBox.Show("THIS MAKES NO SENSE"); } The MessageBox is not showing up when TextInput should be getting triggered. As an experiment I tried triggering CheckTextBoxFilled() on PreviewTextInput, and it worked fine then, meaning that for whatever reason, the function just isn't getting called. I also have a validation function that is triggered by PreviewTextInput, which works as it should. At first I thought PreviewTextInput might somehow be interfering with TextInput, so I took PreviewTextInput off the TextBox, but that hasn't managed to fix anything. I'm completely befuddled by why this might happen, so any help would be appreciated.

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• Db4o Mvc Application Architecture

  - by Mac

  I am currently testing out Db4o for an asp.net MVC 2 application idea but there are a few things I'm not quite sure on the best way to proceed. I want my application to use guessable routes rather than Id's for referencing my entities but I also think I need Id's of some sort for update scenarios. so for example I want /country/usa instead of /country/1 I may want to change the key name though (not perhaps on a country but on other entities) so am thinking I need an Id to use as the reference to retrieve the object prior to updating it's fields. From other comments it seems like the UUID is a bit long to be using and would prefer to use my own id's anyway for clean separation of concerns. Looking at both the KandaAlpha project I wasn't too keen on some aspects of the design and prefer something more along the lines of S#arp architecture where they use things like the [domainsignature] and EntityWithTypedId, IEntityDuplicateChecker, IHasAssignedId, BaseObject and IValidatable in their entities to control insert/update behaviour which seems cleaner and more extensible, covers validation and is encapsulated well within the core and base repository classes. So would a port of S#arp architecture to Db4o make sense of am I still thinking rmdbs in an oodb world? Also is there a best practice for managing indexes (including Unique ones as above) in Db4o? Should they be model metadata based and loaded using DI in a bootstrapper for example or should they be more loaded more like Automapper.CreateMap? Its a bit of a rambling question I know but any thoughts, ideas or suggested reading material is greatly appreciated. Thanks Mac

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• Wpf Resource: "Unknown Build Error, 'Path cannot be null..."

  - by Femaref

  The following is a snippet from a xaml defining a DataGrid in a Control, defining a template selector. <DataGrid.Resources> <selector:CurrencyColorSelector x:Key="currencyColorSelector"> <selector:CurrencyColorSelector.NegativeTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Balance, StringFormat=n}" Background="Red"/> </DataTemplate> </selector:CurrencyColorSelector.NegativeTemplate> <selector:CurrencyColorSelector.NormalTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Balance, StringFormat=n}"/> </DataTemplate> </selector:CurrencyColorSelector.NormalTemplate> </selector:CurrencyColorSelector> </DataGrid.Resources> Now, an error is thrown: "Unknown build error, 'Path cannot be null. Parameter name: path Line 27 Position 79.'" (Compiler or xaml validation error). I have no idea where this Path comes from, neither does my example show anything of it. If you doubleclick the error, it points to the end of the first line. Did anybody encounter such a problem and has a solution for it? The example was from here: http://www.wpftutorial.net/DataGrid.html (Row Details depending on the type of data)

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• Pass WPF UserControl reference to another UserControl

  - by Rob Bell

  I've created two UserControls, a ValidationManager and a ValidationOutput. On a given form there is one ValidationManager and several ValidationOutput controls, one for each control that is validated. The ValidationManager is given a list of validation errors when the form is submitted, I want each ValidationOutput control to look at this list and see if there are any errors relevant to them. The code looks a bit like this: <r:ValidationManager x:Name="myValidationManager" /> ... <TextBox Name="SomeField" /> <r:ValidationOutput FieldName="SomeField" /> I need to pass a reference to the ValidationManager to each of the ValidationOutput controls. I've added a ValidationManager property to the ValidationOutput UserControl but don't know how to pass the reference to the control. I've tried the following but am just clutching at straws: <r:ValidationOutput ValidationManager="myValidationManager" /> ...and... <r:ValidationOutput ValidationManager="{Binding myValidationManager}" /> The first results in an error "Property 'ValidationManager' was not found or is not serializable for type 'ValidationOutput'" and the second "A 'Binding' cannot be set on the 'ValidationManager' property of type 'ValidationControl'. A 'Binding' can only be set on a DependencyProperty of a DependencyObject."

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• How do you keep your business rules DRY?

  - by Mario

  I periodically ponder how to best design an application whose every business rule exists in just a single location. (While I know there is no proverbial “best way” and that designs are situational, people must have a leaning toward one practice or another.) I work for a shop where they prefer to house as much of the business rules as possible in the database. This requires developers in many cases to perform identical front-end validations to avoid sending data to the database that will result in an exception—not very DRY. It grates me anytime I find myself duplicating any kind of logic—even lowly validation logic. I am a single-point-of-truth purist to an anal degree. On the other end of the spectrum, I know of shops that create dumb databases (the Rails community leans in this direction) and handle all of the business logic in a separate tier (in Rails the models would house “most” of this). Note the word “most” which implies that some business logic does end up spilling into other places (in Rails it might spill over into the controllers). In way, a clean separation of concerns where all business logic exists in a single core location is a Utopian fantasy that’s hard to uphold (n-tiered architecture or not). Furthermore, is see the “Database as a fortress” and would agree that it should be built on constraints that cause it to reject bad data. As such, I hold principles that cause a degree of angst as I attempt to balance them. How do you balance the database-as-a-fortress view with the desire to have a single-point-of-truth?

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• extracting RDL data using LINQ

  - by BobC

  I'm working with some SQL Report definition files (RDLs), using LINQ to extract component query statements for validation. I'm trying to extract the <DataSet> elements from under the <DataSets> element. I seem to be getting hung up with one of the elements under <DataSet><Fields><Field> which has a namespace qualifier <rd:TypeName> I've been using LINQ to XML for other parts of the files where there is no namespace qualifiers with no trouble, by specifying a default namespace. The RDL specifies two namespaces: xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sqlserver/reporting/2005/01/reportdefinition" xmlns:rd="http://schemas.microsoft.com/SQLServer/reporting/reportdesigner"> When I try to get the <DataSets> element, however, I get the following error: System.Xml.XmlException - The ':' character, hexadecimal value 0x3A, cannot be included in a name. I know it has to do with the namespace qualifier (rd:) in one of the child elements, but I'm having difficulty getting a LINQ expression that works. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks!

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• Application Errors vs User Errors in PHP

  - by CogitoErgoSum

  So after much debate back and forth, I've come up with what I think may be a valid plan to handle Application/System errors vs User Errors (I.e. Validation Issues, Permission Issues etc). Application/System Errors will be handled using a custom error handler (via set_error_handler()). Depending on the severity of the error, the user may be redirected to a generic error page (I.e. Fatal Error), or the error may simply be silently logged (i.e E_WARNING). These errors are ones most likely caused by issues outside the users control (Missing file, Bad logic, etc). The second set of errors would be User Generated ones. These are the ones may not automatically trigger an error but would be considered one. In these cases i"ve decided to use the trigger_error() function and typically throw a waning or notice which would be logged silently by the error handler. After that it would be up to the developer to then redirect the user to another page or display some sort of more meaningful message to the user. This way an error of any type is always logged, but user errors still allow the developer freedom to handle it in their own ways. I.e. Redirect them back to their form with it fully repopulated and a message of what went wrong. Does anyone see anything wrong with this, or have a more intuitive way? My approach to error handling is typically everyone has their own ways but there must be a way instituted.

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• WCF for a shared data access

  - by Audrius

  Hi all, I have a little experience with WCF and would like to get your opinion/suggestion on how the following problem can be solved: A web service needs to be accessible from multiple clients simultaneously and service needs to return a result from a shared data set. The concrete project I'm working on has to store a list of IP addresses/ranges. This list will be queried by a bunch of web servers for a validation purposes and we speak of a couple of thousand or more queries per minute. My initial draft approach was to use Windows service as a WCF host with service contract implementing class that is decorated with ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.Single, ConcurrencyMode = ConcurrencyMode.Multiple) that has a list object and a custom locking for accessing it. So basically I have a WCF service singleton with a list = shared data - multiple clients. What I do not like about it is that data and communication layers are merged into one and performance wise this doesn't feel "right". What I really really (- want is Windows service running an instance of IP list holding container class object, a second service running WCF service contract implementation and a way the latter querying the former in a nice way with a minimal blocking. Using another WCF channel would not really take me far away from the initial draft implementation or would it? What approach would you take? Project is still in a very early stage so complete design re-do is not out of question. All ideas are appreciated. Thanks! UPDATE: The data set will be changed dynamically. Web service will have a separate method to add IP or IP range and on top of that there will be a scheduled task that will trigger data cleanup every 10-15 minutes according to some rules. UPDATE 2: a separate benchmark project will be kicked up that should use MSSQL as a data backend (instead on in-memory list).

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• WMD markdown editor - HTML to Markdown conversion

  - by gg1

  I am using wmd markdown editor on a project and had a question: When I post the form containing the markdown text area, it (as expected) posts html to the server. However, say upon server-side validation something fails and I need to send the user back to edit their entry, is there anyway to refill the textarea with just the markdown and not the html? Since as I have it set up, the server only has access to the post data (which is in the form of html) so I can't seem to think of a way to do this. Any ideas? Preferably a non-javascript based solution. Update: I found an html to markdown converter called markdownify. I guess this might be the best solution for displaying the markdown back to the user...any better alternatives are welcome! Update 2: I found this post on SO and I guess there is an option to send the data to the server as markdown instead of html. Are there any downsides to simply storing the data as markdown in the database? What about displaying it back to the user (outside of an editor)? Maybe it would be best to post both versions (html AND markdown) to the server... SOLVED: I can simply use php markdown to convert the markdown to html serverside.

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• Parsing an arithmetic expression and building a tree from it in Java

  - by ChocolateBear

  Hi, I needed some help with creating custom trees given an arithmetic expression. Say, for example, you input this arithmetic expression: (5+2)*7 The result tree should look like: * / \ + 7 / \ 5 2 I have some custom classes to represent the different types of nodes, i.e. PlusOp, LeafInt, etc. I don't need to evaluate the expression, just create the tree, so I can perform other functions on it later. Additionally, the negative operator '-' can only have one child, and to represent '5-2', you must input it as 5 + (-2). Some validation on the expression would be required to ensure each type of operator has the correct the no. of arguments/children, each opening bracket is accompanied by a closing bracket. Also, I should probably mention my friend has already written code which converts the input string into a stack of tokens, if that's going to be helpful for this. I'd appreciate any help at all. Thanks :) (I read that you can write a grammar and use antlr/JavaCC, etc. to create the parse tree, but I'm not familiar with these tools or with writing grammars, so if that's your solution, I'd be grateful if you could provide some helpful tutorials/links for them.)

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• Site Security/Access management for asp.net mvc application

  - by minal

  I am trying to find a good pattern to use for user access validation. Basically on a webforms application I had a framework which used user roles to define access, ie, users were assigned into roles, and "pages" were granted access to a page. I had a table in the database with all the pages listed in it. Pages could have child pages that got their access inherited from the parent. When defining access, I assigned the roles access to the pages. Users in the role then had access to the pages. It is fairly simple to manage as well. The way I implemented this was on a base class that every page inherited. On pageload/init I would check the page url and validate access and act appropriately. However I am now working on a MVC application and need to implement something similar, however I can't find a good way to make my previous solution work. Purely because I don't have static pages as url paths. Also I am not sure how best to approach this as I now have controllers rather then aspx pages. I have looked at the MVCSitemapprovider, but that does not work off a database, it needs a sitemap file. I need control of changing user persmissions on the fly. Any thoughts/suggestions/pointers would be greatly appreciated.

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• Error in Implementing WS Security web service in WebLogic 10.3

  - by Chris

  Hi, I am trying to develop a JAX WS web service with WS-Security features in WebLogic 10.3. I have used the ant tasks WSDLC, JWSC and ClientGen to generate skeleton/stub for this web service. I have two keystores namely WSIdentity.jks and WSTrust.jks which contains the keys and certificates. One of the alias of WSIdentity.jks is "ws02p". The test client has the following code to invoke the web service: SecureSimpleService service = new SecureSimpleService(); SecureSimplePortType port = service.getSecureSimplePortType(); List credProviders = new ArrayList(); CredentialProvider cp = new ClientBSTCredentialProvider( "E:\\workspace\\SecureServiceWL103\\keystores\\WSIdentity.jks", "webservice", "ws01p","webservice"); credProviders.add(cp); string endpointURL="http://localhost:7001/SecureSimpleService/SecureSimpleService"; BindingProvider bp = (BindingProvider)port; Map requestContext = bp.getRequestContext(); requestContext.put(BindingProvider.ENDPOINT_ADDRESS_PROPERTY, endpointURL); requestContext.put(WSSecurityContext.CREDENTIAL_PROVIDER_LIST,credProviders); requestContext.put(WSSecurityContext.TRUST_MANAGER, new TrustManager() { public boolean certificateCallback(X509Certificate[] chain, int validateErr) { // Put some custom validation code in here. // Just return true for now return true; } }); SignResponse resp1 = new SignResponse(); resp1 = port.echoSignOnlyMessage("hello sign"); System.out.println("Result: " + resp1.getMessage()); When I trying to invoke this web servcie using this test client I am getting the error "Invalid signing policy" with the following stack trace: *[java] weblogic.wsee.security.wss.policy.SecurityPolicyArchitectureException: Invalid signing policy [java] at weblogic.wsee.security.wss.plan.SecurityPolicyBlueprintDesigner.verifyPolicy(SecurityPolicyBlueprintDesigner.java:786) [java] at weblogic.wsee.security.wss.plan.SecurityPolicyBlueprintDesigner.designOutboundBlueprint(SecurityPolicyBlueprintDesigner.java:136) Am I missing any configuration settings in WebLogic admin console or is it do with something else. Thanks in advance.

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• Error with masterpage

  - by Raphyboy

  Hi, i'm creating a brand new masterpage with VS2010 Beta 2 and I get this warning (that causes me errors in the content pages): Validation (XHTML 1.0 Transitional): Content is not supported outside 'script' or 'asp:content' regions. The masterpage's code : <%@ Master Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="Bob.master.cs" Inherits="TShirtFactory.Web.All.Core.lib.masterpage.Bob" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="head" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </div> </form> </body> </html> As you can see, it's the default masterpage generated code. I get the warning when I hover the tag at top. Does anybody have an idea of what's going on ? Thank you

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• Manditory read-only fields in django

  - by jamida

  I'm writing a test "grade book" application. The models.py file is shown below. class Student(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=50) parent = models.CharField(max_length=50) def __unicode__(self): return self.name class Grade(models.Model): studentId = models.ForeignKey(Student) finalGrade = models.CharField(max_length=3) I'd like to be able to change the final grade for several students in a modelformset but for now I'm just trying one student at a time. I'm also trying to create a form for it that shows the student name as a field that can not be changed, the only thing that can be changed here is the finalGrade. So I used this trick to make the studentId read-only. class GradeROForm(ModelForm): studentId = forms.ModelChoiceField(queryset=Student.objects.all()) def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): super(GradeROForm,self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) instance = getattr(self, 'instance', None) if instance and instance.id: self.fields['studentId'].widget.attrs['disabled']='disabled' def clean_studentId(self): instance = getattr(self,'instance',None) if instance: return instance.studentId else: return self.cleaned_data.get('studentId',None) class Meta: model=Grade And here is my view: def modifyGrade(request,student): student = Student.objects.get(name=student) mygrade = Grade.objects.get(studentId=student) if request.method == "POST": myform = GradeROForm(data=request.POST, instance=mygrade) if myform.is_valid(): grade = myform.save() info = "successfully updated %s" % grade.studentId else: myform=GradeROForm(instance=mygrade) return render_to_response('grades/modifyGrade.html',locals()) This displays the form like I expect, but when I hit "submit" I get a form validation error for the student field telling me this field is required. I'm guessing that, since the field is "disabled", the value is not being reported in the POST and for reasons unknown to me the instance isn't being used in its place. I'm a new Django/Python programmer, but quite experienced in other languages. I can't believe I've stumbled upon such a difficult to solve problem in my first significant django app. I figure I must be missing something. Any ideas?

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• Rails: keeping DRY with ActiveRecord models that share similar complex attributes

  - by Greg

  This seems like it should have a straightforward answer, but after much time on Google and SO I can't find it. It might be a case of missing the right keywords. In my RoR application I have several models that share a specific kind of string attribute that has special validation and other functionality. The closest similar example I can think of is a string that represents a URL. This leads to a lot of duplication in the models (and even more duplication in the unit tests), but I'm not sure how to make it more DRY. I can think of several possible directions... create a plugin along the lines of the "validates_url_format_of" plugin, but that would only make the validations DRY give this special string its own model, but this seems like a very heavy solution create a ruby class for this special string, but how do I get ActiveRecord to associate this class with the model attribute that is a string in the db Number 3 seems the most reasonable, but I can't figure out how to extend ActiveRecord to handle anything other than the base data types. Any pointers? Finally, if there is a way to do this, where in the folder hierarchy would you put the new class that is not a model? Many thanks.

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• Update PEAR on MAMP MacOsX

  - by Jevgeni Smirnov

  Current I am trying to install phpunit on my mac os x and mamp server: pear config-set auto_discover 1 pear install pear.phpunit.de/PHPUnit Errors which I got during installation: Validation Error: This package.xml requires PEAR version 1.9.4 to parse properly, we are version 1.9.2 pear upgrade pear Nothing to upgrade UPDATE 1 This is my pear config. I assume that I messed up local and mamp installs(I didn't know that mamp also has pear, so I installed local one). I suppose something wrong with bin_dir, php_dir and other paths? Keefir-Samolet-iMac:MAMP jevgenismirnov$ pear config-show Configuration (channel pear.php.net): ===================================== Auto-discover new Channels auto_discover 1 Default Channel default_channel pear.php.net HTTP Proxy Server Address http_proxy PEAR server [DEPRECATED] master_server pear.php.net Default Channel Mirror preferred_mirror pear.php.net Remote Configuration File remote_config PEAR executables directory bin_dir /Users/jevgenismirnov/pear/bin PEAR documentation directory doc_dir /Users/jevgenismirnov/pear/docs PHP extension directory ext_dir /Applications/MAMP/bin/php/php5.3.6/lib/php/extensions/no-debug-non-zts-20090626/ PEAR directory php_dir /Users/jevgenismirnov/pear/share/pear PEAR Installer cache directory cache_dir /var/folders/k7/xpwbcbrs1xs8tlxjk5mvkwrr0000gp/T//pear/cache PEAR configuration file cfg_dir /Users/jevgenismirnov/pear/cfg directory PEAR data directory data_dir /Users/jevgenismirnov/pear/data PEAR Installer download download_dir /tmp/pear/install directory PHP CLI/CGI binary php_bin /Applications/MAMP/bin/php/php5.3.6/bin/php php.ini location php_ini --program-prefix passed to php_prefix PHP's ./configure --program-suffix passed to php_suffix PHP's ./configure PEAR Installer temp directory temp_dir /tmp/pear/install PEAR test directory test_dir /Users/jevgenismirnov/pear/tests PEAR www files directory www_dir /Users/jevgenismirnov/pear/www Cache TimeToLive cache_ttl 3600 Preferred Package State preferred_state stable Unix file mask umask 22 Debug Log Level verbose 1 PEAR password (for password maintainers) Signature Handling Program sig_bin /usr/local/bin/gpg Signature Key Directory sig_keydir /Applications/MAMP/bin/php/php5.3.6/conf/pearkeys Signature Key Id sig_keyid Package Signature Type sig_type gpg PEAR username (for username maintainers) User Configuration File Filename /Users/jevgenismirnov/.pearrc System Configuration File Filename /Applications/MAMP/bin/php/php5.3.6/conf/pear.conf

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• JQuery how to resubmit form after ajax call success

  - by Steven Rosato

  I am using JQuery to perform form submission through an ajax request. I use form.submit(function() { if( success ) { return true; } validate(); //proceeds to an ajax call return false; } On request success I want to either proceed with form submission or user callback. Therefore, if the user callback is undefined, I will submit the form on form validation success (from my validate function). config = { successCallback: function() { success = true; form.submit(); //does not work } }; validate = function() { $.ajax( ... success: function(data) { //code logic config.successCallback(); } ); }; The ajax success callback will call config.successCallback() and if it was never overridden by the user, it would proceed to normal form submission. I tried using an instance variable (success) to make sure 'return true' would proceed to default form submission. Unfortunately this is not working. It seems that the 'return false' statement that prevents default form submission will neglect any further submit calls even if an instance variable was set. It only works after clicking the submit button another time (that makes it twice for it to work). Is there any workaround for this. I want to both use a user callback when provided but proceed with default form submission when not, and since I am using an ajax function to validate the form, the ajax success callback is complicating things.

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• PHP doesn't properly URL-decode POST values, or is the bug somewhere else?

  - by Vilx-

  I have a PHP website that integrates with PayPal. As part of it's normal operation it sends a POST request to a user defined URL about every transaction (and some other events). It's called IPN for those who know. All was/is working just fine, until we moved to a new hosting provider last week. This naturally resulted in downtime, changing DNS entries, PHP misconfigurations, etc. In short - PayPal was unable to send the notifications for a few days. Now, this is not that bad, because there is an option just for that - you can log into PayPal, go to the appropriate menu item, and have it resend the failed notifications. Which we did, and it resulted in over 400 error emails. The problem is that normally the email of the receiver ($_POST['business']) is received by PHP as [email protected], but when resending it comes out as my%40business.com. And the request validation goes crazy. Obviously either something somewhere is missing a call to urldecode() or something is doing one too many urlencode(). But who? Is this a bug in PHP? I've never had such a problem before, not with any POST data ever. Perhaps PayPal has a bug? Wouldn't be surprising, but then this should have been caught ages ago. Or perhaps I'm doing something wrong and I should really be calling the urldecode() myself?

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