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• Help Me With This MS-Access Query

  - by yae

  I have 2 tables: "products" and "pieces" PRODUCTS idProd product price PIECES id idProdMain idProdChild quant idProdMain and idProdChild are related with the table: "products". Other considerations is that 1 product can have some pieces and 1 product can be a piece. Price product equal a sum of quantity * price of all their pieces. "Products" table contains all products (p EXAMPLE: TABLE PRODUCTS (idProd - product - price) 1 - Computer - 300€ 2 - Hard Disk - 100€ 3 - Memory - 50€ 4 - Main Board - 100€ 5 - Software - 50€ 6 - CDroms 100 un. - 30€ TABLE PIECES (id - idProdMain - idProdChild - Quant.) 1 - 1 - 2 - 1 2 - 1 - 3 - 2 3 - 1 - 4 - 1 WHAT I NEED? I need update the price of the main product when the price of the product child (piece) is changed. Following the previous example, if I change the price of this product "memory" (is a piece too) to 60€, then product "Computer" will must change his price to 320€ How I can do it using queries? Already I have tried this to obtain the price of the main product, but not runs. This query not returns any value: SELECT Sum(products.price*pieces.quant) AS Expr1 FROM products LEFT JOIN pieces ON (products.idProd = pieces.idProdChild) AND (products.idProd = pieces.idProdChild) AND (products.idProd = pieces.idProdMain) WHERE (((pieces.idProdMain)=5)); MORE INFO The table "products" contains all the products to sell that it is in the shop. The table "pieces" is to take a control of the compound products. To know those who are the products children. For example of compound product: computers. This product is composed by other products (motherboard, hard disk, memory, cpu, etc.)

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• How to get jQuery to find the first list-item, rather than all list-items?

  - by ricebowl

  I'm trying to implement a basic jQuery infinite carousel. As much for the learning process as for anything else (as a rule I'm not a fan of re-inventing wheels, but...I have to learn somehow, might as well start with the basics). I've managed to get the list to animate left happily enough, but I'm stuck when it comes to selecting the first element of the list. I've tried to use: $('ul#services > li:first'); $('ul#services > li:first-child'); $('ul#services > li').eq([0]); (xhtml below), In each case a console.log(first) (the var name used) returns all of the list-items. Am I doing something blatantly, and obviously, wrong? The eventual plan is to clone the first li, append it to the parent ul, remove the li from the list and allow the list to scroll infinitely. It's just a list of services rather than links so I'm not -at the moment- planning to have scroll or left/right functionality. Current xhtml: <div class="wrapper"> <ul id="services"> <!-- closing the `</li>` tags on the following line is to remove whitespace in the horizontal list, doesn't seem to make a difference to the jQuery from my own testing. --> <li>one</li ><li>two</li ><li>three</li ><li>four</li ><li>five</li ><li>six</li ><li>seven</li ><li>eight</li ><li>nine</li ><li>ten</li> </ul> </div>

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• How to hide canvas content from parent rounded corners in any webkit for Mac?

  - by Jose Rui Santos

  I have a parent div with rounded corners that contains a canvas: <div id="box"> <canvas width="300px" height="300px"></canvas> </div>? #box { width: 150px; height: 150px; background-color: blue; border-radius: 50px; overflow: hidden; }? The canvas renders a red rectangle that overflows the parent. As expected, this is what I get in all browsers: The problem: However, for webkit browsers running in Mac OS lion (I tested Safari 5.1.5 and Chrome 19), the canvas is still visible in the round corners: Interestingly, this problem seems to happen only when the inner element is a canvas. For any other child element, the content is correctly hidden. One workaround would be to apply the same rounded corners to the canvas itself, but unfortunately this is not possible, since I need to animate the canvas relative position. Another workaround that should work, is to redraw the canvas in a clipped region that resembles the rounded corners shape, but I would prefer a cleaner CSS3 solution. So, does one know how to fix this for Safari and Chrome on Mac? EDIT: Problem also happens in Chrome on Win7 jsFiddle here

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• Best way of showing more results with javascript/css

  - by Ricardo Neves

  I'm developing a website and i'm having troubles showing the search results to the user the way I want. Basically, after the user search, the page makes a couple of ajax requests and as soon as a response arrive it appends the info to a specific element on my page. Each results is shown as a line... The problem is that in most case there are going to be more than 1000 results and this would make the page have a large scroll. My idea was to show only the first 15 results and when the user clicks "show more" the element would expand and show the next 15 results and so on... This would be easier to do if the website wasn't responsive, but because it is I can't find the proper way of implementing what I want without lowering the website perfomance. I have "2 ideas": The first is by using something like #element .div:nth-child(-n+15) on my css and figure a way of changing the "15" to how much results I want to show... I don't know if this can be done. Is it possible to call css rules with parameters? Maybe with less css? The second option is probably a bad option if i don't want to lower the website performance. Using javascript I would check if there is a specific css class(like .show-15 .show30 .show45) and add that class to my element and if it don't exist, create it somehow.. Any help would be appreciated.

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• ASP.NET MVC Inserting object and related object into 2 tables

  - by ile

  I have two tables: Users and UserOwners. Table UserOwners contains list of users that certain user created (list of child-users) - or to be more precise, it contains UserOwnerID and UserID fields. So, now I want to create a new user... in Controller I have something like this: var userOwner = accountRepository.GetUser(User.Identity.Name); var userOwnerID = userOwner.UserID; UserReference userReference = new UserReference(); userReference.UserOwnerID = userOwnerID; if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { //accountRepository.Add(user); //accountRepository.Save(); return View(); } catch { return View(); } } What is the easiest way to add new user to a table Users and matching UserOwner to UserOwners table. Is it suppose to be something like this? public void Add(User user) { db.Users.InsertOnSubmit(user); db.UserReferences.InsertOnSubmit(user.UserReference); } ...or I will have to pass two objects and after adding user I must read it's ID and than assign it to userReference object and add that object to DB? If so, how to read ID of the last object added? Thanks, Ile

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• Mixing together Connect by, inner join and sum with Oracle

  - by François

  Hey there, I need help with a oracle query. Excuse me in advance for my english. Here is my setup: I have 2 tables called respectively "tasks" and "timesheets". The "tasks" table is a recursive one, that way each task can have multiple subtasks. Each timesheet is associated with a task (not necessarily the "root" task) and contains the number of hours worked on it. Example: Tasks id:1 | name: Task A | parent_id: NULL id:2 | name: Task A1 | parent_id: 1 id:3 | name: Task A1.1 | parent_id: 2 id:4 | name: Task B | parent_id: NULL id:5 | name: Task B1 | parent_id: 4 Timesheets id:1 | task_id: 1 | hours: 1 id:2 | task_id: 2 | hours: 3 id:3 | task_id:3 | hours: 1 id:5 | task_id:5 | hours:1 ... What I want to do: I want a query that will return the sum of all the hours worked on a "task hierarchy". If we take a look at the previous example, It means I would like to have the following results: task A - 5 hour(s) | task B - 1 hour(s) At first I tried this SELECT TaskName, Sum(Hours) "TotalHours" FROM ( SELECT replace(sys_connect_by_path(decode(level, 1, t.name), '~'), '~') As TaskName, ts.hours as hours FROM tasks t INNER JOIN timesheets ts ON t.id=ts.task_id START WITH PARENTOID=-1 CONNECT BY PRIOR t.id = t.parent_id ) GROUP BY TaskName Having Sum(Hours) > 0 ORDER BY TaskName And it almost work. THe only problem is that if there are no timesheet for a root task, it will skip the whole hieararchy... but there might be timesheets for the child rows and it is exactly what happens with Task B1. I know it is the "inner join" part that is causing my problem but I'm not sure how can I get rid of it. Any idea how to solve this problem? Thank you

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• CSS3: Stripe table with multiple <tbody> elements

  - by xyz

  Hello, I've got a table with multiple <tbody> elements. At a given time, only one <tbody> is displayed, or all of them are displayed. I currently use this CSS3 code to stripe the table. table tr:nth-child(even) { background: #efefef; } When a single <tbody> element is shown, everything is (obviously) fine, but when multiple <tbody> elements are shown the CSS rules apply to each one separately, and each <tbody> has its own "stripes system". Together the stripes may or may not look consistent, depending on the number of rows. <tbody> <tr> [ODD] <tr> [EVEN] <tr> [ODD] </tbody> <tbody> <tr> [ODD] <tr> [EVEN] </tbody> ... Would I absolutely have to use JavaScript (...jQuery) to fix this?

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• C# WCF and Object Inheritence

  - by Michael Edwards

  I have the following setup of two classes: [SerializableAttribute] public class ParentData{ [DataMember] public string Title{get;set;} } [DataContract] public class ChildData : ParentData{ [DataMember] public string Abstract{get;set;} } These two classes are served through a WCF service. However I only want the service to expose the ChildData class to the end user but pull the marked up DataMember properties from the parent. E.g. The consuming client would have a stub class that looked like: public class ChildData{ public string Title{get;set;} public string Abstract{get;set;} } If I uses the parent and child classes as above the stub class only contains the Abstract property. I have looked at using the KnownType attribute on the ChildData class like so: [DataContract] [KnownType(typeOf(ParentData)] public class ChildData : ParentData{ [DataMember] public string Abstract{get;set;} } However this didn't work. I then applied the DataContract attribute to the ParentData class, however this then creates two stub classes in the client application which I don't want. Is there any way to tell the serializer that it should flatten the inheritance to that of the sub-class i.e. ChildData

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• Need some advice on MVC separation..

  - by Zenph

  I should note I am using Zend Framework. Although this shouldn't affect the concrete answer, it does mean there are several places I can implement my following method (action helper, controller etc). The issue is I have buildOptions() and parseOptions() method which takes $_GET/$_POST variables based on a 'tag' and builds rules which are then used in a select query. An example would be ?modelSort=id&modelOrder=asc The 'model' in the above obviously relates to the particular model, and it used as a 'tag' so that I can for example also have model2Sort and model2Order so there is no conflict between parameters. However, the trouble I am having now is where should these methods go? They are generally dealing with request params. I have been reading a lot about fat model, thin controller. Should this be in an abstract model. My thinking was that if it were, I would do something like: (note, I know I wouldn't call directly like this. Method would be used by child classes) $abstractModel-buildOptions($params); Where 'params' could be anything, like the request parameters $_GET or $_POST: $abstractModel-buildOptions($_GET); Now from what I can see the model is not inherintly dealing with request variables but rather parameters passed to the method. Advice? Where does this method belong? Model, Controller? Specifically on Zend, should it be an action helper, plugin, within an abstract model? Appreciate any advice.

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• Does Zend Navigation view helper has a uri integrity check?

  - by simple

  I am kind a confused, though I am using the uri's, it doesn't render child menu items when uri has nonexisting element(madule name||controller name) <tours> <label>Tours</label> <uri>/admin/tour/index/list</uri> <class>admin-main-navigation-item ui-corner-right</class> <pages> <add> <label>Add</label> <uri>/admin/tour/index/form/type/add</uri> </add> <edit> <label>Edit</label> <uri>/admin/tour/index/list</uri> </edit> </pages> </tours> the edit and add item are not rendered because of the "admin" - is a dummy word that I use to distinguish if it is a frontend or backend of the module. any help would be appreciated, thanks

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• How do I fix the alpha value after calling GDI text functions?

  - by Daniel Stutzbach

  I have a application that uses the Aero glass effect, so each pixel has an alpha value in addition to red, green, and blue values. I have one custom-draw control that has a solid white background (alpha = 255). I would like to draw solid text on the control using the GDI text functions. However, these functions set the alpha value to an arbitrary value, causing the text to translucently show whatever window is beneath my application's. After calling rendering the text, I would like to go through all of the pixels in the control and set their alpha value back to 255. What's the best way to do that? I haven't had any luck with the BitBlt, GetPixel, and SetPixel functions. They appear to be oblivious to the alpha value. Here are other solutions that I have considered and rejected: Draw to a bitmap, then copy the bitmap to the device: With this approach, the text rendering does not make use of the characteristics of the monitor (e.g., ClearText). Use GDI+ for text rendering: This application originally used GDI+ for text rendering (before I started working on Aero support). I switched to GDI because of difficulties I encountered trying to accurately measure strings with GDI+. I'd rather not switch back. Set the Aero region to avoid the control in question: My application's window is actually a child window of a different application running in a different process. I don't have direct control over the Aero settings on the top-level window. The application is written in C# using Windows Forms, though I'm not above using Interop to call Win32 API functions.

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• How do I use jQuery in my Greasemonkey Javascript scripts?

  - by tladuke

  I saw a question here and many blog posts about getting jquery into greasemonkey, but I can't get anything to work. Here's my script: // ==UserScript== // @name Hello jQuery // @namespace http://foo.bar // @description jQuery test script // @include * // ==/UserScript== #{contents of jquery.latest.js pasted in} unsafeWindow.jQuery = jQuery; $(document).ready(function() { alert('Hello world!'); }); I'm hoping to see an alert when I refresh a page, so I can start actually programming something. I've tried a bunch of other things and so far nothing works. The script is enabled in the little monkey menu... edit: the script part now looks like this: foo(); function foo() { $ = unsafeWindow.jQuery; $('tr td.row2:nth-child(4)').css("background-color", "#999"); } it doesn't work. I know the jQuery is good because I can run it from outside of greasemonkey. If instead of a jQuery function is just say alert('hello'); that works fine; I get the alert on page-load.

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• Caching queries in Django

  - by dolma33

  In a django project I only need to cache a few queries, using, because of server limitations, a cache table instead of memcached. One of those queries looks like this: Let's say I have a Parent object, which has a lot of Child objects. I need to store the result of the simple query parent.childs.all(). I have no problem with that, and everything works as expected with some code like key = "%s_children" %(parent.name) value = cache.get(key) if value is None: cache.set(key, parent.children.all(), CACHE_TIMEOUT) value = cache.get(key) But sometimes, just sometimes, the cache.set does nothing, and, after executing cache.set, cache.get(key) keeps returning None. After some test, I've noticed that cache.set is not working when parent.children.all().count() has higher values. That means that if I'm storing inside of key (for example) 600 children objects, it works fine, but it wont work with 1200 children. So my question is: is there a limit to the data that a key could store? How can I override it? Second question: which way is "better", the above code, or the following one? key = "%s_children" %(parent.name) value = cache.get(key) if value is None: value = parent.children.all() cache.set(key, value, CACHE_TIMEOUT) The second version won't cause errors if cache.set doesn't work, so it could be a workaround to my issue, but obviously not a solution. In general, let's forget about my issue, which version would you consider "better"?

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• selenium and firefox timeout behavior

  - by Md. Reazul Karim

  I am facing this strange timeout behavior. I tried to load some page using: WebDriver drv = new FirefoxDriver(); drv.manage().timeouts().implicitlyWait(10, TimeUnit.SECONDS); drv.get(url); String email = ""; try { WebElement aElem = Util.safeFindElementByXpath(drv, "//p[1]/a[1]"); if (aElem != null) { email = aElem.getAttribute("href"); } } catch (Exception e) { } drv.quit(); return email; The safeFindElementByXpath is: static WebElement safeFindElementByXpath(WebDriver driver, String xpath) { try { return driver.findElement(By.xpath(xpath)); } catch (NoSuchElementException e) { return null; } } Now I set the firefox network.http.connection-timeout and network.http.connection-retry-timeout both to 10. Now if I restart the firefox I can see the new values. But if I try to run the above code - the firefox window opens and it waits for a particular website for a long time. Hence I open another tab in the same firefox window and check the values of timeout and find them to be 90 and 250. If I change the values on that same window, the selenium code immediately finishes requesting for the page (ie it goes after the exception block). So the thing is that the same code will work on many sites and I don't know beforehand which site is invalid/down and I was thinking of putting this code in a separate thread and kill the thread after some time from the calling thread. But that is not possible I guess because the child thread has no way to poll anything as it is stuck at page request and can't go to the polling code afterwards. Now the thing is that I want any kind of hack/workaround to accomplish this: try getting the emails for good sites and if there are bad sites just give up after a certain period (press the panic button sorta thing). Thanks

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• hibernate: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.MySQLIntegrityConstraintViolationException

  - by user121196

  when saving an object to database using hibernate, sometimes it fails because certain fields of the object exceed the maximum varchar length defined in the database. There force I am using the following approach: 1. attempt to save 2. if getting an DataException, then I truncate the fields in the object to the max length specified in the db definition, then try to save again. However, in the second save after truncation. I'm getting the following exception: hibernate: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.MySQLIntegrityConstraintViolationException: Cannot add or update a child row: a foreign key constraint fails here's the relevant code, what's wrong? public static void saveLenientObject(Object obj){ try { save2(rec); } catch (org.hibernate.exception.DataException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); saveLenientObject(rec, e); } catch (Exception e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } private static void saveLenientObject(Object rec, DataException e) { Util.truncateObject(rec); System.out.println("after truncation "); save2(rec); } public static void save2(Object obj) throws Exception{ try{ beginTransaction(); getSession().save(obj); commitTransaction(); }catch(Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); rollbackTransaction(); //closeSession(); throw e; }finally{ closeSession(); } }

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• How can I change jtable height at runtime

  - by wniroshan

  I hava a JFrame with multiple JPanels of similar width aligned one below other. I use one of these JPanels to display a JTable which is the last JPanel of the lot. This JPanel has a JScrollpane as a child component. This is where I try to add my table dynamically. Initial height of this JScrollpane is set to 40. I designed above template using Netbeans 6.8 Now I'm trying to add the table to the JPanel. When a button is pressed below code snippet is called. The class which includes this code extends javax.swing.JFrame class. I am expecting below code would adjust table height according to the row count and display the table. SearchTable = new JTable(RowData, DisplayNames) { @Override public boolean isCellEditable(int rowIndex, int vColIndex) { return false; } }; // if row count is less than 10 then display all the rows without a scroll bar if (SearchTable.getRowCount() < 10) { pnl_tblpanel.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(625, SearchTable.getRowHeight() * (SearchTable.getRowCount() + 4))); scr_tblholder.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(625, SearchTable.getRowHeight() * (SearchTable.getRowCount() + 4))); } else {// if row count is more than 10 display first 10 rows and add a scroll bar pnl_tblpanel.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(625, SearchTable.getRowHeight() * (10 + 2))); scr_tblholder.setAutoscrolls(true); } //pnl_tblpanel.add(scr_tblholder); scr_tblholder.setViewportView(SearchTable); //pnl_tblpanel.repaint(); pnl_tblpanel.validate(); this.validate(); //this.repaint(); pnl_tblpanel.setVisible(true); this.pack(); The table displays, but the table height is not changed according to the row count. It stays its default value. I have been trying many combinations of validate and repaint but nothing worked. (More in desperation) Can anyone shed some light on this Thank you

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• Loading a UIView from a UITableview

  - by Michael Robinson

  I can firgure out how to push a UIView from a Tableview and have the "child" details appear. Here is the view I'm trying to load: Here is the code that checks for children and either pushes a itemDetail.xib or an additional UITable, I want to use the above .xib but load the correct contents "tableDataSource" into the UItable: - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { //Get the dictionary of the selected data source. NSDictionary *dictionary = [self.tableDataSource objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; //Get the children of the present item. NSArray *Children = [dictionary objectForKey:@"Children"]; if([Children count] == 0) { ItemDetailViewController *dvController = [[ItemDetailViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ItemDetailView" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:dvController animated:YES]; [dvController release]; } else { //Prepare to tableview. FirstTab *rvController = [[FirstTab alloc] initWithNibName:@"FirstView" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; //Increment the Current View rvController.CurrentLevel += 1; //Set the title; rvController.CurrentTitle = [dictionary objectForKey:@"Title"]; //Push the new table view on the stack [self.navigationController pushViewController:rvController animated:YES]; rvController.tableDataSource = Children; [rvController release]; } } Thanks for the help. I see lots of stuff on this but can't find the correct push instructions.

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• JQuery - Element Selection

  - by user208662

  Hello, I'm relatively new to JQuery. I'm trying to understand how to select a child element. Currently, I have some HTML that is defined as follows: <div id="elem1"> <div class="display">Student 1</div> </div> <div id="elem2"> <div class="display">Student 2</div> </div> <div id="elem3"> <div class="display">Student 3</div> </div> When a user clicks a link, one of the elements (elem1, elem2, or elem3) is going to be passed to a function that is defined as follows: function getNodeDisplay(node) { // NOTE: This does not work as desired return $(node).(#".display").html(); } Unfortunately, this approach does not work. How do I get the HTML associated with an element that has a specific class or a given element? Thank you for your help!

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• Basic user authentication with records in AngularFire

  - by ajkochanowicz

  Having spent literally days trying the different, various recommended ways to do this, I've landed on what I think is the most simple and promising. Also thanks to the kind gents from this SO question: Get the index ID of an item in Firebase AngularFire Curent setup Users can log in with email and social networks, so when they create a record, it saves the userId as a sort of foreign key. Good so far. But I want to create a rule so twitter2934392 cannot read facebook63203497's records. Off to the security panel Match the IDs on the backend Unfortunately, the docs are inconsistent with the method from is firebase user id unique per provider (facebook, twitter, password) which suggest appending the social network to the ID. The docs expect you to create a different rule for each of the login method's ids. Why anyone using 1 login method would want to do that is beyond me. (From: https://www.firebase.com/docs/security/rule-expressions/auth.html) So I'll try to match the concatenated auth.provider with auth.id to the record in userId for the respective registry item. According to the API, this should be as easy as In my case using $registry instead of $user of course. { "rules": { ".read": true, ".write": true, "registry": { "$registry": { ".read": "$registry == auth.id" } } } } But that won't work, because (see the first image above), AngularFire sets each record under an index value. In the image above, it's 0. Here's where things get complicated. Also, I can't test anything in the simulator, as I cannot edit {some: 'json'} To even authenticate. The input box rejects any input. My best guess is the following. { "rules": { ".write": true, "registry": { "$registry": { ".read": "data.child('userId').val() == (auth.provider + auth.id)" } } } } Which both throws authentication errors and simultaneously grants full read access to all users. I'm losing my mind. What am I supposed to do here?

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• What's your take on this Javascript thingy?

  - by Nischal

  We've been having a discussion at our workplace on this with some for and some against the behavior. Wanted to hear views from you guys : <html> <body> <div> Test! <script> document.body.removeChild(document.getElementsByTagName('div')[0]); </script> </div> </body> </html> Should the above script work and do what it's supposed to do? First, let's see what's happening here : I have a javascript that's inside the <div> element. This javascript will delete the child node within body which happens to hold the div inside which the script itself exists. Now, the above script works fine in Firefox, Opera and IE8. But IE6 and IE7 give an alert saying they cannot open the page. Let's not debate on how IE should have handled this (they've accepted it as a bug and hence fixed it in IE8). The point here is since the 'SCRIPT' tag itself is a part of DOM, should it be allowed to do something like this? Should it even exist after such an operation?

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• How to highlight parent li text only on :hover?

  - by metal-gear-solid

  How to highlight Article only on mouse over? current when i hover on Article it highlights all child item also. Is it possible to highlight Articles only see example here http://jsbin.com/ubunu/2 <style> li:hover {background:red} li li:hover {background:yellow} </style> </head> <body> <p id="hello">Hello World</p> <ul> <li>Weblog</li> <li>Articles <ul> <li>How to Beat the Red Sox</li> <li>Pitching Past the 7th Inning <ul> <li>Part I</li> <li>Part II</li> </ul> </li> <li>Eighty-Five Years Isn't All That Long, Really</li> </ul> </li> <li>About</li> </ul>

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• How do I insert XML into another XML file with XSLT?

  - by Sandra

  Hello, I looked at this thread to find out how to insert XML into XML with XSLT http://stackoverflow.com/questions/862954/insert-xml-node-at-a-specific-position-of-an-existing-document But I have a problem since I need to insert XML between two grand child nodes. For example I want to insert <s>...</s> between <r>...</r> and <t>...</t> in this file <root> <child1> <a>...</a> <r>...</r> <t>...</t> <z>...</z> </child1> </root> to create this file <root> <child1> <a>...</a> <r>...</r> <s>...</s> <t>...</t> <z>...</z> </child1> </root> Thanks for your help.

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• Running a process at the Windows 7 Welcome Screen

  - by peelman

  So here's the scoop: I wrote a tiny C# app a while back that displays the hostname, ip address, imaged date, thaw status (we use DeepFreeze), current domain, and the current date/time, to display on the welcome screen of our Windows 7 lab machines. This was to replace our previous information block, which was set statically at startup and actually embedded text into the background, with something a little more dynamic and functional. The app uses a Timer to update the ip address, deepfreeze status, and clock every second, and it checks to see if a user has logged in and kills itself when it detects such a condition. If we just run it, via our startup script (set via group policy), it holds the script open and the machine never makes it to the login prompt. If we use something like the start or cmd commands to start it off under a separate shell/process, it runs until the startup script finishes, at which point Windows seems to clean up any and all child processes of the script. We're currently able to bypass that using psexec -s -d -i -x to fire it off, which lets it persist after the startup script is completed, but can be incredibly slow, adding anywhere between 5 seconds and over a minute to our startup time. We have experimented with using another C# app to start the process, via the Process class, using WMI Calls (Win32_Process and Win32_ProcessStartup) with various startup flags, etc, but all end with the same result of the script finishing and the info block process getting killed. I tinkered with rewriting the app as a service, but services were never designed to interact with the desktop, let alone the login window, and getting things operating in the right context never really seemed to work out. So for the question: Does anybody have a good way to accomplish this? Launch a task so that it would be independent of the startup script and run on top of the welcome screen?

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• ViewController Navigating

  - by Kobe.o4

  I have 4 ViewControllers, startViewController as the initial View Controller. This contains my intro. After its finish, it will [self presentViewController:vc animated:YES completion:NULL]; into my menuViewController. startViewController ------> menuViewController ------> C1ViewController \ \ ------> ImportantViewController In my menuViewController are buttons for the two ViewController like the above illustration. Also I presented them in the View with this: [self presentViewController:vc animated:YES completion:NULL]; I return tomenuViewController with this [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; What I wanted is to make the ImportantViewController to be the like the parent view or the mainVIew even if I go to other Views. What I need is when ImportantViewController is presented when I go to either C1ViewController or menuViewController it wont be deallocated, or its content there will still be retained. Is it possible? And How? I don't know much about what parent and child view controllers for so I dont know what to implement in my problem. Thank you. BTW, Im using Storyboard.

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• Need Help: adding MouseListeners to JComponents (Drawing a JComponent and then attaching a MouseListener)

  - by user1074574

  Drawing a JComponent and then attaching a MouseListener seems very simple to me, but not in this case: I'm having a problem with a MouseListener attached to a child JComponent; here's some brief code to help describe it: Note: The BGT class has implemented ActionListers/MouseListeners that do not have any code in them, and 'figures' is an array of SwingThings. public class GC extends BGT{ public GC(){ super(); buildJMenu(); drawPanel.addMouseListener(this); //drawPanel being the panel that draws the JComponents (it is a public variable in the BGT class) drawPanel.addMouseMotionListener(this); this.addMouseListener(this); } public static void main(String[] args){ GC a = new GC(); }... public void mouseClicked(MouseEvent e) { System.out.println(e.getSource()); //This only seems to print out the DrawPanel's information }... public void mouseReleased(MouseEvent e) { repaint(); ... tempMyJTextField = new MyJTextField(startX, startY, width, height); tempMyJTextField.addMouseListener(this); tempMyJTextField.addMouseMotionListener(this); figures.add(tempMyJTextField); for(int i = 0; i < figures.size(); i++) figures.get(i).addTo(drawPanel); } This is the addTo method in the MyJTextField class: public class MyJTextField extends JTextField implements SwingThing{ ... public void addTo(JPanel p) { p.add(myTextField); } ... } In the MouseClicked event it never registers that the JComponent was clicked. (The drawing/painting works fine) Thanks.

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