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  • Postfix on Snow Leopard unable to send MIME emails, including header contents in message body

    - by devvy
    I configured postfix on snow leopard by adding the following line to /etc/hostconfig: MAILSERVER=-YES- I then configured postfix to relay through my ISP's SMTP server. I added the following two lines in their respective places within /etc/postfix/main.cf: myhostname = 1and1.com relayhost = shawmail.vc.shawcable.net I then have a simple PHP mail function wrapper as follows: send_email("[email protected]", "[email protected]", "Test Email", "<p>This is a simple HTML email</p>"); echo "Done"; function send_email($from,$to,$subject,$message){ $header="From: <".$from."> "; $header.= 'MIME-Version: 1.0' . " "; $header.= 'Content-type: text/html; charset=iso-8859-1' . " "; $send_mail=mail($to,$subject,$message,$header); if(!$send_mail){ echo "ERROR"; } } With this, I am receiving an e-mail that appears to be improperly formatted. The message header is showing up in the body of the e-mail. The raw message content is as follows: Return-Path: <[email protected]> Delivery-Date: Tue, 27 Apr 2010 18:12:48 -0400 Received: from idcmail-mo2no.shaw.ca (idcmail-mo2no.shaw.ca [64.59.134.9]) by mx.perfora.net (node=mxus2) with ESMTP (Nemesis) id 0M4XlU-1NCtC81GVY-00z5UN for [email protected]; Tue, 27 Apr 2010 18:12:48 -0400 Message-Id: <[email protected]> Received: from pd6ml3no-ssvc.prod.shaw.ca ([10.0.153.149]) by pd6mo1no-svcs.prod.shaw.ca with ESMTP; 27 Apr 2010 16:12:47 -0600 X-Cloudmark-SP-Filtered: true X-Cloudmark-SP-Result: v=1.0 c=1 a=VphdPIyG4kEA:10 a=hATtCjKilyj9ZF5m5A62ag==:17 a=mC_jT1gcAAAA:8 a=QLyc3QejAAAA:8 a=DGW4GvdtALggLTu6w9AA:9 a=KbDtEDGyCi7QHcNhDYYwsF92SU8A:4 a=uch7kV7NfGgA:10 a=5ZEL1eDBWGAA:10 Received: from unknown (HELO 1and1.com) ([24.84.196.104]) by pd6ml3no-dmz.prod.shaw.ca with ESMTP; 27 Apr 2010 16:12:48 -0600 Received: by 1and1.com (Postfix, from userid 70) id BB08D14ECFC; Tue, 27 Apr 2010 15:12:47 -0700 (PDT) To: [email protected] Subject: Test Email X-PHP-Originating-Script: 501:test.php Date: Tue, 27 Apr 2010 18:12:48 -0400 X-UI-Junk: AutoMaybeJunk +30 (SPA); V01:LYI2BGRt:7TwGx5jxe8cylj5nOTae9JQXYqoWvG2w4ZSfwYCXmHCH/5vVNCE fRD7wNNM86txwLDTO522ZNxyNHhvJUK9d2buMQuAUCMoea2jJHaDdtRgkGxNSkO2 v6svm0LsZikLMqRErHtBCYEWIgxp2bl0W3oA3nIbtfp3li0kta27g/ZjoXcgz5Sw B8lEqWBqKWMSta1mCM+XD/RbWVsjr+LqTKg== Envelope-To: [email protected] From: <[email protected]> MIME-Version: 1.0 Content-type: text/html; charset=iso-8859-1 Message-Id: <[email protected]> Date: Tue, 27 Apr 2010 15:12:47 -0700 (PDT) <p>This is a simple HTML email</p> And here are the contents of my /var/log/mail.log file after sending the email: Apr 27 15:29:01 User-iMac postfix/qmgr[705]: 74B1514EDDF: removed Apr 27 15:29:30 User-iMac postfix/pickup[704]: 25FBC14EDF0: uid=70 from=<_www> Apr 27 15:29:30 User-iMac postfix/master[758]: fatal: open lock file pid/master.pid: unable to set exclusive lock: Resource temporarily unavailable Apr 27 15:29:30 User-iMac postfix/cleanup[745]: 25FBC14EDF0: message-id=<[email protected]> Apr 27 15:29:30 User-iMac postfix/qmgr[705]: 25FBC14EDF0: from=<[email protected]>, size=423, nrcpt=1 (queue active) Apr 27 15:29:30 User-iMac postfix/smtp[747]: 25FBC14EDF0: to=<[email protected]>, relay=shawmail.vc.shawcable.net[64.59.128.135]:25, delay=0.21, delays=0.01/0/0.1/0.1, dsn=2.0.0, status=sent (250 ok: Message 25784419 accepted) Apr 27 15:29:30 User-iMac postfix/qmgr[705]: 25FBC14EDF0: removed Two other people in the office have followed the exact same process and are running the exact same script, version of snow leopard, php, etc. and everything is working fine for them. I've even copied their config files to my machine, restarted postfix, restarted apache, all to no avail. Does anyone know what steps I could take to resolve the issue? This is boggling my mind... Thanks

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  • Connecting tomcat6 to apache2

    - by StudentKen
    Disclaimier: Not a server admin I've been scratching my head over this for weeks now (not consistently mind you, as that would be maddening). I've been trying to connect my apache2 server to my tomcat server to the point where if someone encounters *.jsp or any servelet in navigating my web directory, it's handed over to tomcat. I have both Apache2.0 (port 9099) and Tomcat6 (9089) running on Debian lenny on the same box. Currently, mod_jk is enabled with mod_jk.conf in $apacheHOME/mods-enabled/ with content: # Where to find workers.properties JkWorkersFile /etc/apache2/workers.properties # Where to put jk shared memory JkShmFile /var/log/at_jk/mod_jk.shm # Where to put jk logs JkLogFile /var/log/at_jk/mod_jk.log # Set the jk log level [debug/error/info] JkLogLevel info # Select the timestamp log format JkLogStampFormat "[%a %b %d %H:%M:%S %Y] " # Send servlet for context /examples to worker named worker1 JkMount /*/servlet/* worker1 # Send JSPs for context /examples to worker named worker1 JkMount /*.jsp worker1 my workers.properties located in $apacheHOME/ with content: workers.tomcat_home=/var/lib/tomcat6 workers.java_home=/usr/lib/jdk1.6.0_23/db/ worker.list=worker1 ps=/ worker.worker1.port=9071 worker.worker1.host=localhost worker.worker1.type=ajp13 my web.xml in $tomcatHOME/conf has the following servlets enabled <servlet> <servlet-name>default</servlet-name> <servlet-class>org.apache.catalina.servlets.DefaultServlet</servlet-cla$ <init-param> <param-name>debug</param-name> <param-value>0</param-value> </init-param> <init-param> <param-name>listings</param-name> <param-value>false</param-value> </init-param> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet> <servlet-name>jsp</servlet-name> <servlet-class>org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet</servlet-class> <init-param> <param-name>fork</param-name> <param-value>false</param-value> </init-param> <init-param> <param-name>xpoweredBy</param-name> <param-value>false</param-value> </init-param> <load-on-startup>3</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>jsp</servlet-name> <url-pattern>*.jsp</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> <session-config> <session-timeout>30</session-timeout> </session-config> From what I can tell, there's no funny buisness as both the apache2, tomcat, and mod_jk logs show green; yet whenever I navigate to a jsp, it simply displays the javascript. I'm unsure what the problem is exactly despite pouring over the logs and documentation for aid. I'm quite a greenhorn in the servelet world.

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  • Windows Server 2012 Migration (DNS/AD DS Standard Eval to Essentials OEM) P2V -> Do I need a Secondary Domain Controller during migration?

    - by Aubrey Robertson
    This is my first post on this exchange (although not my first on stack exchange), so please have patience. I am a 3rd year student intern, and I have been tasked with virtualizing the server systems at the company I work for. I have come a long way, and I am almost ready to install the VM Server in migration mode. Here is some information: Source Server: Windows Server 2012 Standard Evaluation DNS Server (local only) Advanced Directory Domain Services File and Storage stuff A few other server roles Destination Server: Windows Server 2012 Essentials OEM (Hyper-V client) Running under a temporary Hyper-V host (will migrate the Hyper-V host back to the old machine after the original server is virtualized as a client). Sitting currently at the "Select Installation Mode" screen. I have been following the guides on Microsoft tech net, and today I spent most of the day getting rid of issues in the Best Practices Analyser on the source machine. I have 3 remaining issues (which are all related): ERROR: DNS: DNS servers on Ethernet (adapter name) should include the loopback address, but not as the first entry (flavour text indicates that, during migration, the DNS server may not be found) WARNING: All domains should have at least two domain controllers for redundancy. WARNING: DNS: Ethernet should be configured to use both a preferred and an alternate DNS Server. All of these issues can be resolved by deploying a secondary domain controller, but I have never done that before (see my concerns below). The main issue here that I am concerned with for installing in migration mode is the FIRST one (the error). If I try and set-up the new server deployment, and the adapter domain controller is listed as localhost, then this may cause the installation to fail. (at least, this is what the Microsoft documentation suggests). But I do not have another IP address to enter here as I have no other local domain controllers. So I did the first obvious thing that came to my mind, and tried to use Google DNS servers as my alternates. That did not work because they couldn't recognize other computers in the "forest". Now I'm no expert when it comes to DNS, so please forgive my ignorance. This DNS server is concerned only with Active Directory stuffs for the local network. If I go ahead with migration, and it fails, then I will just have to go ahead and install a secondary DNS server I suppose. The problem I have here is that I am limited by the amount of Windows Server keys I have available (I have 2); however, I do have access to a Linux box running Debian Wheezy that I set-up two weeks ago as a Mantis server. I could install Windows Server 2012 as a secondary DNS (I think) in a VM and use that, but then it seems like I will be wasting time, and probably the Windows key too, and if there's another way to do it with Linux that would be much better. Even better still, do I even need a secondary DNS server for migration at all? The hints said that during migration the original machine "might" not be found. Thank you for your time and consideration.

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  • Neighbour table overflow on Linux hosts related to bridging and ipv6

    - by tim
    Note: I already have a workaround for this problem (as described below) so this is only a "want-to-know" question. I have a productive setup with around 50 hosts including blades running xen 4 and equallogics providing iscsi. All xen dom0s are almost plain Debian 5. The setup includes several bridges on every dom0 to support xen bridged networking. In total there are between 5 and 12 bridges on each dom0 servicing one vlan each. None of the hosts has routing enabled. At one point in time we moved one of the machines to a new hardware including a raid controller and so we installed an upstream 3.0.22/x86_64 kernel with xen patches. All other machines run debian xen-dom0-kernel. Since then we noticed on all hosts in the setup the following errors every ~2 minutes: [55888.881994] __ratelimit: 908 callbacks suppressed [55888.882221] Neighbour table overflow. [55888.882476] Neighbour table overflow. [55888.882732] Neighbour table overflow. [55888.883050] Neighbour table overflow. [55888.883307] Neighbour table overflow. [55888.883562] Neighbour table overflow. [55888.883859] Neighbour table overflow. [55888.884118] Neighbour table overflow. [55888.884373] Neighbour table overflow. [55888.884666] Neighbour table overflow. The arp table (arp -n) never showed more than around 20 entries on every machine. We tried the obvious tweaks and raised the /proc/sys/net/ipv4/neigh/default/gc_thresh* values. FInally to 16384 entries but no effect. Not even the interval of ~2 minutes changed which lead me to the conclusion that this is totally unrelated. tcpdump showed no uncommon ipv4 traffic on any interface. The only interesting finding from tcpdump were ipv6 packets bursting in like: 14:33:13.137668 IP6 fe80::216:3eff:fe1d:9d01 > ff02::1:ff1d:9d01: HBH ICMP6, multicast listener reportmax resp delay: 0 addr: ff02::1:ff1d:9d01, length 24 14:33:13.138061 IP6 fe80::216:3eff:fe1d:a8c1 > ff02::1:ff1d:a8c1: HBH ICMP6, multicast listener reportmax resp delay: 0 addr: ff02::1:ff1d:a8c1, length 24 14:33:13.138619 IP6 fe80::216:3eff:fe1d:bf81 > ff02::1:ff1d:bf81: HBH ICMP6, multicast listener reportmax resp delay: 0 addr: ff02::1:ff1d:bf81, length 24 14:33:13.138974 IP6 fe80::216:3eff:fe1d:eb41 > ff02::1:ff1d:eb41: HBH ICMP6, multicast listener reportmax resp delay: 0 addr: ff02::1:ff1d:eb41, length 24 which placed the idea in my mind that the problem maybe related to ipv6, since we have no ipv6 services in this setup. The only other hint was the coincidence of the host upgrade with the beginning of the problems. I powered down the host in question and the errors were gone. Then I subsequently took down the bridges on the host and when i took down (ifconfig down) one particularly bridge: br-vlan2159 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr 00:26:b9:fb:16:2c inet6 addr: fe80::226:b9ff:fefb:162c/64 Scope:Link UP BROADCAST RUNNING MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:120 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:9 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:0 RX bytes:5286 (5.1 KiB) TX bytes:726 (726.0 B) eth0.2159 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr 00:26:b9:fb:16:2c inet6 addr: fe80::226:b9ff:fefb:162c/64 Scope:Link UP BROADCAST RUNNING MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:1801 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:20 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:0 RX bytes:126228 (123.2 KiB) TX bytes:1464 (1.4 KiB) bridge name bridge id STP enabled interfaces ... br-vlan2158 8000.0026b9fb162c no eth0.2158 br-vlan2159 8000.0026b9fb162c no eth0.2159 The errors went away again. As you can see the bridge holds no ipv4 address and it's only member is eth0.2159 so no traffic should cross it. Bridge and interface .2159 / .2157 / .2158 which are in all aspects identical apart from the vlan they are connected to had no effect when taken down. Now I disabled ipv6 on the entire host via sysctl net.ipv6.conf.all.disable_ipv6 and rebooted. After this even with bridge br-vlan2159 enabled no errors occur. Any ideas are welcome.

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  • Intel Rapid Storage / Smart Response SSD caching issue

    - by goober
    Background Recently built my own PC. It works! Almost. It's been a while since getting into the guts of these things, so I'm familiar but may be missing something simple. FYI, I don't care about blowing the OS away -- it's brand new and we can go back from scratch as many times as necessary. Goal / Issue I'd like to use the SSD to take advantage of Intel's Smart Response technology (allows the SSD to act as a cache for HDDs) I would like the SSD cache to act as a cache for my HDDs, which I would like to be in a RAID1 array (so I get the speed from the SSD and the redundancy from the RAID1) However, Windows only sees the drive in device manager (not as a drive), so I'm unsure what to do about that. Related: as far as I know, for this to work, the drives all have to be in a single RAID array (i.e. a RAID0 pairing of the SSD and the RAID1 HDD array). However, when attempting this at the BIOS level, I am told there is not enough space for an array. Steps so Far Moved the SSD onto the Intel controller (I'd had it on the Marvel 6.0 controller instead of the Intel controller, so the BIOS was only seeing it in a strange way) Updated the BIOS of the motherboard to the latest version Reinstalled Intel's RST (iRST?) software several times, as some forums reported it working after reinstalling 3 times (which does not inspire confidence). Checked Intel storage: it does see the SSD as a physical, non-RAID device. However, it says no space exists if I try to create an array. Checked the BIOS: it does not show up in the boot order, but is an option that can be selected under boot options. Tried the firmware update for that model. Issue: the firmware CD doesn't detect a drive; maybe the Intel storage controller is making it difficult? moved the ssd to the marvel controller. The firmware update cd appeared to hang while searching for drives. swapped out the SATA cable for the manufacturer's and moved back to the intel storage controller. Noticed at this point that in the Intel RST software, a device DOES show up in addition to the RAID set -- only shown as a "60 GB internal disk". Windows doesn't appear to see it as a drive, but it does still show in device manager. Move SSD to port from 0-3 on MOBO and set SATA mode to IDE (after disconnecting RAID1 config) to allow the firmware update to work. Firmware was already at the latest version. Next Steps ? Components involved ASUS P8Z68-V PRO motherboard (Intel Z68 Chipset) Intel i7 2600k Processor 2 x 1TB 7200 RPM HDDs 64 GB Crucial M4 SSD (M4-CT064M4SSD2) For Reference -- Storage Configuration Intel 3 gbps Intel 3gbps Intel 6gbps Marvel 6gbps +----------+ +----------+ +----------+ +----------+ | | <----+ | | +-+ | | | |----------| | |----------| |-|--------| |----------| | | | | + | | | | | | +----------+ | +--|-------+ +-|--------+ +----------+ | | | + v v | 1 TB HDD 64 GB SSD + +> 1 TB HDD For Reference -- Intel RST (v10.8.0.1003) Screenshot Don't mind the "rebuilding" -- knocked a power cable out at one point; it's doing its job, not an indicator of a bad HDD. Any thoughts? Thanks in advance for any help!

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  • Command-line video editing in Linux (cut, join and preview)

    - by sdaau
    I have rather simple editing needs - I need to cut up some videos, maybe insert some PNGs in between them, and join these videos (don't need transitions, effects, etc.). Basically, pitivi would do what I want - except, I use 640x480 30 fps AVI's from a camera, and as soon as I put in over a couple of minutes of that kind of material, pitivi starts freezing on preview, and thus becomes unusable. So, I started looking for a command line tool for Linux; I guess only ffmpeg (command line - Using ffmpeg to cut up video - Super User) and mplayer (Sam - Edit video file with mencoder under linux) are so far candidates, but I cannot find examples of the use I have in mind.   Basically, I'd imagine there's an encoder and player tools (like ffmpeg vs ffplay; or mencoder vs mplayer) - such that, to begin with, the edit sequence could be specified directly on the command line, preferably with frame resolution - a pseudocode would look like: videnctool -compose --file=vid1.avi --start=00:00:30:12 --end=00:01:45:00 --file=vid2.avi --start=00:05:00:00 --end=00:07:12:25 --file=mypicture.png --duration=00:00:02:00 --file=vid3.avi --start=00:02:00:00 --end=00:02:45:10 --output=editedvid.avi ... or, it could have a "playlist" text file, like: vid1.avi 00:00:30:12 00:01:45:00 vid2.avi 00:05:00:00 00:07:12:25 mypicture.png - 00:00:02:00 vid3.avi 00:02:00:00 00:02:45:10 ... so it could be called with videnctool -compose --playlist=playlist.txt --output=editedvid.avi The idea here would be that all of the videos are in the same format - allowing the tool to avoid transcoding, and just do a "raw copy" instead (as in mencoder's copy codec: "-oac copy -ovc copy") - or in lack of that, uncompressed audio/video would be OK (although it would eat a bit of space). In the case of the still image, the tool would use the encoding set by the video files.   The thing is, I can so far see that mencoder and ffmpeg can operate on individual files; e.g. cut a single section from a single file, or join files (mencoder also has Edit Decision Lists (EDL), which can be used to do frame-exact cutting - so you can define multiple cut regions, but it's again attributed to a single file). Which implies I have to work on cutting pieces first from individual files first (each of which would demand own temporary file on disk), and then joining them in a final video file. I would then imagine, that there is a corresponding player tool, which can read the same command line option format / playlist file as the encoding tool - except it will not generate an output file, but instead play the video; e.g. in pseudocode: vidplaytool --playlist=playlist.txt --start=00:01:14 --end=00:03:13 ... and, given there's enough memory, it would generate a low-res video preview in RAM, and play it back in a window, while offering some limited interaction ( like mplayer's keyboard shortcuts for play, pause, rewind, step frame). Of course, I'd imagine the start and end times to refer to the entire playlist, and include any file that may end up in that region in the playlist. Thus, the end result of all this would be: command line operation; no temporary files while doing the editing - and also no temporary files (nor transcoding) when rendering final output... which I myself think would be nice. So, while I think that all of the above may be a bit of a stretch - does there exist anything that would approximate the workflow described above?

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  • Alternative Methods of Sharing Folders in Windows?

    - by Blaenk
    Hey guys. I'm running Windows 7 and as of now I simply share folders as one usually does in Windows. I then have a MacBook with Leopard (Now Snow Leopard) which I use to connect to my computer to mount the shares by going to Finder, then CMD + K and typing smb://BlaenkPC (The name of my PC) into the address box. This consequently connects to my computer and mounts all of the shares. The problem is that sometimes, if for example I close my MacBook (Which makes it go to sleep) or sometimes even without doing that, the connection somehow drops. Sometimes I close the MacBook and upon re-opening it, everything still works; it's random. It still shows the computer as being connected, but it just shows 'loading' indefinitely. If I hit 'eject' with the intention of re-connecting to the computer, it disappears from the sidebar (The Computer Icon) in Finder, but I cannot re-connect. Activity Monitor (or ps aux, whichever) both show hung instances of umount; one for each share that was mounted. I cannot kill these processes with kill or killall (Yes, even with sudo, and sending signal -9). This has happened to me before, and here is another person who has experienced this. My question boils down to this: Is there an alternative method of sharing folders in Windows, that my Mac can read/understand, that is possibly more reliable and preferably just as fast? I usually use the mounted shares to watch television episodes off my computer, or movies, etc. (In other words, I open them in VLC and they automatically stream from my computer). As far as I can tell, this is a problem with the Samba protocol. I have heard of NFS, but I am not sure if I would have to re-format my drives, or what. I don't mind running a service or daemon to allow the sharing of the folders, I just want it to be done and hopefully in a better way than typical Windows shares through Samba. Usually when I encounter this problem, which is often (read: every day), I have no other option but to restart the MacBook. As I stated in the first question I linked to, shutting down and restarting don't work; I have to manually force the shutdown by holding the power button. I have not modified my installation of Mac OS X in any hackish way, so I doubt it's something with the Operating System, but worst come to worst, I might end up reformatting and doing a clean install to see if that fixes anything, as I am at a complete loss as to what may be causing the problem, and no one else seems to have any idea or care, despite there being quite a few people suffering from this problem, as my research has shown. Any pieces of information that can help are extremely appreciated. You don't have to answer every question on here, but maybe even some insight as to why it might not be possible to kill those hung umount instances for example, or why I may not be able to reconnect using samba (Is it something regarding the way the protocol works?). One thing to note is that I have another computer in the home network that doesn't seem to have this problem. However, it is also running Windows 7 (Note though that I am not using the homegroup feature, but the typical windows sharing feature). My only deduction is that the problem is being caused by the way the Mac (Or Samba implementation, whichever) is handling things. Perhaps it is a limitation.

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  • udp through nat

    - by youllknow
    Hi everyone! I've two private networks (each of them behind a typical dsl router). The routers are connected to the WWW. The extern interface of each router have one dynamic IP address. I want to stream data via UDP directly between one client in private network A and one client in private network B. I've already tried a lot of things (see: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/UDP_hole_punching, or STUN). But it wasn't possible for me to transfer data between the two clients. It's possible to use a server (located in the WWW, with static IP) to transfer the extern IPs (and extern ports) from the routers between the clients. So imagine client A knows client B's external IP and client B's external port assigned by his router. I simply tried sending UDP packet to the receivers external IP/port combination, but without any result. So does anyone know what do to communicate via UDP throw the two NAT routers? It must be possible??? Or does Skype, for example, not directly communicate between the clients when the call eachother (voice over ip). I am sorry for my bad English! If something is confusing don't mind asking me!!! Thanks for your help in advance. ::::EDIT:::: I can't get pwnat or chownat working. I tried it with my own dsl-gateway - didn't work. Then I set up a complete virtual environment using VMWare. C1 (Client 1, WinXP Prof SP3): 172.16.16.100/24, GW 172.16.16.1 C2 (Client 2, WinXP Prof SP3): 10.0.0.100/24, GW 10.0.0.1 C3 (Client 3, WinXP Prof SP3): 3.0.0.2/24, GW 3.0.0.1 S1 (Ubuntu 10.04 x64 Server): eth0: 172.16.16.1/24, eth1: 1.0.0.2/24 GW 1.0.0.1 S2 (Ubuntu 10.04 x64 Server): eth0: 10.0.0.1/24, eth1: 2.0.0.2/24 GW 2.0.0.1 S3 (Ubuntu 10.04 x64 Server): eth0: 1.0.0.1/24, eth1: 2.0.0.1/24, eth2: 3.0.0.1/24 +--+ +--+ +--+ +--+ +--+ |C1|-----|S1|-----|S3|-----|S2|-----|C2| +--+ +--+ +--+ +--+ +--+ | +--+ |C3| +--+ Server S1 and S2 provide NAT functionality. (they have routing enabled and provide a firewall, which allows trafic from the internal net and provide the nat functionality) Server S3 has routing enabled. The client firewalls are turned off. C1 and C2 are able to ping C3, e.g. visit C3's webserver. They are also able to send UDP Packets to C3 (C3 successful receives them)! C1 and C2 have also webservers running for test reasons. I run ""chownat -s 80 2.0.0.2"" at C1, and ""chownat -c 8000 1.0.0.2"" at C2. Then I tried to access the Webpage from C1 via webbrower localhost at port 8000. It didn't work. Can anybody help me? Any suggestions? If you have any questions to my question, please ask!

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  • LDAP object class violation: attribute ou not allowed in suffix?

    - by Paramaeleon
    I am about to set up a LDAP directory. It is used as a tool to communicate user permissions from a web application to WebDav file system access, e.g. adding a user to the web platform shall allow login to the file system with the same credentials. There are no other usages intended. Following this German tutorial which encourages the use of the attributes c, o, ou etc. over dc, I configured the following suffix and root: suffix "ou=webtool,o=myOrg,c=de" rootdn "cn=ldapadmin,ou=webtool,o=myOrg,c=de" Server starts and I can connect to it by LDAP Admin, which reports “LDAP error: Object lacks”. Well, there aren’t any objects yet. I now want to create the root and admin elements from shell. I created an init.ldif file: dn: ou=webtool,o=myOrg,c=de objectclass: dcObject objectclass: organization dc: webtool o: webtool dn: cn=ldapadmin,ou=webtool,o=myOrg,c=de objectclass: organizationalRole cn: ldapadmin Trying to load the file runs into an error, telling me that ou is not allowed: server:~ # ldapadd -x -D "cn=ldapadmin,ou=webtool,o=myOrg,c=de" -W -f init.ldif Enter LDAP Password: adding new entry "ou=webtool,o=myOrg,c=de" ldap_add: Object class violation (65) additional info: attribute 'ou' not allowed I am not using ou anywhere except in the suffix, so the question: Isn’t it allowed here? What is allowed here? Here is my answer. I am not allowed to post it as answer for 8 hours, so don’t mind that it is part of the question by now. I will move it outside some day, if I don’t forget to do so. There are numberous dependencies for the creation of elements, and error messages are rather confusing if you don’t know of the concept. The objectclass isn’t necessarily dcObject for the databases’ root node, as it is likely to guess when you read several tutoriales. Instead, it must correspond to the object’s type: Here, for a name starting with ou=, it must be organizationalUnit. I found this piece of information in these tables [Link removed due to restriction: Oops! Your edit couldn't be submitted because: We're sorry, but as a spam prevention mechanism, new users can only post a maximum of two hyperlinks. Earn more than 10 reputation to post more hyperlinks. Link is below]. Further on, the object class dictates which properties must and can be added in the record. Here, organizationalUnit must have an ou: entry and must not have neither dc: nor o: entry. The healthy init.ldif file looks like that: dn: ou=webtool,o=myOrg,c=de objectclass: organizationalUnit ou: LDAP server for my webtool dn: cn=ldapadmin,ou=webtool,o=myOrg,c=de objectclass: organizationalRole cn: ldapadmin Note: The page also states: “While many objectClasses show no MUST attributes you must (ouch) follow any hierarchy […] to determine if this is the really case.” I thought that would mean my root record would have to provide the must fields for c= and o= (c: and o:, respectively) but this isn’t the case. Link in answer is (1): http :// www (dot) zytrax (dot) com/books/ldap/ape/ "Appendix E: LDAP - Object Classes and Attributes"

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  • How to Eliminate Tape Backup and Off-site Storage Service?

    - by Daniel Lucas
    PLEASE READ UPDATE AT THE BOTTOM. THANKS! ;) Environment Info (all Windows): 2 sites 30 servers site #1 (3TB of backup data) 5 servers site #2 (1TB of backup data) MPLS backbone tunnel connecting site #1 and site #2 Current Backup Process: Online Backup (disk-to-disk) Site #1 has a server running Symantec Backup Exec 12.5 with four 1TB USB 2.0 disks. BE jobs for full backups run nightly on all servers in site #1 to these disks. Site #2 backs up to a central file server there using software they already had when we purchased them. A BE job pulls that data nightly to site #1 and stores them on said disks. Off-site Backup (tape) Connected to our backup server is a tape drive. BE backs up the external disks to tape once a week which gets picked up by our off-site storage company. Obviously we rotate two tape libraries, one is always here and one is always there. Requirements: Eliminate the need for tape and off-site storage service by doing disk-to-disk at each site and replicating site #1 to site #2 and vice versa. Software based solution as hardware options have been too pricey (ie, SonicWall, Arkeia). Agents for Exchange, SharePoint, and SQL. Some Ideas So Far: Storage DroboPro at each site with an initial 8TB of storage (these are expandable up to 16TB at present). I like these because they are rackmountable, allow disparate drives, and have iSCSI interfaces. They are relatively cheap too. Software Symantec Backup Exec 12.5 already has all the agents and licenses we need. I'd like to keep using it unless there is a better solution, similarly priced, that does everything BE does plus deduplication and replication. Server Because there is no more need for a SCSI adapter (for tape drive) we are going to virtualize our backup server as it is currently the only physical machine save for SQL boxes. Problems: When replicating between sites we want as little data as possible to go across the pipe. There is no deduplication or compression in what I have laid out here so far. The files being replicated are BE's virtual tape libraries from our disk-to-disk backup. Because of this each of those huge files will go across the wire every week because they change every day. And Finally, the Question: Is there any software out there that does deduplication, or at least compression, to handle just our site-to-site replication? Or, looking at our setup, is there any other solution that I am missing that might be cheaper, faster, better? Thanks. Sorry so long. UPDATE 2: I've set a bounty on this question to get it more attention. I'm looking for software that will handle replication of data between two sites using the least amount of data possible (either compression, deduplication, or some other method). Something similar to rsync would work but it needs to be native to Windows and not a port involving shenanigans to get up and running. Prefer a GUI based product and I don't mind shelling out a few bones if it works. Please, answers that meet the above criteria only. If you don't think one exists or if you think I'm being to restrictive keep it to yourself. If after seven days there is no answer at all, so be it. Thanks again everyone. UPDATE 2: I really appreciate everyone coming forward with suggestions. There is no way for me to try all of these before the bounty expires. For now I'm going to let this bounty run out and whoever has the most votes will get the 100 rep points. Thanks again!

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  • Apache config that uses two document roots based on whether the requested resource exists in the first

    - by mattalexx
    Background I have a client site that consists of a CakePHP installation and a Magento installation: /web/example.com/ /web/example.com/app/ <== CakePHP /web/example.com/app/webroot/ <== DocumentRoot /web/example.com/app/webroot/store/ <== Magento /web/example.com/config/ <== Site-wide config /web/example.com/vendors/ <== Site-wide libraries The server runs Apache 2.2.3. The problem The whole company has FTP access and got used to clogging up the /web/example.com/, /web/example.com/app/webroot/, and /web/example.com/app/webroot/store/ directories with their own files. Sometimes these files need HTTP access and sometimes they don't. In any case, this mess makes my job harder when it comes to maintaining the site. Code merges, tarring the live code, etc, is very complicated and usually requires a bunch of filters. Abandoned solution At first, I thought I would set up a new subdomain on the same server, move all of their files there, and change their FTP chroot. But that wouldn't work for these reasons: Firstly, I have no idea (and neither do they remember) what marketing materials they've sent out that contain URLs to certain resources they've uploaded to the server, using the main domain, and also using abstract subdomains that use the main virtual host because it has ServerAlias *.example.com. So suddenly having them only use static.example.com isn't feasible. Secondly, The PHP scripts in their projects are potentially very non-portable. I want their files to stay in as similar an environment as they were built as I can. Also, I do not want to debug their code to make it portable. Half-baked solution After some thought, I decided to find a way to section off the actual website files into another directory that they would not touch. The company's uploaded files would stay where they were. This would ensure that I didn't break any of their projects that needed HTTP access. It would look something like this: /web/example.com/ <== A bunch of their files are in here /web/example.com/app/webroot/ <== 1st DocumentRoot; A bunch of their files are in here /web/example.com/app/webroot/store/ <== Some more are in here /web/example.com/site/ <== New dir; Contains only site files /web/example.com/site/app/ <== CakePHP /web/example.com/site/app/webroot/ <== 2nd DocumentRoot /web/example.com/site/app/webroot/store/ <== Magento /web/example.com/site/config/ <== Site-wide config /web/example.com/site/vendors/ <== Site-wide libraries After I made this change, I would not need to pay attention to anything except for the stuff within /web/example.com/site/ and my job would be a lot easier. I would be the only one changing stuff in there. So here's where the Apache magic would happen: I need an HTTP request to http://www.example.com/ to first use /web/example.com/app/webroot/ as the document root. If nothing is found (no miscellaneous uploaded company projects are found), try finding something within /web/example.com/site/app/webroot/. Another thing to keep in mind is, the site might have some problems if the $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] variable reads /web/example.com/app/webroot/ but the actual files are within /web/example.com/site/app/webroot/. It would be better if the DOCUMENT_ROOT environment variable could be /web/example.com/site/app/webroot/ for anything within the /web/example.com/site/app/webroot/ directory. Conclusion Is my half-baked solution possible with Apache 2.2.3? Is there a better way to solve this problem?

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  • Windows 7 inbuilt and 3rd party (de)fragmentation related queries

    - by Karan
    I have a pretty good idea of how files end up getting fragmented. That said, I just copied ~3,200 files of varying sizes (from a few KB to ~20GB) from an external USB HDD to an internal, freshly formatted (under Windows 7 x64), NTFS, 2TB, 5400RPM, WD, SATA, non-system (i.e. secondary) drive, filling it up 57%. Since it should have been very much possible for each file to have been stored in one contiguous block, I expected the drive to be fragmented not more than 1-2% at most after this rather lengthy exercise (unfortunately this older machine doesn't support USB 3.0). Windows 7's inbuilt defrag utility told me after a quick analysis that the drive was fragmented only 1% or so, which dovetailed neatly with my expectations. However, just out of curiosity I downloaded and ran the latest portable x64 version of Piriform's Defraggler, and was shocked to see the drive being reported as being ~85% fragmented! The portable version of Auslogics Disk Defrag also agreed with Defraggler, and both clearly expected to grind away for ~10 hours to completely defragment the drive. 1) How in blazes could the inbuilt and 3rd party defrag utils disagree so badly? I mean, 10-20% variance is probably understandable, but 1% and 85% are miles apart! This Engineering Windows 7 blog post states: In Windows XP, any file that is split into more than one piece is considered fragmented. Not so in Windows Vista if the fragments are large enough – the defragmentation algorithm was changed (from Windows XP) to ignore pieces of a file that are larger than 64MB. As a result, defrag in XP and defrag in Vista will report different amounts of fragmentation on a volume. ... [Please read the entire post so the quote is not taken out of context.] Could it simply be that the 3rd party defrag utils ignore this post-XP change and continue to use analysis algos similar to those XP used? 2) Assuming that the 3rd party utils aren't lying about the real extent of fragmentation (which Windows is downplaying post-XP), how could the files have even got fragmented so badly given they were just copied over afresh to an empty drive? 3) If vastly differing analysis algos explain the yawning gap, which do I believe? I'm no defrag fanatic for sure, but 85% is enough to make me seriously consider spending 10 hours defragging this drive. On the other hand, 1% reported by Windows' own defragger clearly implies that there is no cause for concern and defragging would actually have negative consequences (as per the post). Is Windows' assumption valid and should I just let it be, or will there be any noticeable performance gains after running one of the 3rd party utils for 10 hours straight? 4) I see that out of the box Windows 7 defrag is scheduled to run weekly. Does anyone know whether it defrags every single time, or only if its analysis reveals a fragmentation percentage over a set threshold? If the latter, what is this threshold and can it be changed, maybe via a Registry edit? Thanks for reading through (my first query on this wonderful site!) and for any helpful replies. Also, if you're answering question #3, please keep in mind that any speed increases post defragging with 3rd party utils vis-à-vis Windows' inbuilt program should not include pre-Vista (preferably pre-Win7) examples. Further, examples of programs that made your system boot faster won't help in this case, since this is a non-system drive (although one that'll still be used daily).

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  • How do I reset/update my BIOS for Optiplex GX280?

    - by Sam Langlhey
    So far this has been a nightmare for me, which has been frustrating me constantly. I am using Dell Optiplex GX280 with Windows XP home edition, which is running a BIOS version A04. Recently, i've rebooted the pc to find out that its not booting. It will get to the Windows boot up screen with the progress bar but only to restart to the same process again, over and over. Frustrated that I am, i've inserted the Windows recovery CD to at least either repair of reinstall the operating system to find out that was not possible. I hit F8 to have the boot options, each of the boot option that I've selected gave me an error saying: "Selected boot device is not available." Right after that, I went to the BIOS setting and did a diagnostic test, which recognized all the Boot devices onboard. Now, I cannot even repair of reinstall Windows XP, because the system is not booting from none of the boot devices. The surprise is when I removed the hard-drive from the computer and loaded it on into another computer successfully; that's right, there is nothing wrong with the hard drive. After that I was totally puzzled. I found a few pointers online saying that the BIOS start-up block might be corrupted itself and I might need to flash/update the BIOS. I found the detailed instruction on how to create a Boot up disk by downloading the BIOS firmware from the manufacture's website. I did exactly as instructed below: Download the latest version or your choose version of BIOS file for your computer or motherboard from the manufacturer’s support site. Rename the downloaded file to AMIBOOT.ROM. Copy the file to a floppy disk. Insert the floppy disk to the floppy drive. Turn on the system. After I did that and powered on the PC to boot from the floppy drive, it gave me this error message: "Non-System Disk or Disk Error. Replace and Strike any key when ready." I did all that, and I kept on pressing [Ctrl]+[Home] to force it, but it did not did any satisfying result. Desperate as I am, my next attempt is to try the instruction below. Since I want to be ready, in the event it does not work, do you have any solution that you can provide? Please keep in mind that I cannot boot from any of the devices at this moment. My only hope now is to come on with a solution that will work through the Floppy drive, since that's the only drive that affected. Thank you very much for your advice and support in advance. To create a Windows startup disk, insert a floppy disk into the drive of a similarly configured, working Windows XP system, launch My Computer, right-click the floppy disk icon, and select the Format command from the context menu. When you see the Format dialog box, leave all the default settings as they are and click the Start button. Once the format operation is complete, close the Format dialog box to return to My Computer, double-click the drive C icon to access the root directory, and copy the following three files to the floppy disk: Boot.ini NTLDR Ntdetect.com

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  • Amazon EC2 Instance - m1.medium Ubuntu 12.04 - Started to crash three days ago

    - by Joy
    The environment: Amazon EC2 Instance - m1.medium Ubuntu 12.04 Apache 2.2.22 - Running a Drupal Site Using MySQL DB Server RAM info: ~$ free -gt total used free shared buffers cached Mem: 3 1 2 0 0 0 -/+ buffers/cache: 0 2 Swap: 0 0 0 Total: 3 1 2 Hard drive info: Filesystem Size Used Avail Use% Mounted on /dev/xvda1 7.9G 4.7G 2.9G 62% / udev 1.9G 8.0K 1.9G 1% /dev tmpfs 751M 180K 750M 1% /run none 5.0M 0 5.0M 0% /run/lock none 1.9G 0 1.9G 0% /run/shm /dev/xvdb 394G 199M 374G 1% /mnt The problem About two days ago the site started failing becaue the MySQL server was shut down by Apache with the following message: kernel: [2963685.664359] [31716] 106 31716 226946 22748 0 0 0 mysqld kernel: [2963685.664730] Out of memory: Kill process 31716 (mysqld) score 23 or sacrifice child kernel: [2963685.664764] Killed process 31716 (mysqld) total-vm:907784kB, anon-rss:90992kB, file-rss:0kB kernel: [2963686.153608] init: mysql main process (31716) killed by KILL signal kernel: [2963686.169294] init: mysql main process ended, respawning That states that the VM was occupying 0.9GB, but my Ram has 2GB free, so 1GB was still left free. I understand that in Linux applications can allocate more memory than physically available. I don't know if this is the problme, it's the first time that it has started to happen. Obviously, the MySQL server tries to restart, but there's no memory for it apparently and it won't restart. Here is its error log: Plugin 'FEDERATED' is disabled. The InnoDB memory heap is disabled Mutexes and rw_locks use GCC atomic builtins Compressed tables use zlib 1.2.3.4 Initializing buffer pool, size = 128.0M InnoDB: mmap(137363456 bytes) failed; errno 12 Completed initialization of buffer pool Fatal error: cannot allocate memory for the buffer pool Plugin 'InnoDB' init function returned error. Plugin 'InnoDB' registration as a STORAGE ENGINE failed. Unknown/unsupported storage engine: InnoDB [ERROR] Aborting [Note] /usr/sbin/mysqld: Shutdown complete I simply restarted the Mysql service. About two hours later it happened again. I restarted it. Then it happened again 9 hours later. So then I thought of the MaxClients parameter of apache.conf, so I went to check it out. It was set at 150. I decided to drop it down to 60. As so: <IfModule mpm_prefork_module> ... MaxClients 60 </IfModule> <IfModule mpm_worker_module> ... MaxClients 60 </IfModule> <IfModule mpm_event_module> ... MaxClients 60 </IfModule> Once I did that, I had the apache2 service restart and it all went smoothly for 3/4 of a day. Since at night the MySQL service shut down once again, but this time it wasn't killed by the Apache2 service. Instead it called the OOM-Killer with the following message: kernel: [3104680.005312] mysqld invoked oom-killer: gfp_mask=0x201da, order=0, oom_adj=0, oom_score_adj=0 kernel: [3104680.005351] [<ffffffff81119795>] oom_kill_process+0x85/0xb0 kernel: [3104680.548860] init: mysql main process (30821) killed by KILL signal Now I'm out of ideas. Some articles state that the ideal thing to do is change the kernel behaviour with the following (include it to the file /etc/sysctl.conf ) vm.overcommit_memory = 2 vm.overcommit_ratio = 80 So no overcommits will take place. I'm wondering if this is the way to go? Keep in mind I'm no server administrator, I have basic knowldege. Thanks a bunch in advance.

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  • RAID controller dropping the wrong drive

    - by bramp
    I've been having an issue with 3ware 9500S-8 RAID 10, and I have contracted their tech support, but I wanted to hear the serverfault community's recommendations. Firstly, all my data is backuped and secure, so I don't mind blowing my RAID away if I have to. But let me describe the problem I've been seeing. A month ago, disk 6 dropped out of the RAID. It is mirrored with disk 7, so I wasn't that bothered. I went to the data centre and replaced it. When I got back to the office, I noticed that disk 6 will still not in the RAID, and in fact the controller was show the name of the old drive still. A week later I went back and replace the drive again, thinking I might have swapped in a bad drive. Still the same problem. I decided to reboot the machine, to see if that would "force" the controller into seeing the new drive. It did, and a rebuild started to happen (from disk 7). Eventually both drives were showing as good. A week later, the MySQL database has flagged the database is corrupt, and is unable to repair it. I don't know what has gone wrong, but I suspected this 6-7 pair. At this point I noticed that the RAID had constantly been verifying itself, over and over. Regardless of this I began to rebuild the database, which took about 19 hours. It's a big database. Near the end of the repair, the RAID controller told me it had dropped disk 7, and that some data was most likely corrupted. I contacted LSI tech support, and they very promptly started to help me. I mentioned that drive 7 had been dropped. They suspect that drive 7 was always at fault, and drive 6 had always been good. I want to know how often a RAID controller would drop the wrong drive (in this case dropping drive 6 a month ago, instead of 7). I foolishly didn't run smartctl on the drives before I started swapping them out. I just assumed the RAID controller knew what it was talking about. I think my plan of action is to replace drive 7, rebuild the array from scratch, double check smartctl on ALL the disks, and then start restoring my data again. I would appreciate anyone's input on what the correct procedure for swapping drives is, and how often failures like this happen. If anyone would like more information then I'd be happy to provide it. thanks in advance. Oh some more information. I'm running CentOS 5.3, with two RAID arrays, a simple RAID 1 for the OS, and RAID 10 for the database. Both arrays are on different controllers. The RAID 10 is made of 10 identical ST3640323AS drives, until I swapped in a SAMSUNG HD103SJ last month.

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  • File Server - Storage configuration: RAID vs LVM vs ZFS something else... ?

    - by privatehuff
    We are a small company that does video editing, among other things, and need a place to keep backup copies of large media files and make it easy to share them. I've got a box set up with Ubuntu Server and 4 x 500 GB drives. They're currently set up with Samba as four shared folders that Mac/Windows workstations can see fine, but I want a better solution. There are two major reasons for this: 500 GB is not really big enough (some projects are larger) It is cumbersome to manage the current setup, because individual hard drives have different amounts of free space and duplicated data (for backup). It is confusing now and that will only get worse once there are multiple servers. ("the project is on sever2 in share4" etc) So, I need a way to combine hard drives in such a way as to avoid complete data loss with the failure of a single drive, and so users see only a single share on each server. I've done linux software RAID5 and had a bad experience with it, but would try it again. LVM looks ok but it seems like no one uses it. ZFS seems interesting but it is relatively "new". What is the most efficient and least risky way to to combine the hdd's that is convenient for my users? Edit: The Goal here is basically to create servers that contain an arbitrary number of hard drives but limit complexity from an end-user perspective. (i.e. they see one "folder" per server) Backing up data is not an issue here, but how each solution responds to hardware failure is a serious concern. That is why I lump RAID, LVM, ZFS, and who-knows-what together. My prior experience with RAID5 was also on an Ubuntu Server box and there was a tricky and unlikely set of circumstances that led to complete data loss. I could avoid that again but was left with a feeling that I was adding an unnecessary additional point of failure to the system. I haven't used RAID10 but we are on commodity hardware and the most data drives per box is pretty much fixed at 6. We've got a lot of 500 GB drives and 1.5 TB is pretty small. (Still an option for at least one server, however) I have no experience with LVM and have read conflicting reports on how it handles drive failure. If a (non-striped) LVM setup could handle a single drive failing and only loose whichever files had a portion stored on that drive (and stored most files on a single drive only) we could even live with that. But as long as I have to learn something totally new, I may as well go all the way to ZFS. Unlike LVM, though, I would also have to change my operating system (?) so that increases the distance between where I am and where I want to be. I used a version of solaris at uni and wouldn't mind it terribly, though. On the other end on the IT spectrum, I think I may also explore FreeNAS and/or Openfiler, but that doesn't really solve the how-to-combine-drives issue.

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  • .AVI Files randomly cease to open, other strange errors too

    - by Ben Franchuk
    I Recently (a couple weeks ago) downloaded the complete series of Seinfeld, all in varying file type. I Watched them in sequence according to season and to airing date, and all was well. All of the files played fine with my media player of choice ("BS Player"), and once I had finished, I went onto watch some other TV I had previously downloaded (The U.S. Series of "The Office"), and after then, some other film and then some music, over the following weeks (keep in mind all of these files are all on the same Hard Drive). Later then, More recently, I Went back to watching Seinfeld. The episodes played well as they did before- with the exclusion of a few in Season 7. I Have not tested all of the episodes in the season, but upon inspection, the majority of them are experiencing this problem; the problem being simply that they don't open! BS Player says that the files are either damaged or that the codecs to play the files are not on my computer-- however I am certain that the files DO have the codecs, and I am pretty sure that they are NOT DAMAGED either. I Have played the files with other players (such as VLC, Media Player Classic, and Windows Media Player), too, only to the same result; of them not opening. Seemingly the only way that I can differentiate between a damaged file and a non-damaged file are the way that the icon shows in Windows Explorer. For example, the below image is how explorer shows the information of a file that is non-damaged... ...and below is how a damaged file appears... The most disturbing and confusing part of this, though, is the last episode in the season- It opens, but not as a video- Instead, as a 1 Hour, 16 Minute, and 35 Second Audio file! The file plays a song for the first 4 or so minutes, and then is pretty much silent (except for some extremely quiet noise) until the last minute or so, when a random array of chopped up sounds and beeping noises play. I Do not recognise the song at the beginning of the file, but by the sounds of it, it is a song by the artist "Mr. Oizo," who's complete works I downloaded a couple weeks before now; and a bit before then I had finished downloading season 9 (not affected by these problems) of Seinfeld. I'd also like to note that the file I told of earlier (which played audio instead of video) reads as the same size as the other files in the season (around 175 MB) and also opens as a video clip. I Have NEVER experienced any of these problems in the past, and they seem to be only effecting the one season of my downloaded TV. The problems have not arisen with any of the other files on my Hard Drive, or any of the files downloaded around the time or after the time of which I downloaded season 7 of Seinfeld- or at least to my noticing. I Use the hard drive these files are located on almost every day, so could that be the cause of these problems? Is this a sign that my HDD is soon going to die? If it helps, the HDD is a Western Digital MyBook 1.5 TB 7500 RPM. It is connected to the computer via U.S.B. 2.0. EDIT! I noticed that this problem is now occurring with Season 9 of Seinfeld- and, presumably, other files on the drive I have yet to check. Please, If you have ANY IDEA AT ALL on what may be causing this or how to fix it, do tell me!

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  • WNDR3700 Router + Cisco SG200-08 + LACP + Dual Uplink

    - by kobaltz
    Background I have a storage server that has several virtual machine images stored on them. I would store them locally, but I have limited space on my desktop (using SSD storage). I would like to increase the bandwidth between the desktop and the storage server by using two NICs on each computer. My original configuration allowed about 55MBps between the desktop and storage server. This storage server also has several TBs of documents, pictures, movies, vms, and ISO/programs. The storage server has 8 1.5TB hard drives in a RAID 10 configuration with a hardware RAID controller. The benchmarks on the RAID 10 are about 300MBps. Configuration In short, I am trying to bridge my switch and router. The switch is a small 8 port Cisco smart switch that supports 802.3ad LACP. I have two computers plugged into the switch, each with 2 Intel Gigabit NICs. The first computer is a Windows 7 machine that has the Intel ANS software installed. I have LACP configured with the computer and now show 3 NICs (2 Physical + 1 TEAM Virtual @ 2Gbps). It looks like this computer is configured correctly. I trunked the two ports that this computer is plugged into with the switch's web interface. The second computer is a homebrew storage box running debian. I also have the bonding enabled on this machine and the switch configured with LACP. Without having the WNDR3700 router in the picture yet, I am able to communicate between the Windows 7 machine and the debian box since they both have static IP addresses. With LACP enabled on both machines I am getting about 106-108MBps speeds. Issue I plug in a network cable from the switch into the router and enable DHCP on the desktop. I saw no need to have a static address on the desktop. My transfer rates are still from 106MBps-108MBps. While this is still a boost, I am trying to figure out how to get about 140-180MBps. I am thinking that I need to increase the bandwidth from the router to the switch. My switch allows 4 groups for port trunking. I plugged in a second network cable from the router to the switch. My question is, what is the proper way to fix this issue. Should I port trunk the two ports that are going from the switch to the router? Keep in mind that the router is a WNDR3700 and is unsure whether or not it supports LACP. I do have OpenWRT installed on the router, but it still wasn't clear in any documentation that I found if it supported 802.3ad LACP standards. I am also wondering if there needs to be anything changed within the Cisco settings. [Edit] - Corrected some numbers, wasn't really paying attention. It looks like the speeds though at least two NICs are bonded with LACP is still reaching the max bandwidth of one port. Is there a way to configure the switch so that I can increase this bandwidth? Also, on the storage server, I had a couple of extra NICs laying around and threw them on there as well. Another EDIT and More Findings I happened to look at the traffic of each individual NIC and think that I see the problem. I tested with a simple transfer for a 4GB file. I noticed that only one of the NICs was taking the load of the traffic. I then copied the file back to the Storage Server and noticed that the other NIC was sending out the traffic. I have 802.3ad LACP enabled on the two NICs and I see that it gets enabled dynamically on the switch's interface. Should I be using Static Link Aggregation?

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  • Network config / gear question

    - by mcgee1234
    I have been tasked with setting up a fairly straightforward rack in a data center (we do not even need a whole rack, but this is the smallest allotment available). In a nutshell, 4 to 6 servers need to be able to reach 2 (maybe 3) vendors. The servers needs to be reachable over the internet. A little more detail - the networks the servers need to reach are inside of the data center, and are "trusted". Connections to these networks will be achieved through intra data center cross connects. It is kind of like a manufacturing line where we receive data from one vendor (burst-able up to 200 Mbits), churn through it on the servers, and then send out data to another vendor (bursts up to 20 Mbits). This series of events is very latency sensitive, so much so that it is common practice not to use NAT or a firewall on these segments (or so I hear). To reach the servers over the internet, I plan to use a site to site VPN. (This part is only relevant as far as hardware selection goes). I have 2 configurations in mind: Cisco 2911 (2921) (with the additional wan ports module) and a layer 2 switch - in this scenario, I would use the router also for VPN. Cisco 3560 layer 3 switch to interconnect the networks inside of the data center and an ASA 5510 (which is total overkill, but the 5505 is not rack mountable) as a firewall for the Wan side (internet) and VPN. I envision the setup to be as follows: Internet - ASA - 3560 Vendors - 3560 - Servers The general idea is that the ASA acts as a firewall and VPN device and the 3560 does all the heavy lifting. The first is a fairly traditional setup but my concern is performance. The second is somewhat unorthodox in that the vendors are directly connected to the layer 3 switch without passing through a firewall. Based on my understanding however, a layer 3 switch will perform substantially better as it will do hardware (ASIC) vs. software switching. (Note that number 2 is a little over the budget, but not unworkable (double negative, ugh)) Since this is my first time dealing with a data center, I am not sure what the IP space is going to look like. I suspect I will retain a block(s) of public IPs, vlan them to individual interfaces for the vendor connections and the servers (which will not reachable from the wan side of course) and setup routing on the switch. So here are my questionss: Is there a substantial performance difference between 1 and 2, i.e. hardware based switching on a layer 3 vs a software base on the 2911? I have trolled the internet and found a lot of Cisco literature, but nothing that I could really use to get a good handle. The vendors we connect to are secure and trusted (famous last words) and as I understand it, it is common practice not to NAT or firewall these connections (because of the aforementioned latency sensitivity). But what what kind of latency are we really talking about if I push the data through a router (or even ASA for that matter)? For our purposes, 5 ms will not kill us, 20 or 30 can be very costly. Others measure in microseconds, but they are out of our league. Is there any issues with using public IPs on a layer 3 switch? I am certainly not married to either of these configs, and I am totally open to any ideas. My knowledge (and I use the term loosely) is largely from books so I welcome any advice / insight. Thanks in advance.

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  • Computer science undergraduate project ideas

    - by Mehrdad Afshari
    Hopefully, I'm going to finish my undergraduate studies next semester and I'm thinking about the topic of my final project. And yes, I've read the questions with duplicate title. I'm asking this from a bit different viewpoint, so it's not an exact dupe. I've spent at least half of my life coding stuff in different languages and frameworks so I'm not looking at this project as a way to learn much about coding and preparing for real world apps or such. I've done lots of those already. But since I have to do it to complete my degree, I felt I should spend my time doing something useful instead of throwing the whole thing out. I'm planning to make it an open source project or a hosted Web app (depending on the type) if I can make a high quality thing out of it, so I decided to ask StackOverflow what could make a useful project. Situation I've plenty of freedom about the topic. They also require 30-40 pages of text describing the project. I have the following points in mind (the more satisfied, the better): Something useful for software development Something that benefits the community Having academic value is great Shouldn't take more than a month of development (I know I'm lazy). Shouldn't be related to advanced theoretical stuff (soft computing, fuzzy logic, neural networks, ...). I've been a business-oriented software developer. It should be software oriented. While I love hacking microcontrollers and other fun embedded electronic things, I'm not really good at soldering and things like that. I'm leaning toward a Web application (think StackOverflow, PasteBin, NerdDinner, things like those). Technology It's probably going to be done in .NET (C#, F#) and Windows platform. If I really like the project (cool low level hacking), I might actually slip to C/C++. But really, C# is what I'm efficient at. Ideas Programming language, parsing and compiler related stuff: Designing a domain specific programming language and compiler Templating language compiled to C# or IL Database tools and related code generation stuff Web related technologies: ASP.NET MVC View engine doing something cool (don't know what exactly...) Specific-purpose, small, fast ASP.NET-based Web framework Applications: Visual Studio plugin to integrate with Bazaar (it's too much work, I think). ASP.NET based, jQuery-powered issue tracker (and possibly, project lifecycle management as a whole - poor man's TFS) Others: Something related to GPGPU Looking forward for great ideas! Unfortunately, I can't help on a currently existing project. I need to start my own to prevent further problems (as it's an undergrad project, nevertheless).

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  • How to override C# DateTime serialization with class auto-generated from wsdl?

    - by Calvin Fisher
    I have a WSDL that the consumer of my web service expects will be adhered to strictly. I converted it into an interface with wsdl.exe and had my web service implement it. Except for this problem, I have been generally pleased with the results. A simple GetCurrentTime method will have the following response class generated from the WSDL in the interface definition: [System.CodeDobmCompiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("wsdl", "2.0.50727.3038")] [System.SerializableAttribute()] [System.Diagnostics.DebuggerStepThroughAttribute()] [System.ComponentModel.DesignerCategoryAttribute("code")] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlTypeAttribute(Namespace="[Client Namespace]")] public partial class GetCurrentTimeResponse { private System.DateTime timeStampField; [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlElementAttribute(Form=System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaForm.Unqualified] public System.DateTime TimeStamp{ // [accesses timeStampField] } } When I put the response data into the automatically generated response class, it gets serialized into an appropriate XML response. (Most of the web methods have much more complicated return types with multiple levels of arrays.) The problem is that the default serialization of DateTime objects violates one of the requirements in the WSDL: ... <xsd:simpleType name="SearchTimeStamp"> <xsd:restriction base="xsd:dateTime"> <xsd:pattern value="[0-9]{4}-[0-9]{2}-[0-9]{2}T[0-9]{2}:[0-9]{2}:[0-9]{2}(.[0-9]{1,7})?Z"> </xsd:restriction> </xsd:simpleType> ... Note the last part of the pattern where subseconds must be either 1 or 7 characters if they are included. The client seems to be rejecting the response because it does not match that requirement. The main issue is that when .NET serializes a DateTime object, it omits all trailing zeroes, meaning the resulting subsecond value varies in length. (e.g., "12:34:56.700" gets serialized as "<TimeStamp>12:34:56:7</TimeStamp>" by default). We use millisecond precision, so I need all timestamps to format with 7 subsecond digits in order to be compliant with the WSDL. It would be easy if I could specify a format string, but I'm not sure how to control the string that the DateTime object uses to serialize to XML, or to otherwise override the serialization behavior. How do I do this? Keeping in mind the following... I would like to modify the generated code as little as possible... preferably not at all if the change can be made through a partial class or inherited class. Using an inherited class for the return type of the web method will cause the web service to no longer implement the auto-generated interface. The TimeStamp type occurs in other, more complex response types. So, manually overriding the entire serialization process may be prohibitively time-consuming.

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  • SSRS Report from Oracle DB - Use stored procedure

    - by Emtucifor
    I am developing a report in Sql Server Reporting Services 2005, connecting to an Oracle 11g database. As you post replies perhaps it will help to know that I'm skilled in MSSQL Server and inexperienced in Oracle. I have multiple nested subreports and need to use summary data in outer reports and the same data but in detail in the inner reports. In order to spare the DB server from multiple executions, I thought to populate some temp tables at the beginning and then query just them the multiple times in the report and the subreports. In SSRS, Datasets are evidently executed in the order they appear in the RDL file. And you can have a dataset that doesn't return a rowset. So I created a stored procedure to populate my four temp tables and made this the first Dataset in my report. This SP works when I run it from SQLDeveloper and I can query the data from the temp tables. However, this didn't appear to work out because SSRS was apparently not reusing the same session, so even though the global temporary tables were created with ON COMMIT PRESERVE ROWS my Datasets were empty. I switched to using "real" tables and am now passing in an additional parameter, a GUID in string form, uniquely generated on each new execution, that is part of the primary key of each table, so I can get back just the rows for this execution. Running this from Sql Developer works fine, example: DECLARE ActivityCode varchar2(15) := '1208-0916 '; ExecutionID varchar2(32) := SYS_GUID(); BEGIN CIPProjectBudget (ActivityCode, ExecutionID); END; Never mind that in this example I don't know the GUID, this simply proves it works because rows are inserted to my four tables. But in the SSRS report, I'm still getting no rows in my Datasets and SQL Developer confirms no rows are being inserted. So I'm thinking along the lines of: Oracle uses implicit transactions and my changes aren't getting committed? Even though I can prove that the non-rowset returning SP is executing (because if I leave out the parameter mapping it complains at report rendering time about not having enough parameters) perhaps it's not really executing. Somehow. Wrong execution order isn't the problem or rows would appear in the tables, and they aren't. I'm interested in any ideas about how to accomplish this (especially the part about not running the main queries multiple times). I'll redesign my whole report. I'll stop using a stored procedure. Suggest anything you like! I just need help getting this working and I am stuck. If you want more details, in my SSRS report I have a List object (it's a container that repeats once for each row in a Dataset) that has some header values and then contains a subreport. Eventually, there will be four total reports: one main report, with three nested subreports. Each subreport will be in a List on the parent report.

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  • Concatenate & Minify JS on the fly OR at build time - ASP.NET MVC

    - by Charlino
    As an extension to this question here Linking JavaScript Libraries in User Controls I was after some examples of how people are concatinating & minifying javascript on the fly OR at build time. I would also like to see how it then works into your master pages. I don't mind page specific files being minified and linked inidividually as they currently are (see below) but all the js files on the main master page (I have about 5 or 6) I would like concatenated and minified. Bonus points for anyone who also incorporates CSS concatenation & minification! :-) Current master page with the common js files that I would like concatenated & minified: <%@ Master Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewMasterPage" %> <head runat="server"> ... BLAH ... <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="AdditionalHead" runat="server" /> ... BLAH ... <%= Html.CSSBlock("/styles/site.css") %> <%= Html.CSSBlock("/styles/jquery-ui-1.7.1.css") %> <%= Html.CSSBlock("/styles/jquery.lightbox-0.5.css") %> <%= Html.CSSBlock("/styles/ie6.css", 6) %> <%= Html.CSSBlock("/styles/ie7.css", 7) %> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="AdditionalCSS" runat="server" /> </head> <body> ... BLAH ... <%= Html.JSBlock("/scripts/jquery-1.3.2.js", "/scripts/jquery-1.3.2.min.js") %> <%= Html.JSBlock("/scripts/jquery-ui-1.7.1.js", "/scripts/jquery-ui-1.7.1.min.js") %> <%= Html.JSBlock("/scripts/jquery.validate.js", "/scripts/jquery.validate.min.js") %> <%= Html.JSBlock("/scripts/jquery.lightbox-0.5.js", "/scripts/jquery.lightbox-0.5.min.js") %> <%= Html.JSBlock("/scripts/global.js", "/scripts/global.min.js") %> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="AdditionalJS" runat="server" /> </body> Used in a page like this (which I'm happy with): <asp:Content ID="signUpContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="AdditionalJS" runat="server"> <%= Html.JSBlock("/scripts/pages/account.signup.js", "/scripts/pages/account.signup.min.js") %> </asp:Content> EDIT: What I'm using now Since asking this question, Microsoft have released their own JS & CSS compression library called Microsoft AJAX Minifier, I'd definitely recommend checking it out. It includes MSBuild tasks which are the duck's nuts.

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  • Android: OutofMemoryError: bitmap size exceeds VM budget with no reason I can see.

    - by Meymann
    Hi. I am having an OutOfMemory exception with a gallery over 600x800 pixels JPEG's. The environment I've been using Gallery with JPG images around 600x800 pixels. Since my content may be a bit more complex than just images, I have set each view to be a RelativeLayout that wraps ImageView with the JPG. In order to "speed up" the user experience I have a simple cache of 4 slots that prefetches (in a looper) about 1 image left and 1 image right to the displayed image and keeps them in a 4 slot HashMap. The platform I am using AVD of 256 RAM and 128 Heap Size, with a 600x800 screen. It also happens on an Entourage Edge target, except that with the device it's harder to debug. The problem I have been getting an exception: OutofMemoryError: bitmap size exceeds VM budget And it happens when fetching the fifth image. I have tried to change the size of my image cache, and it is still the same. The strange thing: There should not be a memory problem In order to make sure the heap limit is very far away from what I need, I have defined a dummy 8MB array in the beginning, and left it unreferenced so it's immediately dispatched. It is a member of the activity thread and is defined as following static { @SuppressWarnings("unused") byte dummy[] = new byte[ 8*1024*1024 ]; } The result is that the heap size is nearly 11MB and it's all free. Note I have added that trick after it began to crash. It makes OutOfMemory less frequent. Now, I am using DDMS. Just before the crash (does not change much after the crash), DDMS shows: ID Heap Size Allocated Free %Used #Objects 1 11.195 MB 2.428 MB 8.767 MB 21.69% 47,156 And in the detail table it shows: Type Count Total Size Smallest Largest Median Average free 1,536 8.739MB 16B 7.750MB 24B 5.825KB The largest block is 7.7MB. And yet the LogCat says: ERROR/dalvikvm-heap(1923): 925200-byte external allocation too large for this process. If you mind the relation of the median and the average, it is plausible to assume that most of the available blocks are very small. However, there is a block large enough for the bitmap, it's 7.7M. How come it is still not enough? Note: I recorded a heap trace. When looking at the amount of data allocated, it does not feel like more than 2M is allocated. It does match the free memory report by DDMS. Could it be that I experience some problem like heap-fragmentation? How do I solve/workaround the problem? Is the heap shared to all threads? Could it be that I interpret the DDMS readout in a wrong way, and there is really no 900K block to allocate? If so, can anybody please tell me where I can see that? Thanks a lot Meymann

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  • Some help needed with setting up the PERFECT workflow for web development with 2-3 guys using subver

    - by Roeland
    Hey guys! I run a small web development company along side with my brother and friend. After doing extensive research I have decided on using subversion for version control. Here is how I currently plan on running typical development. Keep in mind there are 3 of us each in a separate location. I set up an account with springloops (springloops.com) subversion hosting. Each time I work on a new project, I create a repository for it. So lets say in this case I am working on site1. I want to have 3 versions of the site on the internet: Web Development - This is the server me and the other developers publish to. (site1.dev.bythepixel.com) Client Preview - This is the server that we update every few days with a good revision for the client to see. (site1.bythepixel.com) Live Site - The site I publish to when going live (site1.com) Each web development machine (at each location) will have a local copy of xamp running virtual host to allow multiple websites to be worked on. The root of the local copy is set up to be the same as the local copy of the subversion repository. This is set up so we can make small tweaks and preview them immediately. When some work has been done, a commit is made to the repository for the site. I will have the dev site automatically be pushed (its an option in springloops). Then, whenever I feel ready to push to the client site I will do so. Now, I have a few concerns with those work flow: I am using codeigniter currently, and in the config file I generally set the root of the site. Ex. http://www.site1.com. So, it looks like each time I publish to one of the internet servers, I will have to modify the config file? Is there any way to make it so certain files are set for each server? So when I hit publish to client preview it just uploads the config file for the client preview server. I don't want the live site , the client preview site and the dev site to share the same mysql server for a variety of reasons. So does this once again mean that I have to adjust the db server info each time I push to a different site? Does this workflow make sense? If you have any suggestion please let me know. I plan for this to be the work flow I use for the next few year. I just need to put a system in place that allows for future expansion! Thanks a bunch!!

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