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  • Can't sync filesystem without reboot

    - by Fabio
    I'm having an issue with a linux server. Once a week the running mysql instance hangs and there is no way to fully stop it. If I kill it, it remains in zombie status and init does not reap its pid. The server is used for staging deployments and some internal tools, so it's not under heavy load. The only process constantly used id mysql and for this I think that it's the only process which suffer of this issue. I've searched system logs for errors and the only thing I found is this error (repeated a couple of times) in dmesg output: [706560.640085] INFO: task mysqld:31965 blocked for more than 120 seconds. [706560.640198] "echo 0 > /proc/sys/kernel/hung_task_timeout_secs" disables this message. [706560.640312] mysqld D ffff88032fd93f40 0 31965 1 0x00000000 [706560.640317] ffff880242a27d18 0000000000000086 ffff88031a50dd00 ffff880242a27fd8 [706560.640321] ffff880242a27fd8 ffff880242a27fd8 ffff88031e549740 ffff88031a50dd00 [706560.640325] ffff88031a50dd00 ffff88032fd947f8 0000000000000002 ffffffff8112f250 [706560.640328] Call Trace: [706560.640338] [<ffffffff8112f250>] ? __lock_page+0x70/0x70 [706560.640344] [<ffffffff816cb1b9>] schedule+0x29/0x70 [706560.640347] [<ffffffff816cb28f>] io_schedule+0x8f/0xd0 [706560.640350] [<ffffffff8112f25e>] sleep_on_page+0xe/0x20 [706560.640353] [<ffffffff816c9900>] __wait_on_bit+0x60/0x90 [706560.640356] [<ffffffff8112f390>] wait_on_page_bit+0x80/0x90 [706560.640360] [<ffffffff8107dce0>] ? autoremove_wake_function+0x40/0x40 [706560.640363] [<ffffffff8112f891>] filemap_fdatawait_range+0x101/0x190 [706560.640366] [<ffffffff81130975>] filemap_write_and_wait_range+0x65/0x70 [706560.640371] [<ffffffff8122e441>] ext4_sync_file+0x71/0x320 [706560.640376] [<ffffffff811c3e6d>] do_fsync+0x5d/0x90 [706560.640379] [<ffffffff811c40d0>] sys_fsync+0x10/0x20 [706560.640383] [<ffffffff816d495d>] system_call_fastpath+0x1a/0x1f When this happens the only way to make everything working again is a full reboot, but in order to do that I'm forced to use this command after I've manually stopped all running processes echo b > /proc/sysrq-trigger otherwise normal reboot process hangs forever. I've tracked reboots script and I've found out that also the reboot process hangs on a sync call, this one in /etc/init.d/sendsigs (I'm on ubuntu) # Flush the kernel I/O buffer before we start to kill # processes, to make sure the IO of already stopped services to # not slow down the remaining processes to a point where they # are accidentily killed with SIGKILL because they did not # manage to shut down in time. sync I'm almost sure that the cause of this is an hardware issue (the RAID controller???) also because I've other two machines with the same hardware and software configuration and they don't suffer of this, but I can't find any hint in syslog or dmesg. I've also installed smartmontools and mcelog packages but none of them did report any issue. What can I do to track the cause of this issue? Today is happened again, here is the status of system after triggering a reboot init---console-kit-dae---64*[{console-kit-dae}] +-dbus-daemon +-mcelog +-mysqld---{mysqld} +-newrelic-daemon---newrelic-daemon---11*[{newrelic-daemon}] +-ntpd +-polkitd---{polkitd} +-python3 +-rpc.idmapd +-rpc.statd +-rpcbind +-sh---rc---S20sendsigs---sync +-smartd +-snmpd +-sshd---sshd---zsh---sudo---zsh---pstree +-sshd---sshd---zsh---sudo---zsh And here is the status of sync process # ps aux | grep sync root 3637 0.1 0.0 4352 372 ? D 05:53 0:00 sync i.e. Uninterruptible sleep... Hardware specs as reported by lshw I think the raid controller is a fake raid. I usually don't deal with hardware (and for the record I don't have physical access to it) description: Computer product: X7DBP () vendor: Supermicro version: 0123456789 serial: 0123456789 width: 64 bits capabilities: smbios-2.4 dmi-2.4 vsyscall32 configuration: administrator_password=disabled boot=normal frontpanel_password=unknown keyboard_password=unknown power-on_password=disabled uuid=53D19F64-D663-A017-8922-0030487C1FEE *-core description: Motherboard product: X7DBP vendor: Supermicro physical id: 0 version: PCB Version serial: 0123456789 *-firmware description: BIOS vendor: Phoenix Technologies LTD physical id: 0 version: 6.00 date: 05/29/2007 size: 106KiB capacity: 960KiB capabilities: pci pnp upgrade shadowing escd cdboot bootselect edd int13floppy2880 acpi usb ls120boot zipboot biosbootspecification *-storage description: RAID bus controller product: 631xESB/632xESB SATA RAID Controller vendor: Intel Corporation physical id: 1f.2 bus info: pci@0000:00:1f.2 version: 09 width: 32 bits clock: 66MHz capabilities: storage pm bus_master cap_list configuration: driver=ahci latency=0 resources: irq:19 ioport:18a0(size=8) ioport:1874(size=4) ioport:1878(size=8) ioport:1870(size=4) ioport:1880(size=32) memory:d8500400-d85007ff

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  • Publishing an Excel spreadsheet using Microsoft SBS 2008 to a web page that is viewable by mobile ph

    - by Dave Heath
    I am getting well out of my “superuser” depth here and would love some support. At work we have an Excel workbook (*.xls format circa Office 2003) which maintains our “engineers” timesheet. This handles what events we are doing across the year and how many “work units” it is. As far as a workbook goes, it is fairly simple with just a few =SUM(range) cells and some linked across sheets (12 sheets, one for each month) It is stored on a server, in a folder that provides “management” with full access and “engineers” with read-only access. The workbook itself is read-only for “engineers” and full access for “management”. I think these permissions are controlled through Active Directory. The workbook is protected with a password, assumingly to allow “management” to edit it even if they are working at a terminal logged in as an “engineer”. This protection prevents “engineers” from going to certain cells to see formulae and therefore editing them. The workbook has a macro which saves and closes it ten minutes after opening. This is to stop other “management” from being locked out by any one person who has logged in with editing privileges. I hope this is making sense to someone... :S Now then, we have Microsoft Small Business Server 2008. We have a shiny new web-based login for when we are offsite so we can get to Exchange webmail and our internal site (which uses Sharepoint 3.0). “Management” would like to be able to publish this timesheet automatically after changes (they don’t want to have to do anything different to what they are currently doing) so that using an iPhone “engineers” can check on it while out of the office. I am currently having a look at “Excel Services” for Office 2007 on TechNet but I am not sure if I am running down the right garden path at the moment. < EDIT This seems to suggest that I have to have Sharepoint Server 2007, with no mention of Sharepoint 3.0... ... "MOSS builds on WSS by adding both core features as well as end user web parts" - Wikipedia entry for Microsoft Office SharePoint Server (MOSS) this is not good news... "...and using the ASP.NET APIs, web parts can be written to extend the functionality of WSS." Wikipedia entry for Windows Sharepoint Services. Could this bring back what I need? Is this good news? Do I need to start learning ASP.NET? This link here implies that we need MOSS to do what I want and the bosses say we aint' getting it. http://serverfault.com/questions/20198/what-is-some-cool-things-you-can-do-with-sharepoint-2007/22128#22128 Back to the drawing board. < /EDIT Please could someone suggest some “further reading” for me to help point me in the right direction or to put me back on the right track. Many thanks. I will try to keep this up to date with how I get on.

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  • Supermicro IPMI on MBD-X8DAH+-F-O motherboard. Keyboard and mouse do not work after booting Windows Server 2008 R2

    - by LDelgado
    Hell Everyone, I built a server with the mentioned motherboard. I installed Windows Server 2008 R2 Enterprise on this server. IPMI is integrated on the motherboard with its own dedicated NIC. I've got that NIC configured with its own IP address. I can remote into it using IPMI, and I can remotely control the server settings before booting the OS ( BIOS, RAID configuration, etc). When the OS boots, I lose the mouse and keyboard. I cannot use the keyboard or mouse when installing the OS either. So the Keyboard and Mouse only work when no OS is loaded. Once the OS loads I lose it - that is my problem. I've been doing some research and trying a few things, but I have not been successful in fixing this issue. I may be wrong, but based on the things I've found online, it seems that the problem could be caused by the way the OS handles USB. The server is headless. There is no keyboard, mouse, or monitor plugged into it. When I boot up the OS and remote into it, I cannot see a mouse or keyboard listed in the Device Manager. Based on what I've read, it seems that the OS should detect a mouse and a keyboard when connecting remotely via IPMI. The following are the solutions I've tried. Nothing has worked so far: I've updated the firmware of the IPMI component to the latest firmware - 1.33. I made sure that the mouse mode was set to Absolute (Windows OS). I've loaded the factory defaults several times. I've enabled Port64h/60h Emulation under the USB settings in the BIOS. I've disabled USB legacy support in the BIOS. I made sure the firewall wasn't blocking IPMI (disabled the firewall). And that's about it. I've found threads in some forums from people having the same issue as me, but they were not running the same OS. They were either running Linux or FreeBSD. Most of them fixed their problem by selecting the right mouse mode (Linux in their case). There was one other that solved the problem by disabling USB Mass Storage mode. He stated "When I set it to disable USB Mass Storage when no image is loaded, the ukbd came alive, and I'm typing this on the IPMI Console. " source: http://freebsd.1045724.n5.nabble.com/IPMI-Console-No-luck-once-OS-is-booted-td3967868.html I suspect the solution described in the previous paragraph is somehow related to my problem. I've found several threads on the internet with issues describing the same problem, but none of them were with Windows Server 2008 R2. Again, I may be wrong, but it seems like that could be the issue. I just don't know how I go about applying a solution in Windows Server 2008 R2. In any case, I could use your expertise. Maybe I am missing something, or maybe I'm on the right track. Your help is much appreciated. Thank you in advance,

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  • Permission Mystery - apt-get and other system utilities have 000 permissions

    - by emteh
    I'm trying to track down this strange behavoir for years now. Always after installing software-updates the permissions of a lot of system-tools are broken as you can see below. I am reasonable convinced that the machine is not owned by someone else. Regular security updates + grsecurity kernel + pax + daily rkhunter runs. Besides that there is no incentive for an attacker to fiddle in such obvious ways with the system. I installed bastille linux (http://bastille-linux.sourceforge.net/) und tried to deinstall it later, so the problems could be related to that. However I don't see how this can happen in a regular way after updates. System: Ubuntu 10.04, recently updated to Ubuntu 12.04 but the problem persists. Apt-Configuration in /etc/apt/ looks sane to me. But nevertheless - could here be the source of the trouble? DPkg::Pre-Install-Pkgs {"/usr/sbin/dpkg-preconfigure --apt || true";}; DPkg::Post-Invoke { "if [ -x /usr/bin/debsums ]; then /usr/bin/debsums -- generate=nocheck -sp /var/cache/apt/archives; fi"; }; // Makes sure that rkhunter file properties database is updated // after each remove or install only APT_AUTOGEN is enabled DPkg::Post-Invoke { "if [ -x /usr/bin/rkhunter ] && grep -qiE '^APT_AUTOGEN=.? (true|yes)' /etc/default/rkhunter; then /usr/share/rkhunter/scripts/rkhupd.sh; fi" } DPkg::Post-Invoke {"if [ -d /var/lib/update-notifier ]; then touch /var/lib/update- notifier/dpkg-run-stamp; fi; if [ -e /var/lib/update-notifier/updates-available ]; then echo > /var/lib/update-notifier/updates-available; fi "; }; Where do these chmod 000 come from? I'm feeling really uneasy with this problem. root@besen:~# find /usr/bin/ -perm 0 -ls 14721496 196 ---------- 1 root root 192592 Oct 15 11:58 /usr/bin/apt-get 14721144 68 ---------- 1 root root 63848 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/bin/gpasswd root@besen:~# find /usr/sbin/ -perm 0 -ls 1727732 92 ---------- 1 root root 86984 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/usermod 1727727 64 ---------- 1 root root 57640 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/userdel 1727719 64 ---------- 1 root root 57680 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/newusers 1727718 40 ---------- 1 root root 38632 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/grpunconv 1727728 48 ---------- 1 root root 47088 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/groupadd 1727724 32 ---------- 1 root root 29584 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/pwunconv 19031620 84 ---------- 1 root root 81880 Jan 3 2012 /usr/sbin/edquota 14877113 48 ---------- 1 root root 46880 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/grpck 1727722 40 ---------- 1 root root 38632 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/pwck 1727730 96 ---------- 1 root root 91464 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/useradd 19031619 16 ---------- 1 root root 14600 Jan 3 2012 /usr/sbin/quotastats 1727720 44 ---------- 1 root root 42760 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/groupdel 1727733 36 ---------- 1 root root 34504 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/pwconv 19031621 80 ---------- 1 root root 77632 Jan 3 2012 /usr/sbin/rpc.rquotad 19030041 76 ---------- 1 root root 73600 Jan 3 2012 /usr/sbin/repquota 1727731 40 ---------- 1 root root 38624 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/grpconv 1727725 56 ---------- 1 root root 49472 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/vipw 1727723 64 ---------- 1 root root 57672 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/groupmod root@besen:~# find /sbin/ -perm 0 -ls 16760927 76 ---------- 1 root root 73464 Jan 3 2012 /sbin/quotaon Any tipps? I really can't pinpoint the problem in more detail. It happens after installing updates but I can't find no hooks in the dpkg/apt system.

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  • SQL Server Log File Won't Shrink due cause "log are pending replication" on non replicated DB?

    - by user796466
    I have a non Mission Critial DB 9am-5pm SQL Server database that I have set up to do nightly full backups and log backups every 30 minutes during business hours. The database is in full recovery and normally I have no reason to truncate/shrink logs unless I do some heavy maintenance. Log backups manage the size with no issue. However I have not been at this client for several weeks and upon inspection I noticed that the log had grown to about 10 times the size of the .mdf file. I poked around backups had been running and I had not gotten any severity error alerts (SQL mail). I attempted to put DB in simple recovery and shrink the log, this was no good. I precede to try a log backup and I got: The log was not truncated because records at the beginning of the log are pending replication or Change Data Capture. Ensure the Log Reader Agent or capture job is running or use sp_repldone to mark transactions as distributed or captured. Restart SQL Server rinse repeat same thing ... I said ??? Replication is not nor ever has been set up on this DB or database /server ??? So the log backups have not been flushing the .ldf. So I did a couple hours of research and I found: http://www.sqlmonster.com/Uwe/Forum.aspx/sql-server/5445/Log-file-is-not-truncated-inspite-of-regular-log-backup http://www.eggheadcafe.com/software/aspnet/30708322/the-log-was-not-truncated-because-records-at-the-beginning-of-the-log-are-pending-replication.aspx seems to be some kind of poorly documented bug ?? The solution seems to have been to run exec sp_repldone, more precisley EXEC sp_repldone @xactid = NULL, @xact_segno = NULL, @numtrans = 0, @time= 0, @reset = 1 This procedure can be used in emergency situations to allow truncation of the transaction log when transactions pending replication are present. Using this procedure prevents Microsoft SQL Server 2000 from replicating the database until the database is unpublished and republished. ~ MSDN When I do that I get the following Msg 18757, Level 16, State 1, Procedure sp_repldone, Line 1 Unable to execute procedure. The database is not published. Execute the procedure in a database that is published for replication. Which makes sense Because the DB has never been published for replication. I have several questions: A) First and foremost is, WTF is going on ? What is causeing this, I am interested in knowing the why here ? Is this genuinley a bug or is there some aspect of the backup that is not functioning properly that cause's the DB to mimick a replicated state ? Someone please edify me on this. B) Second ... Do I really have to publish / replicate this DB to exec this SP to fix this ??? Sounds crazy or is there some T-SQL that I can put it in a published state exec the proc and be on my way ... C) Third, if I do indeed have to publish this database to exec the SP to release this unneeded mis replicated/intended log , to get my .ldf file and backup back on track. How do I publish the database without an online host that it is asking for ??? I don't generally do this kind of database administration and need some guidance. Sorry if this is too verbose but just voicing the question helps me clarify it ... Thank you in advance for your help

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  • CodeIgniter: Passing variables via URL - alternatives to using GET

    - by John Durrant
    I'm new to CodeIgniter and have just discovered the difficulties using the GET method of passing variables via the URL (e.g. domain.com/page.php?var1=1&var2=2). I gather that one approach is to pass the variables in the URI segments but haven't quite figured out how to do that yet as it seems to create the expectation of having a function in the controller named as the specific URI segment???? Anyway Instead of using GET I've decided to use POST by adapting a submit button (disguised as a link) with the variables in hidden input fields. I've created the following solution which seems to work fine, but am wondering whether I'm on the right track here or whether there is an easier way of passing variables via a link within CodeIgniter? I've created the following class in application/libraries/ <?php if ( ! defined('BASEPATH')) exit('No direct script access allowed'); class C_variables { function variables_via_link($action, $link_text, $style, $link_data) { $attributes = array('style' => 'margin:0; padding:0; display: inline;'); echo form_open($action, $attributes); $attributes = array('class' => $style, 'name' => 'link'); echo form_submit($attributes, $link_text); foreach ($link_data as $key => $value){ echo form_hidden($key, $value); } echo form_close(); } } ?> With the following CSS: /* SUBMIT BUTTON AS LINK adapted from thread: http://forums.digitalpoint.com/showthread.php?t=403667 Cross browser support (apparently). */ .submit_as_link { background: transparent; border-top: 0; border-right: 0; border-bottom: 1px solid #00F; border-left: 0; color: #00F; display: inline; margin: 0; padding: 0; cursor: hand /* Added to show hand when hovering */ } *:first-child+html .submit_as_link { /* hack needed for IE 7 */ border-bottom: 0; text-decoration: underline; } * html .submit_as_link { /* hack needed for IE 5/6 */ border-bottom: 0; text-decoration: underline; } Link then created using the following code in the VIEW: <?php $link = new C_variables; $link_data=array('var1' => 1, 'var2' => 2); $link ->variables_via_link('destination_page', 'here is a link!', 'submit_as_link', $link_data); ?> Thanks for your help...

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  • Spring Security - Interactive login attempt was unsuccessful

    - by Taylor L
    I've been trying to track down why Spring Security isn't creating the SPRING_SECURITY_REMEMBER_ME_COOKIE so I turned on logging for org.springframework.security.web.authentication.rememberme. At first glance, the logs make it seem like the login is failing but the login is actually successful in the sense that if I navigate to a page that requires authentication I am not redirected back to the login page. However, the logs appear to be saying the login credentials are invalid. Any ideas as to what is going on? Mar 16, 2010 10:05:56 AM org.springframework.security.web.authentication.rememberme.PersistentTokenBasedRememberMeServices onLoginSuccess FINE: Creating new persistent login for user [email protected] Mar 16, 2010 10:10:07 AM org.springframework.security.web.authentication.rememberme.AbstractRememberMeServices loginFail FINE: Interactive login attempt was unsuccessful. Mar 16, 2010 10:10:07 AM org.springframework.security.web.authentication.rememberme.AbstractRememberMeServices cancelCookie FINE: Cancelling cookie <http auto-config="false"> <intercept-url pattern="/css/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/img/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/js/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/app/admin/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/app/login/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/app/register/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/app/error/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/**" access="ROLE_USER" /> <logout logout-success-url="/" /> <form-login login-page="/app/login" default-target-url="/" authentication-failure-url="/app/login?login_error=1" /> <session-management invalid-session-url="/app/login" /> <remember-me services-ref="rememberMeServices" key="myKey" /> </http> <authentication-manager alias="authenticationManager"> <authentication-provider user-service-ref="userDetailsService"> <password-encoder hash="sha-256" base64="true"> <salt-source user-property="username" /> </password-encoder> </authentication-provider> </authentication-manager> <beans:bean id="userDetailsService" class="com.my.service.auth.UserDetailsServiceImpl" /> <beans:bean id="rememberMeServices" class="org.springframework.security.web.authentication.rememberme.PersistentTokenBasedRememberMeServices"> <beans:property name="userDetailsService" ref="userDetailsService" /> <beans:property name="tokenRepository" ref="persistentTokenRepository" /> <beans:property name="key" value="myKey" /> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="persistentTokenRepository" class="com.my.service.auth.PersistentTokenRepositoryImpl" />

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  • Entity Framework SaveChanges error details

    - by Marek Karbarz
    When saving changes with SaveChanges on a data context is there a way to determine which Entity causes an error? For example, sometimes I'll forget to assign a date to a non-nullable date field and get "Invalid Date Range" error, but I get no information about which entity or which field it's caused by (I can usually track it down by painstakingly going through all my objects, but it's very time consuming). Stack trace is pretty useless as it only shows me an error at the SaveChanges call without any additional information as to where exactly it happened. Note that I'm not looking to solve any particular problem I have now, I would just like to know in general if there's a way to tell which entity/field is causing a problem. Quick sample of a stack trace as an example - in this case an error happened because CreatedOn date was not set on IAComment entity, however it's impossible to tell from this error/stack trace [SqlTypeException: SqlDateTime overflow. Must be between 1/1/1753 12:00:00 AM and 12/31/9999 11:59:59 PM.] System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlDateTime.FromTimeSpan(TimeSpan value) +2127345 System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlDateTime.FromDateTime(DateTime value) +232 System.Data.SqlClient.MetaType.FromDateTime(DateTime dateTime, Byte cb) +46 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.WriteValue(Object value, MetaType type, Byte scale, Int32 actualLength, Int32 encodingByteSize, Int32 offset, TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +4997789 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.TdsExecuteRPC(_SqlRPC[] rpcArray, Int32 timeout, Boolean inSchema, SqlNotificationRequest notificationRequest, TdsParserStateObject stateObj, Boolean isCommandProc) +6248 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReaderTds(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, Boolean async) +987 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method, DbAsyncResult result) +162 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method) +32 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior behavior, String method) +141 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteDbDataReader(CommandBehavior behavior) +12 System.Data.Common.DbCommand.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior behavior) +10 System.Data.Mapping.Update.Internal.DynamicUpdateCommand.Execute(UpdateTranslator translator, EntityConnection connection, Dictionary`2 identifierValues, List`1 generatedValues) +8084396 System.Data.Mapping.Update.Internal.UpdateTranslator.Update(IEntityStateManager stateManager, IEntityAdapter adapter) +267 [UpdateException: An error occurred while updating the entries. See the inner exception for details.] System.Data.Mapping.Update.Internal.UpdateTranslator.Update(IEntityStateManager stateManager, IEntityAdapter adapter) +389 System.Data.EntityClient.EntityAdapter.Update(IEntityStateManager entityCache) +163 System.Data.Objects.ObjectContext.SaveChanges(SaveOptions options) +609 IADAL.IAController.Save(IAHeader head) in C:\Projects\IA\IADAL\IAController.cs:61 IA.IAForm.saveForm(Boolean validate) in C:\Projects\IA\IA\IAForm.aspx.cs:198 IA.IAForm.advance_Click(Object sender, EventArgs e) in C:\Projects\IA\IA\IAForm.aspx.cs:287 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.OnClick(EventArgs e) +118 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.RaisePostBackEvent(String eventArgument) +112 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.System.Web.UI.IPostBackEventHandler.RaisePostBackEvent(String eventArgument) +10 System.Web.UI.Page.RaisePostBackEvent(IPostBackEventHandler sourceControl, String eventArgument) +13 System.Web.UI.Page.RaisePostBackEvent(NameValueCollection postData) +36 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +5019

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  • Spring Security - Persistent Remember Me Issue

    - by Taylor L
    I've been trying to track down why Spring Security isn't creating the Spring Security remember me cookie (SPRING_SECURITY_REMEMBER_ME_COOKIE). At first glance, the logs make it seem like the login is failing, but the login is actually successful in the sense that if I navigate to a page that requires authentication I am not redirected back to the login page. However, the logs appear to be saying the login credentials are invalid. I'm using Spring 3.0.1, Spring Security 3.0.1, and Google App Engine 1.3.1. Any ideas as to what is going on? Mar 16, 2010 10:05:56 AM org.springframework.security.web.authentication.rememberme.PersistentTokenBasedRememberMeServices onLoginSuccess FINE: Creating new persistent login for user [email protected] Mar 16, 2010 10:10:07 AM org.springframework.security.web.authentication.rememberme.AbstractRememberMeServices loginFail FINE: Interactive login attempt was unsuccessful. Mar 16, 2010 10:10:07 AM org.springframework.security.web.authentication.rememberme.AbstractRememberMeServices cancelCookie FINE: Cancelling cookie Below is the relevant portion of the applicationContext-security.xml. <http auto-config="false"> <intercept-url pattern="/css/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/img/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/js/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/app/admin/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/app/login/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/app/register/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/app/error/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/**" access="ROLE_USER" /> <logout logout-success-url="/" /> <form-login login-page="/app/login" default-target-url="/" authentication-failure-url="/app/login?login_error=1" /> <session-management invalid-session-url="/app/login" /> <remember-me services-ref="rememberMeServices" key="myKey" /> </http> <authentication-manager alias="authenticationManager"> <authentication-provider user-service-ref="userDetailsService"> <password-encoder hash="sha-256" base64="true"> <salt-source user-property="username" /> </password-encoder> </authentication-provider> </authentication-manager> <beans:bean id="userDetailsService" class="com.my.service.auth.UserDetailsServiceImpl" /> <beans:bean id="rememberMeServices" class="org.springframework.security.web.authentication.rememberme.PersistentTokenBasedRememberMeServices"> <beans:property name="userDetailsService" ref="userDetailsService" /> <beans:property name="tokenRepository" ref="persistentTokenRepository" /> <beans:property name="key" value="myKey" /> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="persistentTokenRepository" class="com.my.service.auth.PersistentTokenRepositoryImpl" />

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  • Need additional help with binding multiple CommandParameters using MultiBinding

    - by Dave
    I need to have a command handler for a ToggleButton that can take multiple parameters, namely the IsChecked property of said ToggleButton, along with a constant value, which could be a string, byte, int... doesn't matter. I found this great question on SO and followed the answer's link and read up on MultiBinding and IMultiValueConverter. It went really smoothly until I had to write the MultiBinding, when I realized that I also need to pass a constant value and couldn't do something like <Binding Value="1" /> I then came across another similar question that Kent Boogaart answered, and then I started to think about ways that I could get around this. One possible way is to not use MVVM and simply add the Tag property to my ToggleButton, in which case my MultiBinding would look like this: <MultiBinding Converter="{StaticResource MyConverter}"> <MultiBinding.Bindings> <Binding Path="IsChecked" /> <Binding Path="Tag" /> </MultiBinding.Bindings> </MultiBinding> Kent had made a comment along the lines of, "if you're using MVVM you should be able to get around this issue". However, I'm not sure that's an option for me, even though I have adopted MVVM as my WPF pattern of necessity choice. The reason why I say this is that I have wayyyy more than one ToggleButton in the UserControl, and each of the ToggleButtons' Commands need to call the same function. But since they are ToggleButtons, I can't use the property bound to IsChecked in the ViewModel, because I don't know which one was last clicked. I suppose I could add another private property to keep track of this, but it seems a little silly. As far as the constant goes, I could probably get rid of this if I did the tracking idea, but not sure of any other way to get around it. Does anyone have good suggestions for me here? :) EDIT -- ok, so I need to update my bindings, which still don't work quite right: <ToggleButton Tag="1" Command="{Binding MyCommand}" Style="{StaticResource PassFailToggleButtonStyle}" HorizontalContentAlignment="Center" Background="Transparent" BorderBrush="Transparent" BorderThickness="0"> <ToggleButton.CommandParameter> <MultiBinding Converter="{StaticResource MyConverter}"> <MultiBinding.Bindings> <Binding Path="IsChecked" RelativeSource="{RelativeSource Mode=Self}" /> <Binding Path="Tag" RelativeSource="{RelativeSource Mode=Self}" /> </MultiBinding.Bindings> </MultiBinding> </ToggleButton.CommandParameter> </ToggleButton> IsChecked was working, but not Tag. I just realized that Tag is a string... duh. It's working now! The key was to use a RelativeSource of Self.

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  • Compare NSArray with NSMutableArray adding delta objects to NSMutableArray

    - by Hooligancat
    I have an NSMutableArray that is populated with objects of strings. For simplicity sake we'll say that the objects are a person and each person object contains information about that person. Thus I would have an NSMutableArray that is populated with person objects: person.firstName person.lastName person.age person.height And so on. The initial source of data comes from a web server and is populated when my application loads and completes it's initialization with the server. Periodically my application polls the server for the latest list of names. Currently I am creating an NSArray of the result set, emptying the NSMutableArray and then re-populating the NSMutableArray with NSArray results before destroying the NSArray object. This seems inefficient to me on a few levels and also presents me with a problem losing table row references which I can work around, but might be creating more work for myself in doing so. The inefficiency seems to be that I should be able to compare the two arrays and end up with a filtered NSArray. I could then add the filtered set to the NSMutableArray. This would mean that I can simply append new data to the NSMutableArray instead of throwing everything out and re-populating. Conversely I would need to do the same filter in reverse to see if there are records that need removing from the NSMutableArray. Is there any method to do this in a more efficient manner? Have I overlooked something in the docs some place that refers to a simpler technique? I have a problem when I empty the NSMutableArray and re-populate in that any referencing tables lose their selected row state. I can track it and re-select it, but my theory is that using some form of compare and adding objects and removing objects instead of dealing with the whole array in one block might mean I keep my row reference (assuming the item isn't deleted of course). Any suggestions or help much appreciated. Update Would it be just as fast to do a fast enumeration over each comparing each line item as I go? It seems like an expensive operation, but with the last fast enumeration code it might be pretty efficient...

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  • Pinning a Java application to the Windows 7 taskbar

    - by Paul Lammertsma
    Original question I use Launch4j as a wrapper for my Java application under Windows 7, which, to my understanding, in essence forks an instance of javaw.exe that in turn interprets the Java code. As a result, when attempting to pin my application to the task bar, Windows instead pins javaw.exe. Without the required command line, my application will then not run. As you can see, Windows also does not realize that Java is the host application: the application itself is described as "Java(TM) Platform SE binary". I have tried altering the registry key HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT\Applications\javaw.exe to add the value IsHostApp. This alters the behavior by disabling pinning of my application altogether; clearly not what I want. After reading about how Windows interprets instances of a single application (and a phenomenon discussed in this question), I became interested in embedding a Application User Model ID (AppUserModelID) into my Java application. I believe that I can resolve this by passing a unique AppUserModelID to Windows. There is a shell32 method for this, SetAppID(). (Or SetCurrentProcessExplicitAppUserModelID?) Is it possible to call it via JNI? If so, would this even resolve the issue? On a side note, I was curious if any of the APIs discussed in this article could be implemented for a Java application. Edit after implementing JNA, as Gregory Pakosz suggested I've now implemented the following in an attempt to have my application recognized as a separate instance of javaw.exe: NativeLibrary lib; try { lib = NativeLibrary.getInstance("shell32"); } catch (Error e) { Logger.out.error("Could not load Shell32 library."); return; } Object[] args = { "Vendor.MyJavaApplication" }; String functionName = "SetCurrentProcessExplicitAppUserModelID"; try { Function function = lib.getFunction(functionName); int ret = function.invokeInt(args); if (ret != 0) { Logger.out.error(function.getName() + " returned error code " + ret + "."); } } catch (UnsatisfiedLinkError e) { Logger.out.error(functionName + " was not found in " + lib.getFile().getName() + "."); // Function not supported } This appears to have no effect, but the function returns without error. Diagnosing why is something of a mystery to me. Any suggestions? Working implementation The final implementation that worked is the answer to my follow-up question concerning how to pass the AppID using JNA. I had awarded the bounty to Gregory Pakosz' brilliant answer for JNI that set me on the right track.

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  • Application Architecture using WCF and System.AddIn

    - by Silverhalide
    A little background -- we're designing an application that uses a client/server architecture consisting of: A server which loads server-side modules, potentially developed by other teams. A client which loads corresponding client-side modules (also potentially developed by those other teams; each client module corresponds with a server module). The client side communicates with the server side for general coordination, and as well as module specific tasks. (At this point, I think that means client talks to server, client modules talk to server modules.) Environment is .NET 3.5, and client side is WPF. The deployment scenario introduces the potential to upgrade the server, any server-side module, the client, and any client-side module independently. However, being able to "work" using mismatched versions is required. I'm therefore concerned about versioning issues. My thinking so far: A Windows Service for the server. Using System.AddIn for the server to load and communicate with the server modules will give us the greatest flexibility in terms of version compatability between server and server modules. The server and each server module vend WCF services for communication to the client side; communication between the server and a server module, or between two server modules use the AddIn contracts. (One advantage of this is that a module can expose a different interface within the server and outside it.) Similarly, the client uses System.AddIn to find, load, and communicate with the client modules. Client communications with client modules is via the AddIn interface; communications from the client and from client modules to the server side are via WCF. For maximum resilience, each module will run in a separate app-domain. In general, the system has modest performance requirements, so marshalling and crossing process boundaries is not expected to be a performance concern. (Performance requirement is basically summed up by: don't get in the way of the other parts of the system not described here.) My questions are around the idea of having two different communication and versioning models to work with which will be an added burden on our developers. System.AddIn seems quite powerful, but also a little unwieldly. (I'm also unsure of Microsoft's commitment to it in the future.) On the other hand, I'm not thrilled with WCF's versioning capabilities. I have a feeling that it would be possible to implement the System.AddIn view/adapter/contract system within WCF, but being fairly new to both technologies, I would have no idea of where to start. So... Am I on the right track here? Am I doing this the hard way? Are there gotchas I need to be aware of on this road? Thanks.

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  • Javascript - find swfobject on included page and call javascript function

    - by Rob
    I’m using the following script on my website to play an mp3 in flash. To instantiate the flash object I use the swfobject framework in a javascript function. When the function is called the player is created and added to the page. The rest of the website is in php and the page calling this script is being included with the php include function. All the other used scripts are in the php 'master'-page var playerMp3 = new SWFObject("scripts/player.swf","myplayer1","0","0","0"); playerMp3.addVariable("file","track.mp3"); playerMp3.addVariable("icons","false"); playerMp3.write("player1"); var player1 = document.getElementById("myplayer1"); var status1 = $("#status1"); $("#play1").click(function(){ player1.sendEvent("play","true"); $("#status1").fadeIn(400); player4.sendEvent("stop","false"); $("#status4").fadeOut(400); player3.sendEvent("stop","false"); $("#status3").fadeOut(400); player2.sendEvent("stop","false"); $("#status2").fadeOut(400); }); $("#stop1").click(function(){ player1.sendEvent("stop","false"); $("#status1").fadeOut(400); }); $(".closeOver").click(function(){ player1.sendEvent("stop","false"); $("#status1").fadeOut(400); }); $(".accordionButton2").click(function(){ player1.sendEvent("stop","false"); $("#status1").fadeOut(400); }); $(".accordionButton3").click(function(){ player1.sendEvent("stop","false"); $("#status1").fadeOut(400); }); $(".turnOffMusic").click(function(){ player1.sendEvent("stop","false"); $("#status1").fadeOut(400); }); }); I have a play-button with the id ‘#play1’ and a stop-button with the id ‘#stop1’ on my page. A div on the same page has the id ‘#status1’ and a little image of a speaker is in the div. When you push the playbutton, the div with the speaker is fading in and when you push the stopbutton, the div with the speaker is fading out, very simple. And it works as I want it to do. But the problem is, when a song is finished, the speaker doesn’t fade out. Is there a simple solution for this? I already tried using the swfobject framework to get the flash player from the page and call the ‘IsPlaying’ on it, but I’m getting the error that ‘swfobject’ can’t be found. All I need is a little push in the right direction or an example showing me how I can correctly get the currently playing audio player (in flash), check if it’s playing and if finished, call a javascript function to led the speaker-image fade-out again. Hope someone here can help me

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  • Single Sign On for a Web App

    - by Jeremy Goodell
    I have been trying to understand how this problem is solved for over a month now. I really need to come up with a general approach that works -- I'm basically the only resource who can do it. I have a theory, but I'm just not sure it's the easiest (or correct) approach and I haven't been able to find any information to support my ideas. Here's the scenario: 1) You have a complex web application that offers secure content on a subscription basis. 2) Users are required to log in to your application with user name and password. 3) You sell to large corporations, which already have a corporate authentication technology (for example, Active Directory). 4) You would like to integrate with the corporate authentication mechanism to allow their users to log onto your Web App without having to enter their user name and password. Now, any solution you come up with will have to provide a mechanism for: adding new users removing users changing user information allowing users to log in Ideally, all these would happen "automagically" when the corporate customer made the corresponding changes to their own authentication. Now, I have a theory that the way to do this (at least for Active Directory) would be for me to write a client-side app that integrates with the customer's Active Directory to track the targeted changes, and then communicate those changes to my Web App. I think that if this communication were done via Web Services offered by my web app, then it would maintain an unhackable level of security, which would obviously be a requirement for these corporate customers. I've found some information about a Microsoft product called Active Directory Federation Service (ADFS) which may or may not be the right approach for me. It seems to be a bit bulky and have some requirements that might not work for all customers. For other existing ID scenarios (like Athens and Shibboleth), I don't think a client application is necessary. It's probably just a matter of tying into the existing ID services. I would appreciate any advice anyone has on anything I've mentioned here. In particular, if you can tell me if my theory is correct about providing a client-side app that communicates with server-side Web Services, or if I'm totally going in the wrong direction. Also, if you could point me at any web sites or articles that explain how to do this, I'd really appreciate it. My research has not turned up much so far. Finally, if you could let me know of any Web applications that currently offer this service (particularly as tied to a corporate Active Directory), I would be very grateful. I am wondering if other B2B Web app's like salesforce.com, or hoovers.com offer a similar service for their corporate customers. I hate being in the dark and would greatly appreciate any light you can shed ... Jeremy

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  • MongoMapper and migrations

    - by Clint Miller
    I'm building a Rails application using MongoDB as the back-end and MongoMapper as the ORM tool. Suppose in version 1, I define the following model: class SomeModel include MongoMapper::Document key :some_key, String end Later in version 2, I realize that I need a new required key on the model. So, in version 2, SomeModel now looks like this: class SomeModel include MongoMapper::Document key :some_key, String key :some_new_key, String, :required => true end How do I migrate all my existing data to include some_new_key? Assume that I know how to set a reasonable default value for all the existing documents. Taking this a step further, suppose that in version 3, I realize that I really don't need some_key at all. So, now the model looks like this class SomeModel include MongoMapper::Document key :some_new_key, String, :required => true end But all the existing records in my database have values set for some_key, and it's just wasting space at this point. How do I reclaim that space? With ActiveRecord, I would have just created migrations to add the initial values of some_new_key (in the version1 - version2 migration) and to delete the values for some_key (in the version2 - version3 migration). What's the appropriate way to do this with MongoDB/MongoMapper? It seems to me that some method of tracking which migrations have been run is still necessary. Does such a thing exist? EDITED: I think people are missing the point of my question. There are times where you want to be able to run a script on a database to change or restructure the data in it. I gave two examples above, one where a new required key was added and one where a key can be removed and space can be reclaimed. How do you manage running these scripts? ActiveRecord migrations give you an easy way to run these scripts and to determine what scripts have already been run and what scripts have not been run. I can obviously write a Mongo script that does any update on the database, but what I'm looking for is a framework like migrations that lets me track which upgrade scripts have already been run.

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  • Lots of questions about file I/O (reading/writing message strings)

    - by Nazgulled
    Hi, For this university project I'm doing (for which I've made a couple of posts in the past), which is some sort of social network, it's required the ability for the users to exchange messages. At first, I designed my data structures to hold ALL messages in a linked list, limiting the message size to 256 chars. However, I think my instructors will prefer if I save the messages on disk and read them only when I need them. Of course, they won't say what they prefer, I need to make a choice and justify the best I can why I went that route. One thing to keep in mind is that I only need to save the latest 20 messages from each user, no more. Right now I have an Hash Table that will act as inbox, this will be inside the user profile. This Hash Table will be indexed by name (the user that sent the message). The value for each element will be a data structure holding an array of size_t with 20 elements (20 messages like I said above). The idea is to keep track of the disk file offsets and bytes written. Then, when I need to read a message, I just need to use fseek() and read the necessary bytes. I think this could work nicely... I could use just one single file to hold all messages from all users in the network. I'm saying one single file because a colleague asked an instructor about saving the messages from each user independently which he replied that it might not be the best approach cause the file system has it's limits. That's why I'm thinking of going the single file route. However, this presents a problem... Since I only need to save the latest 20 messages, I need to discard the older ones when I reach this limit. I have no idea how to do this... All I know is about fread() and fwrite() to read/write bytes from/to files. How can I go to a file offset and say "hey, delete the following X bytes"? Even if I could do that, there's another problem... All offsets below that one will be completely different and I would have to process all users mailboxes to fix the problem. Which would be a pain... So, any suggestions to solve my problems? What do you suggest?

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  • DynamicQuery: How to select a column with linq query that takes parameters

    - by Richard77
    Hello, We want to set up a directory of all the organizations working with us. They are incredibly diverse (government, embassy, private companies, and organizations depending on them ). So, I've resolved to create 2 tables. Table 1 will treat all the organizations equally, i.e. it'll collect all the basic information (name, address, phone number, etc.). Table 2 will establish the hierarchy among all the organizations. For instance, Program for illiterate adults depends on the National Institute for Social Security which depends on the Labor Ministry. In the Hierarchy table, each column represents a level. So, for the example above, (i)Labor Ministry - Level1(column1), (ii)National Institute for Social Security - Level2(column2), (iii)Program for illiterate adults - Level3(column3). To attach an organization to an hierarchy, the user needs to go level by level(i.e. column by column). So, there will be at least 3 situations: If an adequate hierarchy exists for an organization(for instance, level1: US Embassy), that organization can be added (For instance, level2: USAID).-- US Embassy/USAID, and so on. How about if one or more levels are missing? - then they need to be added How about if the hierarchy need to be modified? -- not every thing need to be modified. I do not have any choice but working by level (i.e. column by column). I does not make sense to have all the levels in one form as the user need to navigate hierarchies to find the right one to attach an organization. Let's say, I have those queries in my repository (just that you get the idea). Query1 var orgHierarchy = (from orgH in db.Hierarchy select orgH.Level1).FirstOrDefault; Query2 var orgHierarchy = (from orgH in db.Hierarchy select orgH.Level2).FirstOrDefault; Query3, Query4, etc. The above queries are the same except for the property queried (level1, level2, level3, etc.) Question: Is there a general way of writing the above queries in one? So that the user can track an hierarchy level by level to attach an organization. In other words, not knowing in advance which column to query, I still need to be able to do so depending on some conditions. For instance, an organization X depends on Y. Knowing that Y is somewhere on the 3rd level, I'll go to the 4th level, linking X to Y. I need to select (not manually) a column with only one query that takes parameters. Thanks for helping

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  • Attempting to extract a pattern within a string

    - by Brian
    I'm attempting to extract a given pattern within a text file, however, the results are not 100% what I want. Here's my code: import java.util.regex.Matcher; import java.util.regex.Pattern; public class ParseText1 { public static void main(String[] args) { String content = "<p>Yada yada yada <code> foo ddd</code>yada yada ...\n" + "more here <2004-08-24> bar<Bob Joe> etc etc\n" + "more here again <2004-09-24> bar<Bob Joe> <Fred Kej> etc etc\n" + "more here again <2004-08-24> bar<Bob Joe><Fred Kej> etc etc\n" + "and still more <2004-08-21><2004-08-21> baz <John Doe> and now <code>the end</code> </p>\n"; Pattern p = Pattern .compile("<[1234567890]{4}-[1234567890]{2}-[1234567890]{2}>.*?<[^%0-9/]*>", Pattern.MULTILINE); Matcher m = p.matcher(content); // print all the matches that we find while (m.find()) { System.out.println(m.group()); } } } The output I'm getting is: <2004-08-24> bar<Bob Joe> <2004-09-24> bar<Bob Joe> <Fred Kej> <2004-08-24> bar<Bob Joe><Fred Kej> <2004-08-21><2004-08-21> baz <John Doe> and now <code> The output I want is: <2004-08-24> bar<Bob Joe> <2004-08-24> bar<Bob Joe> <2004-08-24> bar<Bob Joe> <2004-08-21> baz <John Doe> In short, the sequence of "date", "text (or blank)", and "name" must be extracted. Everything else should be avoided. For example the tag "Fred Kej" did not have any "date" tag before it, therefore, it should be flagged as invalid. Also, as a side question, is there a way to store or track the text snippets that were skipped/rejected as were the valid texts. Thanks, Brian

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  • Using Artificial Intelligence (AI) to predict Stock Prices

    - by akaphenom
    Given a set of datavery similar to the Motley Fool CAPS system, where individual users enter BUY and SELL recommendations on various equities. What I would like to do is show each recommendation and I guess some how rate (1-5) as to whether it was good predictor<5 (ie corellation coeffient = 1) of the future stock price (or eps or whatever) or a horrible predictor (ie corellation coeffient = -1) or somewhere inbetween. Each recommendation is tagged to a particular user, so that can be tracked over time. I can also track market direction (bullish / bearish) based off of something like sp500 price. The components I think that would make sense in the model would be: user direction (long/short) market direction sector of stock The thought is that some users are better in bull markets than bear (and vice versa), and some are better at shorts than longs- and then a cobination the above. I can automatically tag the market direction and sector (based off the market at the time and the equity being recommended). The thought is that I could present a series of screens and allow me to rank each individual recommendation by displaying available data absolute, market and sector out performance for a specfic time period out. I would follow a detailed list for ranking the stocks so that the ranking is as objective as possible. My assumtion is that a single user is right no more than 57% of the time - but who knows. I could load the system and say "Lets rank the recommendation as a predictor of stock value 90 days forward"; and that would represent a very explicit set of rankings. NOW here is the crux - I want to create some sort of machine learning algorithm that can identify patterns over a series of time so that as recommendations stream into the application we maintain a ranking of that stock (ie. similar to correlation coeeficient) as to the likelihood of that recommendation (in addition to the past series of recommendations ) will affect the price. Now here is the super crux. I have never taken an AI class / read an AI book / never mind specific to machine learning. So I cam looking for guidance - sample or description of a similar system I could adapt. Place to look for info or any general help. Or even push me in the right direction to get started... My hope is to implment this with F# and be able to impress my friends with a new skillset in F# with an implementation of machine learnign and potentially something (application / source) I can include in a tech portfolio or blog space; Thank you for any advice in advance.

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  • UIViewController not loading a UIView

    - by Cosizzle
    Hey, I'm playing around with a script my teacher provided for a table based application. However I can't seem to get my own view to load. Files: SubViewOneController (which is a sub view, also has a nib) TapViewController (Custom UIView I created and want to add to a cell) RootViewController (Main controller which loads in the views) SimpleNavAppDelegate How it works: Within the RootViewController, there's an NSArray that holds NSDictionary objects which is declared in the -(void)awakeFromNib {} method - (void)awakeFromNib { // we'll keep track of our views controllers in this array views = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // when using alloc you are responsible for it, and you will have to release it. // ==================================================================================================== // ==================================================================================================== // LOADING IN CUSTOM VIEW HERE: // allocate a set of views and add to our view array as a dictionary item TapViewController *tapBoardView = [[TapViewController alloc] init]; //push onto array [views addObject:[NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: @"Tab Gestures", @"title", tapBoardView, @"controller", nil]]; [tapBoardView release]; //release the memory // ==================================================================================================== // ==================================================================================================== SubViewOneController *subViewOneController = [[SubViewOneController alloc] init]; // This will set the 2nd level title subViewOneController.title = @"Swipe Gestures"; //set it's title //push it onto the array [views addObject:[NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: @"Swipe Gestures", @"title", subViewOneController, @"controller", nil]]; [subViewOneController release]; //release the memory } Later on I set the table view: - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { // OUTPUT -- see console NSLog(@"indexPath %i", indexPath.row); // OUTPUT: tapController: <TapViewController: 0x3b2b360> NSLog(@"view object: %@", [views objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]); // OUTPUT: view object: controller = <TapViewController: 0x3b0e290>; title = "Tab Gestures"; // ----- Hardcoding the controller and nib file in does work, so it's not a linkage issue ------ // UNCOMMENT TO SEE WORKING -- comment below section. //TapViewController *tapContoller = [[TapViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"TapBoardView" bundle:nil]; //NSLog(@"tapController: %@", tapContoller); //[self.navigationController pushViewController:tapContoller animated:YES]; // ----- Random Tests ----- //UIViewController *targetViewController = [[views objectAtIndex: 0] objectForKey:@"controller"]; // DOES NOT WORK // LOADS THE SECOND CELL (SubViewOneController) however will not load (TapViewController) UIViewController *targetViewController = [[views objectAtIndex: indexPath.row] objectForKey:@"controller"]; NSLog(@"target: %@", targetViewController); // OUTPUT: target: <TapViewController: 0x3b0e290> [self.navigationController pushViewController:targetViewController animated:YES]; } Reading the comments you should be able to see that hardcoding the view in, works - however trying to load it from the View NSArray does not work. It does however contain the object in memory, seeing that NSLog proves that. Everything is linked up and working within the TapViewController nib file. So ya, im kinda stuck on this one, any help would be great! Thanks guys

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  • Is this a good way to do a game loop for an iPhone game?

    - by Danny Tuppeny
    Hi all, I'm new to iPhone dev, but trying to build a 2D game. I was following a book, but the game loop it created basically said: function gameLoop update() render() sleep(1/30th second) gameLoop The reasoning was that this would run at 30fps. However, this seemed a little mental, because if my frame took 1/30th second, then it would run at 15fps (since it'll spend as much time sleeping as updating). So, I did some digging and found the CADisplayLink class which would sync calls to my gameLoop function to the refresh rate (or a fraction of it). I can't find many samples of it, so I'm posting here for a code review :-) It seems to work as expected, and it includes passing the elapsed (frame) time into the Update method so my logic can be framerate-independant (however I can't actually find in the docs what CADisplayLink would do if my frame took more than its allowed time to run - I'm hoping it just does its best to catch up, and doesn't crash!). // // GameAppDelegate.m // // Created by Danny Tuppeny on 10/03/2010. // Copyright Danny Tuppeny 2010. All rights reserved. // #import "GameAppDelegate.h" #import "GameViewController.h" #import "GameStates/gsSplash.h" @implementation GameAppDelegate @synthesize window; @synthesize viewController; - (void) applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { // Create an instance of the first GameState (Splash Screen) [self doStateChange:[gsSplash class]]; // Set up the game loop displayLink = [CADisplayLink displayLinkWithTarget:self selector:@selector(gameLoop)]; [displayLink setFrameInterval:2]; [displayLink addToRunLoop:[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] forMode:NSDefaultRunLoopMode]; } - (void) gameLoop { // Calculate how long has passed since the previous frame CFTimeInterval currentFrameTime = [displayLink timestamp]; CFTimeInterval elapsed = 0; // For the first frame, we want to pass 0 (since we haven't elapsed any time), so only // calculate this in the case where we're not the first frame if (lastFrameTime != 0) { elapsed = currentFrameTime - lastFrameTime; } // Keep track of this frames time (so we can calculate this next time) lastFrameTime = currentFrameTime; NSLog([NSString stringWithFormat:@"%f", elapsed]); // Call update, passing the elapsed time in [((GameState*)viewController.view) Update:elapsed]; } - (void) doStateChange:(Class)state { // Remove the previous GameState if (viewController.view != nil) { [viewController.view removeFromSuperview]; [viewController.view release]; } // Create the new GameState viewController.view = [[state alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, IPHONE_WIDTH, IPHONE_HEIGHT) andManager:self]; // Now set as visible [window addSubview:viewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } - (void) dealloc { [viewController release]; [window release]; [super dealloc]; } @end Any feedback would be appreciated :-) PS. Bonus points if you can tell me why all the books use "viewController.view" but for everything else seem to use "[object name]" format. Why not [viewController view]?

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  • how to read input with multiple lines in java

    - by Gandalf StormCrow
    Hi all, Our professor is making us do some basic programming with java, he gaves a website and everything to register and submit our questions, for today I need to do this one example I feel like I'm on the right track but I just can't figure out the rest .. here is the actualy question : **Sample Input:** 10 12 10 14 100 200 **Sample Output:** 2 4 100 And here is what I've got so far : public class Practice { public static int calculateAnswer(String a, String b) { return (Integer.parseInt(b) - Integer.parseInt(a)); } public static void main(String[] args) { System.out.println(calculateAnswer(args[0], args[1])); } } Now I always get the answer 2 because I'm reading the single line, how can I take all lines into account? thank you For some strange reason everytime I want to execute I get this error: C:\sonic>java Practice.class 10 12 Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: Fact Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: Fact.class at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:20 at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native M at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.jav at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307 at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher. at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:248 Could not find the main class: Practice.class. Program will exit. Whosever version of answer I use I get this error, what do I do ? However if I run it in eclipse Run as Run Configuration - Program arguments 10 12 10 14 100 200 I get no output EDIT I have made some progress, at first I was getting the compilation error, then runtime error and now I get wrong answer , so can anybody help me what is wrong with this : import java.io.BufferedReader; import java.io.IOException; import java.io.InputStreamReader; import java.math.BigInteger; public class Practice { public static BigInteger calculateAnswer(String a, String b) { BigInteger ab = new BigInteger(a); BigInteger bc = new BigInteger(b); return bc.subtract(ab); } public static void main(String[] args) throws IOException { BufferedReader stdin = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(System.in)); String line; while ((line = stdin.readLine()) != null && line.length()!= 0) { String[] input = line.split(" "); if (input.length == 2) { System.out.println(calculateAnswer(input[0], input[1])); } } } }

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  • iPhone MailComposer class UIViewController dismissModalViewControllerAnimated issues

    - by Scott Pendleton
    I created a class to launch the MailComposer so that my iPhone app would only have one place to go when generating various kinds of e-mail: some with attachments, some not. Some with pre-filled addresses, some not. I didn't want my class implement UIViewController, but it has to so it can be the delegate for the MailComposer. Otherwise, the view controllers that call my class would themselves have to be delegates for the MailComposer, which defeats the purpose. The downside of having my class be a view controller is that it has to load to the screen before it can modally bring up the MailComposer. Unfortunately, view controllers can't be transparent. The effect is, whatever is on screen gets covered by a solid white view controller for a moment before the MailComposer appears. I could maybe live with that, but not this: after the MailComposer goes away, I'm left with my blank view controller occupying the screen. I ought to be able to get rid of it from within itself by calling this: [self.parentViewController dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:NO]; But that dies a horrible death: "Loading 43365 stack frames..." Has my class -- a UIViewController that pre-fills and then launches a MailComposer -- lost track of its parentViewController? It isn't nil, because I've tested for that. As launched from within the current view controller... // My class is called Email. Email *oEmail = [[[Email alloc] init] retain]; // Red, to remind myself that I'd like to someday learn to make it transparent. oEmail.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor redColor]; // Pre-fill whatever fields you want, and specify attachments. oEmail.EmailSubject = @"I am truly stumped"; // This has to go on screen first. [self presentModalViewController:oEmail animated:NO]; // Then this can happen, which brings up the MailComposer. [oEmail f_SendEmail]; // Commenting out the next line didn't help, so I turned it back on. [oEmail release]; Inside the class, you need the mailComposeController:didFinishWithResult:error: method to make the MailComposer go away, and for that to happen, the class has to be the MFMailComposeViewControllerDelegate. Here's what happens in there: // This gets rid of the mail composer. [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; // This never fails to get rid of other modal view controllers when called // from within those controllers, but boy does it not work here. [self.parentViewController dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:NO]; If you can help me, I will be truly thankful!

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  • Does my fat-client application belong in the MVC pattern?

    - by boatingcow
    The web-based application I’m currently working on is growing arms and legs! It’s basically an administration system which helps users to keep track of bookings, user accounts, invoicing etc. It can also be accessed via a couple of different websites using a fairly crude API. The fat-client design loosely follows the MVC pattern (or perhaps MVP) with a php/MySQL backend, Front Controller, several dissimilar Page Controllers, a liberal smattering of object-oriented and procedural Models, a confusing bunch of Views and templates, some JavaScripts, CSS files and Flash objects. The programmer in me is a big fan of the principle of “Separation of Concerns” and on that note, I’m currently trying to figure out the best way to separate and combine the various concerns as the project grows and more people contribute to it. The problem we’re facing is that although JavaScript (or Flash with ActionScript) is normally written with the template, hence part of the View and decoupled from the Controller and Model, we find that it actually encompasses the entire MVC pattern... Swap an image with an onmouseover event - that’s Behaviour. Render a datagrid - we’re manipulating the View. Send the result of reordering a list via AJAX - now we’re in Control. Check a form field to see if an email address is in a valid format - we’re consulting the Model. Is it wise to let the database people write up the validation Model with jQuery? Can the php programmers write the necessary Control structures in JavaScript? Can the web designers really write a functional AJAX form for their View? Should there be a JavaScript overlord for every project? If the MVC pattern could be applied to the people instead of the code, we would end up with this: Model - the database boffins - “SELECT * FROM mind WHERE interested IS NULL” Control - pesky programmers - “class Something extends NothingAbstractClass{…}” View - traditionally the domain of the graphic/web designer - “” …and a new layer: Behaviour - interaction and feedback designer - “CSS3 is the new black…” So, we’re refactoring and I’d like to stick to best practice design, but I’m not sure how to proceed. I don’t want to reinvent the wheel, so would anyone have any hints or tips as to what pattern I should be looking at or any code samples from someone who’s already done the dirty work? As the programmer guy, how can I rewrite the app for backend and front end whilst keeping the two separate? And before you ask, yes I’ve looked at Zend, CodeIgnitor, Symfony, etc., and no, they don’t seem to cross the boundary between server logic and client logic!

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