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• UPDATE query that fixes orphaned records

  - by Jed

  I have an Access database that has two tables that are related by PK/FK. Unfortunately, the database tables have allowed for duplicate/redundant records and has made the database a bit screwy. I am trying to figure out a SQL statement that will fix the problem. To better explain the problem and goal, I have created example tables to use as reference: You'll notice there are two tables, a Student table and a TestScore table where StudentID is the PK/FK. The Student table contains duplicate records for students John, Sally, Tommy, and Suzy. In other words the John's with StudentID's 1 and 5 are the same person, Sally 2 and 6 are the same person, and so on. The TestScore table relates test scores with a student. Ignoring how/why the Student table allowed duplicates, etc - The goal I'm trying to accomplish is to update the TestScore table so that it replaces the StudentID's that have been disabled with the corresponding enabled StudentID. So, all StudentID's = 1 (John) will be updated to 5; all StudentID's = 2 (Sally) will be updated to 6, and so on. Here's the resultant TestScore table that I'm shooting for (Notice there is no longer any reference to the disabled StudentID's 1-4): Can you think of a query (compatible with MS Access's JET Engine) that can accomplish this goal? Or, maybe, you can offer some tips/perspectives that will point me in the right direction. Thanks.

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• JPA @ManyToMany on only one side?

  - by Ethan Leroy

  I am trying to refresh the @ManyToMany relation but it gets cleared instead... My Project class looks like this: @Entity public class Project { ... @ManyToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, fetch = FetchType.EAGER) @JoinTable(name = "PROJECT_USER", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "PROJECT_ID", referencedColumnName = "ID"), inverseJoinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "USER_ID", referencedColumnName = "ID")) private Collection<User> users; ... } But I don't have - and I don't want - the collection of Projects in the User entity. When I look at the generated database tables, they look good. They contain all columns and constraints (primary/foreign keys). But when I persist a Project that has a list of Users (and the users are still in the database), the mapping table doesn't get updated gets updated but when I refresh the project afterwards, the list of Users is cleared. For better understanding: Project project = ...; // new project with users that are available in the db System.out.println(project getUsers().size()); // prints 5 em.persist(project); System.out.println(project getUsers().size()); // prints 5 em.refresh(project); System.out.println(project getUsers().size()); // prints 0 So, how can I refresh the relation between User and Project?

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• javafx doesnt repaint label till method has finished, why?

  - by jeff porter

  Hi all, I have a JavaFX app with a some code like this... public class MainListener extends EventListener{ override public function event (arg0 : String) : Void { statusText.content = arg0; } } statusText is defined like this... var statusText = Text { x: 30 y: stageHeight - 40 font: Font { name: "Bitstream Vera Sans Bold" size: 10 } wrappingWidth: 420 fill: Color.WHITE textAlignment: TextAlignment.CENTER content: "Status: awaiting DBF file." }; I also have some other Javacode that is load data, much like this.. public ArrayList<CustomerRecord> read(EventListener listener) { ArrayList<CustomerRecord> listOfCustomerRecords = new ArrayList<CustomerRecord>(); listener.event("Status: Starting read"); // ** takes a while... List<Map<String, CustomerField>> customerRecords = new Reader(file).readData(listener); // ** long running method over. listener.event("Status: Loaded all customers, count:" + listOfCustomerRecords.size()); return listOfCustomerRecords; } Now while the last method is in its long running call, I would expect to see my statusText updated to have 'Status: Starting read', but its doesn't. Its only when the read() method returns that the text is updated. If its was 'straight' java I would presume that the long running job is hogging the CPU, or the statusText needed to have repaint() called on it. Can anyone give me any ideas? Thanks Jeff Porter

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• Swing: what to do when a JTree update takes too long and freezes other GUI elements?

  - by java.is.for.desktop

  Hello, everyone! I know that GUI code in Java Swing must be put inside SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait or SwingUtilities.invokeLater. This way threading works fine. Sadly, in my situation, the GUI update it that thing which takes much longer than background thread(s). More specific: I update a JTree with about just 400 entries, nesting depth is maximum 4, so should be nothing scary, right? But it takes sometimes one second! I need to ensure that the user is able to type in a JTextPane without delays. Well, guess what, the slow JTree updates do cause delays for JTextPane during input. It refreshes only as soon as the tree gets updated. I am using Netbeans and know empirically that a Java app can update lots of information without freezing the rest of the UI. How can it be done? NOTE 1: All those DefaultMutableTreeNodes are prepared outside the invokeAndWait. NOTE 2: When I replace invokeAndWait with invokeLater the tree doesn't get updated. NOTE 3: Fond out that recursive tree expansion takes far the most time. NOTE 4: I'm using custom tree cell renderer, will try without and report. NOTE 4a: My tree cell renderer uses a map to cache and reuse created JTextComponents, depending on tree node (as a key). CLUE 1: Wow! Without setting custom cell renderer it's 10 times faster. I think, I'll need few good tutorials on writing custom tree cell renderers.

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• Repeatedly execute a stored procedure

  - by manivineet

  I have a situation where I need to repeatedly execute a stored procedure Now this procedure (spMAIN) has a cursor inside which looks for a value from a table as T1,which has the following structure ID Status ---- -------- 1 New 2 New 3 success 4 Error now the cursor looks for all rows with a status of 'New' Now while processing , if that instance of the cursor encounters an error, another SP say spError needs to be called, the 'Status' column in T1 needs to be updated to 'Error' and spMAIN needs to be called again which again repeats the process, looking for rows with 'new' how do I do it? Also, also, while we are at it, what if an SP has other SPs inside it and if any of those SP raises an error, same thing needs to be done, the T1 table needs to be updated ('Error') and spMAIN needs to be called again. can you also recommend something ? here's some code ALTER PROC zzSpMain AS BEGIN DECLARE @id INT BEGIN TRY IF EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM dbo.zzTest WHERE istatus = 'new' ) BEGIN DECLARE c CURSOR FOR SELECT id FROM zztest WHERE istatus = 'new' OPEN c FETCH NEXT FROM c INTO @id WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS = 0 BEGIN PRINT @id IF @id = 2 BEGIN UPDATE zztest SET istatus = 'error' WHERE id = @id RAISERROR ( 'Error occured', 16, 1 ) END UPDATE zztest SET istatus = 'processed' WHERE id = @id FETCH NEXT FROM c INTO @id END CLOSE c DEALLOCATE c END END TRY begin CATCH EXEC zzSpError END CATCH END

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• Javascript doesnt update

  - by Trikam

  Hi all, I have a function that passes a parameter which is a function call and then i use setTimeout to call this passed function call. now i tried two methods with setTimout to raise the event and i used function.call(). When this passed parameter function call was raised none of the javascript was being updated, below is the javascript which im using to raise the event and the javascript which is supposed to be updated: The function being passed is [context] - function() { ErrorMessageFileSelect('diverrortextchoosechannal','The file chosen is to big, you must choose a file less than 1MB'); } function FileSizeOnLoad(contentLength,context) { if (context != null) { // context.call(); setTimeout(context,0); // or context.call(); } else { $('#inputHiddenFileSizeField').val(contentLength); DisplayChoseFileInformation(contentLength); } } //this is where the update should happen function ErrorMessageFileSelect(className, errorMessage) { $('div.' + className).text(errorMessage); alert($('div.' + className).text()); } Is there somthing im missing, can someone help me with this issue please. Thanks

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• echo POST array.. or other ideas?

  - by gamerzfuse

  Update: As seen in the Original Questions below, I am looking to echo an array. The problem is that when I send the Moneris gateway to return a POST array to my new file (cart.php) it gets a 500 Internal Server Error. This is the same error I received when it send to the script, which should have worked. Is there any reason that it would always send a 500 Internal Server Error? Cart.php Direct Link Craig ORIGINAL QUESTION: Hello there, I am back for another question. Here is my dilemma: I have a script (ImageFolio Commerce) that hasn't been updated on our server since.. probably 2003. The script had a Payment Gateway (Moneris) manually added to it by the company who offers the script. This costs $1000 to get them to add a gateway. I now have a new client who purchased this business from the previous owner. While switching the account to the new owner's Moneris account, we found out that things have been updated. Long story short.. The Moneris gateway can send 3 types of responses: POST with XML Data POST GET I imagine it is easiest to just use the POST array. I have the file that it sends the response to. As of now the file responds with a Internal Server error, but it does process the order. What I want to do is determine what the POST array is that is being sent, so that I can take it and echo it in a logical manner. Is there a way to capture and echo the entire POST? Or can someone suggest a better method of doing this? Thank you, Craig

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• Javascript callback not firing when AJAX operation complete

  - by MisterJames

  Given the following code on an ASP.NET MVC View: <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("AddCommunity", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "community-list", OnSuccess = "BindCommunityHover" })) { %> Add Community: <input type="text" id="communityName" name="communityName" /> <input type="submit" value="Add" /> <% } %> And the following JavaScript method in the file: function BindCommunityHover() { $(".community-item-li").hover( function () { $(this).addClass("communityHover"); }, function () { $(this).removeClass("communityHover"); } ); }; Is there any reason why BindCommunityHover is not being called when the AJAX result comes back? The community-list div is properly updated (the action returns a partial view). I have also tried setting OnComplete (instead of OnSuccess) to no avail. The BindCommunityHover method is called in a $(function(){...}); block when the page first loads, and for all existing .community-item-li elements, it works. The partial result from my controller replaces all items in that div with more of the same class. The OnSuccess method is supposed to fire after the document is updated. Update: k...this gets weird. I added the following to the BindCommunityHover method: alert($(".community-item-li").size()); I'm getting 240 in the alert when the page loads and when the callback fires. So, the callback IS firing, jQuery is matching the elements but not applying the styles...

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• UpdatePanel refreshes only once

  - by superexsl

  Hi, I have two updatepanels inside an accordion control, laid out like this: <accordion> <first pane content> <updatepanel UpdateMode="conditional"> <contenttemplate>...</contenttemplate> <triggers>...</triggers> </updatepanel> </first pane content> <second pane content> <updatepanel> <contenttemplate>...</contenttemplate> <triggers>...</triggers> </updatepanel> </second pane content> </accordion> The panel updates once, but after that, no updates take place. If I refresh the page, then I can see the updated information. This means that the database is being updated, but the updatepanel isn't refreshing (after refreshing the first time). Why is this happening? This has been bugging me for days, so any advice would be much appreciated. Thanks!

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• SQLiteDataAdapter Update method returning 0

  - by Lirik

  I loaded 83 rows from my CSV file, but when I try to update the SQLite database I get 0 rows... I can't figure out what I'm doing wrong. The program outputs: Num rows loaded is 83 Num rows updated is 0 The source code is: public void InsertData(String csvFileName, String tableName) { String dir = Path.GetDirectoryName(csvFileName); String name = Path.GetFileName(csvFileName); using (OleDbConnection conn = new OleDbConnection("Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=" + dir + @";Extended Properties=""Text;HDR=Yes;FMT=Delimited""")) { conn.Open(); using (OleDbDataAdapter adapter = new OleDbDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM " + name, conn)) { QuoteDataSet ds = new QuoteDataSet(); adapter.Fill(ds, tableName); Console.WriteLine("Num rows loaded is " + ds.Tags.Rows.Count); InsertData(ds, tableName); } } } public void InsertData(QuoteDataSet data, String tableName) { using (SQLiteConnection conn = new SQLiteConnection(_connectionString)) { using (SQLiteDataAdapter sqliteAdapter = new SQLiteDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM " + tableName, conn)) { using (new SQLiteCommandBuilder(sqliteAdapter)) { conn.Open(); Console.WriteLine("Num rows updated is " + sqliteAdapter.Update(data, tableName)); } } } } Any hints on why it's not updating the correct number of rows?

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• Best strategy for synching data in iPhone app

  - by iamj4de

  I am working on a regular iPhone app which pulls data from a server (XML, JSON, etc...), and I'm wondering what is the best way to implement synching data. Criteria are speed (less network data exchange), robustness (data recovery in case update fails), offline access and flexibility (adaptable when the structure of the database changes slightly, like a new column). I know it varies from app to app, but can you guys share some of your strategy/experience? For me, I'm thinking of something like this: 1) Store Last Modified Date in iPhone 2) Upon launching, send a message like getNewData.php?lastModifiedDate=... 3) Server will process and send back only modified data from last time. 4) This data is formatted as so: <+><data id="..."></data></+> // add this to SQLite/CoreData <-><data id="..."></data></-> // remove this <%><data id="..."><attribute>newValue</attribute></data></%> // new modified value I don't want to make <+, <-, <%... for each attribute as well, because it would be too complicated, so probably when receive a <% field, I would just remove the data with the specified id and then add it again (assuming id here is not some automatically auto-incremented field). 5) Once everything is downloaded and updated, I will update the Last Modified Date field. The main problem with this strategy is: If the network goes down when I am updating something = the Last Modified Date is not yet updated = next time I relaunch the app, I will have to go through the same thing again. Not to mention potential inconsistent data. If I use a temporary table for update and make the whole thing atomic, it would work, but then again, if the update is too long (lots of data change), the user has to wait a long time until new data is available. Should I use Last-Modified-Date for each of the data field and update data gradually?

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• Performance question: Inverting an array of pointers in-place vs array of values

  - by Anders

  The background for asking this question is that I am solving a linearized equation system (Ax=b), where A is a matrix (typically of dimension less than 100x100) and x and b are vectors. I am using a direct method, meaning that I first invert A, then find the solution by x=A^(-1)b. This step is repated in an iterative process until convergence. The way I'm doing it now, using a matrix library (MTL4): For every iteration I copy all coeffiecients of A (values) in to the matrix object, then invert. This the easiest and safest option. Using an array of pointers instead: For my particular case, the coefficients of A happen to be updated between each iteration. These coefficients are stored in different variables (some are arrays, some are not). Would there be a potential for performance gain if I set up A as an array containing pointers to these coefficient variables, then inverting A in-place? The nice thing about the last option is that once I have set up the pointers in A before the first iteration, I would not need to copy any values between successive iterations. The values which are pointed to in A would automatically be updated between iterations. So the performance question boils down to this, as I see it: - The matrix inversion process takes roughly the same amount of time, assuming de-referencing of pointers is non-expensive. - The array of pointers does not need the extra memory for matrix A containing values. - The array of pointers option does not have to copy all NxN values of A between each iteration. - The values that are pointed to the array of pointers option are generally NOT ordered in memory. Hopefully, all values lie relatively close in memory, but *A[0][1] is generally not next to *A[0][0] etc. Any comments to this? Will the last remark affect performance negatively, thus weighing up for the positive performance effects?

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• Problem with UserControl with custom Dependency Property

  - by Mathias Koch

  Hi, I'm writing a user control with a dependency property for a search text called SearchText. It is a dependency property because I want to allow consumers of the control to use data binding. The user control contains a WPF TextBox where the user can enter the search text. I could use data binding to connect the SearchText dependency property of the user control with the Text dependency property of the TextBox, but this binding only fires when the text box looses input focus. What I want is SearchText to be updated after every change of Text. So I have added a TextChanged event handler to the user control where I set SearchText to the value of Text. My Problem is, the SearchText binding doesn't work, the source never gets updated. What am I doing wrong? Here's the relevant part of the user controls code-behind: public partial class UserControlSearchTextBox : UserControl { public string SearchText { get { return (string)GetValue(SearchTextProperty); } set { SetValue(SearchTextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty SearchTextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("SearchText", typeof(string), typeof(UserControlSearchTextBox), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); private void TextBox_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { SearchText = ((TextBox)sender).Text; } ... } The window that contains an instance of the user control has its DataContext set to an object that has a property also called SearchText. <uc:UserControlSearchTextBox SearchText="{Binding SearchText}" /> The data context of the Window: public class DataSourceUserManual : DataSourceBase { private string _searchText; public string SearchText { get { return _searchText; } set { _searchText = value; ... OnPropertyChanged("SearchText"); } } } Unfortunately, this setter is not called when I type into the text box. Any ideas?

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• binding nested json object value to a form field

  - by Jack

  I am building a dynamic form to edit data in a json object. First, if something like this exists let me know. I would rather not build it but I have searched many times for a tool and have found only tree like structures that require entering quotes. I would be happy to treat all values as strings. This edit functionality is for end users so it needs to be easy an not intimidating. So far I have code that generates nested tables to represent a json object. For each value I display a form field. I would like to bind the form field to the associated nested json value. If I could store a reference to the json value I would build an array of references to each value in a json object tree. I have not found a way to do that with javascript. My last resort approach will be to traverse the table after edits are made. I would rather have dynamic updates but a single submit would be better than nothing. Any ideas? // the json in files nests only a few levels. Here is the format of a simple case, { "researcherid_id":{ "id_key":"researcherid_id", "description":"Use to retrieve bibliometric data", "url_template" :[ { "name": "Author Detail", "url": "http://www.researcherid.com/rid/${key}" } ] } } $.get('file.json',make_json_form); function make_json_form(response) { dataset = $.secureEvalJSON(response); // iterate through the object and generate form field for string values. } // Then after the form is edited I want to display the raw updated json (then I want to save it but that is for another thread) // now I iterate through the form and construct the json object // I would rather have the dataset object var updated on focus out after each edit. function show_json(form_id){ var r = {}; var el = document.getElementById(form_id); table_to_json(r,el,null); $('body').html(formattedJSON(r)); }

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• Rails' page caching vs. HTTP reverse proxy caches

  - by John Topley

  I've been catching up with the Scaling Rails screencasts. In episode 11 which covers advanced HTTP caching (using reverse proxy caches such as Varnish and Squid etc.), they recommend only considering using a reverse proxy cache once you've already exhausted the possibilities of page, action and fragment caching within your Rails application (as well as memcached etc. but that's not relevant to this question). What I can't quite understand is how using an HTTP reverse proxy cache can provide a performance boost for an application that already uses page caching. To simplify matters, let's assume that I'm talking about a single host here. This is my understanding of how both techniques work (maybe I'm wrong): With page caching the Rails process is hit initially and then generates a static HTML file that is served directly by the Web server for subsequent requests, for as long as the cache for that request is valid. If the cache has expired then Rails is hit again and the static file is regenerated with the updated content ready for the next request With an HTTP reverse proxy cache the Rails process is hit when the proxy needs to determine whether the content is stale or not. This is done using various HTTP headers such as ETag, Last-Modified etc. If the content is fresh then Rails responds to the proxy with an HTTP 304 Not Modified and the proxy serves its cached content to the browser, or even better, responds with its own HTTP 304. If the content is stale then Rails serves the updated content to the proxy which caches it and then serves it to the browser If my understanding is correct, then doesn't page caching result in less hits to the Rails process? There isn't all that back and forth to determine if the content is stale, meaning better performance than reverse proxy caching. Why might you use both techniques in conjunction?

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• Need a SQL statement focus on combination of tables but entries always with uinque ID

  - by Registered User KC

  Hi All, I need SQL code to solve the tables combination problem, described on below: Table old data: name version status lastupdate ID A 0.1 on 6/8/2010 1 B 0.1 on 6/8/2010 2 C 0.1 on 6/8/2010 3 D 0.1 on 6/8/2010 4 E 0.1 on 6/8/2010 5 F 0.1 on 6/8/2010 6 G 0.1 on 6/8/2010 7 Table new data: name version status lastupdate ID A 0.1 on 6/18/2010 #B entry deleted C 0.3 on 6/18/2010 #version_updated C1 0.1 on 6/18/2010 D 0.1 on 6/18/2010 E 0.1 off 6/18/2010 #status_updated F 0.1 on 6/18/2010 G 0.1 on 6/18/2010 H 0.1 on 6/18/2010 #new_added H1 0.1 on 6/18/2010 #new_added the difference of new data and old date: B entry deleted C entry version updated E entry status updated C1/H/H1 entry new added What I want is always keeping the ID - name mapping relationship in old data table no matter how data changed later, a.k.a the name always has a unique ID number bind with it. If entry has update, then update the data, if entry is new added, insert to the table then give a new assigned unique ID. However, I can only use SQL with simple select or update statement then it may too hard for me to write such code, then I hope someone with expertise can give direction, no details needed on the different of SQL variant, a standard sql code as sample is enough. Thanks in advance! Rgs KC

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• Distributed Message Ordering

  - by sbanwart

  I have an architectural question on handling message ordering. For purposes of this question, the transport is irrelevant, so I'm not going to specify one. Say we have three systems, a website, a CRM and an ERP. For this example, the ERP will be the "master" system in terms of data ownership. The website and the CRM can both send a new customer message to the ERP system. The ERP system then adds a customer and publishes the customer with the newly assigned account number so that the website and CRM can add the account number to their local customer records. This is a pretty straight forward process. Next we move on to placing orders. The account number is required in order for the CRM or website to place an order with the ERP system. However the CRM will permit the user to place an order even if the customer lacks an account number. (For this example assume we can't modify the CRM behavior) This creates the possibility that a user could create a new customer, and place an order before the account number gets updated in the CRM. What is the best way to handle this scenario? Would it be best to send the order message sans account number and let it go to an error queue? Would it be better to have the CRM endpoint hold the message and wait until the account number is updated in the CRM? Maybe something completely different that I haven't thought of? Thanks in advance for any help.

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• How to solve the problem of not being informed of successful payments by the 3rd party system used b

  - by user68759

  I have a subscription based website that interacts with a 3rd party system to handle the payments. The steps to process a new subscriber registration are as follow: The subscriber enters his/her details in the subscription form and click on the submit button. Assuming the details specified are valid, a new record is created in the database to store these details. The subscriber is then redirected to the website of the 3rd party system (similar to paypal) to process the payment. Once the payment is succesful, the 3rd party website then redirect the subscriber back to our website. At this time, I know that the payment was succesful, so the record in the database is updated to indicate that payment has been made successfully. A problem that I have found occurring quite often is that if a subscriber pays but does not complete the process correctly (e.g. uses the back browser, closes the window), his/her record in the database doesn't get updated about this. Accordingly, I don't know if s/he has paid by just looking the record and need to wait for the report from the 3rd party system to find this out. How do you solve this problem? PS. One of the main reasons to store their details into the database before the payment process is done is so they can come back to complete the payment without re-entering their details again. For example, when their credit cards were rejected by the 3rd party system and they need to sort this out with their financial institution which may take a while.

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• iPhone application update (using Core Data on Sqlite)

  - by owen

  I have an app which is using Core Data on Sqlite, Now I have a update which has some DB structure changes say adding a new table I know when an app get updated, it updates the app binary only, nothing on document directory will be changed. When the app gets updated and launchs at the first time and run [[NSPersistentStoreCoordinator alloc] initWithManagedObjectModel:[self managedObjectModel]]; It will find the difference between the data model and DB structure in Sqlite and will throw an exception and quit. Error: "The model used to open the store is incompatible with the one used to create the store" So, can anyone here give me some idea how to update an app when there is a DB structure change? I think we can run a DB script to create that new table when it launchs the update at the first time. But if there are other changes like changing the type of some fields or deleting some fields, and we need to migrate the old data, this is really a headache. In this case, Is the only way to do is creating a new app? Is there anyone tried something similar like this?

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• Database Error Handling: What if You have to Call Outside service and the Transaction Fails?

  - by Ngu Soon Hui

  We all know that we can always wrap our database call in transaction ( with or without a proper ORM), in a form like this: $con = Propel::getConnection(EventPeer::DATABASE_NAME); try { $con->begin(); // do your update, save, delete or whatever here. $con->commit(); } catch (PropelException $e) { $con->rollback(); throw $e; } This way would guarantee that if the transaction fails, the database is restored to the correct status. But the problem is that let's say when I do a transaction, in addition to that transaction, I need to update another database ( an example would be when I update an entry in a column in databaseA, another entry in a column in databaseB must be updated). How to handle this case? Let's say, this is my code, I have three databases that need to be updated ( dbA, dbB, dbc): $con = Propel::getConnection("dbA"); try { $con->begin(); // update to dbA // update to dbB //update to dbc $con->commit(); } catch (PropelException $e) { $con->rollback(); throw $e; } If dbc fails, I can rollback the dbA but I can't rollback dbb. I think this problem should be database independent. And since I am using ORM, this should be ORM independent as well. Update: Some of the database transactions are wrapped in ORM, some are using naked PDO, oledb ( or whatever bare minimum language provided database calls). So my solution has to take care this. Any idea?

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• [MFC] Creating multiple dialogs in an MFC app with no main Window, they become children of each othe

  - by John

  (title updated) Following on from this question, now I have a clearer picture what's going on... I have a MFC application with no main window, which exposes an API to create dialogs. When I call some of these methods repeatedly, the dialogs created are parented to each other instead of all being parented to the desktop... I have no idea why. But anyway even after creation, I am unable to change the parent back to NULL or CWnd::GetDesktopWindow()... if I call SetParent followed by GetParent, nothing has changed. So apart from the really weird question of why Windows is magically parenting each dialog to the last one created, is there anything I'm missing to be able to set these windows as children of the desktop? UPDATED: I have found the reason for all this, but not the solution. From my dialog constructor, we end up in: BOOL CDialog::CreateIndirect(LPCDLGTEMPLATE lpDialogTemplate, CWnd* pParentWnd, void* lpDialogInit, HINSTANCE hInst) { ASSERT(lpDialogTemplate != NULL); if (pParentWnd == NULL) pParentWnd = AfxGetMainWnd(); m_lpDialogInit = lpDialogInit; return CreateDlgIndirect(lpDialogTemplate, pParentWnd, hInst); } Note: if (pParentWnd == NULL)pParentWnd = AfxGetMainWnd(); The call-stack from my dialog constructor looks like this: mfc80d.dll!CDialog::CreateIndirect(const DLGTEMPLATE * lpDialogTemplate=0x005931a8, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000, void * lpDialogInit=0x00000000, HINSTANCE__ * hInst=0x00400000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::CreateIndirect(void * hDialogTemplate=0x005931a8, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000, HINSTANCE__ * hInst=0x00400000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::Create(const char * lpszTemplateName=0x0000009d, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::Create(unsigned int nIDTemplate=157, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000) MyApp.exe!CMyDlg::CMyDlg(CWnd * pParent=0x00000000) Running in the debugger, if I manually change pParentWnd back to 0 in CDialog::CreateIndirect, everything works fine... but how do I stop it happening in the first place?

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• jQuery: Stop browser scrolling on event update beyond the fold?

  - by neezer

  I have several links at the bottom of my page that update content at the top of my page (more than a viewport away). Here's the gist of what the update looks like: $('#private-photo div').fadeOut(function() { $(this).html('<%= escape_javascript(image_tag current_user.private_photo.image.url(:profile)) %>'); }).fadeIn(); Basically it's just fading out the old content and fading in the new content. My problem is that when this happens, the browser window automatically scrolls up just far enough so that the bottom of the updated content (#private-photo div) appears at the top of the browser viewport. I do not want this to happen. I want the content to be updated (still fading in and out), but without the browser viewport realigning its focus. I want to keep the animation because if the user has a big enough screen, or if they are using a link closer to the top of the page, I still want them to see the animation. Any ideas about how to prevent the browser from scrolling as described? If not, any suggestions for workarounds? FYI, I have this same problem in Safari 4, Chrome (for Mac), & Firefox 3.5. EDIT: Here's the link that calls the update action, which is itself inside a Colorbox: $('a.edit-photo').colorbox({ title: function() { return 'Edit Photo in ' + $(this).attr('rel'); }, overlayClose: false, onComplete: function() { $('#edit-photo-modal').submit(function(e) { $('#photo_submit').after('<span id="saving">Saving...</span>'); e.preventDefault(); $.post($(this).attr('action'), $(this).serialize(), function() { $('#edit-photo-modal #saving').text('Saved!'); }, "script"); }); } }); The lightbox opens, presents a form fetched through an AJAX request, then (on submit) triggers the update action mentioned above. I had these links outside of the Colorbox in an earlier design revision, and they exhibited the same problem, so I've ruled out Colorbox itself as a cause. If you need anymore info, let me know!

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• Using ember-resource with couchdb - how can i save my documents?

  - by Thomas Herrmann

  I am implementing an application using ember.js and couchdb. I choose ember-resource as database access layer because it nicely supports nested JSON documents. Since couchdb uses the attribute _rev for optimistic locking in every document, this attribute has to be updated in my application after saving the data to the couchdb. My idea to implement this is to reload the data right after saving to the database and get the new _rev back with the rest of the document. Here is my code for this: // Since we use CouchDB, we have to make sure that we invalidate and re-fetch // every document right after saving it. CouchDB uses an optimistic locking // scheme based on the attribute "_rev" in the documents, so we reload it in // order to have the correct _rev value. didSave: function() { this._super.apply(this, arguments); this.forceReload(); }, // reload resource after save is done, expire to make reload really do something forceReload: function() { this.expire(); // Everything OK up to this location Ember.run.next(this, function() { this.fetch() // Sub-Document is reset here, and *not* refetched! .fail(function(error) { App.displayError(error); }) .done(function() { App.log("App.Resource.forceReload fetch done, got revision " + self.get('_rev')); }); }); } This works for most cases, but if i have a nested model, the sub-model is replaced with the old version of the data just before the fetch is executed! Interestingly enough, the correct (updated) data is stored in the database and the wrong (old) data is in the memory model after the fetch, although the _rev attribut is correct (as well as all attributes of the main object). Here is a part of my object definition: App.TaskDefinition = App.Resource.define({ url: App.dbPrefix + 'courseware', schema: { id: String, _rev: String, type: String, name: String, comment: String, task: { type: 'App.Task', nested: true } } }); App.Task = App.Resource.define({ schema: { id: String, title: String, description: String, startImmediate: Boolean, holdOnComment: Boolean, ..... // other attributes and sub-objects } }); Any ideas where the problem might be? Thank's a lot for any suggestion! Kind regards, Thomas

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• Can shared memory be read and validated without mutexes?

  - by Bribles

  On Linux I'm using shmget and shmat to setup a shared memory segment that one process will write to and one or more processes will read from. The data that is being shared is a few megabytes in size and when updated is completely rewritten; it's never partially updated. I have my shared memory segment laid out as follows: ------------------------- | t0 | actual data | t1 | ------------------------- where t0 and t1 are copies of the time when the writer began its update (with enough precision such that successive updates are guaranteed to have differing times). The writer first writes to t1, then copies in the data, then writes to t0. The reader on the other hand reads t0, then the data, then t1. If the reader gets the same value for t0 and t1 then it considers the data consistent and valid, if not, it tries again. Does this procedure ensure that if the reader thinks the data is valid then it actually is? Do I need to worry about out-of-order execution (OOE)? If so, would the reader using memcpy to get the entire shared memory segment overcome the OOE issues on the reader side? (This assumes that memcpy performs it's copy linearly and ascending through the address space. Is that assumption valid?)

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• Building asynchronous cache pattern with JSP

  - by merweirdo

  I have a JSP that will take some 8 minutes to render. The code logic itself can not be made more efficient (it will update often and be updated by basically a pointy haired boss). I tried wrapping it with a caching layer like <%@ taglib uri="/WEB-INF/classes/oscache.tld" prefix="oscache" %> <oscache:cache time="60"> <div class="pagecontent"> ..... my logic </div> </oscache:cache> This is nice until the 60 seconds is over. The next query after that blocks until the 8 minutes of rendering is done with again. I would need a way to build a pattern something like: If there is no version of the dynamic content in the cache run the actual logic (and populate the cache for subsequent requests) If there is a non-expired version of the dynamic content in the cache serve the output of the JSP logic from the cache If there is an expired version of the dynamic content in the cache serve the output of the JSP logic still from the cache AND run the JSP logic in the background so that the cache gets updated transparently to the user - avoiding the user have to wait for 8 minutes I found out that at least EHCache might be able to do some asynchronous cache updating but it did not sadly seem to apply to the JSP tags... Also I have to take in 10-20 parameters for the actual logic of the JSP and some of them should be used as a key for caching. Code example and/or pointers would be greatly appreciated. I do not frankly care if the solution provided is extremely ugly. I just want a simple 5 minute caching with asynchronous cache update taking into account some parameters as a key.

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