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  • Private Java class properties mysteriously reset between method calls....

    - by Michael Jones
    I have a very odd problem. A class property is mysteriously reset between method calls. The following code is executed so the constructor is called, then the parseConfiguration method is called. Finally, processData is called. The parseConfiguration method sets the "recursive" property to "true". However, as soon as it enters "processData", "recursive" becomes "false". This problem isn't isolated to a single class -- I have several examples of this in my code. How can this possibly be happening? I've tried initialising properties when they're declared outside any methods, I've tried initialising them in constructors... nothing works. The only complication I can think of here is that this class is invoked by an object that runs in a thread -- but here is one instance per thread, so surely no chance that threads are interfering. I've tried setting both methods to "synchronized", but this still happens. Please help! /** * This class or its superclasses are NOT threaded and don't extend Thread */ public class DirectoryAcquirer extends Manipulator { /** * @var Whether to recursively scan directories */ private boolean recursive = false; /** * Constructor */ public DirectoryAcquirer() { } /** * Constructor that initialises the configuration * * @param config * @throws InvalidConfigurationException */ public DirectoryAcquirer(HierarchicalConfiguration config) throws InvalidConfigurationException { super(config); } @Override protected void parseConfiguration() throws InvalidConfigurationException { // set whether to recurse into directories or not if (this.config.containsKey("recursive")) { // this.recursive gets set to "true" here this.recursive = this.config.getBoolean("recursive"); } } @Override public EntityCollection processData(EntityCollection data) { // here this.recursive is "false" this.logger.debug("processData: Entered method"); } }

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  • hint and textview with right gravity and a singleline

    - by codeScriber
    I've opened a bug but i was wondering if anyone encountered this issue and knows a workaround. If you define a text view with a hint inside it, give it right gravity (android:gravity="right") then if you define android:singleLine=true or android:maxLines="1" or android:scrollHorizonatally="true" you don't see the hint. removing the right gravity returns the hint to the left side, removing all the tree params i mentioned above puts the hint on the right side. i want my hint on the right, but i need a single horizontal line... here's the sample layout that doesn't show the hint: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:padding="5dp"> <EditText android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_gravity="center_vertical|right" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_margin="6dp" android:textSize="16sp" android:paddingRight="5dp" android:id="@+id/c" android:gravity="right" android:hint="hello!!!" android:scrollHorizontally="true" android:maxLines="1" android:singleLine="true"/> </LinearLayout> i checked on 1.6 and 2.1 emulators and it reproduces 100%, i'm prettysure it's a bug, i don't see the connection between single line and the hint.... what's more the hint got it's own layout in the TextView (mLayout and mHintLayout both exists, in onDraw if the text length is 0 mHintLayout if mHint is not null is used).

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  • Why is my PHP string being converted to 1?

    - by animuson
    Ok, so here's the quick rundown. I have a function to generate the page numbers. This: <?php die($ani->e->tmpl->pages("/archive", 1, 15, 1, true)); ?> will output Single Page like expected. But this: <?php $page_numbers = $ani->e->tmpl->pages("/archive", 1, 15, 1, true); ?> <?= $page_numbers ?> will output a simple 1 to the page. Why is it getting converted to a 1? I would expect it to store the 'Single Page' string to the page_numbers variable and then output it (like an echo) exactly the same. EDIT: Running a var_dump($page_numbers) returns int(1)... Here is the entire function in context: <?php // other functions... function show_list() { global $ani; $page_numbers = $ani->e->tmpl->pages("/archive", 1, 15, 1, true); ob_start(); ?> <!-- content:start --> <?php $archive_result = $ani->e->db->build(array("select" => "*", "from" => "animuson_archive", "orderby" => "0-time", "limit" => 15)); while ($archive = $ani->e->db->fetch($archive_result)) { ?> <h2><a href="/archive/article/<?= $archive['aid'] ?>/<?= $archive['title_nice'] ?>"><?= $archive['title'] ?></a></h2> <!-- breaker --> <?php } ?> <?= var_dump($page_numbers) ?> <!-- content:stop --> <?php $ani->e->tmpl->process("box", ob_get_clean()); } // other functions... ?>

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  • Representing complex scheduled reoccurance in a database

    - by David Pfeffer
    I have the interesting problem of representing complex schedule data in a database. As a guideline, I need to be able to represent the entirety of what the iCalendar -- ics -- format can represent, but in a database. I'm not actually implementing anything relating to ics, but it gives a good scope of the type of rules I need to be able to model. I need to allow allow representation of a single event or a reoccurring event based on multiple times per day, days of the week, week of a month, month, year, or some combination of those. For example, the third Thursday in November annually, or the 25th of December annually, or every two weeks starting November 2 and continuing until September 8 the following year. I don't care about insertion efficiency but query efficiency is critical. The operation I will be doing most often is providing either a single date/time or a date/time range, and trying to determine if the defined schedule matches any part of the date/time range. Other operations can be slower. For example, given January 15, 2010 at 10:00 AM through January 15, 2010 at 11:00 AM, find all schedules that match at least part of that time. (i.e. a schedule that covers 10:30 - 11:00 still matches.) Any suggestions? I looked at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1016170/how-would-one-represent-scheduled-events-in-an-rdbms but it doesn't cover the scope of the type of reoccurance rules I'd like to model.

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  • How to hold payment in paygate for a while?

    - by Fero
    HI all, I have a query regarding holding the payment in PAYGATE PAYMENT GATEWAY. Here is the problem in brief. I am doing a website where the payment should be made only a certain members buy the product. For Example if there is an iPhone in my site, then that particular phone must be buy by certain quantities which given by admin. It may be done one by one user or a single user can buy all the quantities at a single time. In this case as a developer how can i able to hold the payment which received by user? Because i don't want to receive the payments until the certain quantities bought. Because if certain quantities were not buy i need to refund the money to their account. We don't like to do this process. That's why we are looking for holding the payment. Is it possible or what is the best way to solve this problem? Please let me know what is you professional opinion? thanks in advance... Please let me know what is you professional opinion?

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  • Wordpress loop > unique loop renders slightly wrong results...

    - by Travis Neilson
    A few things to understand before my question will make sense: I use a hidden category called 'Unique' to specify if the post will use the single.php or a special one used for the unique ones. I want the index to act as a single: showing only one post, displaying next/prev post links, and comments also. I need the index.php to say if the post is in category 15 (unique) than <the_unique_content>, else; <the_default_content> My loop does all this, but the problem is that if the current post is unique, it also displays 1 additional post below the unique post. Here is the loop <?php $wp_query->is_single = true; ?> <?php $post_count = 0; ?> <?php if (have_posts()) : while (have_posts()) : the_post(); ?> <?php if ($post_count == 0) : ?> <?php if (in_category('15')) { ?> <?php the_content(); ?> <?php } else { ?> <?php the_content(); ?> <?php $post_count++; ?> Thanks for any help!

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  • What is happening in this T-SQL code? (Concatenting the results of a SELECT statement)

    - by Ben McCormack
    I'm just starting to learn T-SQL and could use some help in understanding what's going on in a particular block of code. I modified some code in an answer I received in a previous question, and here is the code in question: DECLARE @column_list AS varchar(max) SELECT @column_list = COALESCE(@column_list, ',') + 'SUM(Case When Sku2=' + CONVERT(varchar, Sku2) + ' Then Quantity Else 0 End) As [' + CONVERT(varchar, Sku2) + ' - ' + Convert(varchar,Description) +'],' FROM OrderDetailDeliveryReview Inner Join InvMast on SKU2 = SKU and LocationTypeID=4 GROUP BY Sku2 , Description ORDER BY Sku2 Set @column_list = Left(@column_list,Len(@column_list)-1) Select @column_list ---------------------------------------- 1 row is returned: ,SUM(Case When Sku2=157 Then Quantity Else 0 End) As [157 -..., SUM(Case ... The T-SQL code does exactly what I want, which is to make a single result based on the results of a query, which will then be used in another query. However, I can't figure out how the SELECT @column_list =... statement is putting multiple values into a single string of characters by being inside a SELECT statement. Without the assignment to @column_list, the SELECT statement would simply return multiple rows. How is it that by having the variable within the SELECT statement that the results get "flattened" down into one value? How should I read this T-SQL to properly understand what's going on?

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  • Python C API from C++ app - know when to lock

    - by Alex
    Hi Everyone, I am trying to write a C++ class that calls Python methods of a class that does some I/O operations (file, stdout) at once. The problem I have ran into is that my class is called from different threads: sometimes main thread, sometimes different others. Obviously I tried to apply the approach for Python calls in multi-threaded native applications. Basically everything starts from PyEval_AcquireLock and PyEval_ReleaseLock or just global locks. According to the documentation here when a thread is already locked a deadlock ensues. When my class is called from the main thread or other one that blocks Python execution I have a deadlock. Python Cfunc1() - C++ func that creates threads internally which lead to calls in "my class", It stuck on PyEval_AcquireLock, obviously the Python is already locked, i.e. waiting for C++ Cfunc1 call to complete... It completes fine if I omit those locks. Also it completes fine when Python interpreter is ready for the next user command, i.e. when thread is calling funcs in the background - not inside of a native call I am looking for a workaround. I need to distinguish whether or not the global lock is allowed, i.e. Python is not locked and ready to receive the next command... I tried PyGIL_Ensure, unfortunately I see hang. Any known API or solution for this ? (Python 2.4)

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  • WM_NOTIFY and superclass chaining issue in Win32

    - by DasMonkeyman
    For reference I'm using the window superclass method outlined in this article. The specific issue occurs if I want to handle WM_NOTIFY messages (i.e. for custom drawing) from the base control in the superclass I either need to reflect them back from the parent window or set my own window as the parent (passed inside CREATESTRUCT for WM_(NC)CREATE to the base class). This method works fine if I have a single superclass. If I superclass my superclass then I run into a problem. Now 3 WindowProcs are operating in the same HWND, and when I reflect WM_NOTIFY messages (or have them sent to myself from the parent trick above) they always go to the outermost (most derived) WindowProc. I have no way to tell if they're messages intended for the inner superclass (base messages are supposed to go to the first superclass) or messages intended for the outer superclass (messages from the inner superclass are intended for the outer superclass). These messages are indistinguishable because they all come from the same HWND with the same control ID. Is there any way to resolve this without creating a new window to encapsulate each level of inheritance? Sorry about the wall of text. It's a difficult concept to explain. Here's a diagram. single superclass: SuperA::WindowProc() - Base::WindowProc()---\ ^--------WM_NOTIFY(Base)--------/ superclass of a superclass: SuperB::WindowProc() - SuperA::WindowProc() - Base::WindowProc()---\ ^--------WM_NOTIFY(Base)--------+-----------------------/ ^--------WM_NOTIFY(A)-----------/ The WM_NOTIFY messages in the second case all come from the same HWND and control ID, so I cannot distinguish between the messages intended for SuperA (from Base) and messages intended for SuperB (from SuperA). Any ideas?

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  • Why is this CHOICE element not getting assigned in my SharePoint Field definition schema?

    - by ccornet
    I defined a new field of the type "Choice" for my web application. It will serve basically as a pseudo-lookup as its contents are defined by the value of a Text field in a list. It is initialized with a dummy choice to begin with (I'm under the impression a choice field needs at least one choice when defined), which is replaced with a real choice later on. But for some reason, this dummy choice is never actually added to the choices! Below is the XML Schema for the field in question. <Field ID="{ALICEH-ASFA-KEGU-IDLISTED}" Name="ddlSystems" Group="Lookup Columns" DisplayName="ddlSystems" Type="Choice" Sealed="FALSE" ReadOnly="FALSE" Hidden="FALSE" FillInChoice="TRUE" DisplaceOnUpgrade="TRUE"> <CHOICES> <CHOICE>BLANULL</CHOICE> </CHOICES> <Default>BLANULL</Default> </Field> Initially, I used a default choice of (a single space), but I changed it to BLANULL so that I can parse an actual word instead of a veritably empty string. Now, even after having uninstalled and reinstalled the feature with this field, I have a choice field that has (still a single space) as the only choice. Even more perplexing, BLANULL is actually listed for the default value in both the UI and the object model! What is causing this problem, and how can I circumvent it so that I don't have to manually set this dummy value each time?

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  • Is this a safe/valid hash method implementation?

    - by Sean
    I have a set of classes to represent some objects loaded from a database. There are a couple variations of these objects, so I have a common base class and two subclasses to represent the differences. One of the key fields they have in common is an id field. Unfortunately, the id of an object is not unique across all variations, but within a single variation. What I mean is, a single object of type A could have an id between, say, 0 and 1,000,000. An object of type B could have an id between, 25,000 and 1,025,000. This means there's some overlap of id numbers. The objects are just variations of the same kind of thing, though, so I want to think of them as such in my code. (They were assigned ids from different sets for legacy reasons.) So I have classes like this: @class BaseClass @class TypeAClass : BaseClass @class TypeBClass : BaseClass BaseClass has a method (NSNumber *)objectId. However instances of TypeA and TypeB could have overlapping ids as discussed above, so when it comes to equality and putting these into sets, I cannot just use the id alone to check it. The unique key of these instances is, essentially, (class + objectId). So I figured that I could do this by making the following hash function on the BaseClass: -(NSUInteger)hash { return (NSUInteger)[self class] ^ [self.objectId hash]; } I also implemented isEqual like so: - (BOOL)isEqual:(id)object { return (self == object) || ([object class] == [self class] && [self.objectId isEqual:[object objectId]]); } This seems to be working, but I guess I'm just asking here to make sure I'm not overlooking something - especially with the generation of the hash by using the class pointer in that way. Is this safe or is there a better way to do this?

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  • Using the Proxy pattern with C++ iterators

    - by Billy ONeal
    Hello everyone :) I've got a moderately complex iterator written which wraps the FindXFile apis on Win32. (See previous question) In order to avoid the overhead of constructing an object that essentially duplicates the work of the WIN32_FIND_DATAW structure, I have a proxy object which simply acts as a sort of const reference to the single WIN32_FIND_DATAW which is declared inside the noncopyable innards of the iterator. This is great because Clients do not pay for construction of irrelevant information they will probably not use (most of the time people are only interested in file names), and Clients can get at all the information provided by the FindXFile APIs if they need or want this information. This becomes an issue though because there is only ever a single copy of the object's actual data. Therefore, when the iterator is incrememnted, all of the proxies are invalidated (set to whatever the next file pointed to by the iterator is). I'm concerned if this is a major problem, because I can think of a case where the proxy object would not behave as somebody would expect: std::vector<MyIterator::value_type> files; std::copy(MyIterator("Hello"), MyIterator(), std::back_inserter(files)); because the vector contains nothing but a bunch of invalid proxies at that point. Instead, clients need to do something like: std::vector<std::wstring> filesToSearch; std::transform( DirectoryIterator<FilesOnly>(L"C:\\Windows\\*"), DirectoryIterator<FilesOnly>(), std::back_inserter(filesToSearch), std::mem_fun_ref(&DirectoryIterator<FilesOnly>::value_type::GetFullFileName) ); Seeing this, I can see why somebody might dislike what the standard library designers did with std::vector<bool>. I'm still wondering though: is this a reasonable trade off in order to achieve (1) and (2) above? If not, is there any way to still achieve (1) and (2) without the proxy?

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  • Unit Testing-- fundamental goal?

    - by David
    Me and my co-workers had a bit of a disagreement last night about unit testing in our PHP/MySQL application. Half of us argued that when unit testing a function within a class, you should mock everything outside of that class and its parents. The other half of us argued that you SHOULDN'T mock anything that is a direct dependancy of the class either. The specific example was our logging mechanism, which happened through a static Logging class, and we had a number of Logging::log() calls in various locations throughout our application. The first half of us said the Logging mechanism should be faked (mocked) because it would be tested in the Logging unit tests. The second half of us argued that we should include the original Logging class in our unit test so that if we make a change to our logging interface, we'll be able to see if it creates problems in other parts of the application due to failing to update the call interface. So I guess the fundamental question is-- do unit tests serve to test the functionality of a single unit in a closed environment, or show the consequences of changes to a single unit in a larger environment? If it's one of these, how do you accomplish the other?

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  • Looking for combinations of server and embedded database engines

    - by codeelegance
    I'm redesigning an application that will be run as both a single user and multiuser application. It is a .NET 2.0 application. I'm looking for server and embedded databases that work well together. I want to deploy the embedded database in the single user setup and of course, the server in the multiuser setup. Past releases have been based on MSDE but in the past year we've been having a lot of install issues: new installs hanging and leaving the system in an unknown state, upgrades disconnecting the database, etc. I migrated the application to SQL Server 2005 and the install is more reliable (as long as a user doesn't try to install over a broken MSDE installation). Since next year's release will be a complete redesign I figured now's the best time to address the database issue as well. The database has been abstracted from the rest of the application so I just need to choose which database(s) to use and write an implementation for each one. So far I've considered: SQL Server/ SQL Server Compact Edition Firebird (same DB engine is available in two different server modes and an embedded dll) Each has its own merits but I'm also interested in any other suggestions. This is a fairly simple program and its data requirements are simple as well. I don't expect it to strain whatever database I eventually choose. So easy configuration and deployment hold more weight than performance.

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  • master pages, form pages, form runat=server > all onclick methods on master page?

    - by b0x0rz
    the problem i have is that i have multiple nested master pages: level 1: global (header, footer, login, navigation, etc...) level 2: specific (search pages, account pages, etc...) level 3: the page itself now, since only one form can have runat=server, i put the form at global page (so i can handle things like login, feedback, etc...). now with this solution i'd have to also put the for example level 3 (see above) methods, such as search also on the level 1 master page, but this will lead to this page being heavy (for development) with code from all places, even those that are used on a single page only (change email form for example). is there any way to delegate such methods (for example: ChangeEMail) from level 1 (global masterpage) to level 3 (the single page itself). to be even more clear: i want to NOT have to have the method ChangeEMail on the global master page code behind, but would like to 'MOVE' it somehow to the only page that will actually use it. the reason why it currently has to be on the global master is that global master has form runat=server and there can be only one of those per aspx page. this way it will be easier (more logical) to structure the code. thnx (hope i explained it correctly) have searched but did not find any general info on handling this case, usualy the answer is: have all the methods on the master page, but i don't like it. so ANY way of moving it to the specific page would be awesome. thnx

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  • Choose a XML node in SQL Server based on max value of a child element

    - by Jay
    I am trying to select from SQL Server 2005 XML datatype some values based on the max data that is located in a child node. I have multiple rows with XML similar to the following stored in a field in SQL Server: <user> <name>Joe</name> <token> <id>ABC123</id> <endDate>2013-06-16 18:48:50.111</endDate> </token> <token> <id>XYX456</id> <endDate>2014-01-01 18:48:50.111</endDate> </token> </user> I want to perform a select from this XML column where it determines the max date within the token element and would return the datarows similar to the result below for each record: Joe XYZ456 2014-01-01 18:48:50.111 I have tried to find a max function for xpath that would all me to select the correct token element but I couldn't find one that would work. I also tried to use the SQL MAX function but I wasn't able to get it working with that method either. If I only have a single token it of course works fine but when I have more than one I get a NULL, most likely because the query doesn't know which date to pull. I was hoping there would be a way to specify a where clause [max(endDate)] on the token element but haven't found a way to do that. Here is an example of the one that works when I only have a single token: SELECT XMLCOL.query('user/name').value('.','NVARCHAR(20)') as name XMLCOL.query('user/token/id').value('.','NVARCHAR(20)') as id XMLCOL.query('user/token/endDate').value(,'xs:datetime(.)','DATETIME') as endDate FROM MYTABLE

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  • Pump Messages During Long Operations + C# (it is urgent)

    - by Newbie
    Hi I have a web service that is doing huge computation and is taking more than a minute. I have generated the proxy file of the web service and then from my client end I am using the dll(of course I generated the proxy dll). My client side code is TimeSeries3D t = new TimeSeries3D(); int portfolioId = 4387919; string[] str = new string[2]; str[0] = "MKT_CAP"; DateRange dr = new DateRange(); dr.mStartDate = DateTime.Today; dr.mEndDate = DateTime.Today; Service1 sc = new Service1(); t = sc.GetAttributesForPortfolio(portfolioId, true, str, dr); But since it is taking to much time for the server to compute, after 1 minute I am receiving an error message The CLR has been unable to transition from COM context 0x33caf30 to COM context 0x33cb0a0 for 60 seconds. The thread that owns the destination context/apartment is most likely either doing a non pumping wait or processing a very long running operation without pumping Windows messages. This situation generally has a negative performance impact and may even lead to the application becoming non responsive or memory usage accumulating continually over time. To avoid this problem, all single threaded apartment (STA) threads should use pumping wait primitives (such as CoWaitForMultipleHandles) and routinely pump messages during long running operations. Kindly guide me what to do? It is very urgent. Thanks

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  • How to transform a production to LL(1) for a list separated by a semicolon?

    - by Subb
    Hi, I'm reading this introductory book on parsing (which is pretty good btw) and one of the exercice is to "build a parser for your favorite language." Since I don't want to die today, I thought I could do a parser for something relatively simple, ie a simplified CSS. Note: This book teach you how to right a LL(1) parser using the recursive-descent algorithm. So, as a sub-exercice, I am building the grammar from what I know of CSS. But I'm stuck on a production that I can't transform in LL(1) : //EBNF block = "{", declaration, {";", declaration}, [";"], "}" //BNF <block> =:: "{" <declaration> "}" <declaration> =:: <single-declaration> <opt-end> | <single-declaration> ";" <declaration> <opt-end> =:: "" | ";" This describe a CSS block. Valid block can have the form : { property : value } { property : value; } { property : value; property : value } { property : value; property : value; } ... The problem is with the optional ";" at the end, because it overlap with the starting character of {";", declaration}, so when my parser meet a semicolon in this context, it doesn't know what to do. The book talk about this problem, but in its example, the semicolon is obligatory, so the rule can be modified like this : block = "{", declaration, ";", {declaration, ";"}, "}" So, Is it possible to achieve what I'm trying to do using a LL(1) parser?

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  • How can this code throw a NullReferenceException?

    - by Davy8
    I must be going out of my mind, because my unit tests are failing because the following code is throwing a null ref exception: int pid = 0; if (parentCategory != null) { Console.WriteLine(parentCategory.Id); pid = parentCategory.Id; } The line that's throwing it is: pid = parentCategory.Id; The console.writeline is just to debug in the NUnit GUI, but that outputs a valid int. Edit: It's single-threaded so it can't be assigned to null from some other thread, and the fact the the Console.WriteLine successfully prints out the value shows that it shouldn't throw. Edit: Relevant snippets of the Category class: public class Category { private readonly int id; public Category(Category parent, int id) { Parent = parent; parent.PerformIfNotNull(() => parent.subcategories.AddIfNew(this)); Name = string.Empty; this.id = id; } public int Id { get { return id; } } } Well if anyone wants to look at the full code, it's on Google Code at http://code.google.com/p/chefbook/source/checkout I think I'm going to try rebooting the computer... I've seen pretty weird things fixed by a reboot. Will update after reboot. Update: Mystery solved. Looks like NUnit shows the error line as the last successfully executed statement... Copy/pasted test into new console app and ran in VS showed that it was the line after the if statement block (not shown) that contained a null ref. Thanks for all the ideas everyone. +1 to everyone that answered.

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  • CCAnimate/CCAnimation cause inconsistent setTexture behavior in cocos2d on iPhone

    - by chillid
    Hi, I have a character that goes through multiple states. The state changes are reflected by means of a sprite image (texture) change. The state change is triggered by a user tapping on the sprite. This works consistently and quite well. I then added an animation during State0. Now, when the user taps - setTexture gets executed to change the texture to reflect State1, however some of the times (unpredictable) it does not change the texture. The code flows as below: // 1. // Create the animation sequence CGRect frame1Rect = CGRectMake(0,32,32,32); CGRect frame2Rect = CGRectMake(32,32,32,32); CCTexture2D* texWithAnimation = [[CCTextureCache sharedTextureCache] addImage:@"Frames0_1_thinkNthickoutline32x32.png"]; id anim = [[[CCAnimation alloc] initWithName:@"Sports" delay:1/25.0] autorelease]; [anim addFrame:[CCSpriteFrame frameWithTexture:texWithAnimation rect:frame1Rect offset:ccp(0,0)]]; [anim addFrame:[CCSpriteFrame frameWithTexture:texWithAnimation rect:frame2Rect offset:ccp(0,0)]]; // Make the animation sequence repeat forever id myAction = [CCAnimate actionWithAnimation: anim restoreOriginalFrame:NO]; // 2. // Run the animation: sports = [[CCRepeatForever alloc] init]; [sports initWithAction:myAction]; [self.sprite runAction:sports]; // 3. stop action on state change and change texture: NSLog(@"Stopping action"); [sprite stopAction:sports]; NSLog(@"Changing texture for kCJSports"); [self setTexture: [[CCTextureCache sharedTextureCache] addImage:@"SportsOpen.png"]]; [self setTextureRect:CGRectMake(0,0,32,64)]; NSLog(@"Changed texture for kCJSports"); Note that all the NSLog lines get logged - and the texture RECT changes - but the image/texture changes only some of the times - fails for around 10-30% of times. Locking/threading/timing issue somewhere? My app (game) is single threaded and I only use the addImage and not the Async version. Any help much appreciated.

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  • The CLR has been unable to transition from COM context [...] for 60 seconds

    - by BlueRaja The Green Unicorn
    I am getting this error on code that used to work. I have not changed the code. Here is the full error: The CLR has been unable to transition from COM context 0x3322d98 to COM context 0x3322f08 for 60 seconds. The thread that owns the destination context/apartment is most likely either doing a non pumping wait or processing a very long running operation without pumping Windows messages. This situation generally has a negative performance impact and may even lead to the application becoming non responsive or memory usage accumulating continually over time. To avoid this problem, all single threaded apartment (STA) threads should use pumping wait primitives (such as CoWaitForMultipleHandles) and routinely pump messages during long running operations. And here is the code that caused it: var openFileDialog1 = new System.Windows.Forms.OpenFileDialog(); openFileDialog1.DefaultExt = "mdb"; openFileDialog1.Filter = "Management Database (manage.mdb)|manage.mdb"; //Stalls indefinitely on the following line, then gives the CLR error //one minute later. The dialog never opens. if(openFileDialog1.ShowDialog() == DialogResult.OK) { .... } Yes, I am sure the dialog is not open in the background, and no, I don't have any explicit COM code or unmanaged marshalling or multithreading. I have no idea why the OpenFileDialog won't open - any ideas?

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  • Modelling deterministic and nondeterministic data separately

    - by Superstringcheese
    I'm working with the Microsoft ADO.NET Entity Framework for a game project. Following the advice of other posters on SO, I'm considering modelling deterministic and nondeterministic data separately. The idea for this came from a discussion on multiplayer games, but it seemed to make sense in a single-player scenario as well. Deterministic (things that aren't going to change during gameplay) Attributes (Strength, Agility, etc.) and their descriptions Skills and their descriptions and requirements Races, Factions, Equipment, etc. Base Attribute/Skill/Equipment loadouts for monsters Nondeterministic (things that will change a lot during gameplay) Beings' current AttributeModifers (Potion of Might = +10 Strength), current health and mana, etc. Player inventory, cash, experience, level Player quests states Player FactionRelationships ...and so on. My deterministic model would serve as a set of constants. My nondeterministic model would provide my on-the-fly operable data and would be serialized to a savegame file to maintain game state between play sessions. The data store will be an embedded SQL Compact database. So I might want to create relations between my Attributes table (deterministic model) and my BeingAttributeModifiers table (nondeterministic model), but how do I set that up across models? Det model/db Nondet model/db ____________ ________________________ |Attributes | |PlayerAttributeModifiers| |------------| |------------------------| |Id | |Id | |Name | |AttributeId | |Description | |SourceId | ------------ |Value | ------------------------ Should I use two separate models (edmx) that transact with a single database containing both deterministic-type and nondeterministic-type tables? Or should/can I use two separate databases in one model? Or two models each with their own database? With distinct models/dbs it seems like this will get really complicated and I'll end up fighting EF a lot, rolling my own transaction code, and generally losing out on a lot of the advantages of the framework. I know these are vague questions, I'm just looking for a sanity check before I forge ahead any further.

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  • Model-binding an object from the repository by several keys

    - by Anton
    Suppose the following route: {region}/{storehouse}/{controller}/{action} These two parameters region and storehouse altogether identify a single entity - a Storehouse. Thus, a bunch of controllers are being called in the context of some storehouse. And I'd like to write actions like this: public ActionResult SomeAction(Storehouse storehouse, ...) Here I can read your thoughts: "Write custom model binder, man". I do. However, the question is How to avoid magic strings within custom model binder? Here is my current code: public class StorehouseModelBinder : IModelBinder { readonly IStorehouseRepository repository; public StorehouseModelBinder(IStorehouseRepository repository) { this.repository = repository; } public object BindModel(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) { var region = bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("region").AttemptedValue; var storehouse = bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("storehouse").AttemptedValue; return repository.GetByKey(region, storehouse); } } If there was a single key, bindingContext.ModelName could be used... Probably, there is another way to supply all the actions with a Storehouse object, i.e. declaring it as a property of the controller and populating it in the Controller.Initialize.

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  • java singleton instantiation

    - by jurchiks
    I've found three ways of instantiating a Singleton, but I have doubts as to whether any of them is the best there is. I'm using them in a multi-threaded environment and prefer lazy instantiation. Sample 1: private static final ClassName INSTANCE = new ClassName(); public static ClassName getInstance() { return INSTANCE; } Sample 2: private static class SingletonHolder { public static final ClassName INSTANCE = new ClassName(); } public static ClassName getInstance() { return SingletonHolder.INSTANCE; } Sample 3: private static ClassName INSTANCE; public static synchronized ClassName getInstance() { if (INSTANCE == null) INSTANCE = new ClassName(); return INSTANCE; } The project I'm using ATM uses Sample 2 everywhere, but I kind of like Sample 3 more. There is also the Enum version, but I just don't get it. The question here is - in which cases I should/shouldn't use any of these variations? I'm not looking for lengthy explanations though (there's plenty of other topics about that, but they all eventually turn into arguing IMO), I'd like it to be understandable with few words.

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  • CEIL is one too high for exact integer divisions

    - by Synetech
    This morning I lost a bunch of files, but because the volume they were one was both internally and externally defragmented, all of the information necessary for a 100% recovery is available; I just need to fill in the FAT where required. I wrote a program to do this and tested it on a copy of the FAT that I dumped to a file and it works perfectly except that for a few of the files (17 out of 526), the FAT chain is one single cluster too long, and thus cross-linked with the next file. Fortunately I know exactly what the problem is. I used ceil in my EOF calculation because even a single byte over will require a whole extra cluster: //Cluster is the starting cluster of the file //Size is the size (in bytes) of the file //BPC is the number of bytes per cluster //NumClust is the number of clusters in the file //EOF is the last cluster of the file’s FAT chain DWORD NumClust = ceil( (float)(Size / BPC) ) DWORD EOF = Cluster + NumClust; This algorithm works fine for everything except files whose size happens to be exactly a multiple of the cluster size, in which case they end up being one cluster too much. I thought about it for a while but am at a loss as to a way to do this. It seems like it should be simple but somehow it is surprisingly tricky. What formula would work for files of any size?

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