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• C++ design related question

  - by Kotti

  Hi! Here is the question's plot: suppose I have some abstract classes for objects, let's call it Object. It's definition would include 2D position and dimensions. Let it also have some virtual void Render(Backend& backend) const = 0 method used for rendering. Now I specialize my inheritance tree and add Rectangle and Ellipse class. Guess they won't have their own properties, but they will have their own virtual void Render method. Let's say I implemented these methods, so that Render for Rectangle actually draws some rectangle, and the same for ellipse. Now, I add some object called Plane, which is defined as class Plane : public Rectangle and has a private member of std::vector<Object*> plane_objects; Right after that I add a method to add some object to my plane. And here comes the question. If I design this method as void AddObject(Object& object) I would face trouble like I won't be able to call virtual functions, because I would have to do something like plane_objects.push_back(new Object(object)); and this should be push_back(new Rectangle(object)) for rectangles and new Circle(...) for circles. If I implement this method as void AddObject(Object* object), it looks good, but then somewhere else this means making call like plane.AddObject(new Rectangle(params)); and this is generally a mess because then it's not clear which part of my program should free the allocated memory. ["when destroying the plane? why? are we sure that calls to AddObject were only done as AddObject(new something).] I guess the problems caused by using the second approach could be solved using smart pointers, but I am sure there have to be something better. Any ideas?

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• Specify Columntype in nhibernate

  - by Bipul

  I have a class CaptionItem public class CaptionItem { public virtual int SystemId { get; set; } public virtual int Version { get; set; } protected internal virtual IDictionary<string, string> CaptionValues {get; private set;} } I am using following code for nHibernate mapping Id(x => x.SystemId); Version(x => x.Version); Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); HasMany(x => x.CaptionValues) .KeyColumn("CaptionItem_Id") .AsMap<string>(idx => idx.Column("CaptionSet_Name"), elem => elem.Column("Text")) .Not.LazyLoad() .Cascade.Delete() .Table("CaptionValue") .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); So in database two tables get created. One CaptionValue and other CaptionItem. In CaptionItem table has three columns 1. CaptionItem_Id int 2. Text nvarchar(255) 3. CaptionSet_Name nvarchar(255) Now, my question is how can I make the columnt type of Text to nvarchar(max)? Thanks in advance.

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• Constructor and Destructors in C++ work?

  - by Jack

  I am using gcc. Please tell me if I am wrong - Lets say I have two classes A & B class A { public: A(){cout<<"A constructor"<<endl;} ~A(){cout<<"A destructor"<<endl;} }; class B:public A { public: B(){cout<<"B constructor"<<endl;} ~B(){cout<<"B destructor"<<endl;} }; 1) The first line in B's constructor should be a call to A's constructor ( I assume compiler automatically inserts it). Also the last line in B's destructor will be a call to A's destructor (compiler does it again). Why was it built this way? 2) When I say A * a = new B(); compiler creates a new B object and checks to see if A is a base class of B and if it is it allows 'a' to point to the newly created object. I guess that is why we don't need any virtual constructors. ( with help from @Tyler McHenry , @Konrad Rudolph) 3) When I write delete a compiler sees that a is an object of type A so it calls A's destructor leading to a problem which is solved by making A's destructor virtual. As user - Little Bobby Tables pointed out to me all destructors have the same name destroy() in memory so we can implement virtual destructors and now the call is made to B's destructor and all is well in C++ land. Please comment.

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• C++ destructor problem with boost::scoped_ptr

  - by bb-generation

  I have a question about the following code: #include <iostream> #include <boost/scoped_ptr.hpp> class Interface { }; class A : public Interface { public: A() { std::cout << "A()" << std::endl; } virtual ~A() { std::cout << "~A()" << std::endl; } }; Interface* get_a() { A* a = new A; return a; } int main() { { std::cout << "1" << std::endl; boost::scoped_ptr<Interface> x(get_a()); std::cout << "2" << std::endl; } std::cout << "3" << std::endl; } It creates the following output: 1 A() 2 3 As you can see, it doesn't call the destructor of A. The only way I see to get the destructor of A being called, is to add a destructor for the Interface class like this: virtual ~Interface() { } But I really want to avoid any Implementation in my Interface class and virtual ~Interface() = 0; doesn't work (produces some linker errors complaining about a non existing implementation of ~Interface(). So my question is: What do I have to change in order to make the destructor being called, but (if possible) leave the Interface as an Interface (only abstract methods).

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• How to "wrap" implementation in C#

  - by igor

  Hello, I have these classes in C# (.NET Framework 3.5) described below: public class Base { public int State {get; set;} public virtual int Method1(){} public virtual string Method2(){} ... public virtual void Method10(){} } public class B: Base { // some implementation } public class Proxy: Base { private B _b; public class Proxy(B b) { _b = b; } public override int Method1() { if (State == Running) return _b.Method1(); else return base.Method1(); } public override string Method2() { if (State == Running) return _b.Method2(); else return base.Method2(); } public override void Method10() { if (State == Running) _b.Method10(); else base.Method10(); } } I want to get something this: public Base GetStateDependentImplementation() { if (State == Running) // may be some other rule return _b; else return base; // compile error } and my Proxy's implementation will be: public class Proxy: Base { ... public override int Method1() { return GetStateDependentImplementation().Method1(); } public override string Method2() { return GetStateDependentImplementation().Method2(); } ... } Of course, I can do this (aggregation of base implementation): public RepeaterOfBase: Base // no any overrides, just inheritance { } public class Proxy: Base { private B _b; private RepeaterOfBase _Base; public class Proxy(B b, RepeaterOfBase aBase) { _b = b; _base = aBase; } } ... public Base GetStateDependentImplementation() { if (State == Running) return _b; else return _Base; } ... But instance of Base class is very huge and I have to avoid to have other additional copy in memory. So I have to simplify my code have to "wrap" implementation have to avoid a code duplication have to avoid aggregation of any additional instance of Base class (duplication) Is it possible to reach these goals?

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• Nhibernate Fluent domain Object with Id(x => x.id).GeneratedBy.Assigned not saveable

  - by urpcor

  Hi there, I am using for some legacy db the corresponding domainclasses with mappings. Now the Ids of the entities are calculated by some stored Procedure in the DB which gives back the Id for the new row.(Its legacy, I cant change this) Now I create the new entity , set the Id and Call Save. But nothing happens. no exeption. Even NH Profiler does not say a bit. its as the Save call does nothing. I expect that NH thinks that the record is already in the db because its got an Id already. But I am using Id(x = x.id).GeneratedBy.Assigned() and intetionally the Session.Save(object) method. I am confused. I saw so many samples there it worked. does any body have any ideas about it? public class Appendix { public virtual int id { get; set; } public virtual AppendixHierarchy AppendixHierachy { get; set; } public virtual byte[] appendix { get; set; } } public class AppendixMap : ClassMap<Appendix> { public AppendixMap () { WithTable("appendix"); Id(x => x.id).GeneratedBy.Assigned(); References(x => x.AppendixHierachy).ColumnName("appendixHierarchyId"); Map(x => x.appendix); } }

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• Entity Framework 1:1 Relationship Identity Colums

  - by Hupperware

  I cannot for the life of me get two separate tables to save with a relationship and two identity columns. I keep getting errors like A dependent property in a ReferentialConstraint is mapped to a store-generated column. Column: 'OlsTerminalId'. I can't imagine that this setup is abnormal. [DataContract] public class OlsData { private static readonly DateTime theUnixEpoch = new DateTime(1970, 1, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, DateTimeKind.Utc); [DatabaseGenerated(DatabaseGeneratedOption.Identity)] public int OlsDataId { get; set; } [DataMember(Name = "id")] public int Id { get; set; } public DateTime Timestamp { get; set; } [DataMember(Name = "created")] [NotMapped] public double Created { get { return (Timestamp - theUnixEpoch).TotalMilliseconds; } set { Timestamp = theUnixEpoch.AddMilliseconds(value); } } [InverseProperty("OlsData")] [DataMember(Name = "terminal")] public virtual OlsTerminal OlsTerminal { get; set; } } [DataContract] public class OlsTerminal { [DatabaseGenerated(DatabaseGeneratedOption.Identity)] public int OlsTerminalId { get; set; } public int OlsDataId { get; set; } [DataMember(Name = "account")] [NotMapped] public virtual OlsAccount OlsAccount { get; set; } [DataMember(Name = "terminalId")] public string TerminalId { get; set; } [DataMember(Name = "merchantId")] public string MerchantId { get; set; } public virtual OlsData OlsData { get; set; } } public class OlsDataContext : DbContext { protected override void OnModelCreating(DbModelBuilder aModelBuilder) { aModelBuilder.Conventions.Remove<PluralizingTableNameConvention>(); } public OlsDataContext(string aConnectionString) : base(aConnectionString) {} public DbSet<OlsData> OlsData { get; set; } public DbSet<OlsTerminal> OlsTerminal { get; set; } public DbSet<OlsAccount> OlsAccount { get; set; } }

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• c++ specialized overload?

  - by acidzombie24

  -edit- i am trying to close the question. i solved the problem with boost::is_base_and_derived In my class i want to do two things. 1) Copy int, floats and other normal values 2) Copy structs that supply a special copy function (template T copyAs(); } the struct MUST NOT return int's unless i explicitly say ints. I do not want the programmer mistaking the mistake by doing int a = thatClass; -edit- someone mention classes dont return anything, i mean using the operator Type() overload. How do i create my copy operator in such a way i can copy both 1) ints, floats etc and the the struct restricted in the way i mention in 2). i tried doing template <class T2> T operator = (const T2& v); which would cover my ints, floats etc. But how would it differentiate from structs? so i wrote T operator = (const SomeGenericBase& v); The idea was the GenericBase would be unsed instead then i can do v.Whatever. But that backfires bc the functions i want wouldnt exist, unless i use virtual, but virtual templates dont exist. Also i would hate to use virtual I think the solution is to get rid of ints and have it convert to something that can do .as(). So i wrote something up but now i have the same problem, how does that differentiate ints and structs that have the .as() function template?

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• [c++] - Help about class and error: C3861

  - by Chelsea_cole

  Can someone help me in this error? in "cDef.h" : #pragma once class cDef { public: static int STATE_LOGO; static int STATE_MENU; static int MESSAGE_ENTER; static int MESSAGE_UPDATE; static int MESSAGE_PAINT; static int MESSAGE_EXIT; }; in "GameState.h": #pragma once #ifndef _GameState_ #define _GameState_ #include "cDef.h" class MainGame; class GameState; class GameState { public: MainGame *mg; int GAME_STATE_DEF; virtual void MessengeEnter(int message) = 0; virtual void MessengeUpdate(int message,int keys) = 0; virtual void MessengePaint(int message,CDC *pDc) = 0; void StateHandler(int message,CDC *pDc,int keys); public: GameState(void); public: ~GameState(void); }; #endif in "GameState.cpp": #include "StdAfx.h" #include "GameState.h" GameState::GameState(void) { GAME_STATE_DEF = -1; } GameState::~GameState(void) { } void GameState::StateHandler(int message,CDC *pDc,int keys) { if(message == cDef.MESSAGE_ENTER) { MessageEnter(message); } if(message == cDef.MESSAGE_UPDATE) { MessageUpdate(message,keys); } if(message == cDef.MESSAGE_PAINT) { MessagePaint(message,pDC); } } error: warning C4832: token '.' is illegal after UDT 'cDef' see declaration of 'cDef' error C3861: 'MessageUpdate': identifier not found error C3861: 'MessageEnter': identifier not found error C3861: 'MessagePaint': identifier not found ..... Thanks in advance!

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• How do I organize C# classes that inherit from one another, but also have properties that inherit from one another?

  - by Chris

  I have an application that has a concept of a Venue, a place where events happen. A Venue is owned by a Company and has many VenueParts. So, it looks like this: public abstract class Venue { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public virtual Company Company { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<VenuePart> VenueParts { get; set; } } A Venue can be a GolfCourseVenue, which is a Venue that has a Slope and a specific kind of VenuePart called a HoleVenuePart: public class GolfCourseVenue { public string Slope { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<HoleVenuePart> Holes { get; set; } } In the future, there may also be other kinds of Venues that all inherit from Venue. They might add their own fields, and will always have VenueParts of their own specific type. My declarations above seem wrong, because now I have a GolfCourseVenue with two collections, when really it should just have the one. I can't override it, because the type is different, right? When I run reports, I would like to refer to the classes generically, where I just spit out Venues and VenueParts. But, when I render forms and such, I would like to be specific. I have a lot of relationships like this and am wondering what I am doing wrong. For example, I have an Order that has OrderItems, but also specific kinds of Orders that have specific kinds of OrderItems.

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• FluentNHibernate error -- "Invalid object name"

  - by goober

  I'm attempting to do the most simple of mappings with FluentNHibernate & Sql2005. Basically, I have a database table called "sv_Categories". I'd like to add a category, setting the ID automatically, and adding the userid and title supplied. Database table layout: CategoryID -- int -- not-null, primary key, auto-incrementing UserID -- uniqueidentifier -- not null Title -- varchar(50) -- not null Simple. My SessionFactory code (which works, as far as I can tell): _SessionFactory = Fluently.Configure().Database( MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2005 .ConnectionString(c => c.FromConnectionStringWithKey("SVTest"))) .Mappings(x => x.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<CategoryMap>()) .BuildSessionFactory(); My ClassMap code: public class CategoryMap : ClassMap<Category> { public CategoryMap() { Id(x => x.ID).Column("CategoryID").Unique(); Map(x => x.Title).Column("Title").Not.Nullable(); Map(x => x.UserID).Column("UserID").Not.Nullable(); } } My Class code: public class Category { public virtual int ID { get; private set; } public virtual string Title { get; set; } public virtual Guid UserID { get; set; } public Category() { // do nothing } } And the page where I save the object: public void Add(Category catToAdd) { using (ISession session = SessionProvider.GetSession()) { using (ITransaction Transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { session.Save(catToAdd); Transaction.Commit(); } } } I receive the error Invalid object name 'Category'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Invalid object name 'Category'. I think it might be that I haven't told the CategoryMap class to use the "sv_Categories" table, but I'm not sure how to do that. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks!

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• Asp.Net MVC3 - How create Dynamic DropDownList

  - by Bibo

  I found many articles on this but still I don´t know how exactly to do this. I am trying to create my own blog engine, I have View for create article (I am using EF and Code first) and now I must fill number of category in which article should be add but I want to change it to dropdownlist with names of categories. My model looks this: public class Article { public int ArticleID { get; set; } [Required] public string Title { get; set; } [Required] public int CategoryID { get; set; } public DateTime Date { get; set; } [Required()] [DataType(DataType.MultilineText)] [AllowHtml] public string Text { get; set; } public virtual Category Category { get; set; } public IEnumerable<SelectListItem> Categories { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Comment> Comments { get; set; } } public class Category { public int CategoryID { get; set; } [Required] public string Name { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Article> Articles { get; set; } } I know I must use Enum (or I think) but I am not exactly sure how. I don´t know which tutorial from that I found is best for me.

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• How to find unmapped properties in a NHibernate mapped class?

  - by haarrrgh

  I just had a NHibernate related problem where I forgot to map one property of a class. A very simplified example: public class MyClass { public virtual int ID { get; set; } public virtual string SomeText { get; set; } public virtual int SomeNumber { get; set; } } ...and the mapping file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="MyAssembly" namespace="MyAssembly.MyNamespace"> <class name="MyClass" table="SomeTable"> <property name="ID" /> <property name="SomeText" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping> In this simple example, you can see the problem at once: there is a property named "SomeNumber" in the class, but not in the mapping file. So NHibernate will not map it and it will always be zero. The real class had a lot more properties, so the problem was not as easy to see and it took me quite some time to figure out why SomeNumber always returned zero even though I was 100% sure that the value in the database was != zero. So, here is my question: Is there some simple way to find this out via NHibernate? Like a compiler warning when a class is mapped, but some of its properties are not. Or some query that I can run that shows me unmapped properties in mapped classes...you get the idea. (Plus, it would be nice if I could exclude some legacy columns that I really don't want mapped.)

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• Base class Undefined WEIRD problem . Need help

  - by nXqd

  My CGameStateLogo which inherit from CGameState: CGameStateLogo.h #pragma once #include "GameState.h" class CGameMain; class CGameState; class CGameStateLogo: public CGameState { public: void MessageEnter (); void MessageUpdate( int iKey ); void MessagePaint( HDC* pDC ); public: CGameStateLogo(CGameMain* pGameMain); CGameStateLogo(void); ~CGameStateLogo(void); }; CGameState.h #pragma once #include "GameMain.h" #include "MyBitmap.h" class CGameMain; class CMyBitmap; class CGameState { public: CMyBitmap* pbmCurrent; CGameMain* pGM; int GameStateID; virtual void MessageEnter () = 0; virtual void MessageUpdate( int iKey ) = 0; virtual void MessagePaint( HDC* pDC ) = 0; void StateHandler ( int msg, HDC* pDC, int key ); public: CGameState(void); ~CGameState(void); }; Thanks for reading this :)

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• Can you explain this generics behavior and if I have a workaround?

  - by insta

  Sample program below: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace GenericsTest { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { IRetrievable<int, User> repo = new FakeRepository(); Console.WriteLine(repo.Retrieve(35)); } } class User { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } class FakeRepository : BaseRepository<User>, ICreatable<User>, IDeletable<User>, IRetrievable<int, User> { // why do I have to implement this here, instead of letting the // TKey generics implementation in the baseclass handle it? //public User Retrieve(int input) //{ // throw new NotImplementedException(); //} } class BaseRepository<TPoco> where TPoco : class,new() { public virtual TPoco Create() { return new TPoco(); } public virtual bool Delete(TPoco item) { return true; } public virtual TPoco Retrieve<TKey>(TKey input) { return null; } } interface ICreatable<TPoco> { TPoco Create(); } interface IDeletable<TPoco> { bool Delete(TPoco item); } interface IRetrievable<TKey, TPoco> { TPoco Retrieve(TKey input); } } This sample program represents the interfaces my actual program uses, and demonstrates the problem I'm having (commented out in FakeRepository). I would like for this method call to be generically handled by the base class (which in my real example is able to handle 95% of the cases given to it), allowing for overrides in the child classes by specifying the type of TKey explicitly. It doesn't seem to matter what parameter constraints I use for the IRetrievable, I can never get the method call to fall through to the base class. Also, if anyone can see an alternate way to implement this kind of behavior and get the result I'm ultimately looking for, I would be very interested to see it. Thoughts?

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• EF Code First, how can I achieve two foreign keys from one table to other table?

  - by Yoo Matsuo

  I've recently downloaded Entity Framework Code First CTP5, and have a trouble with this scenario. I have two tables as follows: Members table ID Name Comments table ID Comment CommentedMemberID CommentMemberID And, the data should be like the following: Members ID Name 1 Mike 2 John 3 Tom Comments ID Comment CommentedMemberID CommentMemberID 1 Good 1 2 2 Good 1 3 3 Bad 2 1 Then, I coded as shown below: public class Member { public int ID {get; set; } public string Name { get; set;} public virtual ICollection Comments { get; set;} } public class Comment { public int ID { get; set; } public string Comment { get; set; } public int CommentedMemberID { get; set; } public int CommentMemberID{ get; set; } public virtual Member CommentedMember { get; set; } public virtual Member CommentMember { get; set; } } public class TestContext : DbContext { public DbSet Members { get; set; } public DbSet Comments { get; set; } } But when I run these models on my cshtml, it gives me errors saying "Cannot create CommentMember instance" or something like that (Sorry, I already changed my models to proceed the EF Code First evaluation, so can't reproduce the same error). I've also tried to use OnModelCreating on the TestContext, but can't find any good instructions and don't know what to do. I saw a blog post of the EF Code First CTP3, and it seems there was a RelatedTo attribute in that version, but now it has gone. Could anyone know how to get it work properly? Or is this a totally wrong way to go with this scenario? Thanks, Yoo

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• Context path routing in Tomcat ( service swapping )

  - by jojovilco

  Here is what I would like to achieve: I have a web service A which I want to be able to deploy side by side with other web services of type A - different version(s). For now I assume 2 instances side by side. I need it because the service has a warm up stage, which takes some time to build up stuff from DB and only after it is ready it can start serving requests ... I was thinking to deploy to Tomcat context paths like: "/ServiceA-1.0", "/ServiceA-2.0" and then have a "virtual" context like "/ServiceA" which will point to the desired physical service e.g. "/ServiceA-1.0". So external world will know about ServiceA, but internally, my ServiceA related stack would know about versioned ServiceA url ( there are more components involved but only ServiceA is serving outer world ). When new service is ready, I would just reconfigure the "virtual" context to point to a new service. So far, I was not able to find out how to do this with Tomcat and starting to tkink it is not possible. I found suggestions to place Apache Server in front of Tomcat and do the routing there, but I do not want to enroll another piece of software unless necessary. My questions are: - is this kind of a "virtual" context and routing possible to do with Tomcat? - any other options, wisdom and lessons learned how to achieve this kind of service swapping scenario? Best, Jozef

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• Programmatically add an ISAPI extension dll in IIS 7 using ADSI?

  - by fretje

  I apologize beforehand, this is a cross post of this SO question. I thought I'd ask it there first, but apparently it doesn't harvest any answers there. I hope it will get more attention here. When I have an answer somewhere, I'll delete the other one. I'm trying to programmatically add an ISAPI extension dll in IIS using ADSI. This has been working for ages on previous versions of IIS, but it seems to fail on IIS 7. I am using similar code like shown in this question: var web = GetObject("IIS://localhost/W3SVC/1/ROOT/specificVirtualDirectory"); var maps = web.ScriptMaps.toArray(); map[maps.length] = ".aaa,c:\\path\\to\\isapi\\extension.dll,1,GET,POST"; web.ScriptMaps = maps.asDictionary(); web.SetInfo(); After executing that code, I do see an "AboMapperCustom-12345678" entry for that specific dll in the "Handler mappings" of the specific virtual directory in which I added the script map. But when I try to use that extension in a browser, I always get HTTP Error 404.2 Not Found The page you are requesting cannot be served because of the ISAPI and CGI Restriction list settings on the Web server. Even after adding an entry to allow that specific dll in the "ISAPI and CGI restrictions", I keep getting that error. To make it actually work, I first have to undo these steps (encountering the same issue like the OP of the question mentioned above: after deleting the script map entry from the IIS manager GUI, I also have to programmatically delete it using ADSI before it's actually gone from the metabase). And then manually add an entry like this: inetmgr - webserver - website - virtual directory - handler mappings - add script map... path = *.dll, executable = <path to dll>, name = <doesn't matter, but it's mandatory> click "yes" on the question "do you want to allow this ISAPI extension?" When I compare the 2 entries, they are exactly the same, except for the "Entry Type" which seems to be "Inherited" for the programmatically added one and "Local" for the one added manually. The strange thing is, even though it says "Inherited", I don't see it anywhere in IIS on a higher level. Where is it inheriting from? In my code, I do add the script map to the specific virtual directory so it should be "Local" as well. Maybe there is the problem, but I don't know how to add a "Local" Script Map using ADSI. I really would like to keep using the ADSI method, as otherwise I will have to use different methods in our setup when working with IIS 7 or previous versions, and I would like to avoid that. To recap: How can I programmatically add a script map entry and its companion CGI and ISAPI restrictions entry to IIS 7 using ADSI? Anybody who can shed some light on this? Any help appreciated.

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• How to debug Ubuntu/Cisco VPN issues

  - by Joe Casadonte

  I'm trying to connect an Ubuntu laptop (9.10) with some kind of Cisco VPN device; I don't know what's on the other end, and I'm not likely to find out exactly what. I know my company allows VPN from Linux clients because they provide one that I cannot get to install (it fails to compile). I've had the most luck with the network-manager-vpnc package, however I can't figure out what's failing. When I try to connect, I get this message from libnotify: The VPN connection 'XXX' failed. which is not very helpful. I've scoured the system logs and all I can find is this: Dec 27 12:57:45 jcasadon-lap NetworkManager: <info> Starting VPN service 'org.freedesktop.NetworkManager.vpnc'... Dec 27 12:57:45 jcasadon-lap NetworkManager: <info> VPN service 'org.freedesktop.NetworkManager.vpnc' started (org.freedesktop.NetworkManager.vpnc), PID 2672 Dec 27 12:57:45 jcasadon-lap NetworkManager: <info> VPN service 'org.freedesktop.NetworkManager.vpnc' just appeared, activating connections Dec 27 12:58:00 jcasadon-lap NetworkManager: <info> VPN plugin state changed: 3 Dec 27 12:58:00 jcasadon-lap NetworkManager: <info> VPN connection 'AmericasEast' (Connect) reply received. Dec 27 12:58:00 jcasadon-lap NetworkManager: SCPlugin-Ifupdown: devices added (path: /sys/devices/virtual/net/tun0, iface: tun0) Dec 27 12:58:00 jcasadon-lap kernel: [ 6144.529002] tun0: Disabled Privacy Extensions Dec 27 12:58:00 jcasadon-lap NetworkManager: SCPlugin-Ifupdown: device added (path: /sys/devices/virtual/net/tun0, iface: tun0): no ifupdown configuration found. Dec 27 12:58:15 jcasadon-lap NetworkManager: SCPlugin-Ifupdown: devices removed (path: /sys/devices/virtual/net/tun0, iface: tun0) Dec 27 12:58:15 jcasadon-lap NetworkManager: <info> VPN plugin failed: 1 Dec 27 12:58:15 jcasadon-lap NetworkManager: <info> VPN plugin state changed: 6 Dec 27 12:58:15 jcasadon-lap NetworkManager: <info> VPN plugin state change reason: 0 Dec 27 12:58:15 jcasadon-lap NetworkManager: <WARN> connection_state_changed(): Could not process the request because no VPN connection was active. Dec 27 12:58:15 jcasadon-lap NetworkManager: <info> (wlan0): writing resolv.conf to /sbin/resolvconf Dec 27 12:58:15 jcasadon-lap NetworkManager: <info> Policy set 'Northbound Train' (wlan0) as default for routing and DNS. Dec 27 12:58:27 jcasadon-lap NetworkManager: <debug> [1261936707.002971] ensure_killed(): waiting for vpn service pid 2672 to exit Dec 27 12:58:27 jcasadon-lap NetworkManager: <debug> [1261936707.003175] ensure_killed(): vpn service pid 2672 cleaned up I have no idea where to go from here. Tomorrow I'll ask the IT/IS guys if there's anything they can tell me from their end, but I don't know if they'll be able to tell me anything. Any ideas? Thanks!

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• MacBook Pro - 7200 vs 5400 rpm drives - Heat and Noise

  - by webworm

  I am looking at a new 15" MacBook Pro for development purposes. I am planning to run a Virtual Machine for about 50% of my work (Windows 7 x64, IIS, SQL Server, and VS 2010). The upgrade from a 5400 rpm drive to a 7200 rpm is only $45. From what I understand the faster rotational speed of the 7200 rpm drive will help virtual machine performance. However, I am concerned that additional heat and fan noise might be an issue. I will be running mostly on A/C power so decreased battery life is not a major concern for me. Since I would be running with a Core i7 processor which gives off a fair amount of heat already I was wondering if it might be best to stay at 5400 rpm for the hard drive. What do you all think? Thanks!

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• VMware Player loses internet connectivity

  - by Martha

  Periodically, the internet simply stops working in my virtual machine, and the only way I can get it working again is to restart the host computer. Since I use the virtual machine specifically for testing web pages, this is, shall we say, a bother. Details: I have Windows XP Pro running in VMware Player (v. 3.0.0 build-203739) on a Windows 7 host. It's set to NAT (shared IP address) because the firewall won't allow a bridged connection. Every couple of days or so, first the internet slows down to a crawl, then eventually it stops working altogether. Both VMWare and the virtual OS report that they are connected, everything looks just peachy, I can reach the internet from the host, but on the VM, all web pages time out and/or report that the server could not be found. (Browser-independent; tried with IE, FF, Chrome, Safari, and Opera.) When this happens, the only way I've found to restore the internet connectivity is to restart the host machine. Restarting the VM doesn't help, nor does refreshing network connections on either the host or the guest. (Although I'm not entirely sure I've found the proper way to refresh a network connection in Windows 7...) I have not noticed any predictability about when the problem occurs, i.e. it's not immediately after I do anything special. It seems to occur mostly after putting the host to sleep once or twice, but it has happened even if the host has been in continuous use. It also seems independent of when I start using the VM - sometimes, I wake up the VM and the internet is really slow in it, then eventually stops working altogether; other times, I wake up the VM, use it perfectly happily for a while, then suddenly the internet is gone. Does anyone know why this is occurring? Failing that, is there a workaround that's less drastic than restarting the host? (Windows 7 startup times are blazingly fast compared to previous versions of Windows, but it's still a hassle to close all my programs and reopen them again.) Edit: while badges overall are nice, the Tumbleweed badge isn't helping me to solve my problem. Hasn't anyone encountered anything even remotely similar?

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• Ubuntu keyboard detection from bash script

  - by Ryan Brubaker

  Excuse my ignorance of linux OS/hardware issues...I'm just a programmer :) I have an application that calls out to some bash scripts to launch external applications, in this case Firefox. The application runs on a kiosk with touch screen capability. When launching Firefox, I also launch a virtual keyboard application that allows the user to have keyboard input. However, the kiosk also has both PS/2 and USB slots that would allow a user to plug-in a keyboard. If a keyboard were plugged in, it would be nice if I didn't have to launch the virtual keyboard and provide more screen space for the Firefox window. Is there a way for me to detect if a keyboard is plugged in from the bash script? Would it show up in /dev, and if so, would it show up at a consistent location? Would it make a difference if the user used a PS/2 or USB keyboard? Thanks!

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• Hardware firewall vs VMWare firewall appliance

  - by Luke

  We have a debate in our office going on whether it's necessary to get a hardware firewall or set up a virtual one on our VMWare cluster. Our environment consists of 3 server nodes (16 cores w/ 64 GB RAM each) over 2x 1 GB switches w/ an iSCSI shared storage array. Assuming that we would be dedicating resources to the VMWare appliances, would we have any benefit of choosing a hardware firewall over a virtual one? If we choose to use a hardware firewall, how would a dedicated server firewall w/ something like ClearOS compare to a Cisco firewall?

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• Dual Exchange 2010 on different VM + single public IP + multiple domains

  - by Shivan Raptor

  Here is the scenario: I have 2 Exchange Server 2010 on 2 different Virtual Machines, created by and based on Hyper-V. They have IP and domain: 192.168.5.11, domainA.com ; and 192.168.5.12, domainB.com respectively. The problem is, I only have 1 public IP, say 123.123.1.1 . How do I configure the settings so that I can successfully receive emails using both Exchange servers? Given that I cannot use single Exchange server for multiple domains. -- UPDATE -- To clarify, the domainA.com and domainB.com mentioned above are website domains, instead of multiple Active Directory forests. Users of the two Exchange Server shares the same Active Directory. I know that ONE Exchange Server can handle multiple domains, but I would like to separate them into different Virtual Machines, for load balancing and data separation.

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• vSphere Client vCenter Template Customization Specification Using Windows Sysprep Unattended Answer XML File

  - by Brian

  I'm trying to setup a vSphere Client vCenter v5.0.0 Build 455964 Template Customization Specification using a Windows Sysprep unattended answer XML file for Win2008R2. However I didn't know how Sysprep worked before attempting this so it was a time-consuming nightmare (even after reviewing VMware vSphere ESXi 5's documentation)! I think I've figure out what I'm supposed to be doing, but it's still not working. The biggest problem at this point is that vSphere Client vCenter Customization Specification IP address information is not sticking when I load a Sysprep XML file with just 1 basic setting! This can only be a bug. Here is the process I'm using: PROCESS for Windows - vSphere Client Install Windows OS install VM Tools customize Windows (GPOs can be used to do this after deployment) install Applications (GPOs can be used to do this after deployment too) shutdown the VM convert the VM to a template create a custom Windows Sysprep XML answer file with desired customizations View Management Customization Specifications Manager create "New" Specification for "Target Virtual Machine OS" select Windows check "Use Custom Sysprep Answer File" (ADDS: Custom Sysprep File. KEEPS: Network (IP), Operating System Options (SID, Sysprep /generalize). REPLACES: Registration Information of Owner Name & Organization, Computer Name, Windows License (Key), Administrator Password, Time Zone, Run Once, Workgroup or Domain) name it as "VMwareCS-OS####R#x32/64w/Sysprep-TEST" (CS=Customization Specification) set Description as "Created YYYY/MM/DD by FLast" NEXT import a Sysprep answer file from secure location NEXT Custom settings NEXT click "..." box to right of "Use DHCP" set "Use the following IP settings:" for "IP Address" fill out the first 2 octets set appropriate values for other 2-3 fields set DNS server addresses OK NEXT check "Generate New Security ID (SID)" ALWAYS as template is likely a domain-member computer so it can be updated occasionally NEXT Finish View Inventory VMs and Templates right-click previously completed template Deploy Virtual Machine from this Template provide the new OS name (max15char) select inventory location NEXT select Host/Cluster (wait for validation to succeed) NEXT select Resource Pool (wait for validation to succeed) NEXT select Storage location NEXT check "Power on this virtual machine after creation" select "Customize using an existing customization specification" select desired specification select "Use the Customization Wizard to temporarily adjust the specification before deployment" NEXT NEXT Custom settings? NEXT check "Generate New Security ID (SID)" ALWAYS as template is likely a domain-member computer so it can be updated occasionally NEXT Finish Finish. I know a community member named "brian" (http://serverfault.com/users/25904/brian) has worked with this scenario before, but I couldn't figure out how to contact him directly, so Brian if you see this message could you provide some information to help? Thanks, Brian

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