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• Start Time & Calculated Column Wonkiness in a SharePoint Event Calendar

  - by _zekeMouseOver

  I was creating some custom rollups on some of our event calendars and came across a very odd bug when trying to grab only the date component of the built-in Start Time field. One's first inclination will be to create a calculated column and give it the formula... =[Start Time]... and then assign its output type to be "Date Only." This works well until a user adds an All Day Event. For reasons unexplainable, the All Day Event flag causes your =[Start Time] to display the date minus one day. Here is an example of this in action:  Start Date and Time, Duration, Start Date Value and Start Day are all calculated fields. Notice how the Start Date and Time (=[Start Time]) is reporting 6:00PM of the previous day. The Start Date Value (=[Start Time] - Output Type: Number) confirms this (.75 = 6:00 PM.) Curiously enough, the Duration (=[End Time]-[Start Time]) is properly reporting the duration between 12:00AM and 11:59PM. Why? I don't know. Perhaps it's somehow bound to the regional settings on the site, but I'm not interested in changing a global site setting for the sake of one calculated field.With this information at our disposal, our calculated column to display the date part of the start date needs to be modified to add one day to the [Start Time] field if an All Day Event is selected. To determine this, we use the Duration above to assume the item is an all-day event and change our formula to be:=IF(TEXT(([End Time]-[Start Time])-TRUNC(([End Time]-[Start Time]),0),"0.000000000")="0.999305556",[Start Time] + 1, [Start Time])This will work, but what happens when the user de-selects the "All Day Event" checkbox? The duration stays the same, but all other values begin reporting the correct time: Since our formula above is strictly based on an expected duration, it will add one to the correct date, causing the date 5/11/2010 to appear. Notice though that the raw value of the start time (in this case) is a non-fractional number (40,308) whereas the all-day event was being represented as 6:00 PM (.75) of the previous day. We can use this to add one more nested branch of logic to our calculation:=IF(TEXT(([End Time]-[Start Time])-TRUNC(([End Time]-[Start Time]),0),"0.000000000")="0.999305556",IF([Start Time]=ROUND([Start Time],0),[Start Time],[Start Time]+1),[Start Time]) I feel somewhat... dirty about having to resort to this kind of calculation in what SHOULD have been a simple =[Start Time] to extract the date part of the Start Time field, but there you have it. Make sure to shower extra longer after having used it.

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• Real-Time Multi-User Gaming Platform

  - by Victor Engel

  I asked this question at Stack Overflow but was told it's more appropriate here, so I'm posting it again here. I'm considering developing a real-time multi-user game, and I want to gather some information about possibilities before I do some real development. I've thought about how best to ask the question, and for simplicity, the best way that occurred to me was to make an analogy to the field (or playground) game darebase. In the field game of darebase, there are two or more bases. To start, there is one team on each base. The game is a fancy game of tag. When two people meet out in the field, the person who left his base most recently timewise captures the other person. They then return to that person's base. Play continues until everyone is part of the same team. So, analogizing this to an online computer game, let's suppose there are an indefinite number of bases. When a person starts up the game, he has a team that is located at, for example, his current GPS coordinates. It could be a virtual world, but for sake of argument, let's suppose the virtual world corresponds to the player's actual GPS coordinates. The game software then consults the database to see where the closest other base is that is online, and the two teams play their game of virtual tag. Note that the user of the other base could have a different base than the one run by the current user as the closest base to him, in which case, he would be in two simultaneous battles, one with each base. When they go offline, the state of their players is saved on a server somewhere. Game logic calls for the players to have some automaton-logic of some sort, so they can fend for themselves in a limited way using basic rules, until their user goes online again. The user doesn't control the players' movements directly, but issues general directives that influence the players' movement logic. I think this analogy is good enough to frame my question. What sort of platforms are available to develop this sort of game? I've been looking at smartfoxserver, but I'm not convinced yet that it is the best option or even that it will work at all. One possibility, of course, would be to roll out my own web server, but I'd rather not do that if there is an existing service out there already that I could tap into. I will be developing for iOS devices at first. So any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. I think I need to establish the architecture first before proceeding with this project. Note that darbase is not the game I intend to implement, but, upon reflection, that might not be a bad idea either.

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• Is code like this a "train wreck" (in violation of Law of Demeter)?

  - by Michael Kjörling

  Browsing through some code I've written, I came across the following construct which got me thinking. At a first glance, it seems clean enough. Yes, in the actual code the getLocation() method has a slightly more specific name which better describes exactly which location it gets. service.setLocation(this.configuration.getLocation().toString()); In this case, service is an instance variable of a known type, declared within the method. this.configuration comes from being passed in to the class constructor, and is an instance of a class implementing a specific interface (which mandates a public getLocation() method). Hence, the return type of the expression this.configuration.getLocation() is known; specifically in this case, it is a java.net.URL, whereas service.setLocation() wants a String. Since the two types String and URL are not directly compatible, some sort of conversion is required to fit the square peg in the round hole. However, according to the Law of Demeter as cited in Clean Code, a method f in class C should only call methods on C, objects created by or passed as arguments to f, and objects held in instance variables of C. Anything beyond that (the final toString() in my particular case above, unless you consider a temporary object created as a result of the method invocation itself, in which case the whole Law seems to be moot) is disallowed. Is there a valid reasoning why a call like the above, given the constraints listed, should be discouraged or even disallowed? Or am I just being overly nitpicky? If I were to implement a method URLToString() which simply calls toString() on a URL object (such as that returned by getLocation()) passed to it as a parameter, and returns the result, I could wrap the getLocation() call in it to achieve exactly the same result; effectively, I would just move the conversion one step outward. Would that somehow make it acceptable? (It seems to me, intuitively, that it should not make any difference either way, since all that does is move things around a little. However, going by the letter of the Law of Demeter as cited, it would be acceptable, since I would then be operating directly on a parameter to a function.) Would it make any difference if this was about something slightly more exotic than calling toString() on a standard type? When answering, do keep in mind that altering the behavior or API of the type that the service variable is of is not practical. Also, for the sake of argument, let's say that altering the return type of getLocation() is also impractical.

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• Am I deluding myself? Business analyst transition to programmer

  - by Ryan

  Current job: Working as the lead business analyst for a Big 4 firm, leading a team of developers and testers working on a large scale re-platforming project (4 onshore dev, 4 offshore devs, several onshore/offshore testers). Also work in a similar capacity on other smaller scale projects. Extent of my role: Gathering/writing out requirements, creating functional specifications, designing the UI (basically mapping out all front-end aspects of the system), working closely with devs to communicate/clarify requirements and come up with solutions when we hit roadblocks, writing test cases (and doing much of the testing), working with senior management and key stakeholders, managing beta testers, creating user guides and leading training sessions, providing key technical support. I also write quite a few macros in Excel using VBA (several of my macros are now used across the entire firm, so there are maybe around 1000 people using them) and use SQL on a daily basis, both on the SQL compact files the program relies on, our SQL Server data and any Access databases I create. The developers feel that I am quite good in this role because I understand a lot about programming, inherent system limitations, structure of the databases, etc so it's easier for me to communicate ideas and come up with suggestions when we face problems. What really interests me is developing software. I do a fair amount of programming in VBA and have been wanting to learn C# for awhile (the dev team uses C# - I review code occasionally for my own sake but have not had any practical experience using it). I'm interested in not just the business process but also the technical side of things, so the traditional BA role doesn't really whet my appetite for the kind of stuff I want to do. Right now I have a few small projects that managers have given me and I'm finding new ways to do them (like building custom Access applications), so there's a bit here and there to keep me interested. My question is this: what I would like to do is create custom Excel or Access applications for small businesses as a freelance business (working as a one-man shop; maybe having an occasional contractor depending on a project's complexity). This would obviously start out as a part-time venture while I have a day job, but eventually become a full-time job. Am I deluding myself to thinking I can go from BA/part-time VBA programmer to making a full-time go of a freelance business (where I would be starting out just writing custom Excel/Access apps in VBA)? Or is this type of thing not usually attempted until someone gains years of full-time programming experience? And is there even a market for these types of applications amongst small businesses (and maybe medium-sized) businesses?

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• How to keep a data structure synchronized over a network?

  - by David Gouveia

  Context In the game I'm working on (a sort of a point and click graphic adventure), pretty much everything that happens in the game world is controlled by an action manager that is structured a bit like: So for instance if the result of examining an object should make the character say hello, walk a bit and then sit down, I simply spawn the following code: var actionGroup = actionManager.CreateGroup(); actionGroup.Add(new TalkAction("Guybrush", "Hello there!"); actionGroup.Add(new WalkAction("Guybrush", new Vector2(300, 300)); actionGroup.Add(new SetAnimationAction("Guybrush", "Sit")); This creates a new action group (an entire line in the image above) and adds it to the manager. All of the groups are executed in parallel, but actions within each group are chained together so that the second one only starts after the first one finishes. When the last action in a group finishes, the group is destroyed. Problem Now I need to replicate this information across a network, so that in a multiplayer session, all players see the same thing. Serializing the individual actions is not the problem. But I'm an absolute beginner when it comes to networking and I have a few questions. I think for the sake of simplicity in this discussion we can abstract the action manager component to being simply: var actionManager = new List<List<string>>(); How should I proceed to keep the contents of the above data structure syncronized between all players? Besides the core question, I'm also having a few other concerns related to it (i.e. all possible implications of the same problem above): If I use a server/client architecture (with one of the players acting as both a server and a client), and one of the clients has spawned a group of actions, should he add them directly to the manager, or only send a request to the server, which in turn will order every client to add that group? What about packet losses and the like? The game is deterministic, but I'm thinking that any discrepancy in the sequence of actions executed in a client could lead to inconsistent states of the world. How do I safeguard against that sort of problem? What if I add too many actions at once, won't that cause problems for the connection? Any way to alleviate that?

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• How far should an entity take care of its properties values by itself?

  - by Kharlos Dominguez

  Let's consider the following example of a class, which is an entity that I'm using through Entity Framework. - InvoiceHeader - BilledAmount (property, decimal) - PaidAmount (property, decimal) - Balance (property, decimal) I'm trying to find the best approach to keep Balance updated, based on the values of the two other properties (BilledAmount and PaidAmount). I'm torn between two practices here: Updating the balance amount every time BilledAmount and PaidAmount are updated (through their setters) Having a UpdateBalance() method that the callers would run on the object when appropriate. I am aware that I can just calculate the Balance in its getter. However, it isn't really possible because this is an entity field that needs to be saved back to the database, where it has an actual column, and where the calculated amount should be persisted to. My other worry about the automatically updating approach is that the calculated values might be a little bit different from what was originally saved to the database, due to rounding values (an older version of the software, was using floats, but now decimals). So, loading, let's say 2000 entities from the database could change their status and make the ORM believe that they have changed and be persisted back to the database the next time the SaveChanges() method is called on the context. It would trigger a mass of updates that I am not really interested in, or could cause problems, if the calculation methods changed (the entities fetched would lose their old values to be replaced by freshly recalculated ones, simply by being loaded). Then, let's take the example even further. Each invoice has some related invoice details, which also have BilledAmount, PaidAmount and Balance (I'm simplifying my actual business case for the sake of the example, so let's assume the customer can pay each item of the invoice separately rather than as a whole). If we consider the entity should take care of itself, any change of the child details should cause the Invoice totals to change as well. In a fully automated approach, a simple implementation would be looping through each detail of the invoice to recalculate the header totals, every time one the property changes. It probably would be fine for just a record, but if a lot of entities were fetched at once, it could create a significant overhead, as it would perform this process every time a new invoice detail record is fetched. Possibly worse, if the details are not already loaded, it could cause the ORM to lazy-load them, just to recalculate the balances. So far, I went with the Update() method-way, mainly for the reasons I explained above, but I wonder if it was right. I'm noticing I have to keep calling these methods quite often and at different places in my code and it is potential source of bugs. It also has a detrimental effect on data-binding because when the properties of the detail or header changes, the other properties are left out of date and the method has no way to be called. What is the recommended approach in this case?

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• Why are my scene's depth values not being written to my DepthStencilView?

  - by dotminic

  I'm rendering to a depth map in order to use it as a shader resource view, but when I sample the depth map in my shader, the red component has a value of 1 while all other channels have a value of 0. The Texture2D I use to create the DepthStencilView is bound with the D3D11_BIND_DEPTH_STENCIL | D3D11_BIND_SHADER_RESOURCE flags, the DepthStencilView has the DXGI_FORMAT_D32_FLOAT format, and the ShaderResourceView's format is D3D11_SRV_DIMENSION_TEXTURE2D. I'm setting the depth map render target, then i'm drawing my scene, and once that is done, I'm the back buffer render target and depth stencil are set on the output merger, and I'm using the depth map shader resource view as a texture in my shader, but the depth value in the red channel is constantly 1. I'm not getting any runtime errors from D3D, and no compile time warning or anything. I'm not sure what I'm missing here at all. I have the impression the depth value is always being set to 1. I have not set any depth/stencil states, and AFAICT depth writing is enabled by default. The geometry is being rendered correctly so I'm pretty sure depth writing is enabled. The device is created with the appropriate debug flags; #if defined(DEBUG) || defined(_DEBUG) deviceFlags |= D3D11_CREATE_DEVICE_DEBUG | D3D11_RLDO_DETAIL; #endif This is how I create my depth map. I've omitted error checking for the sake of brevity D3D11_TEXTURE2D_DESC td; td.Width = width; td.Height = height; td.MipLevels = 1; td.ArraySize = 1; td.Format = DXGI_FORMAT_R32_TYPELESS; td.SampleDesc.Count = 1; td.SampleDesc.Quality = 0; td.Usage = D3D11_USAGE_DEFAULT; td.BindFlags = D3D11_BIND_DEPTH_STENCIL | D3D11_BIND_SHADER_RESOURCE; td.CPUAccessFlags = 0; td.MiscFlags = 0; _device->CreateTexture2D(&texDesc, 0, &this->_depthMap); D3D11_DEPTH_STENCIL_VIEW_DESC dsvd; ZeroMemory(&dsvd, sizeof(dsvd)); dsvd.Format = DXGI_FORMAT_D32_FLOAT; dsvd.ViewDimension = D3D11_DSV_DIMENSION_TEXTURE2D; dsvd.Texture2D.MipSlice = 0; _device->CreateDepthStencilView(this->_depthMap, &dsvd, &this->_dmapDSV); D3D11_SHADER_RESOURCE_VIEW_DESC srvd; srvd.Format = DXGI_FORMAT_R32_FLOAT; srvd.ViewDimension = D3D11_SRV_DIMENSION_TEXTURE2D; srvd.Texture2D.MipLevels = texDesc.MipLevels; srvd.Texture2D.MostDetailedMip = 0; _device->CreateShaderResourceView(this->_depthMap, &srvd, &this->_dmapSRV);

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• kubuntu: wireless manager can't find any networks

  - by timuçin

  I just installed Kubuntu 12.10 and as I knew my wireless driver would not be recognized, I installed it manually through here. I suppose I shall mention that I also had to do this. The driver worked just fine until I restarted my system. Since then I can't even start over. My wireless card is realtek 8723 The oly lead I have is this piece of log: 11/14/12 07:35:21 AM timucin-W150ER NetworkManager[989] <info> wpa_supplicant started 11/14/12 07:35:21 AM timucin-W150ER NetworkManager[989] <info> (wlan0) supports 4 scan SSIDs 11/14/12 07:35:21 AM timucin-W150ER NetworkManager[989] <info> (wlan0): supplicant interface state: starting -> ready 11/14/12 07:35:21 AM timucin-W150ER NetworkManager[989] <info> (wlan0): device state change: unavailable -> disconnected (reason 'supplicant-available') [20 30 42] 11/14/12 07:35:21 AM timucin-W150ER NetworkManager[989] <warn> Trying to remove a non-existant call id. 11/14/12 07:35:21 AM timucin-W150ER NetworkManager[989] <info> (wlan0): supplicant interface state: ready -> inactive 11/14/12 07:35:21 AM timucin-W150ER NetworkManager[989] <info> (wlan0) supports 4 scan SSIDs I feel really bad that I have been trying so many things and even while I am trying them I get a problem at every step. I am really frustrated. You can the time in the logs, I didn't get up early. Just needed to share my feelings. Even the ethernet cable I have use is short for God's sake, I have had to sit at this massively uncomfortable posture for hours. edit: I discovered something interesting. When I boot my windows I see that my wireless manager says "disconnected" now. However when I start ubuntu after windows and modprobe rtl8723e wireless works just fine. Then again, when I restart ubuntu I am back where I have started. So now I have to start windows, restart my machine and do the modprobe thing to see wireless networks.

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• What are different ways to reduce latency between a server and a web application? [closed]

  - by jjoensuu

  this is a question about a web application that provides SOAP web services. For the sake of this question, this web app is hosted on a server SERVER B which is located in California. We have an automated, scheduled, process running on a server SERVER A, located in New York. This scheduled process is supposed to send SOAP messages to SERVER B every so often, but this process typically dies soon after starting. We have now been told by the vendor that reason why the process dies is because of the latency between SERVER A and SERVER B. The data traffic is routed through many diffent public networks. There is no dedicated line between SERVER A and SERVER B. As a result I have been asked to look into ways to reduce the latency between SERVER A and SERVER B. So I wanted to ask, what are the different ways to reduce latency in a situation like this? For example, would it help to switch from HTTPS to some other secure protocol? (the thought here is that perhaps some other alternative would require fewer handshakes than HTTPS). Or would a VPN help? If a VPN would reduce the latency, how would it do that? NOTE: I am not looking for an explicit answer that would work in my specific situation. I am more like looking just for a simple list of what technologies could be used for this. I will still have to evaluate the technologies and discuss them internally with others, so the list would just be a starting point. Here I am assuming that there exists very few ways to reduce latency between two servers that communicate across public networks using HTTPS. Feel free to correct me if this assumption is wrong and please ask if there is a need for specific information. NOTE 2: A list of technologies is a specific answer to the question I stated in the title. NOTE 3: Its rather dumb to close this question when it is after all about me looking for information and furthermore this information can clearly be useful for others. Anyway luckily there are other sites where I can ask around. StackExchange seems to attached to their own philosophical principles. Many thanks

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• How to deal with fellow programmer who likes to delegate task with lack any support from boss [closed]

  - by Rudy

  I have a problem with my fellow programmer. We are currently working together in a small project that need to be shipped every 2 weeks. She has a tendency to ask for help for every issues that she is facing. Whether it's a compile error, algorithm problem or even sync/merge issue that caused by herself. She does not even bother to check Google or try to find out by herself. I can be asked to help her for 5-10 times a day. Everyday her husband keeps calling (4-6 times a day), and most of the code that has been delivered by her are actually incorrect. Today she framed me for sending the wrong delivery product. She went home after lunch on the delivery day without telling PM and other team member on that day and her code she commited does not work at all. It's not even tested. I have no choice to roll back her code and cleaning her code just for sake to able to run the product. I have warned her about her defective codes for almost 3 iterations. She said when she was not around I should be able to test her module for her. I snapped and yelled that I am not her slave and directly reported to my boss. However, my boss is not a person that can manage and care about software quality. What is the most important thing to my boss is delivery of product, whether it tested or not. He can even asked us to deliver something that not even tested by QA to the client, on the next day. Most of our suggestion is not followed by him. He even asked me to apologize to her because I snapped. I am tired of the whole situation. This kind of thing keeps repeated. I do have saving to be able to survive for 6 months and the idea of resigning is keep haunting. There is nothing else that can be learned in my current job and I had been in a better environment than this. What should I do with the situation?

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• Should i continue my self-taught coding practice or learn how to do coding professionally?

  - by G1i1ch

  Lately I've been getting professional work, hanging out with other programmers, and making friends in the industry. The only thing is I'm 100% self-taught. It's caused my style to extremely deviate from the style of those that are properly trained. It's the techniques and organization of my code that's different. It's a mixture of several things I do. I tend to blend several programming paradigms together. Like Functional and OO. I lean to the Functional side more than OO, but I see the use of OO when something would make more sense as an abstract entity. Like a game object. Next I also go the simple route when doing something. When in contrast, it seems like sometimes the code I see from professional programmers is complicated for the sake of it! I use lots of closures. And lastly, I'm not the best commenter. I find it easier just to read through my code than reading the comment. And most cases I just end up reading the code even if there are comments. Plus I've been told that, because of how simply I write my code, it's very easy to read it. I hear professionally trained programmers go on and on about things like unit tests. Something I've never used before so I haven't even the faintest idea of what they are or how they work. Lots and lots of underscores "_", which aren't really my taste. Most of the techniques I use are straight from me, or a few books I've read. Don't know anything about MVC, I've heard a lot about it though with things like backbone.js. I think it's a way to organize an application. It just confuses me though because by now I've made my own organizational structures. It's a bit of a pain. I can't use template applications at all when learning something new like with Ubuntu's Quickly. I have trouble understanding code that I can tell is from someone trained. Complete OO programming really leaves a bad taste in my mouth, yet that seems to be what EVERYONE else is strictly using. It's left me not that confident in the look of my code, or wondering whether I'll cause sparks when joining a company or maybe contributing to open source projects. In fact I'm rather scared of the fact that people will eventually be checking out my code. Is this just something normal any programmer goes through or should I really look to change up my techniques?

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• Advantages to Multiple Methods over Switch

  - by tandu

  I received a code review from a senior developer today asking "By the way, what is your objection to dispatching functions by way of a switch statement?" I have read in many places about how pumping an argument through switch to call methods is bad OOP, not as extensible, etc. However, I can't really come up with a definitive answer for him. I would like to settle this for myself once and for all. Here are our competing code suggestions (php used as an example, but can apply more universally): class Switch { public function go($arg) { switch ($arg) { case "one": echo "one\n"; break; case "two": echo "two\n"; break; case "three": echo "three\n"; break; default: throw new Exception("Unknown call: $arg"); break; } } } class Oop { public function go_one() { echo "one\n"; } public function go_two() { echo "two\n"; } public function go_three() { echo "three\n"; } public function __call($_, $__) { throw new Exception("Unknown call $_ with arguments: " . print_r($__, true)); } } Part of his argument was "It (switch method) has a much cleaner way of handling default cases than what you have in the generic __call() magic method." I disagree about the cleanliness and in fact prefer call, but I would like to hear what others have to say. Arguments I can come up with in support of Oop scheme: A bit cleaner in terms of the code you have to write (less, easier to read, less keywords to consider) Not all actions delegated to a single method. Not much difference in execution here, but at least the text is more compartmentalized. In the same vein, another method can be added anywhere in the class instead of a specific spot. Methods are namespaced, which is nice. Does not apply here, but consider a case where Switch::go() operated on a member rather than a parameter. You would have to change the member first, then call the method. For Oop you can call the methods independently at any time. Arguments I can come up with in support of Switch scheme: For the sake of argument, cleaner method of dealing with a default (unknown) request Seems less magical, which might make unfamiliar developers feel more comfortable Anyone have anything to add for either side? I'd like to have a good answer for him.

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• How to configure Apache and Tomcat with vhosts?

  - by Umar Farooq Khawaja

  I have a server with a static, public IP address. I also have a registered domain name. For the sake of illustration, let's suppose they are IP Address: 12.34.56.78 Domain Name: example.com I have a single machine on which I am running the following: A website (over IIS7) available locally at localhost:80 A JetBrains TeamCity instance (over Tomcat) available locally at localhost:1234 A VisualSVN Server instance (over Apache) available locally at localhost:5678/svn I have set up an A record for example.com and the following CNAME records: www.example.com builds.example.com sources.example.com I would like to configure Tomcat and Apache such that: if I point my browser at builds.example.com, I end up at the JetBrains TeamCity instance and, if I point my browser at sources.example.com, I end up at the VisualSVN Server instance. I thought I could configure the Apache to vhost example.com:5678/svn to point to sources.example.com and added the following lines to the Apache httpd.conf file Listen 5678 NameVirtualHost *:5678 <VistualHost *:5678> ServerName sources.example.com DocumentRoot /svn </virtualHost> That broke the VisualSVN instance, so I had to revert that to Listen 5678 Help!

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• Subversion gives Error 500 until authenticating with a web browser

  - by Farseeker

  We used to use Collabnet SVN/Apache combo on a Windows server with LDAP authentication, and whilst the performance wasn't brilliant it used to work perfectly. After switching to a fresh Ubuntu 10 install, and setting up an Apache/SVN/LDAP configuration, we have HTTPS access to our repositories, using Active Directory authentication via LDAP. We're now having a very peculiar issue. Whenever a new user accesses a repository, our SVN clients (we have a few depending on the tool, but for arguments sake, let's stick to Tortoise SVN) report "Error 500 - Unknown Response". To get around this, we have to log into the repo using a web browser and navigate 'backwards' until it works E.G: SVN Checkout https://svn.example.local/SVN/MyRepo/MyModule/ - Error 500 (bad) Webbrowse to https://svn.example.local/SVN/MyRepo/MyModule/ - Error 500 (bad) Webbrowse to https://svn.example.local/SVN/MyRepo/ - Error 500 (bad) Webbrowse to https://svn.example.local/SVN/ - Forbidden 403 (correct) Webbrowse to https://svn.example.local/SVN/MyRepo/ - OK 200 (correct) SVN Checkout https://svn.example.local/SVN/MyRepo/MyModule/ - Error 500 (bad) Webbrowse to https://svn.example.local/SVN/MyRepo/MyModule/ - OK 200 (correct) SVN Checkout https://svn.example.local/SVN/MyRepo/MyModule/ - OK 200 (correct) It seems to require authentication up the tree, starting from the svnparentpath up through to the module required. Has anyone seen anything like this before? Any ideas on where to start before I ditch it back to Collabnet's SVN server?

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• HP ProCurve & Cisco switches interoperability

  - by Kamil Z

  I have a couple of questions regarding Cisco and HP ProCurve interoperability. Here's a link to pdf with my network topology. Can someone help me with basic VLAN configuration in such topology? Below there are some details of my configuration: # m_management_2 interface FastEthernet0/43 switchport access vlan 250 switchport mode access spanning-tree port-priority 32 spanning-tree cost 100 # MTA2-swmgmt1 vlan 1 name "DEFAULT_VLAN" untagged 1-48 ip address 10.10.249.190 255.255.255.128 exit # MTA2-swtr1 vlan 1 name "DEFAULT_VLAN" untagged 1-14,16-48 no ip address no untagged 15 exit vlan 100 name "MTA Mgmt" untagged 15 ip address 10.10.249.188 255.255.255.128 exit # MTA2-swtr2 vlan 1 name "DEFAULT_VLAN" untagged 1-14,16-48 no ip address no untagged 15 exit vlan 100 name "MTA Mgmt" untagged 15 ip address 10.10.249.189 255.255.255.128 exit I don't post MTA2-bcsw[12] configuration, because I wasn's successfull in this one yet. Every time I configure VLANs on MTA2-bcsw[12] Fa0/24 interface on m_management_2 goes down bacause of receiving tagged BPDUs on access port (there are no VLANs configured on MTA2-swmgmt1 because of fact that only 250 VLAN is allowed in this switch. Is it correct?). Can someone provide me some basic configuration for this topology? Second thing I want to ask is concept of connection from MTA2-swmgmt1 to MTA2-swtr[12] HP switches for the sake of management. How to configure such ports on HP switches (managed switch and manager switch). Is my actual configuration correct?

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• Endian Destination NAT

  - by Ben Swinburne

  I have installed Endian Community Firewall 2.3 and am clearly misunderstanding/doing something wrong with it. I'm trying to create some destination NAT rules to allow incoming connections to various services within the network. Router - RED I/F - x.x.x.x Router - GREEN I/F - 192.168.11.253 ECF - RED I/F - 192.168.11.254/24 ECF - GREEN I/F - 192.168.12.254/24 Target server - 192.168.12.1 Please ignore the haphazard choice of subnets and addresses- I'm trying to quickly plop Endian into an existing network before a complete rework in 6-12 months so for now. Everything works except destination NAT, so outgoing connections are fine, the routes between the two subnets are OK etc. I want to create various incoming NATs but let's take for the sake of argument, SMTP port 25 from the Internet to Target server 192.168.12.1. I've tried almost every combination of options in the Destination NAT section to achieve this and clearly am doing something wrong. I suspect my confusion must be somewhere in the Access From and/or Target section. The rest seems OK Filter Policy = Allow Service = SMTP Protocol = TCP Port = 25 Translate to type = IP DNAT Policy = NAT Insert IP = 192.168.12.1 Port Range = 25 Enabled = Checked Position = First I can't work out what I'm doing wrong, or am I doing it right and it's just not working!? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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• Two hosting providers running simultaneously... possible / not possible? good practice / unnecessary?

  - by user29600

  For the sake of their reputation, I won't mention the names. But I'll just use: Business I worked for previously - ABC Web Dev Hosting company they used - XYZ Hosting I recently found out that XYZ Hosting had some sort of incident where they ended up losing a lot of their client's data - including ABC Web Dev's. ABC Web Dev was able to recover some of their customer's websites, after pulling them from their local development computers and putting them up on another hosting provider. They ended up losing a lot of clients because of it and their reputation ruined. I'm starting my own web dev company and I don't want to run into this same issue. I'm planning on using Rackspace but, although they are a great company, according to wikipedia they still have had downtime in their past. I thought it might be a good idea to try to run two providers at once, to ensure that if anything happened in one the websites would still be live because of the other. I know the websites would have to be pulling from one server at all times, but if there's a way to redirect requests to the second server if the first one is down that would solve my issue. As a note, we will have a staging environment setup locally which will allow for quick recovery if a provider did have any issues, however I'd like to avoid any downtime at all if possible. So my questions are: Has anyone tried running two providers simultaneously? Would this be considered good practice or am I going too far? Is there really any way to run two simultaneously where one server acts as a backup?

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• RPM Spec How to specify in package so that previous RPM is removed

  - by user123819

  Question: What do I put in the foo.spec file so that the rpm's will remove the previous rpm before installing? Description: I have created a spec file that creates rpm's for a few packages that use the same source and provide the same service, each with a slightly different configuration. E.g. they each provide the same "capability" Here's an example of the essentials that my .spec file looks like: %define version 1234 %define name foo %define release 1 %define pkgname %{name}-%{version}-%{release} Name: %{name} Version: %{version} Release: %{release} Provides: %{name} %package one Summary: Summary for foo-one Group: %{group} Obsoletes: %{name} <= %{version} Provides: %{name} = %{version} %description one Blah blah blah %package two Summary: Summary for foo-two Group: %{group} Obsoletes: %{name} <= %{version} Provides: %{name} = %{version} %description two Blah blah blah # %prep, %install, %build and %clean are pretty simple # and omitted here for brevity sake %files one %defattr(-,root,root,-) %{_prefix}/%{pkgname} %files two %defattr(-,root,root,-) %{_prefix}/%{pkgname} When I install the first one, it installs ok. I then remove the first one, and then install the second one, that works fine too. I then install the first one, followed immediately by installing the second one, and they both install, one over the other, but, I was expecting that the second one would be removed before installing the second. Example session: # rpmbuild foo and copy rpms to yum repo $ yum install foo-one ... $ yum list installed|grep foo foo-one.noarch 1234-1 @myrepo $ yum install foo-two ...[Should say that it is removing foo-one, but does not]... $ yum list installed|grep foo foo-one.noarch 1234-1 @myrepo foo-two.noarch 1234-1 @myrepo $ rpm -q --provides foo-one foo = 1234 foo-one = 1234-1 $ rpm -q --provides foo-two foo = 1234 foo-two = 1234-1 What do I put in the foo.spec file so that the rpm's will remove the previous rpm before installing? Thank you, .dave.

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• DIY NAS - links for Instructions

  - by Kaushik Gopal

  Good folk of SU, I'm planning to build a NAS (Network Access Storage). I'm planning to do it cheap (:read Old PC Config + Open source software). I was looking for good DIY links . Before you shoot this down as a Repost, I'm only looking for good links containing detailed instructions for setting up a NAS. I did a fair bit of searching and found these links (so please suggest others. While these links are great they delve more on the hardware side, i'm looking for more instructions in the software side). For the sake of the interwebs: Ubuntu: http://snarfquest.com/wiki/index.php/Setting_up_a_Home_NAS http://www.smallnetbuilder.com/content/view/27962/77/ http://jonpeck.blogspot.com/2006/11/how-to-configure-80-fileserver-in-45.html FreeNAS http://www.smallbusinesscomputing.com/webmaster/article.php/3719706 http://www.codeproject.com/KB/system/homemade_nas.aspxhttp://www.codeproject.com/KB/system/homemade_nas.aspx There was one at rubbervir.us that everyone points to, but apparently the site has gone down. A couple of other queries: Is Printer/Scanner sharing a possibility with NAS devices? Many talk of torrent support with NAS Devices, a little more light on this? Does this mean, an auto download of torrent through a feed into NAS, or just support for storing Torrent download files onto the NAS(don't see the difference between the latter and a normal file tranfer)

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• DisableCrossAccountCopy not working on some Outlook installs, working on others, both going against Exchange

  - by MikeBaz

  As part of a mail migration project from one Exchange organization to another, we need to be able to prevent users from moving/copying messages between their accounts in each organization. (Yes, users will think this is evil; no, it's not my decision; yes, users will hate us.) Luckily, we thought, Outlook 2010 provides the DisableCrossAccountCopy registry value/policy (cf. http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff800883.aspx). (Because you can't do multiple Exchange organizations in a single profile before Outlook 2010, this only matters on Outlook 2010. Yes, I'm ignoring for the sake of this question copy/move to/from the filesystem.) In our test lab, in a test forest with a test Exchange organization, with a second Exchange account added to the profile in either of the "real" Exchange organizations, with the value set to "*", everything works as expected. On a workstation in one of the production domains, however, the setting does not seem to work. We have tried it under HKCU, HKLM, HKCU\Software\Policies, and HKLM\Software\Policies. It simply seems to be ignored. The value was set in the OCT on a test machine, but the OCT (and the ADM/ADMX file) have the wrong type for the value. We have located the value in the registry and removed it everywhere it is found, we think, and put it back in HKCU, but it still isn't taking. At the moment, a clean Outlook install is not an option - even if it was, we at this point would need to know what to do to fix the pushed copy (I didn't push the copy out to thousands of machines, I've just been asked to help clean up the current mess). Thoughts?

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• IIS7 Compression CSS files only compressed when dynamic compression is enabled

  - by Paul

  If anyone can help it would be appreciated. I would like to enable compression for static files within IIS7 (for the sake of simplicity I'll just refer to static css files for the time being). The problem I'm getting is that css files are only compressed when both dynamic and static compression is enabled in IIS for the website. What I really want to achieve is css compression (static file) whilst leaving the dynamic (aspx) pages as uncompressed for the time being (to avoid unnecessary CPU load). I am puzzled as to why just leaving 'static compression' enabled causes css files to be returned uncompressed. My applicationHost.config file has not be altered and looks like this: <httpCompression directory="%SystemDrive%\inetpub\temp\IIS Temporary Compressed Files"> <scheme name="gzip" dll="%Windir%\system32\inetsrv\gzip.dll" /> <staticTypes> <add mimeType="text/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="message/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/javascript" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="*/*" enabled="false" /> </staticTypes> <dynamicTypes> <add mimeType="text/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="message/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/x-javascript" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="*/*" enabled="false" /> </dynamicTypes> </httpCompression> The server-wide compression setting within IIS is set to 'Dynamic Disabled' and 'Static Enabled' from the Server Features Compression page. The web-site compression setting (Server Sites MyWebsite Features Compression) is where I am enabling and disabling dynamic compression as detailed above. Any help would be really help me get unstuck on this. Thanks

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• Linux Port 80 to redirect to a Windows box

  - by Richard Staehler

  I have 2 servers here at work. One is a Windows 2008 Server R2 (for safety's sake, lets use 192.168.1.100) and the other is a Fedora 14 (192.168.1.101). Currently when you hit our subdomain, x.test.com, our routers tell it to go to our Fedora box, and since Apache is installed and listening to port 80, it displays the Fedora Apache Test Page. It's obvious that I don't use port 80 for this machine, however I do use NAGIOS on it and its always nice to be able to access that from anywhere in the world. So when I want to access it, I just type x.test.com/nagios. Now here comes the dilemma.... On the Windows R2 box, we recently have installed a program that requires us to setup a web server using IIS7. Because of this application, I'm going to be creating a new subdomain called y.test.com, but since we only have 1 WAN/router, it will still get pointed to our Fedora box. That being said, it wants to use port 80 as well (or whatever port I damn well wish to assign it). So my question is: since our router is pointing to the Fedora 14 box (.101), and I want to make sure I can access NAGIOS from anywhere in the world, how do I tell Apache (httpd) to redirect port 80 to the other server (.100)? If not possible, what are my other options? I have rinetd installed on Fedora and have even tried the option 192.168.1.101 80 192.168.1.100 80 and it didn't seem to work "because port 80 was already bound" Thoughts? and Thanks!

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• Issues with sustained traffic with PFSense

  - by Farseeker

  Last week we had to replace our PFSense firewall because it had a catastrophic hardware failure. All but one of the NICs were taken out of the old server and put into the new one. The one NIC that was not moved was the LAN NIC as this is on-board. The other NICs are all WAN connections and the must all be present (i.e. I can't disable one just for the sake of testing) After re-installing PFSense and restoring our backup of the configuration, everything came back online just fine, however on the new hardware any download that takes longer than about 10 seconds just times out in the middle. Example 1: Downloading from Microsoft.com goes at about 900k/sec and times out after about 10 seconds (thus, just under 10Mb of content) Example 2: Downloading from cnet.com goes at about 300k/sec and times out after about 10 seconds (thus, about 3Mb of content). By times out, I mean that the download just stops, and you have to pause/resume to get the next part done, repeat and rinse until the download is complete. However it's not consistant, sometimes it's 10 seconds, sometimes it's 4 seconds, and it sometimes you can't even load a heavy HTML page because the page never finishes. I assume this is most likely because PFSense does not like the onboard NIC, as this is the primary difference between the two servers. It's recognised as NFE0, and there's no room in the server for any more NICs and I don't have any dual-port NICs handy to experiment with a different LAN connection. I've never had to troubleshoot this sort of issue before. Can anyone give me some pointers about where to start? Linux is not my forte so please be kind!

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• Mirror a Dropbox repository in Sharepoint and restrict access

  - by Dan Robson

  I'm looking for an elegant way to solve the following problem: My development team uses Dropbox for sharing documents amongst our immediate group. We'd like to put some of those documents into a SharePoint repository for the larger group to be able to access, as granting Dropbox access to the group at large is not ideal. However, we'd like to continue to be able to propagate changes to the SharePoint site simply by updating the files in Dropbox on our local client machines, and also vice versa - users granted access on SharePoint that update files in that workspace should be able to save their files and the changes should appear automatically on our client PC's. I've already done the organization of the folders so that in Dropbox, there exists a SharePoint folder that looks something like this: SharePoint ----Team --------Restricted Access Folders ----Organization --------Open Access Folders The Dropbox master account and the SharePoint master account are both set up on my file server. Unfortunately, Dropbox doesn't seem to allow syncing of folders anywhere above the \Dropbox\ part of the file system's hierarchy - or all I would have to do is find where the Sharepoint repository is maintained locally, and I'd be golden. So it seems I have to do some sort of 2-way synchronization between the Dropbox folder on the file server and the SharePoint folder on the file server. I messed around with Microsoft SyncToy, but it seems to be lacking in the area of real-time updating - and as much as I love rsync, I've had nothing but bad luck with it on Windows, and again, it has to be kicked off manually or through Task Scheduler - and I just have a feeling if I go down that route, it's only a matter of time before I get conflicts all over the place in either Dropbox, SharePoint, or both. I really want something that's going to watch both folders, and when one item changes, the other automatically updates in "real-time". It's quite possible I'm going down the entirely wrong route, which is why I'm asking the question. For simplicity's sake, I'll restate the goal: To be able to update Dropbox and have it viewable on the SharePoint site, or to update the SharePoint site and have it viewable in Dropbox. And since I'm a SharePoint noob, I'll also need help hiding the "Team" subfolder from everyone not in a specific group in AD.

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• Is it possible to re-cab an Administrative Install Point?

  - by Nathaniel Bannister

  We have Acrobat 8 Pro at work, and our media was painfully out of date. Rather than install all of the machines at 8.0.0 and then do the 6 or 7 consecutive reboots adobe expects you to be ok with I decided I'd integrate the .msp files into the installer. After reading up on it, I figured out the exact patch order that adobe required, extracted my cd to an Administrative install point, and ran the patches against it: msiexec /a AcroPro.msi /p AcrobatUpd810_efgj_incr.msp TARGETDIR="C:\Acrobat8" /log "output.log" msiexec /a AcroPro.msi /p AcrobatUpd811_all_incr.msp TARGETDIR="C:\Acrobat8" /log "output.log" msiexec /a AcroPro.msi /p AcrobatUpd812_all_incr.msp TARGETDIR="C:\Acrobat8" /log "output.log" msiexec /a AcroPro.msi /p AcrobatUpd813_all_incr.msp TARGETDIR="C:\Acrobat8" /log "output.log" msiexec /a AcroPro.msi /p AcrobatUpd816_all_incr.msp TARGETDIR="C:\Acrobat8" /log "output.log" msiexec /a AcroPro.msi /p AcrobatUpd817_all_incr.msp TARGETDIR="C:\Acrobat8" /log "output.log" msiexec /a AcroPro.msi /p AcrobatUpd820_all_incr.msp TARGETDIR="C:\Acrobat8" /log "output.log" msiexec /a AcroPro.msi /p AcrobatUpd822_all_incr.msp TARGETDIR="C:\Acrobat8" /log "output.log" msiexec /a AcroPro.msi /p AcrobatUpd823_all_incr.msp TARGETDIR="C:\Acrobat8" /log "output.log" msiexec /a AcroPro.msi /p AcrobatUpd825_all_incr.msp TARGETDIR="C:\Acrobat8" /log "output.log" msiexec /a AcroPro.msi /p AcrobatUpd826_all_incr.msp TARGETDIR="C:\Acrobat8" /log "output.log" Now I have a AIP that is fully patched to 8.2.6 (Tested working prior to attempting to CAB it), but is absolutely huge (1.2gb) what I would like to do is take the folders within the AIP and put them back into a cab file for the sake of convenience in transferring the files around. I tried the command: cscript "C:\Program Files\Microsoft SDKs\Windows\v7.0\Samples\sysmgmt\msi\scripts\WiMakCab.vbs" AcroPro.msi Data1 /L /C /S Per the guide I was using, while this did produce the cab file I Wanted, however the resulting MSI fails to install with an error 2602: It's been a while since I've done something like this, and it's probably a glaring oversight on my part, but any insight would be much appreciated.

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