Search Results

Search found 19597 results on 784 pages for 'last chance'.

Page 181/784 | < Previous Page | 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188  | Next Page >

  • View artifacts leaking into the model of MVC

    - by Jono
    In an ASP.NET MVC application (which has very little chance of having its view technology ported to something non-HTML, but whose functional requirements evolve weekly,) how much HTML should ideally be allowed to be directly represented in the Model? I might come across as a design bigot for this, but I regard it as bad practice to allow any view constructs to "leak" into the model in an MVC application (and vice versa). For example, a Model that represents an item you're about to purchase should know nothing about the HTML check box that says "add giftwrap/message", nor should it know about any HTML drop down lists for payment card types. Conversely the View shouldn't be doing work like figuring out button text by translating keys into values (by looking in resource files.)

    Read the article

  • Chaining jQuery animations using recursion crashes browser

    - by Rob Sobers
    Here's the basic idea of what I'm trying to do: Set the innerHTML of a DIV to some value X Animate the DIV When the animation finishes, change the value of X and repeat N times If I do this in a loop, what ends up happening is, because the animations occur asynchronously, the loop finishes and the DIV is set to its final value before the animations have had a chance to run for each value of X. As this question notes, the best way to solve this problem is to make a recursive call to the function in the callback handler for the animation. This way the value of the DIV doesn't change until the animation of the previous value is complete. This works perfectly...to a point. If I animate a bunch of these DIVs at the same time, my browser gets overwhelmed and crashes. Too much recursion. Can anyone think of a way to do this without using recursion?

    Read the article

  • Pairs from single list

    - by Apalala
    Often enough, I've found the need to process a list by pairs. I was wondering which would be the pythonic and efficient way to do it, and found this on Google: pairs = zip(t[::2], t[1::2]) I thought that was pythonic enough, but after a recent discussion involving idioms versus efficiency, I decided to do some tests: import time from itertools import islice, izip def pairs_1(t): return zip(t[::2], t[1::2]) def pairs_2(t): return izip(t[::2], t[1::2]) def pairs_3(t): return izip(islice(t,None,None,2), islice(t,1,None,2)) A = range(10000) B = xrange(len(A)) def pairs_4(t): # ignore value of t! t = B return izip(islice(t,None,None,2), islice(t,1,None,2)) for f in pairs_1, pairs_2, pairs_3, pairs_4: # time the pairing s = time.time() for i in range(1000): p = f(A) t1 = time.time() - s # time using the pairs s = time.time() for i in range(1000): p = f(A) for a, b in p: pass t2 = time.time() - s print t1, t2, t2-t1 These were the results on my computer: 1.48668909073 2.63187503815 1.14518594742 0.105381965637 1.35109519958 1.24571323395 0.00257992744446 1.46182489395 1.45924496651 0.00251388549805 1.70076990128 1.69825601578 If I'm interpreting them correctly, that should mean that the implementation of lists, list indexing, and list slicing in Python is very efficient. It's a result both comforting and unexpected. Is there another, "better" way of traversing a list in pairs? Note that if the list has an odd number of elements then the last one will not be in any of the pairs. Which would be the right way to ensure that all elements are included? I added these two suggestions from the answers to the tests: def pairwise(t): it = iter(t) return izip(it, it) def chunkwise(t, size=2): it = iter(t) return izip(*[it]*size) These are the results: 0.00159502029419 1.25745987892 1.25586485863 0.00222492218018 1.23795199394 1.23572707176 Results so far Most pythonic and very efficient: pairs = izip(t[::2], t[1::2]) Most efficient and very pythonic: pairs = izip(*[iter(t)]*2) It took me a moment to grok that the first answer uses two iterators while the second uses a single one. To deal with sequences with an odd number of elements, the suggestion has been to augment the original sequence adding one element (None) that gets paired with the previous last element, something that can be achieved with itertools.izip_longest().

    Read the article

  • Moving front page (cursebird or foursquare)

    - by Dan Samuels
    Ok so I'll be honest, I have a good amount of experience with php/mysql, I've just started learning jQuery and I've done very little, but some with ajax. So using the terms ajax/jquery interchangeably are a bit confusing to me. Anyway as the title suggest I have a website with 5 items, and I want them to move (meaning, if a more recent one is entered, remove the last item, and put the new one on top), they are 5 of the most recent items in the database table, now I've coded jquery as a test so it fades out the last one, the whole thing moves down, makes room at the top, and fades in a new one. However, it's a test and has 0 interaction with the database, the one that fades in is just in a hidden div. So the jQuery part is taken care of. So I'm unsure how to go about this, I was thinking maybe have ajax check a website off the page that has those 5 items in raw format, and if they change then to refresh? Not looking for a "plz code 4 me" answer, just the concept of how it would work, or some links to get off to the right start. edit - Also, the 5 items are ranked, so if I click item 3 I need it to move above item 2 refreshlessly, so this causes a whole other issue I assume.

    Read the article

  • [C#]Update Datatable and DatagridView with database Changes by Timer

    - by aleroot
    Scenario : i have a database table that is being apdated frequently bey some services. I have a c# Winform Application that load this table in a datagridview by binding a datatable as Datasource, then i whant to add a Timer that every 10 seconds update a the content of a datatable with the last changes in the database table ... I don't need to update a database with the datatable changes, but i need to update datatable with the last changes in the database table, that is the inverse of the usually.... Is there a way to do that ? What is the best way ? i've tried with this code : private void ServiceTimer_Tick(object state) { OdbcConnection oCon = new OdbcConnection(); oCon.ConnectionString = ConnectionStrings; OdbcDataAdapter dp = new OdbcDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM table", oCon); dsProva.Tables.Clear(); dp.Fill(dsProva,"table"); dataGridViewMessaggi.DataSource = dsProva.Tables["table"]; dataGridViewMessaggi.Refresh(); } But every Timer Tick i lost the selection in DatagridView and Current Row .... Is There a better solution ?

    Read the article

  • echo -e acts differently when run in a script by root on ubuntu

    - by ekrub
    When running a bash script on ubuntu 9.10, I get different behavior from bash echo's "-e" option depending on whether or not I'm running as root. Consider this script: $ cat echo-test if [ "`whoami`" = "root" ]; then echo "Running as root" fi echo Testing /bin/echo -e /bin/echo -e "foo\nbar" echo Testing bash echo -e echo -e "foo\nbar" When run as non-root user, I see this output: $ ./echo-test Testing /bin/echo -e foo bar Testing bash echo -e foo bar When run as root, I see this output: $ sudo ./echo-test Running as root Testing /bin/echo -e foo bar Testing bash echo -e -e foo bar Notice the "-e" being echoed in the last case ("-e foo" instead of "foo" on the second-to-last line). When running a script as root, the echo command runs as if "-e" was given and, if -e is given, the option itself is echoed. I can understand some subtle differences in behavior between /bin/echo and bash echo, but I would expect bash echo to behave the same no matter which user invokes it. Anyone know why this is the case? Is this a bug in bash echo? FYI -- I'm running GNU bash, version 4.0.33(1)-release (x86_64-pc-linux-gnu)

    Read the article

  • asp.net Background Threads Exception Handling

    - by Chris
    In my 3.5 .net web application I have a background thread that does a lot of work (the application is similar to mint.com in that it does a lot of account aggregation on background threads). I do extensive exception handling within the thread performing the aggregation but there's always the chance an unhandled exception will be thrown and my entire application will die. I've read some articles about this topic but they all seem fairly outdated and none of them implement a standard approach. Is there a standard approach to this nowadays? Is there any nicer way to handle this in ASP.NET 4.0?

    Read the article

  • Php/Regex get the contents between a set of double quotes

    - by Davy Arnold
    Update to my question: My goal overall is to split the string into 4 parts that I can access later. value = " result of the html inside the first and last " " Here is an example of what i'm trying to do: // My string (this is dynamic and will change, this is just an example) $string = 'value="<p>Some text</p> <a href="#">linky</a>"'; // Run the match and spit out the results preg_match_all('/([^"]*)(?:\s*=\s*(\042|\047))([^"]*)/is', $string , $results); // Here is the array I want to end up with Array ( [0] => Array ( [0] => value="<p>Some text</p><a href="#">linky</a>" ) [1] => Array ( [0] => value ) [2] => Array ( [0] => " ) [3] => Array ( [0] => <p>Some text</p><a href="#">linky</a> ) ) Basically the double quotes on the link are causing me some trouble so my first though was to do [^"]$ or something to have it just run until the last double quote, but that isn't getting me anywhere. Another idea I had was maybe process the string in PHP to strip out any inner quotes, but i'm not sure ho to go about this either. Hopefully I'm being clear, it is pretty late and i've been at this far too long!

    Read the article

  • Calculating spam probability

    - by Hobhouse
    I am building a website in python/django and want to predict wether a user submission is valid or wether it is spam. Users have an accept rate on their submissions, like this website has. Users can moderate other users' submissions; and these moderations are later metamoderated by an admin. Given this: user A with an submission accept rate of 60% submits something. user B moderates A's post as a valid submission. However, his moderations are often wrong, and his moderations' accept rate is a mere 30%. user C moderates A's post as spam. User C is usually right. His moderations' accept rate is 80%. How can I predict the chance of A's post being spam?

    Read the article

  • Benefit of outputting JSON as opposed to plain HTML

    - by Franco
    Hey guys, Just wondering which is best here. I want to output data from a table in my DB then put a lot of this data into a html table on the fly on my page. Im working with Java on the server side. Basically I pull the results form the DB and have the raw data..just what next? There is a chance I may want to take data from multiple tables in order to combine it into one table for my site. I retrieve the results of the query from the DB, now do i create a text from it in the form of json which i can parse as json using jquery upon the return of the object to my browser?(kind of a sub question of this question: Is just using a stringbuilder the correct way to make a json object to output?) Or.. Should i build the HTML as a string and output that to the browser instead? Which is better and why? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Is it okay to truncate a SHA256 hash to 128 bits?

    - by Sunny Hirai
    MD5 and SHA-1 hashes have weaknesses against collision attacks. SHA256 does not but it outputs 256 bits. Can I safely take the first or last 128 bits and use that as the hash? I know it will be weaker (because it has less bits) but otherwise will it work? Basically I want to use this to uniquely identify files in a file system that might one day contain a trillion files. I'm aware of the birthday problem and a 128 bit hash should yield about a 1 in a trillion chance on a trillion files that there would be two different files with the same hash. I can live with those odds. What I can't live with is if somebody could easily, deliberately, insert a new file with the same hash and the same beginning characters of the file. I believe in MD5 and SHA1 this is possible.

    Read the article

  • Handling multiple exceptions

    - by the-banana-king
    Hi there, I have written a class which loads configuration objects of my application and keeps track of them so that I can easily write out changes or reload the whole configuration at once with a single method call. However, each configuration object might potentially throw an exception when doing IO, yet I do not want those errors to cancel the overall process so that the other objects are still given a chance to reload/write. Therefore I collect all exceptions which are thrown while iterating over the objects and store them in a super-exception, which is thrown after the loop, since each exception must still be handled and someone has to be notified of what exactly went wrong. However, that approach looks a bit odd to me. Someone out there with a cleaner solution? Here is some code of the mentioned class: public synchronized void store() throws MultipleCauseException { MultipleCauseException me = new MultipleCauseException("unable to store some resources"); for(Resource resource : this.resources.values()) { try { resource.store(); } catch(StoreException e) { me.addCause(e); } } if(me.hasCauses()) throw me; }

    Read the article

  • Translate from Java to C#: simple code to re-encode a string

    - by Dr. Zim
    We were sent this formula to encrypt a string written in Java: String myInput = "test1234"; MessageDigest md = MessageDigest.getInstance("SHA"); byte[] myD = md.digest(myInput.getBytes()); BASE64Encoder en64 = new BASE64Encoder(); String myOutput = new String ( Java.net.URLEncoder.encode( en64.encode(myD))); // myOutput becomes "F009U%2Bx99bVTGwS3cQdHf%2BJcpCo%3D" Our attempt at writing this in C# is: System.Security.Cryptography.SHA1 sha1 = new System.Security.Cryptography.SHA1CryptoServiceProvider(); string myOutput = HttpUtility.UrlEncode( Convert.ToBase64String( sha1.ComputeHash( ASCIIEncoding.Default.GetBytes(myInput)))); However the output is no where near the same. It doesn't even have percent signs in it. Any chance anyone would know where we are going wrong?

    Read the article

  • HQL updates and domain objects

    - by CaptainAwesomePants
    I have what may be a pretty elementary Hibernate question. Do HQL (and/or Criteria) update queries cause updates to live domain objects? And do they automatically flush now-invalid domain objects from the first-level cache? Example: Player playerReference1 = session.get(Player.class,1); session.createQuery("update players set gold = 100").executeUpdate(); //Question #1 -- does playerReference1.getGold() now return 100? Player playerReference2 = session.get(Player.class,1); //Question #2 -- does playerReference2.getGold() return 100, or is it the same exact object? Should I make a practice of evicting all objects that are affected by an HQL update if there's a chance some code will need it later?

    Read the article

  • Should app using VCL migrate?

    - by Fdr
    Is VCL dead, or does it have a future as a GUI library? As CLX ended, is there any chance for cross-platform support in future releases? I've had to do some work with legacy app that uses Borland's VCL(BCB6). Now that new features have to be implemented, it's necessary to revalue alternatives. Whether to stick with VCL or migrate to some other library/framework. I've never read much what's happening in the field Embarcadero(Borland) tools. At least there seems to be only few VCL tagged questions here in SO and no much luck with google either.

    Read the article

  • jQuery('body').text() gives different answers in different browsers

    - by Charles Anderson
    My HTML looks like this: <html> <head> <title>Test</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="jQuery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function init() { var text = jQuery('body').text(); alert('length = ' + text.length); } </script> </head> <body onload="init()">0123456789</body> </html> When I load this in Firefox, the length is reported as 10. However, in Chrome it's 11 because it thinks there's a linefeed after the '9'. In IE it's also 11, but the last character is an escape. Meanwhile, Opera thinks there are 12 characters, with the last two being CR LF. If I change the body element to include a span: <body onload="init()"><span>0123456789</span></body> and the jQuery call to: var text = jQuery('body span').text(); then all the browsers agree that the length is 10. Clearly it's the body element that's causing the issue, but can anyone explain exactly why this is happening? I'm particularly surprised because the excellent jQuery is normally browser-independent.

    Read the article

  • Auto increment with a Unit Of Work

    - by Derick
    Context I'm building a persistence layer to abstract different types of databases that I'll be needing. On the relational part I have mySQL, Oracle and PostgreSQL. Let's take the following simplified MySQL tables: CREATE TABLE Contact ( ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(30) ); CREATE TABLE Address ( ID varchar(15), CONTACT_ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(50) ); I use code to generate system specific alpha numeric unique ID's fitting 15 chars in this case. Thus, if I insert a Contact record with it's Addresses I have my generated Contact.ID and Address.CONTACT_IDs before committing. I've created a Unit of Work (amongst others) as per Martin Fowler's patterns to add transaction support. I'm using a key based Identity Map in the UoW to track the changed records in memory. It works like a charm for the scenario above, all pretty standard stuff so far. The question scenario comes in when I have a database that is not under my control and the ID fields are auto-increment (or in Oracle sequences). In this case I do not have the db generated Contact.ID beforehand, so when I create my Address I do not have a value for Address.CONTACT_ID. The transaction has not been started on the DB session since all is kept in the Identity Map in memory. Question: What is a good approach to address this? (Avoiding unnecessary db round trips) Some ideas: Retrieve the last ID: I can do a call to the database to retrieve the last Id like: SELECT Auto_increment FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_name='Contact'; But this is MySQL specific and probably something similar can be done for the other databases. If do this then would need to do the 1st insert, get the ID and then update the children (Address.CONTACT_IDs) – all in the current transaction context.

    Read the article

  • nginx 0.7.65 rewrite url with querystring problem?

    - by WisdomFusion
    Hi, all Recently, I altered my web server lighty to nginx. And now, Struggling with some problems. First, I have a site in nginx which only rewrites urls and redircts them to a new domain, and this site has exactly no file in its root directory. I put some rewrite rules (just string rules, no querystring) in my nginx.conf list 1 rewrite ^/index_([0-9]+)(.*)$ /forum-$1-1.html last; rewrite ^/dispbbs_([0-9]+)_([0-9]+)\.html$ /thread-$2-1-1.html last; Those rules work perfect till now. However, some rules that used to rewrite url with querystring do not work as hoped. list 2 location /index.asp { if ($arg_boardid ~ "^([0-9]+)") { rewrite ^ /forum-$arg_boardid-1.html break; } rewrite ^ /index.php break; } location /dispbbs.asp { rewrite ^ /thread-$arg_id-1-1.html break; } And, these rules are converted from rules under httpd server, list 3 ^/dispbbs\.asp\?boardID=([0-9]+)&ID=([0-9]+).*$ /thread-$2-1-1.html; ^/dispbbs\.asp\?(.*)&id=([0-9]+)(.*)$ /thread-$2-1-1.html; ^/index\.asp\?boardid=([0-9]+)(.*)$ /forum-$1-1.html; ^/index\.asp\?boardid=([0-9]+)$ /forum-$1-1.html; ^/index\.asp$ /index.php; So, what's the matter with rules listed in the list 2? and how could I make it woking. V/R, gavin

    Read the article

  • .htaccess rewrite subdomains

    - by Cyclone
    Here is my current code: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^example\.com [NC] #RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI}!^something RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.example\.com RewriteRule (.*) something/%1/$1 [QSA,L] My goal is to rewrite http://*.example.com/whatever to http://example.com/something/*/whatever, assuming * is the same for both and whatever is the same for both. However, I believe this is causing an infinite loop somehow, so I added that commented out line (RewriteBase is / btw), but if I uncomment then the entire site is a 500 response code. Without that line, only the subdomains error. What am I doing wrong, and how can I fix this? I have already configured the server so anything gets redirected to my public_html folder. EDIT: For clarification, I am trying to do an internal redirect, not external. EDIT: There is not a flag for internal redirect it seems. Is there any place I can see the actual error message for the broken rewriterule? If I knew what was wrong I would be able to stand a better chance of fixing it.

    Read the article

  • MVVM: where is the best place to integrate an id counter, in ViewModel or Repository or... ?

    - by msfanboy
    Hello, I am using http://loungerepo.codeplex.com/ this library needs a unique id when I persist my entities to the repository. I decided for integer not Guid. The question is now where do I retrieve a new integer and how do I do it? This is my current approach in the SchoolclassAdministrationViewModel.cs: public SchoolclassAdministrationViewModel() { _schoolclassRepo = new SchoolclassRepository(); _pupilRepo = new PupilRepository(); _subjectRepo = new SubjectRepository(); _currentSchoolclass = new SchoolclassModel(); _currentPupil = new PupilModel(); _currentSubject = new SubjectModel(); ... } private void AddSchoolclass() { // get the last free id for a schoolclass entity _currentSchoolclass.SchoolclassID = _schoolclassRepo.LastID; // add the new schoolclass entity to the repository _schoolclassRepo.Add(SchoolclassModel.SchoolclassModelToSchoolclass(_currentSchoolclass)); // add the new schoolclass entity to the ObservableCollection bound to the View Schoolclasses.Add(_currentSchoolclass); // Create a new schoolclass entity and the bound UI controls content gets cleaned CurrentSchoolclass = new SchoolclassModel(); } public class SchoolclassRepository : IRepository<Schoolclass> { private int _lastID; public SchoolclassRepository() { _lastID = FetchLastId(); } public void Add(Schoolclass entity) { //repo.Store(entity); } private int FetchLastId() { return // repo.GetIDOfLastEntryAndDoInc++ } public int LastID { get { return _lastID; } } } Explanation: Every time the user switches to the SchoolclassAdministrationViewModel which is datatemplated with a UserControl the saVM Ctor is called and the schoolclass repository is created wherein the FetchLastId() is called and I am up to date with the last ID doing a inc++ on it to get the free one... Do you have any better ideas? What I do not like about my current apporach: -Having a private method in repositry class because a repositry is to fetch data only not "entity logic" like the counter - Having to access from the ViewModel a public property - located in the repository -, actually its not the ViewModel concern to get a entity id and assign it. Actually the ViewModel should ask for a schoolclass POCO and get a SchoolclassModel to bind to the UI. But then I have again to re-read the Schoolclass properties into the SchoolclassModel properties what I want to avoid.

    Read the article

  • Does UIActivityIndicator require manual threading on iPhone

    - by Akusete
    I am running creating an iPhone application which performs a costly operation and I wanted to create an activityIndicator to let the user know the application has not frozen. The operation is performed entirely in one event call... so there is no chance for the UI framework to receive control to actually display and animate this indicator. The sample apps which use the UIActivityIndicator (or any other similar animation) start and stop the animation in different events, triggered separately at different stages of the program. Do I need to manually create a separate thread to run my operation in, or is there already default support for this kind of behavior?

    Read the article

  • VB.NET For Each steps into loop body for an IEnumerable collection! How? Why?

    - by Paul Sasik
    This is weird. I have a class that inherits from IEnumrable whose Count property is reporting 0 (zero) elements but the For Each loop steps into the loop body and tries to use the variable where it should just be moving on. My code: On Error Resume Next Dim d As Foo For Each d In fooCollection ' use d and throws an exception Next d Weirder still, every time d is accessed i get an exception thrown in the output window: A first chance exception of type 'System.NullReferenceException' but i'm not stopping on the exception (not in a try/catch block). Is "On Error Resume Next" causing this weirdness? Weirdness found: Per Rowland's and JohnH's comments i checked the Foo class: The GetEnumerator method inside of Foo didn't actually return anything! It had an empty body. That coupled with the On Error Resume Next before the loop caused the havoc! Wow this was ugly. Thanks for the clues guys!

    Read the article

  • Find&Replace using Python - Binary file

    - by Aaron Hoffman
    Hello, I'm attempting to do a "find and replace" in a file on a Mac OS X computer. Although it appears to work correctly. It seems that the file is somehow altered. The text editor that I use (Text Wrangler) is unable to even open the file once this is completed. Here is the code as I have it: import fileinput for line in fileinput.FileInput("testfile.txt",inplace=1): line = line.replace("newhost",host) print line, When I view the file from the terminal, it does say "testfile" may be a binary file. See it anyway? Is there a chance that this replace is corrupting the file? Do I have another option for this to work? I really appreciate the help. Thank you, Aaron UPDATE: the actual file is NOT a .txt file it is a .plist file which is preference file in Mac OS X if that makes any difference

    Read the article

  • Job hopping etiquette

    - by Paul Tomblin
    I need to get out of a bad situation at my current work - I like the work, but they've been jerking me around with contract extensions coming at the last minute. I've been offered a job at a different company that doesn't look as interesting, but it's a chance to learn a few technologies I was interested in learning. It's "6 months contract to permanent" - does that mean that if I decide it's hopelessly boring and quit after the 6 month contract period that it won't reflect too badly on me and ruin my reputation in the town? What if I quit earlier than that? Edit I should mention that I don't think there will be one right answer, so rather than accepting one answer, I'm going to vote up the good ones.

    Read the article

  • Update Datatable and DatagridView with database Changes by Timer

    - by aleroot
    Scenario : i have a database table that is being updated frequently by some services. I have a c# Winforms Application that load this table in a datagridview by binding a datatable as Datasource, then i whant to add a Timer that every 10 seconds update a the content of a datatable with the last changes in the database table ... I don't need to update a database with the datatable changes, but i need to update datatable with the last changes in the database table, that is the inverse of the usually.... Is there a way to do that ? What is the best way ? i've tried with this code : private void ServiceTimer_Tick(object state) { OdbcConnection oCon = new OdbcConnection(); oCon.ConnectionString = ConnectionStrings; OdbcDataAdapter dp = new OdbcDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM table", oCon); dsProva.Tables.Clear(); dp.Fill(dsProva,"table"); dataGridViewMessaggi.DataSource = dsProva.Tables["table"]; dataGridViewMessaggi.Refresh(); } But every Timer Tick i lost the selection in DatagridView and Current Row .... Is There a better solution ?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188  | Next Page >