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  • How does this ajax call persist DOM changes in the browser cache?

    - by Greg
    For the purpose of the question I need to create a simple fictitious scenario. I have the following trivial page with one link, call it page A: <a class="red-anchor" onclick="change_color(event);" href="http://mysite.com/b/">B</a> With the associated Javascript function: function change_color(e) { var event = e || window.event; var link = event.target; link.className = "green-anchor"; } And I have the appropriate CSS to make the anchor red or green based on the classname. This is working. That is, when I click the anchor it changes color from red to green, which is briefly visible before the browser loads page B. But if I then use the BACK button to return to page A I get different behavior in different browsers. In Safari, the anchor is still green (desired behavior) In Firefox it reverts to red I imagine that Safari is somehow updating its cached version of the page, whereas Firefox isn't. So my first question is: is there any way to get FF to update the cached page, or is something else happening here? Secondly: I have a different implementation where I use an ajax call. In this I set the class of the anchor using a session variable, something like... <a class="<?php echo $_SESSION["color"]; ?>" ...[snip]... >B</a> And the javascript function makes an additional ajax call that changes the "color" session variable. In this case both Safari and Firefox work as expected. When going back from B to A the color is still green. But I can't for the life of me figure out why it should be different to the non-ajax case. I have tried many different permutations and for it to work on FF the "color" session variable MUST change (i.e. the ajax call itself is not somehow reloading the cache). But on coming BACK, the page is being reloaded from the cache (verified in Firebug), so how is the page even accessing this session variable if it isn't reprocessing the page and running that fragment of php in the anchor? I figure there must be something fundamental here that I am not understanding. Any insight would be much appreciated.

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  • Moose and error messages, the sun and the moon [closed]

    - by xxxxxxx
    So again using Moose I write a role like this: package My::Role; use Moose::Role; use Some::Class::Consuming::My::Role; With the note that Some::Class::Consuming::My::Role consumes the role My::Role; And what do I get ? I get an error message like this: A role generator is required to generate roles at /usr/local/share/perl/5.10.0/MooseX/Role/Parameterized/Meta/Role/Parameterizable.pm line 79 MooseX::Role::Parameterized::Meta::Role::Parameterizable::generate_role('MooseX::Role::Parameterized::Meta::Role::Parameterizable=HASH...', 'consumer', 'Moose::Meta::Class=HASH(0x894e540)', 'parameters', 'HASH(0x86fc1e0)') called at /usr/local/share/perl/5.10.0/MooseX/Role/Parameterized/Meta/Role/Parameterizable.pm line 116 MooseX::Role::Parameterized::Meta::Role::Parameterizable::apply('MooseX::Role::Parameterized::Meta::Role::Parameterizable=HASH...', 'Moose::Meta::Class=HASH(0x894e540)', 'element_type', 'Tuple') called at /usr/local/lib/perl/5.10.0/Moose/Util.pm line 132 Moose::Util::_apply_all_roles('Moose::Meta::Class=HASH(0x894e540)', undef, 'Stuff', 'HASH(0x894e1d0)') called at /usr/local/lib/perl/5.10.0/Moose/Util.pm line 86 Moose::Util::apply_all_roles('Moose::Meta::Class=HASH(0x894e540)', 'Stuff', 'HASH(0x894e1d0)') called at /usr/local/lib/perl/5.10.0/Moose.pm line 57 Moose::with('Moose::Meta::Class=HASH(0x894e540)', 'Group', 'HASH(0x894e1d0)') called at /usr/local/lib/perl/5.10.0/Moose/Exporter.pm line 293 Moose::with('Group', 'HASH(0x894e1d0)') called at Some_path_on_disk line 6 require Some_other_path_on_disk called at Some_path_on_disk line 9 Group::BEGIN() called at Yet_another_path_on_disk line 0 eval {...} called at Yet_another_path_on_disk line 0 Compilation failed in require at some_path_on_disk line 9. BEGIN failed--compilation aborted at some_path_on_disk line 9. What am I to make of this ? As Dijkstra would concisely describe, this looks like "just a meaningless concatenation of words"(which is exactly what it is). Would a more appropriate error message be "You cannot use a class consuming the role that you are currently defining " ? What does the error message try to convey ? Can the author make the error message meaningful ? Will he ever make it so ? maybe this can be planned for version 3.14159265358979323846 ? In actuality I get one and a half pages of error which is completely unreadable and devoid of any logic or sense of respect for the user that is using Moose (in terms of intuitive error messages) just like the one above. What's to be done in this case ? I mean I get on my screen these error messages that are sometimes completely unrelated to the problem that I'm having (which I can assess after solving the problems that probably caused them, I say probably becuase I have no idea where these error messages came from because they look like they fell from the sky as they have no relation to the actual situation). Is this: the inexplicable dramatic destiny of the Perl programmer using Moose ? someone being extremely lazy and sloppy at writing error messages ? maybe on heavy drugs ? me not understanding basic english ? Gentlemen, when writing software, please please please, take care of the poor programmer that will use it and respect him by writing relevant error messages. (Except for error messages Moose is a pretty good piece of software)

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  • Asynchronous callback for network in Objective-C Iphone

    - by vodkhang
    I am working with network request - response in Objective-C. There is something with asynchronous model that I don't understand. In summary, I have a view that will show my statuses from 2 social networks: Twitter and Facebook. When I clicked refresh, it will call a model manager. That model manager will call 2 service helpers to request for latest items. When 2 service helpers receive data, it will pass back to model manager and this model will add all data into a sorted array. What I don't understand here is that : when response from social networks come back, how many threads will handle the response. From my understanding about multithreading and networking (in Java), there must have 2 threads handle 2 responses and those 2 threads will execute the code to add the responses to the array. So, it can have race condition and the program can go wrong right? Is it the correct working model of iphone objective-C? Or they do it in a different way that it will never have race condition and we don't have to care about locking, synchronize? Here is my example code: ModelManager.m - (void)updateMyItems:(NSArray *)items { self.helpers = [self authenticatedHelpersForAction:NCHelperActionGetMyItems]; for (id<NCHelper> helper in self.helpers) { [helper updateMyItems:items]; // NETWORK request here } } - (void)helper:(id <NCHelper>)helper didReturnItems:(NSArray *)items { [self helperDidFinishGettingMyItems:items callback:@selector(model:didGetMyItems:)]; break; } } // some private attributes int *_currentSocialNetworkItemsCount = 0; // to count the number of items of a social network - (void)helperDidFinishGettingMyItems:(NSArray *)items { for (Item *item in items) { _currentSocialNetworkItemsCount ++; } NSLog(@"count: %d", _currentSocialNetworkItemsCount); _currentSocialNetworkItemsCount = 0; } I want to ask if there is a case that the method helperDidFinishGettingMyItems is called concurrently. That means, for example, faceboook returns 10 items, twitter returns 10 items, will the output of count will ever be larger than 10? And if there is only one single thread, how can the thread finishes parsing 1 response and jump to the other response because, IMO, thread is only executed sequently, block of code by block of code

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  • XNA - Keyboard text input

    - by Sekhat
    Okay, so basically I want to be able to retrieve keyboard text. Like entering text into a text field or something. I'm only writing my game for windows. I've disregarded using Guide.BeginShowKeyboardInput because it breaks the feel of a self contained game, and the fact that the Guide always shows XBOX buttons doesn't seem right to me either. Yes it's the easiest way, but I don't like it. Next I tried using System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow. I created a class that inherited from it, and passed it the Games window handle, implemented the WndProc function to catch WM_CHAR (or WM_KEYDOWN) though the WndProc got called for other messages, WM_CHAR and WM_KEYDOWN never did. So I had to abandon that idea, and besides, I was also referencing the whole of Windows forms, which meant unnecessary memory footprint bloat. So my last idea was to create a Thread level, low level keyboard hook. This has been the most successful so far. I get WM_KEYDOWN message, (not tried WM_CHAR yet) translate the virtual keycode with Win32 funcation MapVirtualKey to a char. And I get my text! (I'm just printing with Debug.Write at the moment) A couple problems though. It's as if I have caps lock on, and an unresponsive shift key. (Of course it's not however, it's just that there is only one Virtual Key Code per key, so translating it only has one output) and it adds overhead as it attaches itself to the Windows Hook List and isn't as fast as I'd like it to be, but the slowness could be more due to Debug.Write. Has anyone else approached this and solved it, without having to resort to an on screen keyboard? or does anyone have further ideas for me to try? thanks in advance. note: This is cross posted from the XNA Creators Forums, so if I get an answer there I'll post it here and Vice-Versa Question asked by Jimmy Maybe I'm not understanding the question, but why can't you use the XNA Keyboard and KeyboardState classes? My comment: It's because though you can read keystates, you can't get access to typed text as and how it is typed by the user. So let me further clarify. I want to implement being able to read text input from the user as if they are typing into textbox is windows. The keyboard and KeyboardState class get states of all keys, but I'd have to map each key and combination to it's character representation. This falls over when the user doesn't use the same keyboard language as I do especially with symbols (my double quotes is shift + 2, while american keyboards have theirs somewhere near the return key).

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  • Entrepreneur Needs Programmers, Architects, or Engineers?

    - by brand-newbie
    Hi guys (Ladies included). I posted on a related site, but THIS is the place to be. I want to build a specialized website. I am an entrepreneur and refining valuations now for venture capitalsists: i.e., determining how much cash I will need. I need help in understanding what human resources I need (i.e., Software Programmers, Architects, Engineers, etc.)??? Trust me, I have read most--if not all--of the threads here on the subject, and I can tell you I am no closer to the answer than ever. Here's my technology problem: The website will include (2) main components: a search engine (web crawler)...and a very large database. The search engine will not be a competitor to google, obviously; however, it "will" require bots to scour the web. The website will be, basically, a statistical database....where users should be able to pull up any statistic from "numerous" fields. Like any entrepreneur with a web-based vision, I'm "hoping" to get 100+ million registered users eventually. However, practically, we will start as small as feasible. As regards the technology (database architecture, servers, etc.), I do want quality, quality, quality. My priorities are speed, and the capaility to be scalable...so that if I "did" get globally large, we could do it without having to re-engineer anything. In other words, I want the back-end and the "infrastructure" to be scalable and professional....with emphasis on quality. I am not an IT professional. Although I've built several Joomla-based websites, I'm just a rookie who's only used minor javascript coding to modify a few plug-ins and components. The business I'm trying to create requires specialization and experts. I want to define the problem and let a capable team create the final product, and I will stay totally hands off. So who do you guys suggest I hire to run this thing? A software engineer? I was thinking I would need a "database engineer," a "systems security engineer", and maybe 2 or 3 "programmers" for the search engine. Also a web designer...and maybe a part-time graphic designer...everyone working under a single software engineer. What do you guys think? Who should I hire?...I REALLY need help from some people in the industry (YOU guys) on this. Is this project do-able in 6 months? If so, how many people will I need? Who exactly needs to head up this thing?...Senior software engineer, an embedded engineer, a CC++ engineer, a java engineer, a database engineer? And do I build this thing is Ruby or Java?

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  • request response with activemq - always send double response.

    - by Chris Valley
    Hi, I'm new at activeMq. I tried to create a simple request response like this. public Listener(string destination) { // set factory ConnectionFactory factory = new ConnectionFactory(URL); IConnection connection; try { connection = factory.CreateConnection(); connection.Start(); ISession session = connection.CreateSession(); // create consumer for designated destination IMessageConsumer consumer = session.CreateConsumer(new Apache.NMS.ActiveMQ.Commands.ActiveMQQueue(destination)); consumer.Listener += new MessageListener(consumer_Listener); Console.ReadLine(); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString()); throw new Exception("Exception in Listening ", ex); } } The OnMessage static void consumer_Listener(IMessage message) { IConnectionFactory factory = new ConnectionFactory("tcp://localhost:61616/"); using (IConnection connection = factory.CreateConnection()) { //Create the Session using (ISession session = connection.CreateSession()) { //Create the Producer for the topic/queue // IMessageProducer prod = session.CreateProducer(new Apache.NMS.ActiveMQ.Commands.ActiveMQTempQueue(message.NMSDestination)); IMessageProducer producer = session.CreateProducer(message.NMSDestination); // Create Response // IMessage response = session.CreateMessage(); ITextMessage response = producer.CreateTextMessage("Replied from VS2010 Test"); //response.NMSReplyTo = new Apache.NMS.ActiveMQ.Commands.ActiveMQQueue("testQ1"); response.NMSCorrelationID = message.NMSCorrelationID; if (message.NMSReplyTo != null) { producer.Send(message.NMSReplyTo, response); Console.WriteLine("Receive: " + ((ITextMessage)message).NMSCorrelationID); Console.WriteLine("Received from : " + message.NMSDestination.ToString()); Console.WriteLine("----------------------------------------------------"); } } } } Every time i tried to send a request to the listener, the response always send repeatedly. The first response will have NMSReplyTo properties while the other not. My workaround to stop this situation by cheking the NMSReplyTo properties if (message.NMSReplyTo != null) { producer.Send(message.NMSReplyTo, response); Console.WriteLine("Receive: " + ((ITextMessage)message).NMSCorrelationID); Console.WriteLine("Received from : " + message.NMSDestination.ToString()); Console.WriteLine("----------------------------------------------------"); } In my understanding, this happened because there was a circular send response in the listener to the same Queue. Could you guys help me how to fix this? Many Thanks, Chris

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  • Rails - embedded polymorphic comment list + add comment form - example?

    - by odigity
    Hey, all. Working on my first Rails app. I've searched all around - read a bunch of tutorials, articles, and forum posts, watched some screencasts, and I've found a few examples that come close to what I'm trying to do (notably http://railscasts.com/episodes/154-polymorphic-association and ep 196 about nested model forms), but not exactly. I have two models (Podcast and BlogPost) that need to be commentable, and I have a Comment model that is polymorphically related to both. The railscasts above had a very similar example (ep 154), but Ryan used a full set of nested routes, so there were specific templates for adding and editing comments. What I want to do is show the list of comments right on the Podcast or BlogPost page, along with an Add Comment form at the bottom. I don't need a separate add template/route, and I don't need the ability to edit, only delete. This is a pretty common design on the web, but I can't find a Rails example specifically about this pattern. Here's my current understanding: I need routes for the create and delete actions, of course, but there are no templates associated with those. I'm also guessing that the right approach is to create a partial that can be included at the bottom of both the Podcast and BlogPost show template. The logical name for the partial seems to me to be something like _comments.html.haml. I know it's a common convention to have the object passed to the partial be named after the template, but calling the object 'comments' seems to not match my use case, since what I really need to pass is the commentable object (Podcast or BlogPost). So, I guess I'd use the locals option for the render partial call? (:commentable = @podcast). Inside the partial, I could call commentable.comments to get the comments collection, render that with a second partial (this time with the conventional use case, calling the partial _comment.html.haml), then create a form that submits to... what? REST-wise, it should be a POST to the collection, which would be /podcast|blogpost/:id/comments, and I think the helper for that is podcast_comments_path(podcast) if it were a podcast - not sure what to do though, since I'm using polymorphic comments. That would trigger the Comment.create action, which would then need to redirect back to the podcast|blogpost path /podcast|blogpost/:id. It's all a bit overwhelming, which is why I was really hoping to find a screencast or example that specifically implements this design.

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  • Unity framework - creating & disposing Entity Framework datacontexts at the appropriate time

    - by TobyEvans
    Hi there, With some kindly help from StackOverflow, I've got Unity Framework to create my chained dependencies, including an Entity Framework datacontext object: using (IUnityContainer container = new UnityContainer()) { container.RegisterType<IMeterView, Meter>(); container.RegisterType<IUnitOfWork, CommunergySQLiteEntities>(new ContainerControlledLifetimeManager()); container.RegisterType<IRepositoryFactory, SQLiteRepositoryFactory>(); container.RegisterType<IRepositoryFactory, WCFRepositoryFactory>("Uploader"); container.Configure<InjectedMembers>() .ConfigureInjectionFor<CommunergySQLiteEntities>( new InjectionConstructor(connectionString)); MeterPresenter meterPresenter = container.Resolve<MeterPresenter>(); this works really well in creating my Presenter object and displaying the related view, I'm really pleased. However, the problem I'm running into now is over the timing of the creation and disposal of the Entity Framework object (and I suspect this will go for any IDisposable object). Using Unity like this, the SQL EF object "CommunergySQLiteEntities" is created straight away, as I've added it to the constructor of the MeterPresenter public MeterPresenter(IMeterView view, IUnitOfWork unitOfWork, IRepositoryFactory cacheRepository) { this.mView = view; this.unitOfWork = unitOfWork; this.cacheRepository = cacheRepository; this.Initialize(); } I felt a bit uneasy about this at the time, as I don't want to be holding open a database connection, but I couldn't see any other way using the Unity dependency injection. Sure enough, when I actually try to use the datacontext, I get this error: ((System.Data.Objects.ObjectContext)(unitOfWork)).Connection '((System.Data.Objects.ObjectContext)(unitOfWork)).Connection' threw an exception of type 'System.ObjectDisposedException' System.Data.Common.DbConnection {System.ObjectDisposedException} My understanding of the principle of IoC is that you set up all your dependencies at the top, resolve your object and away you go. However, in this case, some of the child objects, eg the datacontext, don't need to be initialised at the time the parent Presenter object is created (as you would by passing them in the constructor), but the Presenter does need to know about what type to use for IUnitOfWork when it wants to talk to the database. Ideally, I want something like this inside my resolved Presenter: using(IUnitOfWork unitOfWork = new NewInstanceInjectedUnitOfWorkType()) { //do unitOfWork stuff } so the Presenter knows what IUnitOfWork implementation to use to create and dispose of straight away, preferably from the original RegisterType call. Do I have to put another Unity container inside my Presenter, at the risk of creating a new dependency? This is probably really obvious to a IoC guru, but I'd really appreciate a pointer in the right direction thanks Toby

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  • SIMPLE OpenSSL RSA Encryption in C/C++ is causing me headaches

    - by Josh
    Hey guys, I'm having some trouble figuring out how to do this. Basically I just want a client and server to be able to send each other encrypted messages. This is going to be incredibly insecure because I'm trying to figure this all out so I might as well start at the ground floor. So far I've got all the keys working but encryption/decryption is giving me hell. I'll start by saying I am using C++ but most of these functions require C strings so whatever I'm doing may be causing problems. Note that on the client side I receive the following error in regards to decryption. error:04065072:rsa routines:RSA_EAY_PRIVATE_DECRYPT:padding check failed I don't really understand how padding works so I don't know how to fix it. Anywho here are the relevant variables on each side followed by the code. Client: RSA *myKey; // Loaded with private key // The below will hold the decrypted message unsigned char* decrypted = (unsigned char*) malloc(RSA_size(myKey)); /* The below holds the encrypted string received over the network. Originally held in a C-string but C strings never work for me and scare me so I put it in a C++ string */ string encrypted; // The reinterpret_cast line was to get rid of an error message. // Maybe the cause of one of my problems? if(RSA_private_decrypt(sizeof(encrypted.c_str()), reinterpret_cast<const unsigned char*>(encrypted.c_str()), decrypted, myKey, RSA_PKCS1_OAEP_PADDING)==-1) { cout << "Private decryption failed" << endl; ERR_error_string(ERR_peek_last_error(), errBuf); printf("Error: %s\n", errBuf); free(decrypted); exit(1); } Server: RSA *pkey; // Holds the client's public key string key; // Holds a session key I want to encrypt and send //The below will hold the encrypted message unsigned char *encrypted = (unsigned char*)malloc(RSA_size(pkey)); // The reinterpret_cast line was to get rid of an error message. // Maybe the cause of one of my problems? if(RSA_public_encrypt(sizeof(key.c_str()), reinterpret_cast<const unsigned char*>(key.c_str()), encrypted, pkey, RSA_PKCS1_OAEP_PADDING)==-1) { cout << "Public encryption failed" << endl; ERR_error_string(ERR_peek_last_error(), errBuf); printf("Error: %s\n", errBuf); free(encrypted); exit(1); } Let me once again state, in case I didn't before, that I know my code sucks but I'm just trying to establish a framework for understanding this. I'm sorry if this offends you veteran coders. Thanks in advance for any help you guys can provide!

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  • Autoconf (newbie) -- building with static library

    - by EB
    I am trying to migrate from manual build to autoconf, which is working very nicely so far. But I have one static library that I can't figure out how to integrate. That library will NOT be located in the usual library locations - the location of the binary (.a file) and header (.h file) will be given as a configure argument. (Notably, even if I move the .a file to /usr/lib or anywhere else I can think of, it still won't work.) Manual compilation is working with these: gcc ... -I/path/to/header/file/directory /full/path/to/the/.a/file/itself (Uh, I actually don't understand why the .a file is referenced directly, not with -L or anything. Yes, I have a half-baked understanding of building C programs.) I can use the configure argument to successfully find the header (.h file) using AC_CHECK_HEADER. Inside the AC_CHECK_HEADER I then add the location to CPFLAGS and the #include of the header file in the actual C code picks it up nicely. Given a configure argument that has been put into $location and the name of the needed files are myprog.h and myprog.a (which are both in the same directory), here is what works so far: AC_CHECK_HEADER([$location/myprog.h], [AC_DEFINE([HAVE_MYPROG_H], [1], [found myprog.h]) CFLAGS="$CFLAGS -I$location"]) Where I run into difficulties is getting the binary (.a file) linked in. No matter what I try, I always get an error about undefined references to the function calls for that library. I'm pretty sure it's a linkage issue, because I can fuss with the C code and make an intentional error in the function calls to that library which produces earlier errors that indicate that the function prototypes have been loaded and used to compile. I tried adding the location that contains the .a file to LDFLAGS and then doing a AC_CHECK_LIB but it is not found. Maybe my syntax is wrong, or maybe I'm missing something more fundamental, which would not be surprising since I'm a newbie and don't really know what I'm doing. Here is what I have tried: AC_CHECK_HEADER([$location/myprog.h], [AC_DEFINE([HAVE_MYPROG_H], [1], [found myprog.h]) CFLAGS="$CFLAGS -I$location"; LDFLAGS="$LDFLAGS -L$location"; AC_CHECK_LIB(myprog)]) No dice. AC_CHECK_LIB is looking for -lmyprog I guess (or libmyprog?) so I'm not sure if that's a problem, so I tried this, too (omit AC_CHECK_LIB and include the .a directly in LDFLAGS), without luck: AC_CHECK_HEADER([$location/myprog.h], [AC_DEFINE([HAVE_MYPROG_H], [1], [found myprog.h]) CFLAGS="$CFLAGS -I$location"; LDFLAGS="$LDFLAGS -L$location/myprog.a"]) To emulate the manual compilation, I tried removing the -L but that doesn't help: AC_CHECK_HEADER([$location/myprog.h], [AC_DEFINE([HAVE_MYPROG_H], [1], [found myprog.h]) CFLAGS="$CFLAGS -I$location"; LDFLAGS="$LDFLAGS $location/myprog.a"]) I tried other combinations and permutations, but I think I might be missing something more fundamental....

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  • How to get GWT 2.0 and Restlet 2.0 to play nice

    - by Holograham
    Hello, I am having trouble getting Restlet to play nice with GWT in the same project. I have been trying the examples from Restlets website to no avail I am using Eclipse, Maven2 plugin, GWT, and Restlet GWT. I have never used server side code in this GWT project before and I know there is some custom setup involved. I am deploying locally for the time being using the built in Jetty in GWT Hosted Mode. I can get my front end to display but my back end is not executing. I did add this to my web.xml file which is from the example (for the time being I am trying to drop the example into my project). <servlet> <servlet-name>adapter</servlet-name> <servlet-class>org.restlet.ext.gwt.GwtShellServletWrapper</servlet-class> <init-param> <param-name>org.restlet.application</param-name> <param-value>org.restlet.example.gwt.server.TestServerApplication</param-value> </init-param> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>adapter</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> I did notice that my web.xml file is located separately from my war deployment directory. My project dir structure is setup as follows. Project Root src/main/java src/main/resources src/main/test JRE Maven Dependecies GWT SDK src main webapp WEB-INF web.xml target war <my project dir> WEB-INF lib pom.xml So there is no web.xml under my war files WEB-INF directory. I am new to this type of application so it is most likely a matter of me not understanding the directory structure and how my GWT project is compiling into these dirs. Any help is appreciated! If I need to provide any more info let me know. Thanks

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  • Visual Web Developer 2008 Express and XHTML 1.1 (not applying)

    - by Mike Valeriano
    Hello. I may be missing something since I'm not used to work with IDEs for web development, so please understand if I'm doing something stupid. I've picked a copy of Beginning ASP.NET 3.5 in C# and VB to try and learn this thing quickly. I'm no HTML guru, but I know something about the DTDs and I want to either use XHTML 1.0 Strict or XHTML 1.1 while learning the ins and outs of ASP.NET. Following the book (just started actually), I'm not having any trouble understanding the concepts, since I have a C# background, but what I don't understand is how VWD goes about applying the schema you select for validation. The book explains that the drop-down list on the toolbar is enough to set this, so that's what I did: I've selected XHTML 1.1 (since there is no 1.0 strict option, what I find really odd) and then started the project. The thing is that the code generated automatically for the Default page had the XHTML 1.0 transitional DTD. Every other page added had the same DTD, even though XHTML 1.1 is still the selected schema in the drop-down list. I decided to test it out and there it was: inserting some text in the design view and then applying a bold formatting just inserted < b tags on the code. Changing color does add a span tag with added CSS though. What I want to know is: if I want strict XHTML (or 1.1) should I just code it manually? Or is there a "fix" for this problem (having a schema selected but not applied by the IDE)? Am I missing something really easy and dumb? I have no problem with coding it manually - I actually prefer doing that. The thing is that I really wanna try this WYSIWYG approach for once, since some developers swear by it. Plus I don't know yet if I'll need special tags for ASP.NET, so I think having them inserted automatically should be the best practice. I couldn't find any similar problems around (MSDN, Google, here), and as far as the book goes (up to the point I've read), this is the expected VWD behavior, which I find suspect at least. Sorry for the long text (and poor English - not my primary language). Thanks in advance for any help/tips.

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  • C# Nested Property Accessing overloading OR Sequential Operator Overloading

    - by Tim
    Hey, I've been searching around for a solution to a tricky problem we're having with our code base. To start, our code resembles the following: class User { int id; int accountId; Account account { get { return Account.Get(accountId); } } } class Account { int accountId; OnlinePresence Presence { get { return OnlinePresence.Get(accountId); } } public static Account Get(int accountId) { // hits a database and gets back our object. } } class OnlinePresence { int accountId; bool isOnline; public static OnlinePresence Get(int accountId) { // hits a database and gets back our object. } } What we're often doing in our code is trying to access the account Presence of a user by doing var presence = user.Account.Presence; The problem with this is that this is actually making two requests to the database. One to get the Account object, and then one to get the Presence object. We could easily knock this down to one request if we did the following : var presence = UserPresence.Get(user.id); This works, but sort of requires developers to have an understanding of the UserPresence class/methods that would be nice to eliminate. I've thought of a couple of cool ways to be able to handle this problem, and was wondering if anyone knows if these are possible, if there are other ways of handling this, or if we just need to think more as we're coding and do the UserPresence.Get instead of using properties. Overload nested accessors. It would be cool if inside the User class I could write some sort of "extension" that would say "any time a User object's Account property's Presence object is being accessed, do this instead". Overload the . operator with knowledge of what comes after. If I could somehow overload the . operator only in situations where the object on the right is also being "dotted" it would be great. Both of these seem like things that could be handled at compile time, but perhaps I'm missing something (would reflection make this difficult?). Am I looking at things completely incorrectly? Is there a way of enforcing this that removes the burden from the user of the business logic? Thanks! Tim

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  • Haskell: how to get through 'no instance for' ?

    - by artemave
    I am learning Haskell. I am on the 8th chapter of this book. The main thing I've learned so far is that Haskell is very unfriendly to me and it bites my ass where possible. Moreover... Heck! Enough mourning, to business. Here is the code: module GlobRegex ( globToRegex, matchesGlob ) where import Text.Regex.Posix import Text.Regex.Posix.String import Text.Regex.Base.RegexLike data CaseOpt = Case | NoCase deriving (Eq) matchesGlob :: String -> String -> CaseOpt -> Bool matchesGlob name pat caseopt = match regex name where regex = case caseopt of NoCase -> makeRegexOpts (defaultCompOpt + compIgnoreCase) defaultExecOpt (globToRegex pat) Case -> makeRegex (globToRegex pat) globToRegex :: String -> String ... And here is how it fails to compile: Prelude Text.Regex.Posix Text.Regex.Base.RegexLike> :load globtoregex\GlobRegex. hs [1 of 1] Compiling GlobRegex ( globtoregex\GlobRegex.hs, interpreted ) globtoregex\GlobRegex.hs:14:31: No instance for (RegexLike regex [Char]) arising from a use of `match' at globtoregex\GlobRegex.hs:14:31-46 Possible fix: add an instance declaration for (RegexLike regex [Char]) In the expression: match regex name In the definition of `matchesGlob': matchesGlob name pat caseopt = match regex name where regex = case caseopt of { NoCase -> makeRegexOpts (defaultCompOpt + compIgnoreCase) defaultExecOpt (globToRegex pat) Case -> makeRegex (globToRegex pat) } globtoregex\GlobRegex.hs:17:23: No instance for (RegexMaker regex CompOption execOpt String) arising from a use of `makeRegex' at globtoregex\GlobRegex.hs:17:23-49 Possible fix: add an instance declaration for (RegexMaker regex CompOption execOpt String) In the expression: makeRegex (globToRegex pat) In a case alternative: Case -> makeRegex (globToRegex pat) In the expression: case caseopt of { NoCase -> makeRegexOpts (defaultCompOpt + compIgnoreCase) defaultExecOpt (globToRegex p at) Case -> makeRegex (globToRegex pat) } Failed, modules loaded: none. To my best understanding, Text.Regex.Posix.String provides instances for RegexLike Regex String and RegexMaker Regex CompOption ExecOption String, so it should work. On the other hand, I can see that regex in the error message is type variable, not a concrete type, so, perhaps not... Anyway, this is where I am stuck. May be there is a common pattern for resolving no instance for type of problems? Or, in Haskell terms, instance of SmartGuess typeclass for no instance for?

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  • MooseX::Types declaration issue, tight test case :)

    - by TJ Thompson
    So after an embarrassing amount of time debugging, I've finally stripped this issue ([http://stackoverflow.com/questions/4621589/perl-moose-typedecorator-error-how-do-i-debug][1]) down to a simple test case. I would humbly request some help understanding why it's failing :) Here is the error message I'm getting: plxc16479 $h2/tmp/tmp18.pl This method [new] requires a single argument. at /nfs/pdx/disks/nehalem.pde.077/perl/5.12.2/lib64/site_perl/MooseX/Types/TypeDecorator.pm line 91 MooseX::Types::TypeDecorator::new('MooseX::Types::TypeDecorator=HASH(0x655b90)') called at /nfs/pdx/disks/nehalem.pde.077/projects/lib/Program-Plist-Pl/lib/Program/Plist/Pl.pm line 10 Program::Plist::Pl::BUILD('Program::Plist::Pl=HASH(0x63d478)', 'HASH(0x63d220)') called at generated method (unknown origin) line 29 Program::Plist::Pl::new('Program::Plist::Pl') called at /nfs/pdx/disks/nehalem.pde.077/tmp/tmp18.pl line 10 Wrapper test script: use strict; use warnings; BEGIN {push(@INC, split(':', $ENV{PERL_TEST_LIBS}))}; use Program::Plist::Pl; my $obj = Program::Plist::Pl->new(); Program::Plist::Pl file: package Program::Plist::Pl; use Moose; use namespace::autoclean; use Program::Types qw(Pattern); # <-- Removing this fixes error use Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern; sub BUILD { my $pattern_obj = Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern->new(); } __PACKAGE__->meta->make_immutable; 1; Program::Types file: package Program::Types; use MooseX::Types -declare => [qw(Pattern)]; class_type Pattern, {class => 'Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern'}; 1; And the Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern file: package Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern; use Moose; use namespace::autoclean; __PACKAGE__->meta->make_immutable; 1; Notes: While I don't need the Pattern type from Program::Types in the above code, I do in other code that is stripped out. The PERL_TEST_LIBS env var I'm pulling INC paths from only contains paths to the project modules. There are no other modules loaded from these paths. It appears the MooseX::Types definition for Pattern is causing problems, but I'm not sure why. Documentation shows the syntax I am using, but it's possible I'm misusing class_type as there isn't much said about it. Intent is to be able to use Pattern for type checking via MooseX::Params::Validate to verify the argument is a 'Program::Plist::Pl::Program' object. I've found that removing the intervening class Program::Plist::Pl from the equation by directly calling Pattern-new from the tmp18.pl wrapper results in no error, even when the Program::Types Pattern type is imported.

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  • HTML Purifier: Removing an element conditionally based on its attributes

    - by pinkgothic
    As per the HTML Purifier smoketest, 'malformed' URIs are occasionally discarded to leave behind an attribute-less anchor tag, e.g. <a href="javascript:document.location='http://www.google.com/'">XSS</a> becomes <a>XSS</a> ...as well as occasionally being stripped down to the protocol, e.g. <a href="http://1113982867/">XSS</a> becomes <a href="http:/">XSS</a> While that's unproblematic, per se, it's a bit ugly. Instead of trying to strip these out with regular expressions, I was hoping to use HTML Purifier's own library capabilities / injectors / plug-ins / whathaveyou. Point of reference: Handling attributes Conditionally removing an attribute in HTMLPurifier is easy. Here the library offers the class HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform with the method confiscateAttr(). While I don't personally use the functionality of confiscateAttr(), I do use an HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform as per this thread to add target="_blank" to all anchors. // more configuration stuff up here $htmlDef = $htmlPurifierConfiguration->getHTMLDefinition(true); $anchor = $htmlDef->addBlankElement('a'); $anchor->attr_transform_post[] = new HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform_Target(); // purify down here HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform_Target is a very simple class, of course. class HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform_Target extends HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform { public function transform($attr, $config, $context) { // I could call $this->confiscateAttr() here to throw away an // undesired attribute $attr['target'] = '_blank'; return $attr; } } That part works like a charm, naturally. Handling elements Perhaps I'm not squinting hard enough at HTMLPurifier_TagTransform, or am looking in the wrong place(s), or generally amn't understanding it, but I can't seem to figure out a way to conditionally remove elements. Say, something to the effect of: // more configuration stuff up here $htmlDef = $htmlPurifierConfiguration->getHTMLDefinition(true); $anchor = $htmlDef->addElementHandler('a'); $anchor->elem_transform_post[] = new HTMLPurifier_ElementTransform_Cull(); // add target as per 'point of reference' here // purify down here With the Cull class extending something that has a confiscateElement() ability, or comparable, wherein I could check for a missing href attribute or a href attribute with the content http:/. HTMLPurifier_Filter I understand I could create a filter, but the examples (Youtube.php and ExtractStyleBlocks.php) suggest I'd be using regular expressions in that, which I'd really rather avoid, if it is at all possible. I'm hoping for an onboard or quasi-onboard solution that makes use of HTML Purifier's excellent parsing capabilities. Returning null in a child-class of HTMLPurifier_AttrTransform unfortunately doesn't cut it. Anyone have any smart ideas, or am I stuck with regexes? :)

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  • When is it worth using a BindingSource?

    - by Justin
    I think I understand well enough what the BindingSource class does - i.e. provide a layer of indirection between a data source and a UI control. It implements the IBindingList interface and therefore also provides support for sorting. And I've used it frequently enough, without too many problems. But I'm wondering if I use it more often than I should. Perhaps an example would help. Let's say I have just a simple textbox on a form (using WinForms), and I'd like to bind that textbox to a simple property inside a class that returns a string. Is it worth using a BindingSource in this situation? Now let's say I have a grid on my form, and I'd like to bind it to a DataTable. Should I use a BindingSource now? In the latter case, I probably would not use a BindingSource, as a DataTable, from what I can gather, provides the same functionality that the BindingSource itself would. The DataTable will fire the the right events when a row is added, deleted, etc so that the grid will automatically update. But in the first case with the textbox being bound to a string, I would probably have the class that contains the string property implement INotifyPropertyChanged, so that it could fire the PropertyChanged event when the string changes. I would use a BindingSource so that it could listen to these PropertyChanged events so that it could update the textbox automatically when the string changes. How does this sound so far? I still feel like there's a gap in my understanding that's preventing me from seeing the whole picture. This has been a pretty vague question so far, so I'll try to ask some more specific questions - ideally the answers will reference the above examples or something similar... (1) Is it worth using a BindingSource in either of the above examples? (2) It seems that developers just "assume" that the DataTable class will do the right thing, in firing PropertyChanged events at the right time. How does one know if a data source is capable of doing this? Is there a particular interface that a data source should implement in order for developers to be able to assume this behaviour? (3) Does it matter what Control is being bound to, when considering whether or not to use a BindingSource? Or is it only the data source that should affect the decision? Perhaps the answer is (and this would seem logical enough): the Control needs to be intelligent enough to listen to the PropertyChanged events, otherwise a BindingSource is required. So how does one tell if the Control is capable of doing this? Again, is there a particular interface that developers can look for that the Control must implement? It is this confusion that has, in the past, led to me always using a BindingSource. But I'd like to understand better exactly when to use one, so that I do so only when necessary.

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  • Should an event-sourced aggregate root have query access to the event sourcing repository?

    - by JD Courtoy
    I'm working on an event-sourced CQRS implementation, using DDD in the application / domain layer. I have an object model that looks like this: public class Person : AggregateRootBase { private Guid? _bookingId; public Person(Identification identification) { Apply(new PersonCreatedEvent(identification)); } public Booking CreateBooking() { // Enforce Person invariants var booking = new Booking(); Apply(new PersonBookedEvent(booking.Id)); return booking; } public void Release() { // Enforce Person invariants // Should we load the booking here from the aggregate repository? // We need to ensure that booking is released as well. var booking = BookingRepository.Load(_bookingId); booking.Release(); Apply(new PersonReleasedEvent(_bookingId)); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(PersonBookedEvent @event) { _bookingId = @event.BookingId; } [EventHandler] public void Handle(PersonReleasedEvent @event) { _bookingId = null; } } public class Booking : AggregateRootBase { private DateTime _bookingDate; private DateTime? _releaseDate; public Booking() { //Enforce invariants Apply(new BookingCreatedEvent()); } public void Release() { //Enforce invariants Apply(new BookingReleasedEvent()); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(BookingCreatedEvent @event) { _bookingDate = SystemTime.Now(); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(BookingReleasedEvent @event) { _releaseDate = SystemTime.Now(); } // Some other business activities unrelated to a person } With my understanding of DDD so far, both Person and Booking are seperate aggregate roots for two reasons: There are times when business components will pull Booking objects separately from the database. (ie, a person that has been released has a previous booking modified due to incorrect information). There should not be locking contention between Person and Booking whenever a Booking needs to be updated. One other business requirement is that a Booking can never occur for a Person more than once at a time. Due to this, I'm concerned about querying the query database on the read side as there could potentially be some inconsistency there (due to using CQRS and having an eventually consistent read database). Should the aggregate roots be allowed to query the event-sourced backing store for objects (lazy-loading them as needed)? Are there any other avenues of implementation that would make more sense?

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  • Properly setting up willSelectRowAtIndexPath and didSelectRowAtIndexPath to send cell selections

    - by Gordon Fontenot
    Feel like I'm going a bit nutty here. I have a detail view with a few stand-alone UITextFields, a few UITextFields in UITAbleViewCells, and one single UITableViewCell that will be used to hold notes, if there are any. I only want this cell selectable when I am in edit mode. When I am not in edit mode, I do not want to be able to select it. Selecting the cell (while in edit mode) will fire a method that will init a new view. I know this is very easy, but I am missing something somewhere. Here are the current selection methods I am using: -(NSIndexPath *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView willSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (!self.editing) { NSLog(@"Returning nil, not in edit mode"); return nil; } NSLog(@"Cell will be selected, not in edit mode"); if (indexPath.section == 0) { NSLog(@"Comments cell will be selected"); return indexPath; } return nil; } -(void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (!self.editing) { NSLog(@"Not in edit mode. Should not have made it this far."); return; } if (indexPath.section == 0) [self pushCommentsView]; else return; } My problem is really 2 fold; 1) Even when I'm not in edit mode, and I know I am returning nil (due to the NSLog message), I can still select the row (it flashes blue). From my understanding of the willSelectRowAtIndexPath method, this shouldn't be happening. Maybe I am wrong about this? 2) When I enter edit mode, I can't select anything at all. the willSelectRowAtIndexPath method never fires, and neither does the didSelectRowAtIndexPath. The only thing I am doing in the setEditing method, is hiding the back button while editing, and assigning firstResponder to the top textField to get the keyboard to pop up. I thought maybe the first responder was getting in the way of the click (which would be dumb), but even with that commented out, I cannot perform the cell selection during editing.

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  • please explain NHibernate HiLo

    - by Ben
    I'm struggling to get my head round how the HiLo generator works in NHibernate. I've read the explanation here which made things a little clearer. My understanding is that each SessionFactory retrieves the high value from the database. This improves performance because we have access to IDs without hitting the database. The explanation from the above link also states: For instance, supposing you have a "high" sequence with a current value of 35, and the "low" number is in the range 0-1023. Then the client can increment the sequence to 36 (for other clients to be able to generate keys while it's using 35) and know that keys 35/0, 35/1, 35/2, 35/3... 35/1023 are all available. How does this work in a web application as don't I only have one SessionFactory and therefore one hi value. Does this mean that in a disconnected application you can end up with duplicate (low) ids in your entity table? In my tests I used these settings: <id name="Id" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="hilo"/> </id> I ran a test to save 100 objects. The IDs in my table went from 32768 - 32868. The next hi value was incremented to 2. Then I ran my test again and the Ids were in the range 65536 - 65636. First off, why start at 32768 and not 1, and secondly why the jump from 32868 to 65536? Now I know that my surrogate keys shouldn't have any meaning but we do use them in our application. Why can't I just have them increment nicely like a SQL Server identity field would. Finally can someone give me an explanation of how the max_lo parameter works? Is this the maximum number of low values (entity ids in my head) that can be created against the high value? This is one topic in NHibernate that I have struggled to find documentation for. I read the entire NHibernate in action book and it still doesn't go into how this works in any detail. Thanks Ben

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  • GOTO still considered harmful?

    - by Kyle Cronin
    Everyone is aware of Dijkstra's Letters to the editor: go to statement considered harmful (also here .html transcript and here .pdf) and there has been a formidable push since that time to eschew the goto statement whenever possible. While it's possible to use goto to produce unmaintainable, sprawling code, it nevertheless remains in modern programming languages. Even the advanced continuation control structure in Scheme can be described as a sophisticated goto. What circumstances warrant the use of goto? When is it best to avoid? As a followup question: C provides a pair of functions, setjmp and longjmp, that provide the ability to goto not just within the current stack frame but within any of the calling frames. Should these be considered as dangerous as goto? More dangerous? Dijkstra himself regretted that title, of which he was not responsible for. At the end of EWD1308 (also here .pdf) he wrote: Finally a short story for the record. In 1968, the Communications of the ACM published a text of mine under the title "The goto statement considered harmful", which in later years would be most frequently referenced, regrettably, however, often by authors who had seen no more of it than its title, which became a cornerstone of my fame by becoming a template: we would see all sorts of articles under the title "X considered harmful" for almost any X, including one titled "Dijkstra considered harmful". But what had happened? I had submitted a paper under the title "A case against the goto statement", which, in order to speed up its publication, the editor had changed into a "letter to the Editor", and in the process he had given it a new title of his own invention! The editor was Niklaus Wirth. A well thought out classic paper about this topic, to be matched to that of Dijkstra, is Structured Programming with go to Statements (also here .pdf), by Donald E. Knuth. Reading both helps to reestablish context and a non-dogmatic understanding of the subject. In this paper, Dijkstra's opinion on this case is reported and is even more strong: Donald E. Knuth: I believe that by presenting such a view I am not in fact disagreeing sharply with Dijkstra's ideas, since he recently wrote the following: "Please don't fall into the trap of believing that I am terribly dogmatical about [the go to statement]. I have the uncomfortable feeling that others are making a religion out of it, as if the conceptual problems of programming could be solved by a single trick, by a simple form of coding discipline!"

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  • NoHostAvailableException With Cassandra & DataStax Java Driver If Large ResultSet

    - by hughj
    The setup: 2-node Cassandra 1.2.6 cluster replicas=2 very large CQL3 table with no secondary index Rowkey is a UUID.randomUUID().toString() read consistency set to ONE Using DataStax java driver 1.0 The request: Attempting to do a table scan by "SELECT some-col from schema.table LIMIT nnn;" The fail: Once I go beyond a certain nnn LIMIT, I start to get NoHostAvailableExceptions from the driver. It reads like this: com.datastax.driver.core.exceptions.NoHostAvailableException: All host(s) tried for query failed (tried: /10.181.13.239 ([/10.181.13.239] Unexpected exception triggered)) at com.datastax.driver.core.exceptions.NoHostAvailableException.copy(NoHostAvailableException.java:64) at com.datastax.driver.core.ResultSetFuture.extractCauseFromExecutionException(ResultSetFuture.java:214) at com.datastax.driver.core.ResultSetFuture.getUninterruptibly(ResultSetFuture.java:169) at com.jpmc.es.rtm.storage.impl.EventExtract.main(EventExtract.java:36) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:57) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:43) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:601) at com.intellij.rt.execution.application.AppMain.main(AppMain.java:120) Caused by: com.datastax.driver.core.exceptions.NoHostAvailableException: All host(s) tried for query failed (tried: /10.181.13.239 ([/10.181.13.239] Unexpected exception triggered)) at com.datastax.driver.core.RequestHandler.sendRequest(RequestHandler.java:98) at com.datastax.driver.core.RequestHandler$1.run(RequestHandler.java:165) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.runWorker(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:1110) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.run(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:603) Given: This is probably not the most enlightened thing to do to a large table with millions of rows, but this is how I learn what not to do, so I would really appreciate someone who could volunteer how this kind of error can be debugged. For example, when this happens, there are no indications that the nodes in the cluster ever had an issue with the request (there is nothing in the logs on either node that indicate any timeout or failure). Also, I enabled the trace on the driver, which gives you some nice autotrace (ala Oracle) info as long as the query succeeds. But in this case, the driver blows a NoHostAvailableException and no ExecutionInfo is available, so tracing has not provided any benefit in this case. I also find it interesting that this does not seem to be recorded as a timeout (my JMX consoles tell me no timeouts have occurred). So, I am left not understanding WHERE the failure is actually occurring. I am left with the idea that it is the driver that is having a problem, but I don't know how to debug it (and I would really like to). I have read several posts from folks that state that query'g for resultSets 10000 rows is probably not a good idea, and I am willing to accept this, but I would like to understand what is causing the exception and where the exception is happening. FWIW, I also tried bumping the timeout properties in the cassandra.yaml, but this made no difference whatsoever. I welcome any suggestions, anecdotes, insults, or monetary contributions for my registration in the house of moron-developers. Regards!!

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  • Spring JPA and persistence.xml

    - by bmw0128
    I'm trying to set up a Spring JPA Hibernate simple example WAR for deployment to Glassfish. I see some examples use a persistence.xml file, and other examples do not. Some examples use a dataSource, and some do not. So far my understanding is that a dataSource is not needed if I have: <persistence-unit name="educationPU" transaction-type="JTA"> <provider>org.hibernate.ejb.HibernatePersistence</provider> <class>com.coe.jpa.StudentProfile</class> <properties> <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class" value="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver" /> <property name="hibernate.connection.url" value="jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/COE" /> <property name="hibernate.connection.username" value="root" /> <property name="show_sql" value="true" /> <property name="dialect" value="org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLDialect" /> </properties> </persistence-unit> I can deploy fine, but my EntityManager is not getting injected by Spring. My applicationContext.xml: <bean id="entityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="educationPU" /> </bean> <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.support.PersistenceAnnotationBeanPostProcessor" /> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="transactionManager" /> <bean id="StudentProfileDAO" class="com.coe.jpa.StudentProfileDAO"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> <bean id="studentService" class="com.coe.services.StudentService"> </bean> My class with the EntityManager: public class StudentService { private String saveMessage; private String showModal; private String modalHeader; private StudentProfile studentProfile; private String lastName; private String firstName; @PersistenceContext(unitName="educationPU") private EntityManager em; @Transactional public String save() { System.out.println("*** em: " + this.em); //em is null this.studentProfile= new StudentProfile(); this.saveMessage = "saved"; this.showModal = "true"; this.modalHeader= "Information Saved"; return "successs"; } My web.xml: <listener> <listener-class>org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener</listener-class> Are there any pieces I am missing to have Spring inject "em" in to StudentService?

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  • JavaCC: Please help me understand token ambiguity.

    - by java.is.for.desktop
    Hello, everyone! I had already many problems with understanding, how ambiguous tokens can be handled elegantly (or somehow at all) in JavaCC. Let's take this example: I want to parse XML processing instruction. The format is: "<?" <target> <data> "?>": target is an XML name, data can be anything except ?>, because it's the closing tag. So, lets define this in JavaCC: (I use lexical states, in this case DEFAULT and PROC_INST) TOKEN : <#NAME : (very-long-definition-from-xml-1.1-goes-here) > TOKEN : <WSS : (" " | "\t")+ > // WSS = whitespaces <DEFAULT> TOKEN : {<PI_START : "<?" > : PROC_INST} <PROC_INST> TOKEN : {<PI_TARGET : <NAME> >} <PROC_INST> TOKEN : {<PI_DATA : ~[] >} // accept everything <PROC_INST> TOKEN : {<PI_END : "?>" > : DEFAULT} Now the part which recognizes processing instructions: void PROC_INSTR() : {} { ( <PI_START> (t=<PI_TARGET>){System.out.println("target: " + t.image);} <WSS> (t=<PI_DATA>){System.out.println("data: " + t.image);} <PI_END> ) {} } The problem is (i guess): hence <PI_DATA> recognizes "everything", my definition is wrong. Let's test it with <?mytarget here-goes-some-data?>: The target is recognized: "target: mytarget". But now I get my favorite JavaCC parsing error: !! procinstparser.ParseException: Encountered "" at line 1, column 15. !! Was expecting one of: !! Encountered nothing? Was expecting nothing? Or what? Thank you, JavaCC! I know, that I could use the MORE keyword of JavaCC, but this would give me the whole processing instruction as one token, so I'd had to parse/tokenize it further by myself. Why should I do that? Am I writing a parser that does not parse? What I would need is telling JavaCC to recognize "everything until ?>" as processing instruction data. How can it be done? Thank you.

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  • The most efficient method of drawing multiple quads in OpenGL

    - by CPatton
    I'm not very keen with OpenGL and I was wondering if someone could give me some insight on this. I'm a 'seasoned' programmer, I've read the redbook about VBOs and the like, but I was wondering from a more experienced person about the best/most efficient way of achieving this. I've been producing this 2d tile-based game engine to be used in several projects. I have a class called "ScreenObject" which is mainly composed of a Dictionary<Point, Tile> The Point key is to show where to render the Tile on the screen, and the Tile contains one or more textures to be drawn at that point. This ScreenObject is where the tiles will be modified, deleted, added, etc.. My original method of drawing the tiles in the testing I've done was to iterate through the ScreenObject and draw each quad at each location separately. From what I've read, this is a massive waste of resources. It wasn't horribly slow in the testing, but after I've completed the animation classes and effect classes, I'm sure it would be extremely slow. And one last thing, if you wouldn't mind.. As I said before, the Tile class can contain multiple textures to be drawn at the Point location on the screen. I recognize possibly two options for me here. Either add a quad at that location for each texture to be drawn, or, somehow.. use a multiple texture for the same quad (if it's possible). Even if each tile contained one texture only, that would be 64 quads to be drawn on the screen. Most of the tiles will contain 2-5 textures, so the number of total quads would increase dramatically with this method. Would it be feasible to add a quad for each new texture, or am I ignoring a better way to do this? Just need some help understanding this if you don't mind :) I've tried to be as concise as possible, and I'd greatly appreciate any responses.. and even some criticism. Programming is often a learning process and one who develops seems to never stops learning. Thanks for your time.

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