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  • Multiple infowindows - tearing my hair out

    - by thewinchester
    Ok, I'll admit I'm nowhere near the best programmer on the planet - and I'm used to the answer staring me right in the face but not making sense of it. Problem I need to display multiple markers on a map, each with their own infowindow. I have created the individual markers without a problem, but don't know how to create the infowindows for each. Steps so far I am generating a map using the V3 API within an ASP-based website, with markers being created from a set of DB records. The markers are created by looping through a rs and defining a marker() with the relevant variables: var myLatlng = new google.maps.LatLng(lat,long); var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ map: map, position: myLatlng, title: 'locationname', icon: 'http://google-maps-icons.googlecode.com/files/park.png' }); This is creating all the relevant markers in their correct locations. What I need to do now, and am not sure of how to achieve is give each of them their own unique infowindow which I can use to display information and links relevant to that marker. Source <script type="text/javascript" src="http://maps.google.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false"></script> <script language="javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { //Google Maps var myOptions = { zoom: 5, center: new google.maps.LatLng(-26.66, 122.25), mapTypeControl: false, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP, navigationControl: true, navigationControlOptions: { style: google.maps.NavigationControlStyle.SMALL } } var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), myOptions); <!-- While locations_haslatlong not BOF.EOF --> <% While ((Repeat1__numRows <> 0) AND (NOT locations_haslatlong.EOF)) %> var myLatlng = new google.maps.LatLng(<%=(locations_haslatlong.Fields.Item("llat").Value)%>,<%=(locations_haslatlong.Fields.Item("llong").Value)%>); var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ map: map, position: myLatlng, title: '<%=(locations_haslatlong.Fields.Item("ldescription").Value)%>', icon: 'http://google-maps-icons.googlecode.com/files/park.png', clickable: true, }); <% Repeat1__index=Repeat1__index+1 Repeat1__numRows=Repeat1__numRows-1 locations_haslatlong.MoveNext() Wend %> <!-- End While locations_haslatlong not BOF.EOF --> google.maps.event.addListener(marker, 'click', function() { infowindow.open(map,marker); }); google.maps.event.addListener(marker, 'dblclick', function() { map.setZoom(14); }); });

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  • Executing a .NET Managed Assembly from SQL Server 2008 - Pro's, Con's & Recommendations

    - by RPM1984
    Hi guys, looking for opinions/recommendations/links for the following scenario im currently facing. The Platform: .NET 4.0 Web Application SQL Server 2008 The Task: Overhaul a component of the system that performs (fairly) complex mathematical operations based on a specific user activity, and updates numerous tables in the database. A common user activity might be "Bob" decides to post a forum topic. This results in (the end-solution) needing to look at various factors (about the post he did), then after doing some math based on lookup values/ratios as well as other data in the database, inserting some other data as a result of these operations. The Options: Ok - so here's what im thinking. Although it would be much easier to do this in C# (LINQ-SQL) it doesnt make much sense as the majority of the computations are based on values in the db, and it will get difficult to control/optimize/debug the LINQ over time. Hence, im leaning towards created a managed assembly (C# Class Library) that contains the lookup values (constants) as well as leveraging the math classes in the existing .NET BCL. Basically i'd expose a few methods that can be called by the T-SQL Stored Procedures. This to me has the following advantages: Simplicity of math. Do complex math in .NET vs complex math in T-SQL. No brainer. =) Abstraction of computatations, configurable "lookup" values and business logic from raw T-SQL. T-SQL only needs to care about the data, simplifying the stored procedures and making it easier to maintain. When it needs to do math it delegates off to the managed assembly. So, having said that - ive never done this before (call .NET assmembly from T-SQL), and after some googling the best site i could come up with is here, which is useful but outdated. So - what am i asking? Well, firstly - i need some better references on how to actually do this. "This" being how to call a C# .NET 4 Assembly from within T-SQL Stored Procedures in SQL Server 2008. Secondly, who out there has done this, what problems (if any) did you face? Realize this may be difficult to provide a "correct answer", so ill try to give it to whoever gives me the answer with a combination of good links and a list of pro's/con's/problems with this implementation. Cheers!

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  • No form with the requested fields?

    - by FRESHTER
    // #!/usr/bin/perl use WWW::Mechanize; use Compress::Zlib; my $mech = WWW::Mechanize->new(); my $username = ""; #fill in username here my $keyword = ""; #fill in password here my $mobile = $ARGV[0]; my $text = $ARGV[1]; $deb = 1; print length($text)."\n" if($deb); $text = $text."\n\n\n\n\n" if(length($text) < 135); $mech->get("http://wwwl.way2sms.com/content/index.html"); unless($mech->success()) { exit; } $dest = $mech->response->content; print "Fetching...\n" if($deb); if($mech->response->header("Content-Encoding") eq "gzip") { $dest = Compress::Zlib::memGunzip($dest); $mech->update_html($dest); } $dest =~ s/<form name="loginForm"/<form action='..\/auth.cl' name="loginForm"/g; $mech->update_html($dest); $mech->form_with_fields(("username","password")); $mech->field("username",$username); $mech->field("password",$keyword); print "Loggin...\n" if($deb); $mech->submit_form(); $dest= $mech->response->content; if($mech->response->header("Content-Encoding") eq "gzip") { $dest = Compress::Zlib::memGunzip($dest); $mech->update_html($dest); } $mech->get("http://wwwl.way2sms.com//jsp/InstantSMS.jsp?val=0"); $dest= $mech->response->content; if($mech->response->header("Content-Encoding") eq "gzip") { $dest = Compress::Zlib::memGunzip($dest); $mech->update_html($dest); } print "Sending ... \n" if($deb); $mech->form_with_fields(("MobNo","textArea")); $mech->field("MobNo",$mobile); $mech->field("textArea",$text); $mech->submit_form(); if($mech->success()) { print "Done \n" if($deb); } else { print "Failed \n" if($deb); exit; } $dest = $mech->response->content; if($mech->response->header("Content-Encoding") eq "gzip") { $dest = Compress::Zlib::memGunzip($dest); #print $dest if($deb); } if($dest =~ m/successfully/sig) { print "Message sent successfully" if($deb); } exit; *In this code I face with an error saying There is no form with the requested fields at ./sms.pl line 65 Can't call method "value" on an undefined value at /usr/share/perl5/vendor_perl/WWW/Mechanize.pm line* 1348. Could any 1 guide me please

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  • Cannot interact with checkbox in FireFox or Chrome. Works in IE.

    - by Darxide
    Title says it all. Here's the code: <div id="regpage"> <form action="" method="post"> <fieldset style="border:none;"> <div class="label">Username:</div> <input type="text" name="username" class="item" value="" /><br /> <div class="caption">Must be 5-15 characters</div><br /> <div style="clear:both;"></div> <div class="label">Password:</div> <input type="password" name="password" class="item" value="" /><br /> <div class="caption">Must be 6-20 characters</div><br /> <div style="clear:both;"></div> <div class="label">Email:</div> <input type="text" name="email" class="item" value="" /><br /> <div class="caption">Valid email address is required</div><br /> <div style="clear:both;"></div> <input name="terms" type="checkbox" id="terms" value="agree" /><div class="caption2"><label for="terms">I agree to the terms and conditions</label></div> <p><input type="submit" name="register" value="Register" id="register" style="float:left;border:1px solid #999;background:#E4E4E4;margin-top:5px;" /></p><br /> </fieldset> </form> </div> And the id "regpage" is definded in the style.css as: #regpage { width: 356px; height: 150px; color: #000000; font-family: "Tahoma", Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; font-size: 13px; } If I move the checkbox OUT of it works just fine. But inside it will not interact in Mozilla. I've even tried adding onclick='this.checked="checked"' and it still does not interact. You can click until your blue in the face and nothing will happen. What's the deal! This is REALLY driving me batty.

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  • Separate specific #ifdef branches

    - by detly
    In short: I want to generate two different source trees from the current one, based only on one preprocessor macro being defined and another being undefined, with no other changes to the source. If you are interested, here is my story... In the beginning, my code was clean. Then we made a new product, and yea, it was better. But the code saw only the same peripheral devices, so we could keep the same code. Well, almost. There was one little condition that needed to be changed, so I added: #if defined(PRODUCT_A) condition = checkCat(); #elif defined(PRODUCT_B) condition = checkCat() && checkHat(); #endif ...to one and only one source file. In the general all-source-files-include-this header file, I had: #if !(defined(PRODUCT_A)||defined(PRODUCT_B)) #error "Don't make me replace you with a small shell script. RTFM." #endif ...so that people couldn't compile it unless they explicitly defined a product type. All was well. Oh... except that modifications were made, components changed, and since the new hardware worked better we could significantly re-write the control systems. Now when I look upon the face of the code, there are more than 60 separate areas delineated by either: #ifdef PRODUCT_A ... #else ... #endif ...or the same, but for PRODUCT_B. Or even: #if defined(PRODUCT_A) ... #elif defined(PRODUCT_B) ... #endif And of course, sometimes sanity took a longer holiday and: #ifdef PRODUCT_A ... #endif #ifdef PRODUCT_B ... #endif These conditions wrap anywhere from one to two hundred lines (you'd think that the last one could be done by switching header files, but the function names need to be the same). This is insane. I would be better off maintaining two separate product-based branches in the source repo and porting any common changes. I realise this now. Is there something that can generate the two different source trees I need, based only on PRODUCT_A being defined and PRODUCT_B being undefined (and vice-versa), without touching anything else (ie. no header inclusion, no macro expansion, etc)?

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  • how get fully result from Asynchronism communication?

    - by rima
    Hi all refer to these post : here1 and here2 at last I solve my problem by build a asynchronous solution,and it work well!!! but there is a problem that i face with it,now my code is like this: class MyProcessStarter { private Process process; private StreamWriter myStreamWriter; private static StringBuilder shellOutput = null; public String GetShellOutput { get { return shellOutput.ToString(); }} public MyProcessStarter(){ shellOutput = new StringBuilder(""); process = new Process(); process.StartInfo.FileName = "sqlplus"; process.StartInfo.UseShellExecute = false; process.StartInfo.CreateNoWindow = true; process.OutputDataReceived += new DataReceivedEventHandler(ShellOutputHandler); process.StartInfo.RedirectStandardInput = true; process.StartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = true; //process.StartInfo.RedirectStandardError = true; process.Start(); myStreamWriter = process.StandardInput; process.BeginOutputReadLine(); } private static void ShellOutputHandler(object sendingProcess,DataReceivedEventArgs outLine) { if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(outLine.Data)) shellOutput.Append(Environment.NewLine + outLine.Data); } public void closeConnection() { myStreamWriter.Close(); process.WaitForExit(); process.Close(); } public void RunCommand(string arguments) { myStreamWriter.WriteLine(arguments); myStreamWriter.Flush(); process.WaitForExit(100); Console.WriteLine(shellOutput); Console.WriteLine("============="+Environment.NewLine); process.WaitForExit(2000); Console.WriteLine(shellOutput); } } and my input is like this: myProcesStarter.RunCommand("myusername/mypassword"); Console.writeline(myProcesStarter.GetShellOutput); but take a look at my out put: SQL*Plus: Release 11.1.0.6.0 - Production on Thu May 20 11:57:38 2010 Copyright (c) 1982, 2007, Oracle. All rights reserved. ============= SQL*Plus: Release 11.1.0.6.0 - Production on Thu May 20 11:57:38 2010 Copyright (c) 1982, 2007, Oracle. All rights reserved. Enter user-name: Connected to: Oracle Database 11g Enterprise Edition Release 11.1.0.6.0 - Production With the Partitioning, OLAP, Data Mining and Real Application Testing options as u see the output for run a function is not same in different time!So now would you do me a faver and help me that how I can wait until all the output done in other mean how I can customize my process to wait until output finishing ?? because I want to write a sqlcompiler so I need the exact output of shell. plz help me soon.thanxxxxxxxxxxxx :X

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  • Can't access font resource in Silverlight class library

    - by Matt
    I have a reasonably large Silveright 3.0 project on the go, and I'm having issues accessing a couple of custom font resources from within one of the assemblies. I've got a working test solution where I have added a custom font as a resource, and can access it fine from XAML using: <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> The test solution consists of the TestProject.Application and the TestProject.Application.Web projects, with all the fun and games obviously in the TestProject.Application project However, when I try this in my main solution, the fonts refuse to show in the correct type face (instead showing in the default font). There's no difference in the way the font has been added to project between the test solution and the main solution, and the XAML is identical. However, there is a solution layout difference. In the main solution, as well as having a MainApp.Application and MainApp.Application.Web project, I also have a MainApp.Application.ViewModel project and a MainApp.Application.Views project, and the problem piece of XAML is the in the MainApp.Application.Views project (not the .Application project like the test solution). I've tried putting the font into either the .Application or .Application.Views project, tried changing the Build Action to Content, Embedded Resource etc, all to no avail. So, is there an issue accessing font resources from a child assembly that I don't know about, or has anyone successfully done this? My long term need will be to have the valid custom fonts being stored as resources in a separate .Application.FontLibrary assembly that will be on-demand downloaded and cached, and the XAML controls in the .Application.Views project will need to reference this FontLibrary assembly to get the valid fonts. I've also tried xcreating this separate font library assembly, and I can't seem to get the fonts from the second assembly. As some additional information, I've also tried the following font referencing approaches: <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/MainApp.Application.Views;/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/MainApp.Application.Views;component/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> And a few similar variants with different assembly references/sub directories/random semi colons. And so far nothing works... anyone struck this (and preferably solved it)?

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  • Expand and overlap image over a grid of other images

    - by soren121
    I've been fighting with jQuery all night and getting quite frustrated here, so forgive me if the answer was staring me in the face. I have a grid of 15 images contained within a <div>, and when I click on one of them, I want it to expand to three times its original size of 150x105 and overlap the rest. I've got the expanding down, but the overlapping isn't quite working. My current HTML: <div id="image-grid"> <img src="images/after-pictures/1.jpg" class="igc1" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/2.jpg" class="igc2" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/3.jpg" class="igc3" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/4.jpg" class="igc4" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/5.jpg" class="igc5" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/6.jpg" class="igc1" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/7.jpg" class="igc2" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/8.jpg" class="igc3" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/9.jpg" class="igc4" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/10.jpg" class="igc5" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/11.jpg" class="igc1" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/12.jpg" class="igc2" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/13.jpg" class="igc3" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/14.jpg" class="igc4" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/15.jpg" class="igc5" /> </div> The igc* class denotes the column the image is in. CSS: #image-grid { border: 1px solid #aaa; width: 745px; padding: 5px 2px 2px 5px; } #image-grid img { width: 150px; height: 105px; margin: -2px; } jQuery: $('#image-grid img').click(function() { $(this).animate({ width: '450px', height: '315px', zIndex: '10' }, 200); });

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  • Ie7 float problems and hiperlinks not clickable

    - by Uffo
    Markup <ul class="navigation clearfix"> <li class="navigation-top"></li> <div class="first-holder" style="height:153px;"> <dl class="hold-items clearfix"> <dd class="clearfix with"><a href="http://site.com" title="Protokoll">Protokoll</a></dd> <dd class="with-hover"><a href="http://site.com" title="Mein/e Unternehmen">Mein/e Unternehmen</a></dd> <dd class="with"><a class="face-me" href="http://site.com" title="Erweiterte Suche">Erweiterte Suche</a></dd> <dd class="with"><a href="http://site.com" title="Abmelden">Abmelden</a></dd> </dl> </div><!--[end] /.first-holder--> <li class="navigation-bottom"></li> </ul><!--[end] /.navigation--> Css: .first-holder{height:304px;position:relative;width:178px;overflow:hidden;margin-bottom:0px;padding-bottom: 0px;} .hold-items{top:0px;position:absolute;} .navigation dd.with{line-height:38px;background:url('/images/sprite.png') no-repeat -334px -46px;width:162px;height:38px;padding-bottom:0px;overflow: hidden;} .navigation dd.with a{position:relative;outline:0;display:block;font-weight:bold;color:#3f78c0;padding-left:10px;line-height:38px;} .with-hover{background:url('/images/sprite.png') no-repeat -505px -47px;width:178px;height:38px;line-height:38px;overflow:none;} .with-hover a{position:relative;display:block;font-weight:bold;color:#fff;padding-left:10px} .navigation-top{background:url('/images/sprite.png') no-repeat -694px -46px;width:160px;height:36px;} .navigation-top a{display:block;outline:0;height:20px;padding-top:18px;padding-left:138px;} .navigation-top a span{display:block;background:url('/images/sprite.png') no-repeat -212px -65px;width:8px;height:6px;} .navigation-bottom{background:url('/images/sprite.png') no-repeat -784px -402px;width:160px;height:37px;} .navigation-bottom a{display:block;outline:0;height:20px;padding-top:18px;padding-left:138px;} .navigation-bottom a span{display:block;background:url('/images/sprite.png') no-repeat -212px -74px;width:8px;height:6px;} Also the links, are not clickable, if I click on a link in IE7 it doesn't do the action..it doesn't redirect me to the location. This is how it looks in IE7: http://screencast.com/t/MGY4NjljZjc This is how it look in IE8,Firefox,Chrome and so on http://screencast.com/t/MzhhMDQ1M What I'm doing wrong PS: .navigation-top a span and .navigation-bottom a span I'm using some where else, but that it's ok it works fine.

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  • OpenGL, how to set a monochrome texture to a colored shape?

    - by Santiago
    I'm developing on Android with OpenGL ES, I draw some cubes and I change its colors with glColor4f. Now, what I want is to give a more realistic effect on the cubes, so I create a monochromatic 8bit depth, 64x64 pixel size PNG file. I loaded on a texture, and here is my problem, witch is the way to combine the color and the texture to get a colorized and textured cubes onto the screen? I'm not an expert on OpenGL, I tried this: On create: public void asignBitmap(GL10 gl, Bitmap bitmap) { int[] textures = new int[1]; gl.glGenTextures(1, textures, 0); mTexture = textures[0]; gl.glBindTexture(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, mTexture); gl.glTexParameterf(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL10.GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL10.GL_NEAREST); gl.glTexParameterf(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL10.GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL10.GL_LINEAR); gl.glTexParameterf(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL10.GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S, GL10.GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); gl.glTexParameterf(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL10.GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T, GL10.GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); gl.glTexEnvf(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL10.GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL10.GL_REPLACE); GLUtils.texImage2D(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, 0, GL10.GL_ALPHA, bitmap, 0); ByteBuffer tbb = ByteBuffer.allocateDirect(texCoords.length * 4); tbb.order(ByteOrder.nativeOrder()); mTexBuffer = tbb.asFloatBuffer(); for (int i = 0; i < 48; i++) mTexBuffer.put(texCoords[i]); mTexBuffer.position(0); } And OnDraw: public void draw(GL10 gl, int alphawires) { gl.glColor4f(1.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.5f); //RED gl.glBindTexture(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, mTexture); gl.glBlendFunc(GL10.GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL10.GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA); gl.glEnable(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D); gl.glEnable(GL10.GL_BLEND); gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); gl.glTexCoordPointer(2, GL10.GL_FLOAT, 0, mTexBuffer); //Set the face rotation gl.glFrontFace(GL10.GL_CW); //Point to our buffers gl.glVertexPointer(3, GL10.GL_FLOAT, 0, vertexBuffer); //Enable the vertex and color state gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); //Draw the vertices as triangles, based on the Index Buffer information gl.glDrawElements(GL10.GL_TRIANGLES, 36, GL10.GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, indexBuffer); //Disable the client state before leaving gl.glDisableClientState(GL10.GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); gl.glDisableClientState(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); gl.glDisable(GL10.GL_BLEND); gl.glDisable(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D); } I'm even not sure if I have to use a blend option, because I don't need transparency, but is a plus :)

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  • OpenGL, how to set a monocrome texture to a colored shape?

    - by Santiago
    I'm developing on Android with OpenGL ES, I draw some cubes and I change its colors with glColor4f. Now, what I want is to give a more realistic effect on the cubes, so I create a monochromatic 8bit depth, 64x64 pixel size PNG file. I loaded on a texture, and here is my problem, witch is the way to combine the color and the texture to get a colorized and textured cubes onto the screen? I'm not an expert on OpenGL, I tried this: On create: public void asignBitmap(GL10 gl, Bitmap bitmap) { int[] textures = new int[1]; gl.glGenTextures(1, textures, 0); mTexture = textures[0]; gl.glBindTexture(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, mTexture); gl.glTexParameterf(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL10.GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL10.GL_NEAREST); gl.glTexParameterf(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL10.GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL10.GL_LINEAR); gl.glTexParameterf(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL10.GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S, GL10.GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); gl.glTexParameterf(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL10.GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T, GL10.GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); gl.glTexEnvf(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL10.GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL10.GL_REPLACE); GLUtils.texImage2D(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, 0, GL10.GL_ALPHA, bitmap, 0); ByteBuffer tbb = ByteBuffer.allocateDirect(texCoords.length * 4); tbb.order(ByteOrder.nativeOrder()); mTexBuffer = tbb.asFloatBuffer(); for (int i = 0; i < 48; i++) mTexBuffer.put(texCoords[i]); mTexBuffer.position(0); } And OnDraw: public void draw(GL10 gl, int alphawires) { gl.glColor4f(1.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.5f); //RED gl.glBindTexture(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D, mTexture); gl.glBlendFunc(GL10.GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL10.GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA); gl.glEnable(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D); gl.glEnable(GL10.GL_BLEND); gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); gl.glTexCoordPointer(2, GL10.GL_FLOAT, 0, mTexBuffer); //Set the face rotation gl.glFrontFace(GL10.GL_CW); //Point to our buffers gl.glVertexPointer(3, GL10.GL_FLOAT, 0, vertexBuffer); //Enable the vertex and color state gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); //Draw the vertices as triangles, based on the Index Buffer information gl.glDrawElements(GL10.GL_TRIANGLES, 36, GL10.GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, indexBuffer); //Disable the client state before leaving gl.glDisableClientState(GL10.GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); gl.glDisableClientState(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); gl.glDisable(GL10.GL_BLEND); gl.glDisable(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D); } I'm even not sure if I have to use a blend option, because I don't need transparency, but is a plus :) Thank's

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  • PHP, MySQL: Display only required parts of my website in sister website

    - by Devner
    Hi all, Now I have my website built on PHP & Mysql. Consider this like a forum. Now when a user posts a reply in my website 1 (ex. www.website1.com), I want to be able to show the starting thread and it's related replies in a sister website of mine. I want to do this in a way that it does not show the rest of the page & other page contents (like logo etc.). I don't think iframe would be a solution because an iframe would embed the whole page and the users visiting my sister website (totally different domain i.e. www.website2.com) would be able to see all the page contents, like logo etc. I want to avoid that. I want to make them see only limited information from website 1 and only the info. that I intend. I hope that makes sense. In a way, you could say that I am trying to replicate my 1 website, and show only a limited part of it. Users browsing 2nd website can post a reply in the 2nd website and it should automatically be posted & visible to the visitors of the website 1. Users of website 1 should not know that a user of website 2 has posted it. They would feel that some user from website 1 has posted it. Do I have to use 2 separate mysql DB or just 1? I think it would be problematic if I am trying to use different DB. I also feel I might have to face DB connectivity issues as I can connect to only 1 DB at a time. It's basically like users of website1.com should feel that they are replying to users of website1.com & users of website2.com should feel that they are replying to users of website2.com. (I need it this way to bridge the gap between them). At the same time I want to make the front end of the websites different so that they don't feel that they are replying to some other users outside the domain. These websites would be under my control and I will have access to the source code at any time. If I need to change the source code, these changes are welcome. Is this really possible? Thank you in advance.

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  • How to resize the UIView when CGAffineTransformIdentity

    - by Gowtham
    I am doing an app which has a feature to rotate and re size a view. i have implemented this feature but i do face an issue. My problem The View wil be resized when dragging its four corners, after resizing it i can rotate the view in both directions. Once the rotation is done, if i try again to resize the view by dragging its corner, the view's size gone to unpredictable value and its moving all around the screen. I googled lot finally i got the following solution The frame property is undefined when transform != CGAffineTransformIdentity, as per the docs on UIView I saw one app which has implemented the feature exactly what i wish to implement. How can i resize the UIView after rotation of UIView My code for resize the view Touches Began - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ UITouch *touch = [[event allTouches] anyObject]; NSLog(@"[touch view]:::%@",[touch view]); touchStart = [[touches anyObject] locationInView:testVw]; isResizingLR = (testVw.bounds.size.width - touchStart.x < kResizeThumbSize && testVw.bounds.size.height - touchStart.y < kResizeThumbSize); isResizingUL = (touchStart.x <kResizeThumbSize && touchStart.y <kResizeThumbSize); isResizingUR = (testVw.bounds.size.width-touchStart.x < kResizeThumbSize && touchStart.y<kResizeThumbSize); isResizingLL = (touchStart.x <kResizeThumbSize && testVw.bounds.size.height -touchStart.y <kResizeThumbSize); } Touches Moved - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ CGPoint touchPoint = [[touches anyObject] locationInView:testVw]; CGPoint previous=[[touches anyObject]previousLocationInView:testVw]; float deltaWidth = touchPoint.x-previous.x; float deltaHeight = touchPoint.y-previous.y; NSLog(@"CVTM:%@",NSStringFromCGRect(testVw.frame)); if (isResizingLR) { testVw.frame = CGRectMake(testVw.frame.origin.x, testVw.frame.origin.y,touchPoint.x + deltaWidth, touchPoint.y + deltaWidth); } if (isResizingUL) { testVw.frame = CGRectMake(testVw.frame.origin.x + deltaWidth, testVw.frame.origin.y + deltaHeight, testVw.frame.size.width - deltaWidth, testVw.frame.size.height - deltaHeight); } if (isResizingUR) { testVw.frame = CGRectMake(testVw.frame.origin.x ,testVw.frame.origin.y + deltaHeight, testVw.frame.size.width + deltaWidth, testVw.frame.size.height - deltaHeight); } if (isResizingLL) { testVw.frame = CGRectMake(testVw.frame.origin.x + deltaWidth ,testVw.frame.origin.y , testVw.frame.size.width - deltaWidth, testVw.frame.size.height + deltaHeight); } if (!isResizingUL && !isResizingLR && !isResizingUR && !isResizingLL) { testVw.center = CGPointMake(testVw.center.x + touchPoint.x - touchStart.x,testVw.center.y + touchPoint.y - touchStart.y); } }

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  • OpenGL ES Polygon with Normals rendering (Note the 'ES!')

    - by MarqueIV
    Ok... imagine I have a relatively simple solid that has six distinct normals but actually has close to 48 faces (8 faces per direction) and there are a LOT of shared vertices between faces. What's the most efficient way to render that in OpenGL? I know I can place the vertices in an array, then use an index array to render them, but I have to keep breaking my rendering steps down to change the normals (i.e. set normal 1... render 8 faces... set normal 2... render 8 faces, etc.) Because of that I have to maintain an array of index arrays... one for each normal! Not good! The other way I can do it is to use separate normal and vertex arrays (or even interleave them) but that means I need to have a one-to-one ratio for normals to vertices and that means the normals would be duplicated 8 times more than they need to be! On something with a spherical or even curved surface, every normal most likely is different, but for this, it really seems like a waste of memory. In a perfect world I'd like to have my vertex and normal arrays have different lengths, then when I go to draw my triangles or quads To specify the index to each array for that vertex. Now the OBJ file format lets you specify exactly that... a vertex array and a normal array of different lengths, then when you specify the face you are rendering, you specify a vertex and a normal index (as well as a UV coord if you are using textures too) which seems like the perfect solution! 48 vertices but only 8 normals, then pairs of indexes defining the shapes' faces. But I'm not sure how to render that in OpenGL ES (again, note the 'ES'.) Currently I have to 'denormalize' (sorry for the SQL pun there) the normals back to a 1-to-1 with the vertex array, then render. Just wastes memory to me. Anyone help? I hope I'm missing something very simple here. Mark

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  • Calculating the Angle Between Two vectors Using Dot Product

    - by P. Avery
    I'm trying to calculate the angle between two vectors so that I can rotate a character in the direction of an object in 3D space. I have two vectors( character & object), loc_look, and modelPos respectively. For simplicity's sake I am only trying to rotate along the up axis...yaw. loc_look = D3DXVECTOR3 (0, 0, 1), modelPos = D3DXVECTOR3 (0, 0, 15); I have written this code which seems to be the correct calculations. My problem arises, seemingly, because the rotation I apply to the character's look vector(loc_look) exceeds the value of the object's position (modelPos). Here is my code: BOOL CEntity::TARGET() { if(graphics.m_model->m_enemy) { D3DXVECTOR3 modelPos = graphics.m_model->position; D3DXVec3Normalize(&modelPos, &modelPos); //D3DXVec3Normalize(&loc_look, &loc_look); float dot = D3DXVec3Dot(&loc_look, &modelPos); float yaw = acos(dot); BOOL neg = (loc_look.x > modelPos.x) ? true : false; switch ( neg ) { case false: Yaw(yaw); return true; case true: Yaw(-yaw); return true; } } else return false; } I rotate the character's orientation matrix with the following code: void CEntity::CalculateOrientationMatrix(D3DXMATRIX *orientationMatrix) { D3DXMatrixRotationAxis(&rotY, &loc_up, loc_yaw); D3DXVec3TransformCoord(&loc_look, &loc_look, &rotY); D3DXVec3TransformCoord(&loc_right, &loc_right, &rotY); D3DXMatrixRotationAxis(&rotX, &loc_right, loc_pitch); D3DXVec3TransformCoord(&loc_look, &loc_look, &rotX); D3DXVec3TransformCoord(&loc_up, &loc_up, &rotX); D3DXMatrixRotationAxis(&rotZ, &loc_look, loc_roll); D3DXVec3TransformCoord(&loc_up, &loc_up, &rotZ); D3DXVec3TransformCoord(&loc_right, &loc_right, &rotZ); *orientationMatrix *= rotX * rotY * rotZ; orientationMatrix->_41 = loc_position.x; orientationMatrix->_42 = loc_position.y; orientationMatrix->_43 = loc_position.z; //D3DXVec3Normalize(&loc_look, &loc_look); SetYawPitchRoll(0,0,0); // Reset Yaw, Pitch, & Roll Amounts } Also to note, the modelPos.x increases by 0.1 each iteration so the character will face the object as it moves along the x-axis... Now, when I run program, in the first iteration everything is fine(I haven't rotated the character yet). On the second iteration, the loc_look.x value is greater than the modelPos.x value(I rotated the character too much using the angle specified with the dot product calculations in the TARGET function). Therefore on the second iteration my code will rotate the character left to adjust for the difference in the vectors' x values... How can I tighten up the measurements so that I do not rotate my character's look vector by too great a value?

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  • actionscript 2.0 input text box

    - by user1769760
    So, here's what I'm trying to do, and I, frankly, believe it should be obvious, but I can't figure it out. I am creating a very simple Artificial Intelligence simulation. And in this simulation there's an input box at the bottom of the screen (called "input" exactly). "input" has a variable in its properties that is called "inbox" (exactly). Using a key listener the script calls up a function when the enter button is pressed. This function has 2 if statements and an else statement which dictate the responses of the AI (named "nistra"). The problem is this, When I type in what I want to say, and hit enter, it always uses the second response ("lockpick" in the code below). I have tried variations on the code but I still don't see the solution. I believe the problem is that the "typein" variable holds all the format information from the text box as well as the variable, but I could be wrong, that information is in here as well, underneath the code itself. Any help I can get would be greatly appreciated. var typein = ""; //copies the text from inbox into here, this is what nistra responds to var inbox = ""; //this is where the text from the input text box goes var respond = ""; //nistra's responses go here my_listener = new Object(); // key listener my_listener.onKeyDown = function() { if(Key.isDown(13)) //enter button pressed { typein = inbox; // moves inbox into typein nistraresponse(); // calles nistra's responses } //code = Key.getCode(); //trace ("Key pressed = " + code); } Key.addListener(my_listener); // key listener ends here nistraresponse = function() // nistra's responses { trace(typein); // trace out what "typein" holds if(typein = "Hello") // if you type in "Hello" { respond = "Hello, How are you?"; } if(typein = "lockpick") // if you type in "lockpick" { respond = "Affirmative"; } else // anything else { respond = "I do not understand the command, please rephrase"; } cntxtID = setInterval(clearnistra, 5000); // calls the function that clears out nistra's response box so that her responses don't just sit there } clearnistra = function() // clears her respond box { respond = ""; clearInterval(cntxtID); } // "typein" traces out the following <TEXTFORMAT LEADING="2"><P ALIGN="CENTER"><FONT FACE="Times New Roman" SIZE="20" COLOR="#FF0000" LETTERSPACING="0" KERNING="0">test</FONT></P></TEXTFORMAT>

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  • Refactor the following two C++ methods to move out duplicate code

    - by ossandcad
    I have the following two methods that (as you can see) are similar in most of its statements except for one (see below for details) unsigned int CSWX::getLineParameters(const SURFACE & surface, vector<double> & params) { VARIANT varParams; surface->getPlaneParams(varParams); // this is the line of code that is different SafeDoubleArray sdParams(varParams); for( int i = 0 ; i < sdParams.getSize() ; ++i ) { params.push_back(sdParams[i]); } if( params.size() > 0 ) return 0; return 1; } unsigned int CSWX::getPlaneParameters(const CURVE & curve, vector<double> & params) { VARIANT varParams; curve->get_LineParams(varParams); // this is the line of code that is different SafeDoubleArray sdParams(varParams); for( int i = 0 ; i < sdParams.getSize() ; ++i ) { params.push_back(sdParams[i]); } if( params.size() > 0 ) return 0; return 1; } Is there any technique that I can use to move the common lines of code of the two methods out to a separate method, that could be called from the two variations - OR - possibly combine the two methods to a single method? The following are the restrictions: The classes SURFACE and CURVE are from 3rd party libraries and hence unmodifiable. (If it helps they are both derived from IDispatch) There are even more similar classes (e.g. FACE) that could fit into this "template" (not C++ template, just the flow of lines of code) I know the following could (possibly?) be implemented as solutions but am really hoping there is a better solution: I could add a 3rd parameter to the 2 methods - e.g. an enum - that identifies the 1st parameter (e.g. enum::input_type_surface, enum::input_type_curve) I could pass in an IDispatch and try dynamic_cast< and test which cast is NON_NULL and do an if-else to call the right method (e.g. getPlaneParams() vs. get_LineParams()) The following is not a restriction but would be a requirement because of my teammates resistance: Not implement a new class that inherits from SURFACE/CURVE etc. (They would much prefer to solve it using the enum solution I stated above)

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  • Where can I find "canonical" sample programs that give quick refreshers for any given language? [on hold]

    - by acheong87
    Note to those close-voting this question: I understand this isn't a conventional programming question and I can agree with the reasoning that it's in the subjective domain (like best-of lists). In other ways though I think it's appropriate because, though it's not a "a specific programming problem," nor concerning "a software algorithm", nor (strictly) concerning "software tools commonly used by programmers", I think it is a "practical, answerable [problem that is] unique to the programming profession," and I think it is "based on an actual [problem I] face." I've been wanting this for some time now, because both approaches of (a) Googling for samples as I write every other line of code and (b) just winging it and seeing what errors crop up, distract me from coding efficiently. This note will be removed if the question gains popularity; this question will be deleted otherwise. I spend most of my time developing in C++, PHP, or Javascript, and every once in a while I have to do something in, say, VBA. In those times, it'd be convenient if I could just put up some sample code on a second monitor, something in between a cheat sheet (often too compact; and doesn't resemble anything that could actually compile/run), and a language reference (often too verbose, or segmented; requires extra steps to search or click through an index), so I can just glance at it and recall things, like how to loop through non-empty cells in a column. I think there's a hidden benefit to seeing formed code, that triggers the right spots in our brains to get back into a language we only need to brush up on. Similar in spirit is how http://ideone.com lets you click "Template" in any given language so you can get started without even doing a search. That template alone tells a lot, sometimes! Case-sensitivity, whitespace conventions, identifier conventions, the spelling of certain types, etc. I couldn't find a resource that pulled together such samples, so if there indeed doesn't exist such a repository, I was hoping this question would inspire professionals and experts to contribute links to the most useful sample code they've used for just this purpose: a keep-on-the-side, form-as-well-as-content, compilable/executable, reminder of a language's basic and oft-used features. Personally I am interested in seeing "samplers" for: VBA, Perl, Python, Java, C# (though for some of these autocompleters in Eclipse, Visual Studio, etc. help enough), awk, and sed. I'm tagging c++, php, and javascript because these are languages for which I'd best be able to evaluate whether proffered sample code matches what I had in mind.

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  • 3Ware 9650SE RAID-6, two degraded drives, one ECC, rebuild stuck

    - by cswingle
    This morning I came in the office to discover that two of the drives on a RAID-6, 3ware 9650SE controller were marked as degraded and it was rebuilding the array. After getting to about 4%, it got ECC errors on a third drive (this may have happened when I attempted to access the filesystem on this RAID and got I/O errors from the controller). Now I'm in this state: > /c2/u1 show Unit UnitType Status %RCmpl %V/I/M Port Stripe Size(GB) ------------------------------------------------------------------------ u1 RAID-6 REBUILDING 4%(A) - - 64K 7450.5 u1-0 DISK OK - - p5 - 931.312 u1-1 DISK OK - - p2 - 931.312 u1-2 DISK OK - - p1 - 931.312 u1-3 DISK OK - - p4 - 931.312 u1-4 DISK OK - - p11 - 931.312 u1-5 DISK DEGRADED - - p6 - 931.312 u1-6 DISK OK - - p7 - 931.312 u1-7 DISK DEGRADED - - p3 - 931.312 u1-8 DISK WARNING - - p9 - 931.312 u1-9 DISK OK - - p10 - 931.312 u1/v0 Volume - - - - - 7450.5 Examining the SMART data on the three drives in question, the two that are DEGRADED are in good shape (PASSED without any Current_Pending_Sector or Offline_Uncorrectable errors), but the drive listed as WARNING has 24 uncorrectable sectors. And, the "rebuild" has been stuck at 4% for ten hours now. So: How do I get it to start actually rebuilding? This particular controller doesn't appear to support /c2/u1 resume rebuild, and the only rebuild command that appears to be an option is one that wants to know what disk to add (/c2/u1 start rebuild disk=<p:-p...> [ignoreECC] according to the help). I have two hot spares in the server, and I'm happy to engage them, but I don't understand what it would do with that information in the current state it's in. Can I pull out the drive that is demonstrably failing (the WARNING drive), when I have two DEGRADED drives in a RAID-6? It seems to me that the best scenario would be for me to pull the WARNING drive and tell it to use one of my hot spares in the rebuild. But won't I kill the thing by pulling a "good" drive in a RAID-6 with two DEGRADED drives? Finally, I've seen reference in other posts to a bad bug in this controller that causes good drives to be marked as bad and that upgrading the firmware may help. Is flashing the firmware a risky operation given the situation? Is it likely to help or hurt wrt the rebuilding-but-stuck-at-4% RAID? Am I experiencing this bug in action? Advice outside the spiritual would be much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Dig returns "status: REFUSED" for external queries?

    - by Mikey
    I can't seem to work out why my DNS isn't working properly, if I run dig from the nameserver it functions correctly: # dig ungl.org ; <<>> DiG 9.5.1-P2.1 <<>> ungl.org ;; global options: printcmd ;; Got answer: ;; ->>HEADER<<- opcode: QUERY, status: NOERROR, id: 24585 ;; flags: qr aa rd ra; QUERY: 1, ANSWER: 1, AUTHORITY: 2, ADDITIONAL: 1 ;; QUESTION SECTION: ;ungl.org. IN A ;; ANSWER SECTION: ungl.org. 38400 IN A 188.165.34.72 ;; AUTHORITY SECTION: ungl.org. 38400 IN NS ns.kimsufi.com. ungl.org. 38400 IN NS r29901.ovh.net. ;; ADDITIONAL SECTION: ns.kimsufi.com. 85529 IN A 213.186.33.199 ;; Query time: 1 msec ;; SERVER: 127.0.0.1#53(127.0.0.1) ;; WHEN: Sat Mar 13 01:04:06 2010 ;; MSG SIZE rcvd: 114 but when I run it from another server in the same datacenter I receive: # dig @87.98.167.208 ungl.org ; <<>> DiG 9.5.1-P2.1 <<>> @87.98.167.208 ungl.org ; (1 server found) ;; global options: printcmd ;; Got answer: ;; ->>HEADER<<- opcode: QUERY, status: REFUSED, id: 18787 ;; flags: qr rd; QUERY: 1, ANSWER: 0, AUTHORITY: 0, ADDITIONAL: 0 ;; WARNING: recursion requested but not available ;; QUESTION SECTION: ;ungl.org. IN A ;; Query time: 1 msec ;; SERVER: 87.98.167.208#53(87.98.167.208) ;; WHEN: Sat Mar 13 01:01:35 2010 ;; MSG SIZE rcvd: 26 my zone file for this domain is $ttl 38400 ungl.org. IN SOA r29901.ovh.net. mikey.aol.com. ( 201003121 10800 3600 604800 38400 ) ungl.org. IN NS r29901.ovh.net. ungl.org. IN NS ns.kimsufi.com. ungl.org. IN A 188.165.34.72 localhost. IN A 127.0.0.1 www IN A 188.165.34.72 The server is running Ubuntu 9.10 and Bind 9, if anyone can shed some light on this for me it'd make me very happy! thanks

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  • Vista install works on one computer, but bluescreens another (on which Vista is known to work)

    - by Ken
    I hope my explanations make some sense -- please ask for clarification if they don't. I had a computer running Windows Vista (Ultimate, 64-bit). All was well! Then one day there was a nasty power surge at the office, and it died. (We didn't have surge protectors at the office, unfortunately. I assumed our lines were conditioned elsewhere, or was not an issue here. Oops.) After some testing, it was determined that the PSU, motherboard, and RAM were bad. While waiting for new hardware to arrive, I put my hard disk in a spare PC which had identical parts (mobo/CPU/RAM/PSU/video). Everything worked perfectly. The only way I could even tell it wasn't my computer is because Vista asked to re-activate itself with the new hardware, which worked fine, too. So the hard disk seems OK. Then the new parts arrived. The old motherboard model is no longer manufactured, so it's a new one with the same CPU/RAM/videocard/etc. slots. The PSU is also new, while the RAM I'm using is from the spare PC mentioned above. When I put it together and tried booting with my old hard disk, it starts to boot Windows, and then (fairly early in the process) gives a bluescreen and immediately reboots (so I can't see whatever the bluescreen is trying to tell me). I tried "safe mode", which also bluescreened. I tried booting the Vista DVD and running the repair utility, which found a Vista install, confirmed that it would not boot, and, eventually, declared that it was unable to repair it. I installed Vista fresh on a new hard disk, with the new mobo/etc., and it works perfectly. (That's what I'm running now.) I've also booted a Linux CD here, which ran great, and I've run Memtest86+ for a while, which found no errors. So all the hardware apart from the old hard disk seems OK, too. I don't think the problem is with my old Vista hard disk, since I used that with another mobo/CPU just fine. I don't think it's any other part of the new hardware, since I'm able to use it (and test it) with no trouble. It's just the combination of my old Vista install plus the new PC hardware that's not happy. I can get my data off my old hard disk and onto my new hard disk, and reinstall my apps, but it would be nice if I could fix things so I could continue to use my old hard disk as before. The latest hypothesis I've heard is that Vista had trouble with the new hardware (i.e., motherboard), but we have no idea what to do about that (except Safe Mode, which didn't work). Suggestions? Hypotheses for what's not right about this combination of Vista install and motherboard? Thanks!

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  • Weird networking problem ( Linksys, Windows 7 )

    - by Rohit Nair
    Okay it's a bit tough to figure out where to start from, but here is the basic summary of the issue: During general internet usage, there are times when any attempt to visit a website stalls at "Waiting for somedomain.com". This problem occurs in Firefox, IE and Chrome. No website will load, INCLUDING the router configuration page at 192.168.1.1. Curiously, ping works fine, and other network apps such as MSN Messenger continue to work and I can send and receive messages. Disconnecting and reconnecting to the wireless network seems to fix the problem for a bit, but there are times when it relapses into not loading after every 2-3 http requests. Restarting the router seems to fix the issue, but it can crop up hours or days later. I have a CCNA cert and I know my way around the Windows family of operating systems, so I'm going to list all the things I've tried here. Other computers on the network seem to suffer the same problem, which makes me think it might be a specific problem with something in Win7. The random nature of this issue makes it a bit difficult to confirm, but I can definitely say that I have experienced this on the following systems: Windows 7 64-bit on my desktop Windows Vista 32-bit on my desktop ( the desktop has 2 wireless NICs and the problem existed on both ) Windows Vista 32-bit on my laptop ( both with wireless and wired ) Windows XP SP3 on another laptop ( both wireless and wired ) Using Wireshark to sniff packets seemed to indicate that although HTTP requests were being SENT out, no packets were coming in to respond to the HTTP request. However, other network apps continued to work i.e I would still receive IMs on Windows Live Messenger. Disabling IPV6 had no effect. Updating router firmware to the latest stock firmware by Linksys had no effect. Switching to dd-wrt firmware had no effect. By "no effect" I mean that although the restart required by firmware updates fixed the problem at the time, it still came back. A couple of weeks back, after a LOT of googling and flipping of various options, I figured it might be a case of router slowdown ( http://www.dd-wrt.com/wiki/index.php/Router%5FSlowdown ) caused by the fact that I occasionally run a torrent client. I tried changing the configuration as suggested in that router slowdown link, and restarted the router. However I have not run the torrent client for 12 days now, and yet I still randomly experience this problem. Currently the computer I am using is running Windows 7 64-bit. I would just like to reiterate some of the reasons that I was confused by the issue. Even the router config page at 192.168.1.1 would not load, indicating that it's not a problem with the WAN link, but probably a router issue or a local computer issue. For some reason, disconnecting and reconnecting to the wireless network immediately seems to fix the problem. Updating the router firmware, even switching to open source firmware did nothing. So it seemed to be a computer issue. On the other hand, I have not seen any mass outrage of people having networking problems with Windows 7 and Linksys routers, especially a problem of this sort, and I have tweaked every network setting I could think of. Although HTTP seems to have trouble, ping works fine, DNS lookups work fine, other networking apps work fine. However if I disconnect from Windows Live Messenger and try to reconnect, it fails to reconnect. So although it could receive data over the existing TCP/IP connection, trying to start a new one failed? Does anyone have any further ideas on debugging or fixing this issue? I am reasonably certain there are no viruses or other malicious apps on my network, and I am also reasonably certain that nobody is accessing my router without my consent. Router: Linksys WRT54G2 1.0 running dd-wrt firmware Wireless Card: Alfa AWUS036H OS: Windows 7 64-bit EDIT: I tried switching to a clean wireless channel free from interference, but the problem still persisted. I tried connecting directly with a cable, but the problem still persisted. Signed A very confused and bewildered geek whose knowledge seems to be useless in the face of this frustrating network issue.

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  • ssh tunnel error "ssh_exchange_identification: Connection closed by remote host"

    - by Jacob Ewing
    I'm trying to use an ssh tunnel from my office machine to my home machine, and get an error when I try to use it. What I'm doing is starting one shell like so: ssh -gL 12345:my.home.domain:22 my.home.domain This is giving me a proper shell, no problem. What I normally do then is ssh to my home machine through this office machine, like so: ssh -p 12345 127.0.0.1 This has always worked for me, until last week, when I set up a new system on my home machine (switching from Ubuntu to Debian). Now I get an error. I can still open up my initial ssh connection, but when I try to use that tunnel, I get (on the office machine) this error: ssh_exchange_identification: Connection closed by remote host Also, when that happens, the open shell that I have the tunnelling set up through gets this line spat out at it: channel 3: open failed: connect failed: Connection timed out At which point, I'm at a loss. If any more info is needed, I'll be happy to post it. ============= further to that ============== After fiddling around further, I've found that I'm getting a different response from the server (my home machine that is) when I try to telnet in on the various ports. If I try: telnet my.home.domain 22 I get this back: Trying <my ip address>... Connected to <my domain>. Escape character is '^]'. SSH-2.0-OpenSSH_5.5p1 Debian-6+squeeze2 Which is what I would expect. After setting up the tunnel though, and then telnetting to that, I see this response: Trying 127.0.0.1... Connected to 127.0.0.1. Escape character is '^]'. ============== and further still ================== As per kbulgrien's suggestion, here is the output from the client machine with the -v option: ssh -vp 24600 127.0.0.1 OpenSSH_5.9p1 Debian-5ubuntu1, OpenSSL 1.0.1 14 Mar 2012 debug1: Reading configuration data /etc/ssh/ssh_config debug1: /etc/ssh/ssh_config line 19: Applying options for * debug1: Connecting to 127.0.0.1 [127.0.0.1] port 24600. debug1: Connection established. debug1: identity file /home/jacob/.ssh/id_rsa type -1 debug1: identity file /home/jacob/.ssh/id_rsa-cert type -1 debug1: identity file /home/jacob/.ssh/id_dsa type -1 debug1: identity file /home/jacob/.ssh/id_dsa-cert type -1 debug1: identity file /home/jacob/.ssh/id_ecdsa type -1 debug1: identity file /home/jacob/.ssh/id_ecdsa-cert type -1 ssh_exchange_identification: Connection closed by remote host

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  • Business Owners - What Remote Desktop Solution Do You Use To Service Your Clients PCs?

    - by Sootah
    Howdy fellow computer geeks, I am the owner of a local computer repair business that primarily services its clients on-site. On the occasions that we do service the machines in the office we generally have one of our techs pick the computer up while they are out and about and bring it back with them. Only rarely will we require the customer to bring us the computer themselves. In order to reduce costs, be much more efficient, and potentially expand our market far beyond what would be feasible with travel required; I am looking at ways that we can service our clients remotely whenever possible. What we're in need of is a solid remote desktop application that will be incredibly easy for our customers to connect to, as well as be robust enough that we don't need the client babysitting the computer during the entire repair. Ideally I would like to use a web-based solution so that we don't have to walk the customers through installing, connecting, and configuring it over the phone. This would be unacceptable because of the level of service they are used to. Effectively we'd want them to be able to just go to a URL, enter a PIN or something, and then they are connected and ready to rumble. (Obviously the option to just email them a link that'd do all this for them would be what we'd be aiming for) Along with the ease of use factor, we would need the product to not require any further intervention on the part of the client after we have connected. Nobody is going to be happy if we have to call them every 15 minutes so they can reconnect to us every time we reboot - so auto-reconnect is an absolute must. The only product I know of right now that does any of this is LogMeIn Rescue. It allows unattended access, the applet is lightweight and installs quickly, and the customer can either enter a PIN on the site or just click a link emailed to them in order to connect. The only real downside I see to LogMeIn Rescue is that it's $120.00/month per technician. While we'd ultimately end up saving far more than that per month just in fuel costs alone, I'd like to explore any other options out there that I may not have come across. So - Are there any equally good products out there? If so what are they, why do you recommend them, how have you been utilizing them yourself, and what do they cost? Thanks in advance for your help! -Sootah

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  • What Remote Desktop Solution Do You Use To Service Your Clients' PCs? [closed]

    - by Sootah
    Possible Duplicate: What’s the best Remote Desktop Application? I am the owner of a local computer repair business that primarily services its clients on-site. On the occasions that we do service the machines in the office we generally have one of our techs pick the computer up while they are out and about and bring it back with them. Only rarely will we require the customer to bring us the computer themselves. In order to reduce costs, be much more efficient, and potentially expand our market far beyond what would be feasible with travel required; I am looking at ways that we can service our clients remotely whenever possible. What we're in need of is a solid remote desktop application that will be incredibly easy for our customers to connect to, as well as be robust enough that we don't need the client babysitting the computer during the entire repair. Ideally I would like to use a web-based solution so that we don't have to walk the customers through installing, connecting, and configuring it over the phone. This would be unacceptable because of the level of service they are used to. Effectively we'd want them to be able to just go to a URL, enter a PIN or something, and then they are connected and ready to rumble. (Obviously the option to just email them a link that'd do all this for them would be what we'd be aiming for) Along with the ease of use factor, we would need the product to not require any further intervention on the part of the client after we have connected. Nobody is going to be happy if we have to call them every 15 minutes so they can reconnect to us every time we reboot - so auto-reconnect is an absolute must. The only product I know of right now that does any of this is LogMeIn Rescue. It allows unattended access, the applet is lightweight and installs quickly, and the customer can either enter a PIN on the site or just click a link emailed to them in order to connect. The only real downside I see to LogMeIn Rescue is that it's $120.00/month per technician. While we'd ultimately end up saving far more than that per month just in fuel costs alone, I'd like to explore any other options out there that I may not have come across. Are there any equally good products out there? If so what are they, why do you recommend them, how have you been utilizing them yourself, and what do they cost?

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