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  • How can my facebook application post message to a wall?

    - by Thomas Dekiere
    i already found out how to post something to a wall with the graph api on behalf of the facebook user. But now i want to post something in the name of my application. Here is how i'm trying to do this: protected void btn_submit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Dictionary<string, string> data = new Dictionary<string, string>(); data.Add("message", "Testing"); // i'll add more data later here (picture, link, ...) data.Add("access_token", FbGraphApi.getAppToken()); FbGraphApi.postOnWall(ConfigSettings.getFbPageId(), data); } FbGraphApi.getAppToken() // ... private static string graphUrl = "https://graph.facebook.com"; //... public static string getAppToken() { MyWebRequest req = new MyWebRequest(graphUrl + "/" + "oauth/access_token?type=client_cred&client_id=" + ConfigSettings.getAppID() + "&client_secret=" + ConfigSettings.getAppSecret(), "GET"); return req.GetResponse().Split('=')[1]; } FbGraphApi.postOnWall() public static void postOnWall(string id, Dictionary<string,string> args) { call(id, "feed", args); } FbGraphApi.call() private static void call(string id, string method, Dictionary<string,string> args ) { string data = ""; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, string> arg in args) { data += arg.Key + "=" + arg.Value + "&"; } MyWebRequest req = new MyWebRequest(graphUrl +"/" + id + "/" + method, "POST", data.Substring(0, data.Length - 1)); req.GetResponse(); // here i get: "The remote server returned an error: (403) Forbidden." } Does anyone see where this i going wrong? I'm really stuck on this. Thanks!

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  • How would I go about sharing variables in a C++ class with Lua?

    - by Nicholas Flynt
    I'm fairly new to Lua, I've been working on trying to implement Lua scripting for logic in a Game Engine I'm putting together. I've had no trouble so far getting Lua up and running through the engine, and I'm able to call Lua functions from C and C functions from Lua. The way the engine works now, each Object class contains a set of variables that the engine can quickly iterate over to draw or process for physics. While game objects all need to access and manipulate these variables in order for the Game Engine itself to see any changes, they are free to create their own variables, a Lua is exceedingly flexible about this so I don't forsee any issues. Anyway, currently the Game Engine side of things are sitting in C land, and I really want them to stay there for performance reasons. So in an ideal world, when spawning a new game object, I'd need to be able to give Lua read/write access to this standard set of variables as part of the Lua object's base class, which its game logic could then proceed to run wild with. So far, I'm keeping two separate tables of objects in place-- Lua spawns a new game object which adds itself to a numerically indexed global table of objects, and then proceeds to call a C++ function, which creates a new GameObject class and registers the Lua index (an int) with the class. So far so good, C++ functions can now see the Lua object and easily perform operations or call functions in Lua land using dostring. What I need to do now is take the C++ variables, part of the GameObject class, and expose them to Lua, and this is where google is failing me. I've encountered a very nice method here which details the process using tags, but I've read that this method is deprecated in favor of metatables. What is the ideal way to accomplish this? Is it worth the hassle of learning how to pass class definitions around using libBind or some equivalent method, or is there a simple way I can just register each variable (once, at spawn time) with the global lua object? What's the "current" best way to do this, as of Lua 5.1.4?

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  • Server returns 500 error only when called by Java client using urlConnection/httpUrlConnection

    - by user455889
    Hi - I'm having a very strange problem. I'm trying to call a servlet (JSP) with an HTTP GET and a few parameters (http://mydomain.com/method?param1=test&param2=123). If I call it from the browser or via WGET in a bash session, it works fine. However, when I make the exact same call in a Java client using urlConnection or httpURLConnection, the server returns a 500 error. I've tried everything I have found online including: urlConn.setRequestProperty("Accept-Language", "en-us,en;q=0.5"); Nothing I've tried, however, has worked. Unfortunately, I don't have access to the server I'm calling so I can't see the logs. Here's the latest code: private String testURLConnection() { String ret = ""; String url = "http://localhost:8080/TestService/test"; String query = "param1=value1&param2=value2"; try { URLConnection connection = new URL(url + "?" + query).openConnection(); connection.setRequestProperty("Accept-Charset", "UTF-8"); connection.setRequestProperty("Accept-Language", "en-us,en;q=0.5"); BufferedReader bufferedReader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(connection.getInputStream())); String line; StringBuilder content = new StringBuilder(); while ((line = bufferedReader.readLine()) != null) { content.append(line + "\n"); } bufferedReader.close(); metaRet = content.toString(); log.debug(methodName + " return = " + metaRet); } catch (Exception ex) { log.error("Exception: " + ex); log.error("stack trace: " + getStackTrace(ex)); } return metaRet; } Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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  • Xcode: Display Login View in applicationDidBecomeActive

    - by Patrick
    In my app I would like to show a login screen - which will be displayed when the app starts and when the app becomes active. For reference, I am using storyboards, ARC and it is a tabbed bar application. First off, I have this method which returns the topViewController. - (UIViewController *)topViewController:(UIViewController *)rootViewController { if (rootViewController.presentedViewController == nil) { return rootViewController; } if ([rootViewController.presentedViewController isMemberOfClass:[UINavigationController class]]) { UINavigationController *navigationController = (UINavigationController *)rootViewController.presentedViewController; UIViewController *lastViewController = [[navigationController viewControllers] lastObject]; return [self topViewController:lastViewController]; } UIViewController *presentedViewController = (UIViewController *)rootViewController.presentedViewController; return [self topViewController:presentedViewController]; } And I call this method here: - (void)applicationDidBecomeActive:(UIApplication *)application { if ( ... ) { // if the user needs to login PasswordViewController *passwordView = [[PasswordViewController alloc] init]; UIViewController *myView = [self topViewController:self.window.rootViewController]; [myView presentModalViewController:passwordView animated:NO]; } } To an extent this does work - I can call a method in viewDidAppear which shows an alert view to allow the user to log in. However, this is undesirable and I would like to have a login text box and other ui elements. If I do not call my login method, nothing happens and the screen stays black, even though I have put a label and other elements on the view. Does anyone know a way to resolve this? My passcode view is embedded in a Navigation Controller, but is detached from the main storyboard.

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  • RhinoMocks: how to test if method was called when using PartialMock

    - by epitka
    I have a clas that is something like this public class MyClass { public virtual string MethodA(Command cmd) { //some code here} public void MethodB(SomeType obj) { // do some work MethodA(command); } } I mocked MyClass as PartialMock (mocks.PartialMock<MyClass>) and I setup expectation for MethodA var cmd = new Command(); //set the cmd to expected state Expect.Call(MyClass.MethodA(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); Problem is that MethodB calls actual implementation of MethodA instead of mocking it up. I must be doing something wrong (not very experienced with RhinoMocks). How do I force it to mock MetdhodA? Here is the actual code: var cmd = new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand(); cmd.BaseProduct = planBaseProduct; var insuredType = mocks.DynamicMock<InsuredType>(); Expect.Call(insuredType.Code).Return(InsuredTypeCode.AllInsureds); cmd.Values.Add(new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand.CoInsuranceValues() { CoInsurancePercent = 0, InsuredType = insuredType, PolicySupplierType = ppProvider }); Expect.Call(() => service.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); mocks.ReplayAll(); //act service.DefaultCoInsurancesFor(planBaseProduct); //assert service.AssertWasCalled(x => x.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd),x=>x.Repeat.Once());

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  • Trouble with building up a string in Clojure

    - by Aki Iskandar
    Hi gang - [this may seem like my problem is with Compojure, but it isn't - it's with Clojure] I've been pulling my hair out on this seemingly simple issue - but am getting nowhere. I am playing with Compojure (a light web framework for Clojure) and I would just like to generate a web page showing showing my list of todos that are in a PostgreSQL database. The code snippets are below (left out the database connection, query, etc - but that part isn't needed because specific issue is that the resulting HTML shows nothing between the <body> and </body> tags). As a test, I tried hard-coding the string in the call to main-layout, like this: (html (main-layout "Aki's Todos" "Haircut<br>Study Clojure<br>Answer a question on Stackoverfolw")) - and it works fine. So the real issue is that I do not believe I know how to build up a string in Clojure. Not the idiomatic way, and not by calling out to Java's StringBuilder either - as I have attempted to do in the code below. A virtual beer, and a big upvote to whoever can solve it! Many thanks! ============================================================= ;The master template (a very simple POC for now, but can expand on it later) (defn main-layout "This is one of the html layouts for the pages assets - just like a master page" [title body] (html [:html [:head [:title title] (include-js "todos.js") (include-css "todos.css")] [:body body]])) (defn show-all-todos "This function will generate the todos HTML table and call the layout function" [] (let [rs (select-all-todos) sbHTML (new StringBuilder)] (for [rec rs] (.append sbHTML (str rec "<br><br>"))) (html (main-layout "Aki's Todos" (.toString sbHTML))))) ============================================================= Again, the result is a web page but with nothing between the body tags. If I replace the code in the for loop with println statements, and direct the code to the repl - forgetting about the web page stuff (ie. the call to main-layout), the resultset gets printed - BUT - the issue is with building up the string. Thanks again. ~Aki

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  • Best way to catch a WCF exception in Silverlight?

    - by wahrhaft
    I have a Silverlight 2 application that is consuming a WCF service. As such, it uses asynchronous callbacks for all the calls to the methods of the service. If the service is not running, or it crashes, or the network goes down, etc before or during one of these calls, an exception is generated as you would expect. The problem is, I don't know how to catch this exception. Because it is an asynchronous call, I can't wrap my begin call with a try/catch block and have it pick up an exception that happens after the program has moved on from that point. Because the service proxy is automatically generated, I can't put a try/catch block on each and every generated function that calls EndInvoke (where the exception actually shows up). These generated functions are also surrounded by External Code in the call stack, so there's nowhere else in the stack to put a try/catch either. I can't put the try/catch in my callback functions, because the exception occurs before they would get called. There is an Application_UnhandledException function in my App.xaml.cs, which captures all unhandled exceptions. I could use this, but it seems like a messy way to do it. I'd rather reserve this function for the truly unexpected errors (aka bugs) and not end up with code in this function for every circumstance I'd like to deal with in a specific way. Am I missing an obvious solution? Or am I stuck using Application_UnhandledException? [Edit] As mentioned below, the Error property is exactly what I was looking for. What is throwing me for a loop is that the fact that the exception is thrown and appears to be uncaught, yet execution is able to continue. It triggers the Application_UnhandledException event and causes VS2008 to break execution, but continuing in the debugger allows execution to continue. It's not really a problem, it just seems odd.

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  • Performance of C# method polymorphism with generics

    - by zildjohn01
    I noticed in C#, unlike C++, you can combine virtual and generic methods. For example: using System.Diagnostics; class Base { public virtual void Concrete() {Debug.WriteLine("base concrete");} public virtual void Generic<T>() {Debug.WriteLine("base generic");} } class Derived : Base { public override void Concrete() {Debug.WriteLine("derived concrete");} public override void Generic<T>() {Debug.WriteLine("derived generic");} } class App { static void Main() { Base x = new Derived(); x.Concrete(); x.Generic<PerformanceCounter>(); } } Given that any number of versions of Generic<T> could be instantiated, it doesn't look like the standard vtbl approach could be used to resolve method calls, and in fact it's not. Here's the generated code: x.Concrete(); mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] mov eax,dword ptr [ecx] call dword ptr [eax+38h] x.Generic<PerformanceCounter>(); push 989A38h mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] mov edx,989914h call 76A874F1 mov dword ptr [ebp-4],eax mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] call dword ptr [ebp-4] The extra code appears to be looking up a dynamic vtbl according to the generic parameters, and then calling into it. Has anyone written about the specifics of this implementation? How well does it perform compared to the non-generic case?

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  • How to find Tomcat's PID and kill it in python?

    - by 4herpsand7derpsago
    Normally, one shuts down Apache Tomcat by running its shutdown.sh script (or batch file). In some cases, such as when Tomcat's web container is hosting a web app that does some crazy things with multi-threading, running shutdown.sh gracefully shuts down some parts of Tomcat (as I can see more available memory returning to the system), but the Tomcat process keeps running. I'm trying to write a simple Python script that: Calls shutdown.sh Runs ps -aef | grep tomcat to find any process with Tomcat referenced If applicable, kills the process with kill -9 <PID> Here's what I've got so far (as a prototype - I'm brand new to Python BTW): #!/usr/bin/python # Imports import sys import subprocess # Load from imported module. if __init__ == "__main__": main() # Main entry point. def main(): # Shutdown Tomcat shutdownCmd = "sh ${TOMCAT_HOME}/bin/shutdown.sh" subprocess.call([shutdownCmd], shell=true) # Check for PID grepCmd = "ps -aef | grep tomcat" grepResults = subprocess.call([grepCmd], shell=true) if(grepResult.length > 1): # Get PID and kill it. pid = ??? killPidCmd = "kill -9 $pid" subprocess.call([killPidCmd], shell=true) # Exit. sys.exit() I'm struggling with the middle part - with obtaining the grep results, checking to see if their size is greater than 1 (since grep always returns a reference to itself, at least 1 result will always be returned, methinks), and then parsing that returned PID and passing it into the killPidCmd. Thanks in advance!

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  • OptimisticLockException in inner transaction ruins outer transaction

    - by Pace
    I have the following code (OLE = OptimisticLockException)... public void outer() { try { middle() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); outer(); } } @Transactional public void middle() { try { inner() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); middle(); } @Transactional public void inner() { //Do DB operation } inner() is called by other non-transactional methods which is why both middle() and inner() are transactional. As you can see, I deal with OLEs by updating the entities and retrying the operation. The problem I'm having is that when I designed things this way I was assuming that the only time one could get an OLE was when a transaction closed. This is apparently not the case as the call to inner() is throwing an OLE even when the stack is outer()->middle()->inner(). Now, middle() is properly handling the OLE and the retry succeeds but when it comes time to close the transaction it has been marked rollbackOnly by Spring. When the middle() method call finally returns the closing aspect throws an exception because it can't commit a transaction marked rollbackOnly. I'm uncertain what to do here. I can't clear the rollbackOnly state. I don't want to force create a transaction on every call to inner because that kills my performance. Am I missing something or can anyone see a way I can structure this differently? EDIT: To clarify what I'm asking, let me explain my main question. Is it possible to catch and handle OLE if you are inside of an @Transactional method? FYI: The transaction manager is a JpaTransactionManager and the JPA provider is Hibernate.

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  • C# / IronPython Interop with shared C# Class Library

    - by Adam Haile
    I'm trying to use IronPython as an intermediary between a C# GUI and some C# libraries, so that it can be scripted post compile time. I have a Class library DLL that is used by both the GUI and the python and is something along the lines of this: namespace MyLib { public class MyClass { public string Name { get; set; } public MyClass(string name) { this.Name = name; } } } The IronPython code is as follows: import clr clr.AddReferenceToFile(r"MyLib.dll") from MyLib import MyClass ReturnObject = MyClass("Test") Then, in C# I would call it as follows: ScriptEngine engine = Python.CreateEngine(); ScriptScope scope = null; scope = engine.CreateScope(); ScriptSource source = engine.CreateScriptSourceFromFile("Script.py"); source.Execute(scope); MyClass mc = scope.GetVariable<MyClass>("ReturnObject ") When I call this last bit of code, source.Execute(scope) runs returns successfully, but when I try the GetVariable call, it throw the following exception Microsoft.Scripting.ArgumentTypeException: expected MyClass , got MyClass So, you can see that the class names are exactly the same, but for some reason it thinks they are different. The DLL is in a different directory than the .py file (I just didn't bother to write out all the path setup stuff), could it be that there is an issue with the interpreter for IronPython seeing these objects as difference because it's somehow seeing them as being in a different context or scope?

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  • Datareceived Serialport event stops raising after some seconds

    - by Mario
    Hi, I was hoping someone could help me out with this problem. I have a system (VB .NET) where I must read a person's weight (RS232 Sluice) and id (Fingerprint - 2 biometric reader, rs232) and compare it to a database. I have 3 serialports in my app, one for the sluice and the other 2 are to receive the id from the fingerprint readers, both of which call the same sub to get the id from the reader. I've been testing just one reader and it seemed to work fine, I got data from the datareceived and joined it together to get the id. The problem comes at this moment: I put a finger, sends the id, if it's ok sends a message, otherwise, writes the id to a textbox. But in-between reads, if I let 5 or 10 seconds pass without putting a finger on the reader it seems like I get no data at all anymore, the datareceived event nevers gets raised but if I keep putting a finger constantly it works pretty good, this is really weird to me. I was thinking of some things: **Maybe the port gets closed somehow after some time? I never call the CLose() method **The fact both datareceived eventhandlers call the same method and delegate **Maybe the connection settings are missing something? I tested with hyperterminal and the port keeps getting info even after time without activity and I use the same config with my application, maybe I need to change more settings like DTEenable and RTSenable? Please I need some help with this issue, it's to control access so it needs to be running 24/7 thanks in advance!

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  • Modify the server side functions using jquery

    - by ant
    Hi, I am developing one website using cakephp and jquery technologies. Server-side there are some functions which handles sql queris. As per requirement I want to modify server side functions on client side using jquery AJAX call. E.g. : Below is the function on server side to modify users information. function modifyUser(username,userid) { //update query statements } Then jquery AJAX call will be like this : $.ajax({ url: 'users/modiyUser', success: function() { alert("Updation done") or any statements. } }); and I want to modify above i.e. server side function depending upon client input criteria. $.ajax({ function users/modiyUser(username,userid) { // I will write here any other statements which gives me some other output. } }); Above AJAX call syntax may not present, but i think you all understood what I am trying to do I simply wants to modify/override server side functions on client side. Please let me know is there any way to resolve above mentioned requirement. Thanks in adavance

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  • What VC++ compiler/linker does when building a C++ project with Managed Extension

    - by ???
    The initial problem is that I tried to rebuild a C++ project with debug symbols and copied it to test machine, The output of the project is external COM server(.exe file). When calling the COM interface function, there's a RPC call failre: COMException(0x800706BE): The remote procedure call failed. According to the COM HRESULT design, if the FACILITY code is 7, it's actually a WIN32 error, and the win32 error code is 0x6BE, which is the above mentioned "remote procedure call failed". All I do is replace the COM server .exe file, the origin file works well. When I checked into the project, I found it's a C++ project with Managed Extension. When I checking the DLL with reflector, it shows there's 2 additional .NET assembly reference. Then I checked the project setting and found nothing about the extra 2 assembly reference. I turned on the show includes option of compiler and verbose library of linker, and try to analyze whether the assembly is indirectly referenced via .h file. I've collect all the .h file and grep all the files with '#using' '#import' and the assembly file itself. There really is a '#using ' in one of the .h file but not-relevant to the referenced assembly. And about the linked .lib library files, only one of the .lib file is a side-product of another managed-extension-enabled C++ project, all others are produced by a pure, traditional C++ project. For the managed-extension-enabled C++ project, I checked the output DLL assembly, it did NOT reference to the 2 assembly. I even try to capture the access of the additional assembly file via sysinternal's filemon and procmon, but the rebuild process does NOT access these file. I'm very confused about the compile and linking process model of a VC++/CLI project, where the additional assembly reference slipped into the final assembly? Thanks in advance for any of your help.

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  • Touch draw in Quatz 2D/Core Graphics

    - by OgreSwamp
    Hello, I'm trying to implement "hand draw tool". At the moment algorythm looks like that (I don't insert any code because methods are quite big, will try to explain an idea): Drawing In touchesStarted: method I create NSMutableArray *pointsArray and add point into it. Call setNeedsDisplay: method. In touchesMoved: method I calculate points between last added point from the pointsArray and current point. Add all points to the pointsArray. Call setNeedsDisplay: method. In touchesFinished: event I calculate points between last added point from the array and current point. Set flag touchesWereFinished. Call setNeedsDisplay:. Render: drawRect: method checks is pointsArray != nil and is there any data in it. If there is - it starts to traw circles in each point of this array. If flag touchesWereFinished is set - save current context to the UIImage, release pointsArray, set it to nil and reset the flag. There are a lot disadvantages of this method: It is slow It becomes extremely slow when user touches and move finger for long time. Array becomes enormous "Lines" composed by circles are ugly I would like to change my algorithm to make it bit faster and line smoother. In result I would like to have lines like on the picture at following URL (sorry, not enough reputation to insert an image): http://2.bp.blogspot.com/_r5VzEAUYXJ4/SrOYp8tJCPI/AAAAAAAAAMw/ZwDKXiHlhV0/s320/SketchBook+Mobile(4).png Can you advice me, ho I can draw lines this way (smooth and slim on the edges)? I thought to draw circles with alpha gradient on the edges (to make lines smoother), but it will be extremely slowly IMHO. Thanks for help

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  • Calling into a saved java object via JNI from a different thread

    - by Drake Amara
    I have a java object which calls into a C++ shared object via JNI. In C++, I am saving a reference to the JNIEnv and jObject. JavaVM * jvm; JNIEnv * myEnv; jobject myobj; JNIEXPORT void JNICALL Java_org_api_init (JNIEnv *env, jobject jObj) { myEnv = env; myobj = jObj; } I also have a GLSurface renderer and it eventually calls the C++ shared object mentioned above on a different thread, the GLThread. I am then trying to call back into my original Java object using the jobject I saved initially, but I think because I am on the GLThread, I get the following error. W/dalvikvm(16101): JNI WARNING: 0x41ded218 is not a valid JNI reference I/dalvikvm(16101): "GLThread 981" prio=5 tid=15 RUNNABLE I/dalvikvm(16101): | group="main" sCount=0 dsCount=0 obj=0x41d6e220 self=0x5cb11078 I/dalvikvm(16101): | sysTid=16133 nice=0 sched=0/0 cgrp=apps handle=1555429136 I/dalvikvm(16101): | schedstat=( 0 0 0 ) utm=42 stm=32 core=1 The code calling back into Java : void setData() { jvm->AttachCurrentThread(&myEnv, 0); jclass javaClass = myEnv->FindClass("com/myapp/myClass"); if(javaClass == NULL){ LOGD("ERROR - cant find class"); } jmethodID method = myEnv->GetMethodID(javaClass, "updateDataModel", "()V"); if(method == NULL){ LOGD("ERROR - cant access method"); } // this works, but its a new java object //jobject myobj2 = myEnv->NewObject(javaClass, method); //this is where the crash occurs myEnv->CallVoidMethod(myobj, method, NULL); } If instead I create a new jObject using env-NewObject, I can succuessfully call back into Java, but it is a new object and I dont want that. I need to get back to my original Java Object. Is it a matter of switching threads before I call back into Java? If so, how do I do so ?

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  • C++ design related question

    - by Kotti
    Hi! Here is the question's plot: suppose I have some abstract classes for objects, let's call it Object. It's definition would include 2D position and dimensions. Let it also have some virtual void Render(Backend& backend) const = 0 method used for rendering. Now I specialize my inheritance tree and add Rectangle and Ellipse class. Guess they won't have their own properties, but they will have their own virtual void Render method. Let's say I implemented these methods, so that Render for Rectangle actually draws some rectangle, and the same for ellipse. Now, I add some object called Plane, which is defined as class Plane : public Rectangle and has a private member of std::vector<Object*> plane_objects; Right after that I add a method to add some object to my plane. And here comes the question. If I design this method as void AddObject(Object& object) I would face trouble like I won't be able to call virtual functions, because I would have to do something like plane_objects.push_back(new Object(object)); and this should be push_back(new Rectangle(object)) for rectangles and new Circle(...) for circles. If I implement this method as void AddObject(Object* object), it looks good, but then somewhere else this means making call like plane.AddObject(new Rectangle(params)); and this is generally a mess because then it's not clear which part of my program should free the allocated memory. ["when destroying the plane? why? are we sure that calls to AddObject were only done as AddObject(new something).] I guess the problems caused by using the second approach could be solved using smart pointers, but I am sure there have to be something better. Any ideas?

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  • Load PHP function with jQuery Ajax

    - by brandon14_99
    I have a file which is loaded at the top of my document, which is called Videos.php. Inside that file are several functions, such as getYoutubeVideos. On some pages, I need to call upon that function several times (up to 50), and it of course creates major lag on load times. So I have been trying to figure out how to call that function in, only when it is need (when someone clicks the show videos button). I have very little experience with jQuery's ajax abilities. I would like the ajax call to be made inside of something like this: jQuery('a[rel=VideoPreview1).click(function(){ jQuery ("a[rel=VideoPreview1]").hide(); jQuery ("a[rel=HideVideoPreview1]").show(); jQuery ("#VideoPreview1").show(); //AJAX STUFF HERE preventDefault(); }); Ok I have created this based on the responses, but it is still not working: jQuery Code: jQuery(document).ready(function(){ jQuery("a[rel=VideoPreview5]").click(function(){ jQuery("a[rel=VideoPreview5]").hide(); jQuery("a[rel=HideVideoPreview5]").show(); jQuery.post("/Classes/Video.php", {action: "getYoutubeVideos", artist: "Train", track: "Hey, Soul Sister"}, function(data){ jQuery("#VideoPreview5").html(data); }, 'json'); jQuery("#VideoPreview5").show(); preventDefault(); }); jQuery("a[rel=HideVideoPreview5]").click(function(){ jQuery("a[rel=VideoPreview5]").show(); jQuery("a[rel=HideVideoPreview5]").hide(); jQuery("#VideoPreview5").hide(); preventDefault(); }); }); And the PHP code: $Action = isset($_POST['action']); $Artist = isset($_POST['artist']); $Track = isset($_POST['track']); if($Action == 'getYoutubeVideos') { echo 'where are the videos'; echo json_encode(getYoutubeVideos($Artist.' '.$Track, 1, 5, 'relevance')); }

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  • iPhone Development - calling external JSON API (will Apple reject?)

    - by RPM1984
    Ok guys, so im new to iPhone development, so apologies if this is a silly question, but before i actually create my app i want to know if this is possible, and if Apple will reject this. (Note this is all theoretical) So i'd have a API (.NET) that runs on a cloud server somewhere and can return HTML/JSON/XML. I'll have a website that can access this API and allow customers to do some stuff (but this is not important for this question). I would then like my iPhone app to make a call to this API which would return JSON data. So my iPhone app might make a call to http://myapp/Foos which would return a JSON string of Foo objects. The iPhone app would then parse this JSON and do some funky stuff with it. So, that's the background, now the questions: Is this possible? (that is, call an external cloud API over HTTP, parse JSON response?) What are the chances of Apple rejecting this application (because it would be calling a non-Apple API) Are there any limitations (security, libraries, etc) on the iPhone/Objective-C/Cocoa that might hinder this solution? On this website, they seem to be doing exactly what im asking. Thoughts, suggestions, links would be greatly appreciated...

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  • Where does java.util.logging.Logger store their log

    - by Harry Pham
    This might be a stupid question but I am a bit lost with java Logger private static Logger logger = Logger.getLogger("order.web.OrderManager"); logger.info("Removed order " + id + "."); Where do I see the log? Also this quote from java.util.logging.Logger library: On each logging call the Logger initially performs a cheap check of the request level (e.g. SEVERE or FINE) against the effective log level of the logger. If the request level is lower than the log level, the logging call returns immediately. After passing this initial (cheap) test, the Logger will allocate a LogRecord to describe the logging message. It will then call a Filter (if present) to do a more detailed check on whether the record should be published. If that passes it will then publish the LogRecord to its output Handlers. Does this mean that if I have 3 request level log: logger.log(Level.FINE, "Something"); logger.log(Level.WARNING, "Something"); logger.log(Level.SEVERE, "Something"); And my log level is SEVERE, I can see all three logs, if my log level is WARNING, then I cant see SEVERE log, is that correct? And how do I set the log level?

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  • Can I use drawRect to refresh a UIView subclass?

    - by Timbo
    I've created a subclass of UIView called Status which is designed to display a rectangle of a certain size (within a view) depending on the value of a variable. // Interface #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import <QuartzCore/QuartzCore.h> @interface Status: UIView { NSString* name; int someVariable; } @property int someVariable; @property (assign) NSString *name; - (void) createStatus: (NSString*)withName; - (void) drawRect:(CGRect)rect; @end // Implementation #import "Status.h" @implementation Status @synthesize name, someVariable; - (void) createStatus: (NSString*)withName { name = withName; someVariable = 10000; } - (void) drawRect:(CGRect)rect { CGContextRef context = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); //Draw Status CGContextSetRGBFillColor(context, 0.0, 0.0, 1.0, 1); // fill CGContextFillRect(context, CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, someVariable, 40.0)); } //// myviewcontroller implementation - (void) viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; myStatus = [[Status alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(8,8,200,56)]; myStatus.backgroundColor = [UIColor grayColor]; [self.view addSubview:myStatus]; } How do I set this up so I can repeatedly call a refresh of the status bar? I'll probably call the refresh 4 times per second using a NSTimer, I'm just not sure what to call or if I should move this rectangle drawing to a separate function or something... Thanks in advance for your help :)

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  • nhibernate mapping: delete collection, insert new collection with old IDs

    - by npeBeg
    my issue lokks similar to this one: (link) but i have one-to-many association: <set name="Fields" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="false" inverse="true"> <key column="[TEMPLATE_ID]"></key> <one-to-many class="MyNamespace.Field, MyLibrary"/> </set> (i also tried to use ) this mapping is for Template object. this one and the Field object has their ID generators set to identity. so when i call session.Update for the Template object it works fine, well, almost: if the Field object has an Id number, UPDATE sql request is called, if the Id is 0, the INSERT is performed. But if i delete a Field object from the collection it has no effect for the Database. I found that if i also call session.Delete for this Field object, everything will be ok, but due to client-server architecture i don't know what to delete. so i decided to delete all the collection elements from the DB and call session.Update with a new collection. and i've got an issue: nhibernate performs the UPDATE operation for the Field objects that has non-zero Id, but they are removed from DB! maybe i should use some other Id generator or smth.. what is the best way to make nhibernate perform "delete all"/"insert all" routine for the collection?

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  • javascript check function for a html form

    - by Reteras Remus
    I'm having a problem with a HTML form (name, e-mail, subject, message), I can't validate the form if it was completed correct or not. I want to call a javascript function when the form is submitted and alert if a field wasn't completed correct. My problem is with the submit button, because my boss said that I must use he's own php function to insert a submit button. The php function looke like: function normal_button($text, $width, $param = '', $class = 'button-blue') { $content = '<div class="'.$class.'" style="width:'.$width.'px;" '.$param.'>'.$text.'</div>'; return $content; } and how I call the function: echo normal_button('Send it', '100', 'onclick="document.getElementById(\'emailForm\').submit();" '); I tried to call the js function declaring the onSubmit="return checkForm(this)" in the <form action='email.php' method='post'> HTML form, but I can't "catch" the submit. Also I tried to catch it with jquery, $(document).ready(function() { $('.normal_button').click(function() { }); ); but I can't return false if a field wasn't completed correct. I must use he's PHP function to insert the submit button, but how can I "catch" the fields, how can I validate them? Any suggestions? Thank you !

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  • Ajax request not receiving xml from Django

    - by amougeot
    I have a Django server which handles requests to a URL which will return some HTML for use in an image gallery. I can navigate to the URL and the browser will display the HTML that is returned, but I can't get that same HTML by doing an AJAX call (using jQuery) to the same URL. This is the view that generates the response: def gallery_images(request, gallery_name): return render_to_response('galleryimages.html', {'images': get_images_of_gallery(gallery_name)}, mimetype='text/xml') This is the 'galleryimages.html' template: {% for image in images %} <div id="{{image.name}}big"> <div class="actualImage" style="background-image:url({{image.image.name}});"> <h1>{{image.caption|safe}}</h1> </div> </div> {% endfor %} This is the jQuery call I am making: $("#allImages").load("http://localhost:8000/galleryimages/Web"); However, this loads nothing into my #allImages div. I've used firebug and ran jQuery's Ajax method .get("http://localhost:8000/galleryimages/Web") and firebug says that the response text is completely empty. When I check my Django server log, this is the entry I see for when I navigate to the URL manually, through my browser: [16/Jan/2010 17:34:10] "GET /galleryimages/Web HTTP/1.1" 200 215 This is the entry in the server log for when I make the AJAX call: [16/Jan/2010 17:36:19] "OPTIONS /galleryimages/Web HTTP/1.1" 200 215 Why does the AJAX request not get the xml that my Django page is serving?

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  • Outstanding issues with jQuery.ajax() in IE8?

    - by RyanV
    I am loading feed-items into a ul using this jQuery .ajax() call, which I basically lifted from http://www.makemineatriple.com/2007/10/bbcnewsticker/ var timestamp = true; //set whether timestamp is displayed in $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "sample-feed.xml", dataType: "xml", success: function(xml) { $(xml).find('item').each(function(){ var title = $(this).find('title').text(); var link = $(this).find('link').text(); if(title.length >=57){ title = title.substring(0,54) + "..."; } var addItem = '<li class="tickerTitle"><a href="'+link+'">'+title+'</a>'; if (Boolean(timestamp)== true){ var time = new Date(Date.parse($(this).find('pubDate').text())); addItem +='<span class="timestamp">' + makestamp(time) +'</span></li>'; } $('ul#news').append(addItem); }); It works in Chrome 4 and Firefox 3.6, but I load it up in IE8 and somehow the ajax call fails. I have tried to use IE8's Developer tools to see where exactly it fails, but I haven't been successful yet. So two questions Is there anything blatantly wrong with my ajax call here that could be preventing me from seeing it in IE where it works in FF/Chrome? Are there any special considerations I have to make for the Internet Explorer family of browsers with regards to this particular jQuery method? I've done some googling on this but nothing obvious is coming up. One other note: I am currently using jQuery 1.3.2 due to some legacy scripts on the same site. I did try loading 1.4.2 and it had the same results on IE8

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