Search Results

Search found 4845 results on 194 pages for 'hand'.

Page 184/194 | < Previous Page | 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191  | Next Page >

  • How do I use constructor dependency injection to supply Models from a collection to their ViewModels

    - by GraemeF
    I'm using constructor dependency injection in my WPF application and I keep running into the following pattern, so would like to get other people's opinion on it and hear about alternative solutions. The goal is to wire up a hierarchy of ViewModels to a similar hierarchy of Models, so that the responsibility for presenting the information in each model lies with its own ViewModel implementation. (The pattern also crops up under other circumstances but MVVM should make for a good example.) Here's a simplified example. Given that I have a model that has a collection of further models: public interface IPerson { IEnumerable<IAddress> Addresses { get; } } public interface IAddress { } I would like to mirror this hierarchy in the ViewModels so that I can bind a ListBox (or whatever) to a collection in the Person ViewModel: public interface IPersonViewModel { ObservableCollection<IAddressViewModel> Addresses { get; } void Initialize(); } public interface IAddressViewModel { } The child ViewModel needs to present the information from the child Model, so it's injected via the constructor: public class AddressViewModel : IAddressViewModel { private readonly IAddress _address; public AddressViewModel(IAddress address) { _address = address; } } The question is, what is the best way to supply the child Model to the corresponding child ViewModel? The example is trivial, but in a typical real case the ViewModels have more dependencies - each of which has its own dependencies (and so on). I'm using Unity 1.2 (although I think the question is relevant across the other IoC containers), and I am using Caliburn's view strategies to automatically find and wire up the appropriate View to a ViewModel. Here is my current solution: The parent ViewModel needs to create a child ViewModel for each child Model, so it has a factory method added to its constructor which it uses during initialization: public class PersonViewModel : IPersonViewModel { private readonly Func<IAddress, IAddressViewModel> _addressViewModelFactory; private readonly IPerson _person; public PersonViewModel(IPerson person, Func<IAddress, IAddressViewModel> addressViewModelFactory) { _addressViewModelFactory = addressViewModelFactory; _person = person; Addresses = new ObservableCollection<IAddressViewModel>(); } public ObservableCollection<IAddressViewModel> Addresses { get; private set; } public void Initialize() { foreach (IAddress address in _person.Addresses) Addresses.Add(_addressViewModelFactory(address)); } } A factory method that satisfies the Func<IAddress, IAddressViewModel> interface is registered with the main UnityContainer. The factory method uses a child container to register the IAddress dependency that is required by the ViewModel and then resolves the child ViewModel: public class Factory { private readonly IUnityContainer _container; public Factory(IUnityContainer container) { _container = container; } public void RegisterStuff() { _container.RegisterInstance<Func<IAddress, IAddressViewModel>>(CreateAddressViewModel); } private IAddressViewModel CreateAddressViewModel(IAddress model) { IUnityContainer childContainer = _container.CreateChildContainer(); childContainer.RegisterInstance(model); return childContainer.Resolve<IAddressViewModel>(); } } Now, when the PersonViewModel is initialized, it loops through each Address in the Model and calls CreateAddressViewModel() (which was injected via the Func<IAddress, IAddressViewModel> argument). CreateAddressViewModel() creates a temporary child container and registers the IAddress model so that when it resolves the IAddressViewModel from the child container the AddressViewModel gets the correct instance injected via its constructor. This seems to be a good solution to me as the dependencies of the ViewModels are very clear and they are easily testable and unaware of the IoC container. On the other hand, performance is OK but not great as a lot of temporary child containers can be created. Also I end up with a lot of very similar factory methods. Is this the best way to inject the child Models into the child ViewModels with Unity? Is there a better (or faster) way to do it in other IoC containers, e.g. Autofac? How would this problem be tackled with MEF, given that it is not a traditional IoC container but is still used to compose objects?

    Read the article

  • SVN Server not responding

    - by Rob Forrest
    I've been bashing my head against a wall with this one all day and I would greatly appreciate a few more eyes on the problem at hand. We have an in-house SVN Server that contains all live and development code for our website. Our live server can connect to this and get updates from the repository. This was all working fine until we migrated the SVN Server from a physical machine to a vSphere VM. Now, for some reason that continues to fathom me, we can no longer connect to the SVN Server. The SVN Server runs CentOS 6.2, Apache and SVN 1.7.2. SELinux is well and trully disabled and the problem remains when iptables is stopped. Our production server does run an older version of CentOS and SVN but the same system worked previously so I don't think that this is the issue. Of note, if I have iptables enabled, using service iptables status, I can see a single packet coming in and being accepted but the production server simply hangs on any svn command. If I give up waiting and do a CTRL-C to break the process I get a "could not connect to server". To me it appears to be something to do with the SVN Server rejecting external connections but I have no idea how this would happen. Any thoughts on what I can try from here? Thanks, Rob Edit: Network topology Production server sits externally to our in-house SVN server. Our IPCop (?) firewall allows connections from it (and it alone) on port 80 and passes the connection to the SVN Server. The hardware is all pretty decent and I don't doubt that its doing its job correctly, especially as iptables is seeing the new connections. subversion.conf (in /etc/httpd/conf.d) LoadModule dav_svn_module modules/mod_dav_svn.so <Location /repos> DAV svn SVNPath /var/svn/repos <LimitExcept PROPFIND OPTIONS REPORT> AuthType Basic AuthName "SVN Server" AuthUserFile /var/svn/svn-auth Require valid-user </LimitExcept> </Location> ifconfig eth0 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr 00:0C:29:5F:C8:3A inet addr:172.16.0.14 Bcast:172.16.0.255 Mask:255.255.255.0 inet6 addr: fe80::20c:29ff:fe5f:c83a/64 Scope:Link UP BROADCAST RUNNING MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:32317 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:632 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:1000 RX bytes:2544036 (2.4 MiB) TX bytes:143207 (139.8 KiB) netstat -lntp Active Internet connections (only servers) Proto Recv-Q Send-Q Local Address Foreign Address State PID/Program name tcp 0 0 0.0.0.0:3306 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 1484/mysqld tcp 0 0 0.0.0.0:111 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 1135/rpcbind tcp 0 0 0.0.0.0:22 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 1351/sshd tcp 0 0 127.0.0.1:631 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 1230/cupsd tcp 0 0 127.0.0.1:25 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 1575/master tcp 0 0 0.0.0.0:58401 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 1153/rpc.statd tcp 0 0 0.0.0.0:5672 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 1626/qpidd tcp 0 0 :::139 :::* LISTEN 1678/smbd tcp 0 0 :::111 :::* LISTEN 1135/rpcbind tcp 0 0 :::80 :::* LISTEN 1615/httpd tcp 0 0 :::22 :::* LISTEN 1351/sshd tcp 0 0 ::1:631 :::* LISTEN 1230/cupsd tcp 0 0 ::1:25 :::* LISTEN 1575/master tcp 0 0 :::445 :::* LISTEN 1678/smbd tcp 0 0 :::56799 :::* LISTEN 1153/rpc.statd iptables --list -v -n (when iptables is stopped) Chain INPUT (policy ACCEPT 0 packets, 0 bytes) pkts bytes target prot opt in out source destination Chain FORWARD (policy ACCEPT 0 packets, 0 bytes) pkts bytes target prot opt in out source destination Chain OUTPUT (policy ACCEPT 0 packets, 0 bytes) pkts bytes target prot opt in out source destination iptables --list -v -n (when iptables is running, after one attempted svn connection) Chain INPUT (policy ACCEPT 68 packets, 6561 bytes) pkts bytes target prot opt in out source destination 19 1304 ACCEPT all -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 state RELATED,ESTABLISHED 0 0 ACCEPT icmp -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 0 0 ACCEPT all -- lo * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 0 0 ACCEPT tcp -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 state NEW tcp dpt:22 1 60 ACCEPT tcp -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 state NEW tcp dpt:80 0 0 ACCEPT tcp -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 state NEW tcp dpt:80 0 0 ACCEPT udp -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 state NEW udp dpt:80 Chain FORWARD (policy ACCEPT 0 packets, 0 bytes) pkts bytes target prot opt in out source destination Chain OUTPUT (policy ACCEPT 17 packets, 1612 bytes) pkts bytes target prot opt in out source destination tcpdump 17:08:18.455114 IP 'production server'.43255 > 'svn server'.local.http: Flags [S], seq 3200354543, win 5840, options [mss 1380,sackOK,TS val 2011458346 ecr 0,nop,wscale 7], length 0 17:08:18.455169 IP 'svn server'.local.http > 'production server'.43255: Flags [S.], seq 629885453, ack 3200354544, win 14480, options [mss 1460,sackOK,TS val 816478 ecr 2011449346,nop,wscale 7], length 0 17:08:19.655317 IP 'svn server'.local.http > 'production server'k.43255: Flags [S.], seq 629885453, ack 3200354544, win 14480, options [mss 1460,sackOK,TS val 817679 ecr 2011449346,nop,wscale 7], length 0

    Read the article

  • NetBeans 7.2 MinGW installing for OpenCV

    - by Gligorijevic
    i have installed minGW on my PC according to http://netbeans.org/community/releases/72/cpp-setup-instructions.html, and i have "restored defaults" using NetBeans 7.2 who has found all necessary files. But when I made test sample C++ app i got following error: c:/mingw/bin/../lib/gcc/mingw32/4.6.2/../../../../mingw32/bin/ld.exe: cannot find -ladvapi32 c:/mingw/bin/../lib/gcc/mingw32/4.6.2/../../../../mingw32/bin/ld.exe: cannot find -lshell32 c:/mingw/bin/../lib/gcc/mingw32/4.6.2/../../../../mingw32/bin/ld.exe: cannot find -luser32 c:/mingw/bin/../lib/gcc/mingw32/4.6.2/../../../../mingw32/bin/ld.exe: cannot find -lkernel32 collect2: ld returned 1 exit status make[2]: *** [dist/Debug/MinGW-Windows/welcome_1.exe] Error 1 make[1]: *** [.build-conf] Error 2 make: *** [.build-impl] Error 2 Can anyone give me a hand with installing openCV and minGW for NetBeans? generated Makefiles file goes like this: > # CMAKE generated file: DO NOT EDIT! > # Generated by "MinGW Makefiles" Generator, CMake Version 2.8 > > # Default target executed when no arguments are given to make. default_target: all .PHONY : default_target > > #============================================================================= > # Special targets provided by cmake. > > # Disable implicit rules so canonical targets will work. .SUFFIXES: > > # Remove some rules from gmake that .SUFFIXES does not remove. SUFFIXES = > > .SUFFIXES: .hpux_make_needs_suffix_list > > # Suppress display of executed commands. $(VERBOSE).SILENT: > > # A target that is always out of date. cmake_force: .PHONY : cmake_force > > #============================================================================= > # Set environment variables for the build. > > SHELL = cmd.exe > > # The CMake executable. CMAKE_COMMAND = "C:\Program Files (x86)\cmake-2.8.9-win32-x86\bin\cmake.exe" > > # The command to remove a file. RM = "C:\Program Files (x86)\cmake-2.8.9-win32-x86\bin\cmake.exe" -E remove -f > > # Escaping for special characters. EQUALS = = > > # The program to use to edit the cache. CMAKE_EDIT_COMMAND = "C:\Program Files (x86)\cmake-2.8.9-win32-x86\bin\cmake-gui.exe" > > # The top-level source directory on which CMake was run. CMAKE_SOURCE_DIR = C:\msys\1.0\src\opencv > > # The top-level build directory on which CMake was run. CMAKE_BINARY_DIR = C:\msys\1.0\src\opencv\build\mingw > > #============================================================================= > # Targets provided globally by CMake. > > # Special rule for the target edit_cache edit_cache: @$(CMAKE_COMMAND) -E cmake_echo_color --switch=$(COLOR) --cyan > "Running CMake cache editor..." "C:\Program Files > (x86)\cmake-2.8.9-win32-x86\bin\cmake-gui.exe" -H$(CMAKE_SOURCE_DIR) > -B$(CMAKE_BINARY_DIR) .PHONY : edit_cache > > # Special rule for the target edit_cache edit_cache/fast: edit_cache .PHONY : edit_cache/fast

    Read the article

  • RackSpace Cloud Strips $_SESSION if URL Has Certain File Extensions

    - by macinjosh
    The Situation I am creating a video training site for a client on the RackSpace Cloud using the traditional LAMP stack (RackSpace's cloud has both Windows and LAMP stacks). The videos and other media files I'm serving on this site need to be protected as my client charges money for access to them. There is no DRM or funny business like that, essentially we store the files outside of the web root and use PHP to authenticate user's before they are able to access the files by using mod_rewrite to run the request through PHP. So let's say the user requests a file at this URL: http://www.example.com/uploads/preview_image/29.jpg I am using mod_rewrite to rewrite that url to: http://www.example.com/files.php?path=%2Fuploads%2Fpreview_image%2F29.jpg Here is a simplified version of the files.php script: <?php // Setups the environment and sets $logged_in // This part requires $_SESSION require_once('../../includes/user_config.php'); if (!$logged_in) { // Redirect non-authenticated users header('Location: login.php'); } // This user is authenticated, continue $content_type = "image/jpeg"; // getAbsolutePathForRequestedResource() takes // a Query Parameter called path and uses DB // lookups and some string manipulation to get // an absolute path. This part doesn't have // any bearing on the problem at hand $file_path = getAbsolutePathForRequestedResource($_GET['path']); // At this point $file_path looks something like // this: "/path/to/a/place/outside/the/webroot" if (file_exists($file_path) && !is_dir($file_path)) { header("Content-Type: $content_type"); header('Content-Length: ' . filesize($file_path)); echo file_get_contents($file_path); } else { header('HTTP/1.0 404 Not Found'); header('Status: 404 Not Found'); echo '404 Not Found'; } exit(); ?> The Problem Let me start by saying this works perfectly for me. On local test machines it works like a charm. However once deployed to the cloud it stops working. After some debugging it turns out that if a request to the cloud has certain file extensions like .JPG, .PNG, or .SWF (i.e. extensions of typically static media files.) the request is routed to a cache system called Varnish. The end result of this routing is that by the time this whole process makes it to my PHP script the session is not present. If I change the extension in the URL to .PHP or if I even add a query parameter Varnish is bypassed and the PHP script can get the session. No problem right? I'll just add a meaningless query parameter to my requests! Here is the rub: The media files I am serving through this system are being requested through compiled SWF files that I have zero control over. They are generated by third-party software and I have no hope of adding or changing the URLs that they request. Are there any other options I have on this? Update: I should note that I have verified this behavior with RackSpace support and they have said there is nothing they can do about it.

    Read the article

  • evaluating cost/benefits of using extension methods in C# => 3.0

    - by BillW
    Hi, In what circumstances (usage scenarios) would you choose to write an extension rather than sub-classing an object ? < full disclosure : I am not an MS employee; I do not know Mitsu Furota personally; I do know the author of the open-source Componax library mentioned here, but I have no business dealings with him whatsoever; I am not creating, or planning to create any commercial product using extensions : in sum : this post is from pure intellectal curiousity related to my trying to (continually) become aware of "best practices" I find the idea of extension methods "cool," and obviously you can do "far-out" things with them as in the many examples you can in Mitsu Furota's (MS) blog postslink text. A personal friend wrote the open-source Componax librarylink text, and there's some remarkable facilities in there; but he is in complete command of his small company with total control over code guidelines, and every line of code "passes through his hands." While this is speculation on my part : I think/guess other issues might come into play in a medium-to-large software team situation re use of Extensions. Looking at MS's guidelines at link text, you find : In general, you will probably be calling extension methods far more often than implementing your own. ... In general, we recommend that you implement extension methods sparingly and only when you have to. Whenever possible, client code that must extend an existing type should do so by creating a new type derived from the existing type. For more information, see Inheritance (C# Programming Guide). ... When the compiler encounters a method invocation, it first looks for a match in the type's instance methods. If no match is found, it will search for any extension methods that are defined for the type, and bind to the first extension method that it finds. And at Ms's link text : Extension methods present no specific security vulnerabilities. They can never be used to impersonate existing methods on a type, because all name collisions are resolved in favor of the instance or static method defined by the type itself. Extension methods cannot access any private data in the extended class. Factors that seem obvious to me would include : I assume you would not write an extension unless you expected it be used very generally and very frequently. On the other hand : couldn't you say the same thing about sub-classing ? Knowing we can compile them into a seperate dll, and add the compiled dll, and reference it, and then use the extensions : is "cool," but does that "balance out" the cost inherent in the compiler first having to check to see if instance methods are defined as described above. Or the cost, in case of a "name clash," of using the Static invocation methods to make sure your extension is invoked rather than the instance definition ? How frequent use of Extensions would affect run-time performance or memory use : I have no idea. So, I'd appreciate your thoughts, or knowing about how/when you do, or don't do, use Extensions, compared to sub-classing. thanks, Bill

    Read the article

  • How can I tell the size of my app during development?

    - by Newbyman
    My programming decissions are directly related to how much room I have left, or worse perhaps how much I need to shave off in order to get up the 10mb limit. I have read that Apple has quietly increased the 3G & Edge download limit from 10mb up to 20mb in preparation for the iPad in April. Either way, my real question is how can I gauge a rough estimate of how large my app will end while I'm still in the development phase? Is the file size of my development folder roughly 1 to 1 ratio? Is the compressed file size of my development a better approximation? My .xcodeproj file is only a couple hundred kB, but the size of my folder is 11.8 MB. I have a .sqlite database, less than 20 small png images and a Settings.Bundle. The rest are unknown Xcode files related to build, build for iphoneOS, simulator etc.... My source code is rather large with around 1000 lines in most of the major controllers, all in all around 48 .h&.m files. But my classes folder inside my development folder is less than 800kb. Digging around inside my Build file, there is lots of iphone simulator files and debugging files which I don't think will contribute to the final product. The Application file states that it is around 2.3 MB. However, this is such a large difference from the 11.8 MB, I have to wonder if this is just another piece of the equation. I have the app on the my device, I'm in the testing phase. Therefore, I though that I would try to see how large the working version was on the device by checking in iTunes, however my development app is visible on the right-hand the application's iphone screen, but no information about the app most importantly its size. I also checked in Organizer, I used the lower portion of the screen-(Applications), found my application and selected the drop down arrow which gave my "Application Data" and a download arrow button to the right to save a file on my desktop, named with the unique AppleID. Inside the folder it had three folders-(documents, library, tmp) the documents had a copy of my .sqlite database, the library a few more files but not anything obvious or of size, and the tmp was empty. All in all the entire folder was only 164kb-which tells me that this is not the right place to find the size either. I understand that the size is considered to be the size of my binary plus all the additional files and images that I have add. Does anyone have a effective way of guaging how large the binary is or the relating the development folder size to what the final App Store application size will end up. I know that questions have been posted with similar aspects, but I could not find any answered post that really described...what files, or how to determine size specifically. I know that this question looks like a book, but I just wanted to be specific in conveying exactly what I'm looking for and the attempts thus far. *Note all files are unzipped and still in regular working Xcode order of a single app with no brought-in builds or referenced projects. I'm sure that this is straight forward, I just don't know where to look?

    Read the article

  • Can't ping other machines at Linux VPN PPTP server's local lan from outside

    - by Marco Sanchez
    Before anything else, hello guys, this is the first time I ask for something here so I hope someone can give me a hand, please look at the following network diagram: --------------------------------------------------------------- VPN Server Webserver (SuSE SLES11) | | | ------- VPN LAN -------- | Router with Unique IP (With Port Forwarding rules set and VPN through enabled) | PPTP connection over Internet | Workstation (PC or Laptop with Windows) --------------------------------------------------------------- So the idea is for the workstation to connect to the PPTP Server and then be able to access a Web Application on the Webserver, right now I have the PPTP server configured and the VPN works, I can connect to the SLES11 server with no problems from the workstation and I can ping it and everything works fine but if I try to ping the Webserver from the workstation, I can't reach it, I'm making a mistake somewhere but I don't see where, please note that I'm not a network expert and thus I'd greatly appreciate some specific guidance. Here is some info related to the IPs --------------------------------------------------------------- *** SLES11 VPN Server has 2 Network cards: -- eth0 (Internal Network) IP: 192.168.210.5 MASK: 255.55.255.0 -- eth1 (External Network) IP: 192.168.1.105 MASK: 255.55.255.0 *** Webserver has 1 network card -- eth0 (Internal Network) IP: 192.168.210.221 MASK: 255.55.255.0 *** Workstation -- IP info once connection has been established to the VPN PPP adapter Test VPN Connection: Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : Description . . . . . . . . . . . : Test VPN Connection Physical Address. . . . . . . . . : DHCP Enabled. . . . . . . . . . . : No Autoconfiguration Enabled . . . . : Yes IPv4 Address. . . . . . . . . . . : 192.168.210.110(Preferred) Subnet Mask . . . . . . . . . . . : 255.255.255.255 Default Gateway . . . . . . . . . : 0.0.0.0 DNS Servers . . . . . . . . . . . : 189.209.208.181 (Defined as part of the PPTP Server options config script) 189.209.127.244 Primary WINS Server . . . . . . . : 192.168.210.220 (Defined as part of the PPTP Server options config script) NetBIOS over Tcpip. . . . . . . . : Enabled --------------------------------------------------------------- I also defined the following within IP tables: ------------------------------------------------------------- iptables -t nat -A POSTROUTING -o eth0 -j MASQUERADE iptables -A INPUT -i eth0 -p tcp --dport 1723 -j ACCEPT iptables -A INPUT -i eth0 -p gre -j ACCEPT ------------------------------------------------------------- If you need any piece of information from the PPTP server scripts please let me know, the thing is that I can actually connect to the VPN server and access its services and everything but after that I can't reach any other computer on that LAN. Any help would be greatly appreciated and thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Populating a GridView with ImageViews dynamically/programmatically using a ImageAdapter

    - by Julian Vogels
    Hi folks, this is my first question at stackoverflow, but it's a little tricky already... I try to develop an Android App which allows the user to fetch data from flickr and show it in a gridview (with some nice 3D-Animation). After some adventures i got it almost running, but now I'm stuck. Here's the problem: I got a UI Thread "LoadPhotosTask" which gets the pictures from flickr, just like the open source application photostream. In the method onProgressUpdate(LoadedPhoto... value) of that subclass I call addPhoto(). Until now everythings fine - I got some nice Bitmap and Flickr.photo data with all the information I need. @Override public void onProgressUpdate(LoadedPhoto... value) { addPhoto(value); } On the other hand I have got a GridView. Now I want to fill it with the Photos. It has got an adapter called ImageAdapter (which extends BaseAdapter, see this tutorial). If I use an array inside the ImageAdapter class I can populate the GridView with some sample images. But if I want to populate it at runtime, I don't know what to do. How do I have to set up the getView method in the ImageAdapter? I was trying to fill the array inside the ImageAdapter class with my values in addPhoto, but it doesn't display anything. So first of all I was setting up the array with the amount of Photos i wanted to display in the grid like that (code is inside the ImageAdapter class): // class variable private ImageView[] mThumbIds; [...] public void setupArray(int count) { this.mThumbIds = new ImageView[count]; } Then I call this method with the lenght of my photolist: final Flickr.PhotoList list = params[0]; final int count = list.getCount(); int helper = 0; imagead.setupArray(count); Afterwards I call the getView method manually inside the addPhoto method: private void addPhoto(LoadedPhoto... value) { ImageView image = (ImageView) mInflater.inflate( R.layout.grid_item_photo, null); image.setImageBitmap(value[0].mBitmap); image.setTag(value[0].mPhoto); imagead.setmThumbIds(image, value[0].mPosition); imagead.getView(value[0].mPosition, null, mpicturesGrid); } That is the getView method inside ImageAdapter: public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { if (convertView == null) { // if it's not recycled, initialize some // attributes imageView = new ImageView(mContext); imageView.setLayoutParams(new GridView.LayoutParams(EDGE_LENGTH, EDGE_LENGTH)); imageView.setScaleType(ImageView.ScaleType.CENTER_CROP); imageView.setPadding(0, 0, 0, 0); imageView.setVisibility(View.VISIBLE); } else { imageView = (ImageView) convertView; } imageView.setImageDrawable(mThumbIds[position].getDrawable()); imageView.setTag(mThumbIds[position].getTag()); return imageView; } Ok, finally I apologize for my poor english and I hope you can give me some help with the information I provided. Greetings, Julian

    Read the article

  • jQuery tabs error when used with jTemplates

    - by tessa
    I am using jTemplates to format data returned from a json query. I am trying to transform the div with the id "fundingDialogTabs" into jQuery tabs after the template is processed. It renders the tab buttons, but both fragment1 and fragment2 divs are showing at the same time. I get the error "jQuery UI Tabs: Mismatching fragment identifier" when clicking on the fragment2 tab. I tested the jQuery tabs code outside of the template and it works fine. Here is the template (saved in .tpl file). {#template MAIN} <div style="width:500px"> <table border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" id="fundingDialogTitle"> <tr> <td class="fundingDialogTitle">Funding Breakout</td> <td style="text-align:right"><img src="../../images/fscaClose.gif" onclick="CloseFundingDialog()" style="cursor:hand; width:25px; height:25px;"></td> </tr> </table> </div> <div style="padding:10px 10px 10px 10px; width:500px"> <div id="fundingDialogTabs"> <ul> <li><a href="#fragment1"><span>Source</span></a></li> <li><a href="#fragment2"><span>Line Item</span></a></li> </ul> <div id="fragment1"> <table border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" id="fundingDialog"> <tr> <th>Funding Source</th> <th>Amount</th> </tr> {#foreach $T.d as fundingList} {#include ROW root=$T.fundingList} {#/for} </table> </div> <div id="fragment2"> Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetuer adipiscing elit, sed diam nonummy nibh euismod tincidunt ut laoreet dolore magna aliquam erat volutpat. Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetuer adipiscing elit, sed diam nonummy nibh euismod tincidunt ut laoreet dolore magna aliquam erat volutpat. </div> </div> </div> {#/template MAIN} {#template ROW} <tr> <td>{$T.SourceName}</td> <td>{$T.Amount}</td> </tr> {#/template ROW} Here are the json and processTemplate methods: function GetFundingDialog(id) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "../../WebService/Workplan.asmx/GetFundingList", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(msg) { ApplyTemplate(msg, id); }, error: function(result) { ShowError(result.responseText); } }); } function ApplyTemplate(msg, id) { var fundingDialog = $("div[id='divFundingList']"); if (fundingDialog.length > 0) { fundingDialog.setTemplateURL('../../usercontrols/Workplan/FundingList.tpl'); fundingDialog.processTemplate(msg); fundingDialog[0].style.display = "block"; var src = $("img[id='openFundingList_"+id+"']"); if (src.length > 0) { var srcPosition = findPos(src[0]); fundingDialog[0].style.top = parseInt(srcPosition[1] + 25); } } $("#fundingDialogTabs").tabs(); }

    Read the article

  • Using inheritance and polymorphism to solve a common game problem

    - by Barry Brown
    I have two classes; let's call them Ogre and Wizard. (All fields are public to make the example easier to type in.) public class Ogre { int weight; int height; int axeLength; } public class Wizard { int age; int IQ; int height; } In each class I can create a method called, say, battle() that will determine who will win if an Ogre meets and Ogre or a Wizard meets a Wizard. Here's an example. If an Ogre meets an Ogre, the heavier one wins. But if the weight is the same, the one with the longer axe wins. public Ogre battle(Ogre o) { if (this.height > o.height) return this; else if (this.height < o.height) return o; else if (this.axeLength > o.axeLength) return this; else if (this.axeLength < o.axeLength) return o; else return this; // default case } We can make a similar method for Wizards. But what if a Wizard meets an Ogre? We could of course make a method for that, comparing, say, just the heights. public Wizard battle(Ogre o) { if (this.height > o.height) return this; else if (this.height < o.height) return o; else return this; } And we'd make a similar one for Ogres that meet Wizard. But things get out of hand if we have to add more character types to the program. This is where I get stuck. One obvious solution is to create a Character class with the common traits. Ogre and Wizard inherit from the Character and extend it to include the other traits that define each one. public class Character { int height; public Character battle(Character c) { if (this.height > c.height) return this; else if (this.height < c.height) return c; else return this; } } Is there a better way to organize the classes? I've looked at the strategy pattern and the mediator pattern, but I'm not sure how either of them (if any) could help here. My goal is to reach some kind of common battle method, so that if an Ogre meets an Ogre it uses the Ogre-vs-Ogre battle, but if an Ogre meets a Wizard, it uses a more generic one. Further, what if the characters that meet share no common traits? How can we decide who wins a battle?

    Read the article

  • Internet Explorer background-color hover problem

    - by danilo
    I have a strange Problem with table formating using IE 7. My table looks like this: In IE, when using border-collapse, the borders don't get displayed correctly. That's why I used this fix: .table-vmlist td { border-top: 1px solid black; } td.col-vm-status, tr.row-details td { border-left: 1px solid black; } td.col-vm-rdp, tr.row-details td { border-right: 1px solid black; } .table-vmlist { border-bottom: 1px solid black;} When hovering over the row, it gets highlighted with CSS: .table-vmlist tr.row-vm { background-color: #A4C3EF; } .table-vmlist tr.row-vm:hover { background-color: #91BAEF; } Now, in IE 7, when moving the mouse from the top to the bottom of the list, every row gets highlighted correctly and no problems happen. But if I move my mouse pointer from the bottom of the list to the top, every second row seems to loose the border. Can someone explain what the problem is, and how to solve it? This is my markup: <tr class="row-vm"> <td class="col-vm-status status-1"><img title="Host Down" alt="Down" src="/Technik/vm-management/img/hoststatus_1.png"></td> <td class="col-vm-name">V1-VM-1</td> <td class="col-vm-stati"> <img title="Ping" alt="Ping status" src="/Technik/vm-management/img/servicestatus_3.png"> <img title="CPU" alt="CPU status" src="/Technik/vm-management/img/servicestatus_3.png"> <img title="RAM" alt="RAM status" src="/Technik/vm-management/img/servicestatus_3.png"> <img title="C:\ Diskspace" alt="Disk space status" src="/Technik/vm-management/img/servicestatus_3.png"> </td> <td class="col-vm-owner">kus</td> <td class="col-vm-purpose">Citrix Testserver</td> <td class="col-vm-ip">-</td> <td class="col-vm-uptime">-</td> <td class="col-vm-rdp">&nbsp;</td> </tr> And the CSS: /* VM-Tabelle formatieren */ .table-vmlist { border-collapse: collapse; } .table-vmlist tr { border: 1px solid black; } .table-vmlist tr.row-header { border: none; } .table-vmlist tr.row-vm { background-color: #A4C3EF; } .table-vmlist tr.row-vm:hover { background-color: #91BAEF; } .table-vmlist th { text-align: left; } .table-vmlist td { } .table-vmlist th, table td { padding: 2px 0px; } /* Spaltenbreite der VM-Tabelle festlegen */ .table-vmlist #col-status { width: 25px; } .table-vmlist #col-stati { width: 90px; } .table-vmlist #col-owner { width: 90px; } .table-vmlist #col-ip { width: 100px; } .table-vmlist #col-uptime { width: 70px; } .table-vmlist #col-rdp { width: 25px; } .table-vmlist tr.row-details td { padding: 0px 10px; } /* Kein Rahmen um verlinkte Bilder */ a img { border-width: 0px; } /* Für Einschaltknopf Hand-Cursor anstatt normalen Pfeil anzeigen */ td.status-1 img { cursor: pointer; } img.ajax-loader { margin-left: 2px; } IE fix: .table-vmlist td { border-top: 1px solid black; } td.col-vm-status, tr.row-details td { border-left: 1px solid black; } td.col-vm-rdp, tr.row-details td { border-right: 1px solid black; } .table-vmlist { border-bottom: 1px solid black;}

    Read the article

  • Why are my USB 2.0 devices crashing Windows XP?

    - by BenAlabaster
    Background on the machine I'm having a problem with: The machine was inherited and appears to be circa 2003 (there's a date stamp on the power supply which leads me to this conclusion). I've got it set up as a Skype terminal for my 2 year old to keep in touch with her grandparents and other members of the family - which everyone loves. It has a generic ATX motherboard with no identifying markings other than one stamp that says "Rev.B". CPU-Z identifies the motherboard model as VT8601 but doesn't provide me with any manufacturer name. On board it has 1 x 10/100 LAN, 2 x USB 1.0, VGA, PS/2 for KB and mouse, parallel port, 2 x serial ports, 2 x IDE, 1 x floppy, 2 x SDRAM slots, 1 x CPU housing that is seating a 1.3GHz Intel Celeron CPU, 3 x PCI, 1 x AGP - although you can only use 2 of the PCI slots if you use the AGP slot due to the physical layout of the board. It's got 768Mb PC133 SDRAM - 1 x 512Mb & 1 x 256Mb installed as well as a D-LINK WDA-2320 54G Wi-Fi network card and a generic USB 2.0 expansion board containing 3 x external + 1 x internal USB connectors. It has a DVD+/-RW running as master on IDE1 and a 1.44Mb 3.5" floppy drive connected to the floppy connector. It has an 80Gb Western Digital hard drive running as master on IDE0. All this is sitting in a slimline case. I don't know the wattage of the PSU, but can post this later if this proves to be helpful. The motherboard is running a version of Award BIOS for which I don't have the version number to hand but can again post this later if it would be helpful. The hard disk is freshly formatted and built with Windows XP Professional/Service Pack 3 and is up to date with all current patches. In addition to Windows XP, the only other software it's running is Skype 4.1 (4.2 hangs the whole machine as soon as it starts up, requiring a hard boot to recover). It's got a Daytek MV150 15" touch screen hooked up to the on board VGA and COM1 sockets with the most current drivers from the Daytek website and the most current version of ELO-Touchsystems drivers for the touch component. The webcam is a Logitech Webcam C200 with the latest drivers from the Logitech website. The problem: If I hook any devices to the USB 2.0 sockets, it hangs the whole machine and I have to hard boot it to get it back up. If I have any devices attached to the USB 2.0 sockets when I boot up, it hangs before Windows gets to the login prompt and I have to hard boot it to recover. Workarounds found: I can plug the same devices into the on board USB 1.0 sockets and everything works fine, albeit at reduced performance. I've tried 3 different kinds of USB thumb drives, 3 different makes/models of webcams and my iPhone all with the same effect. They're recognized and don't hang the machine when I hook them to the USB 1.0 but if I hook them to the USB 2.0 ports, the machine hangs within a couple of seconds of recognizing the devices were connected. Attempted solutions: I've seen suggestions that this could be a power problem - that the PSU just doesn't have the wattage to drive these ports. While I'm doubtful this is the problem [after all the motherboard has the same standard connector regardless of the PSU wattage], I tried disabling all the on board devices that I'm not using - on board LAN, the second COM port, the AGP connector etc. through the BIOS in what I'm sure is a futile attempt to reduce the power consumption... I also modified the ACPI and power management settings. It didn't have any noticeable affect, although it didn't do any harm either. Could the wattage of the PSU really cause this problem? If it can, is there anything I need to be aware of when replacing it or do I just need to make sure it's got a higher wattage than the current one? My interpretation was that the wattage only affected the number of drives you could hook up to the power connectors, is that right? I've installed the USB card in another machine and it works without issue, so it's not a problem with the USB card itself, and Windows says the card is installed and working correctly... right up until I connect a device to it. The only thing I haven't done which I only just thought of while writing this essay is trying the USB 2.0 card in a different PCI slot, or re-ordering the wi-fi and USB cards in the slots... although I'm not sure if this will make any difference - does anyone have any experience that would suggest this might work? Other thoughts/questions: Perhaps this is an incompatibility between the USB 2.0 card and the BIOS, would re-flashing the BIOS with a newer version help? Do I need to be able to identify the manufacturer of the motherboard in order to be able to find a BIOS edition specific for this motherboard or will any version of Award BIOS function in its place? Question: Does anyone have any ideas that could help me get my USB 2.0 devices hooked up to this machine?

    Read the article

  • Why are my USB 2.0 devices hanging Windows XP?

    - by BenAlabaster
    Background on the machine I'm having a problem with: The machine was inherited and appears to be circa 2003 (there's a date stamp on the power supply which leads me to this conclusion). I've got it set up as a Skype terminal for my 2 year old to keep in touch with her grandparents and other members of the family - which everyone loves. It has a generic ATX motherboard with no identifying markings other than one stamp that says "Rev.B". CPU-Z identifies the motherboard model as VT8601 but doesn't provide me with any manufacturer name. On board it has 1 x 10/100 LAN, 2 x USB 1.0, VGA, PS/2 for KB and mouse, parallel port, 2 x serial ports, 2 x IDE, 1 x floppy, 2 x SDRAM slots, 1 x CPU housing that is seating a 1.3GHz Intel Celeron CPU, 3 x PCI, 1 x AGP - although you can only use 2 of the PCI slots if you use the AGP slot due to the physical layout of the board. It's got 768Mb PC133 SDRAM - 1 x 512Mb & 1 x 256Mb installed as well as a D-LINK WDA-2320 54G Wi-Fi network card and a generic USB 2.0 expansion board containing 3 x external + 1 x internal USB connectors - it has a NEC uPD720102 chipset. It has a DVD+/-RW running as master on IDE1 and a 1.44Mb 3.5" floppy drive connected to the floppy connector. It has an 80Gb Western Digital hard drive running as master on IDE0. All this is sitting in a slimline case. I don't know the wattage of the PSU, but can post this later if this proves to be helpful. The motherboard is running a version of Award BIOS for which I don't have the version number to hand but can again post this later if it would be helpful. The hard disk is freshly formatted and built with Windows XP Professional/Service Pack 3 and is up to date with all current patches. In addition to Windows XP, the only other software it's running is Skype 4.1 (4.2 hangs the whole machine as soon as it starts up, requiring a hard boot to recover). It's got a Daytek MV150 15" touch screen hooked up to the on board VGA and COM1 sockets with the most current drivers from the Daytek website and the most current version of ELO-Touchsystems drivers for the touch component. The webcam is a Logitech Webcam C200 with the latest drivers from the Logitech website. The problem: If I hook any devices to the USB 2.0 sockets, it hangs the whole machine and I have to hard boot it to get it back up. If I have any devices attached to the USB 2.0 sockets when I boot up, it hangs before Windows gets to the login prompt and I have to hard boot it to recover. Workarounds found: I can plug the same devices into the on board USB 1.0 sockets and everything works fine, albeit at reduced performance. I've tried 3 different kinds of USB thumb drives, 3 different makes/models of webcams and my iPhone all with the same effect. They're recognized and don't hang the machine when I hook them to the USB 1.0 but if I hook them to the USB 2.0 ports, the machine hangs within a couple of seconds of recognizing the devices were connected. Attempted solutions: I've seen suggestions that this could be a power problem - that the PSU just doesn't have the wattage to drive these ports. While I'm doubtful this is the problem [after all the motherboard has the same standard connector regardless of the PSU wattage], I tried disabling all the on board devices that I'm not using - on board LAN, the second COM port, the AGP connector etc. through the BIOS in what I'm sure is a futile attempt to reduce the power consumption... I also modified the ACPI and power management settings. It didn't have any noticeable affect, although it didn't do any harm either. Could the wattage of the PSU really cause this problem? If it can, is there anything I need to be aware of when replacing it or do I just need to make sure it's got a higher wattage than the current one? My interpretation was that the wattage only affected the number of drives you could hook up to the power connectors, is that right? I've installed the USB card in another machine and it works without issue, so it's not a problem with the USB card itself, and Windows says the card is installed and working correctly... right up until I connect a device to it. The only thing I haven't done which I only just thought of while writing this essay is trying the USB 2.0 card in a different PCI slot, or re-ordering the wi-fi and USB cards in the slots... although I'm not sure if this will make any difference - does anyone have any experience that would suggest this might work? Other thoughts/questions: Perhaps this is an incompatibility between the USB 2.0 card and the BIOS, would re-flashing the BIOS with a newer version help? Do I need to be able to identify the manufacturer of the motherboard in order to be able to find a BIOS edition specific for this motherboard or will any version of Award BIOS function in its place? Question: Does anyone have any ideas that could help me get my USB 2.0 devices hooked up to this machine? Edit: Updated the USB 2.0 info with reference to actual card - http://www.xpcgear.com/lpnec4u.html

    Read the article

  • Lockless queue implementation ends up having a loop under stress

    - by Fozi
    I have lockless queues written in C in form of a linked list that contains requests from several threads posted to and handled in a single thread. After a few hours of stress I end up having the last request's next pointer pointing to itself, which creates an endless loop and locks up the handling thread. The application runs (and fails) on both Linux and Windows. I'm debugging on Windows, where my COMPARE_EXCHANGE_PTR maps to InterlockedCompareExchangePointer. This is the code that pushes a request to the head of the list, and is called from several threads: void push_request(struct request * volatile * root, struct request * request) { assert(request); do { request->next = *root; } while(COMPARE_EXCHANGE_PTR(root, request, request->next) != request->next); } This is the code that gets a request from the end of the list, and is only called by a single thread that is handling them: struct request * pop_request(struct request * volatile * root) { struct request * volatile * p; struct request * request; do { p = root; while(*p && (*p)->next) p = &(*p)->next; // <- loops here request = *p; } while(COMPARE_EXCHANGE_PTR(p, NULL, request) != request); assert(request->next == NULL); return request; } Note that I'm not using a tail pointer because I wanted to avoid the complication of having to deal with the tail pointer in push_request. However I suspect that the problem might be in the way I find the end of the list. There are several places that push a request into the queue, but they all look generaly like this: // device->requests is defined as struct request * volatile requests; struct request * request = malloc(sizeof(struct request)); if(request) { // fill out request fields push_request(&device->requests, request); sem_post(device->request_sem); } The code that handles the request is doing more than that, but in essence does this in a loop: if(sem_wait_timeout(device->request_sem, timeout) == sem_success) { struct request * request = pop_request(&device->requests); // handle request free(request); } I also just added a function that is checking the list for duplicates before and after each operation, but I'm afraid that this check will change the timing so that I will never encounter the point where it fails. (I'm waiting for it to break as I'm writing this.) When I break the hanging program the handler thread loops in pop_request at the marked position. I have a valid list of one or more requests and the last one's next pointer points to itself. The request queues are usually short, I've never seen more then 10, and only 1 and 3 the two times I could take a look at this failure in the debugger. I thought this through as much as I could and I came to the conclusion that I should never be able to end up with a loop in my list unless I push the same request twice. I'm quite sure that this never happens. I'm also fairly sure (although not completely) that it's not the ABA problem. I know that I might pop more than one request at the same time, but I believe this is irrelevant here, and I've never seen it happening. (I'll fix this as well) I thought long and hard about how I can break my function, but I don't see a way to end up with a loop. So the question is: Can someone see a way how this can break? Can someone prove that this can not? Eventually I will solve this (maybe by using a tail pointer or some other solution - locking would be a problem because the threads that post should not be locked, I do have a RW lock at hand though) but I would like to make sure that changing the list actually solves my problem (as opposed to makes it just less likely because of different timing).

    Read the article

  • Little Regular Expression (against HTML) help

    - by Marcos Placona
    Hi, I have the following HTML <p>Some text <a title="link" href="http://link.com/" target="_blank">my link</a> more text <a title="link" href="http://link.com/" target="_blank">more link</a>.</p> <p>Another paragraph.</p> <p>[code:cf]</p> <p>&lt;cfset ArrFruits = ["Orange", "Apple", "Peach", "Blueberry", </p> <p>"Blackberry", "Strawberry", "Grape", "Mango", </p> <p>"Clementine", "Cherry", "Plum", "Guava", </p> <p>"Cranberry"]&gt;</p> <p>[/code]</p> <p>Another line</p> <p><img src="http://image.jpg" alt="Array" /> </p> <p>More text</p> <p>[code:cf]</p> <p>&lt;table border="1"&gt;</p> <p> &lt;cfoutput&gt;</p> <p> &lt;cfloop array="#GroupsOf(ArrFruits, 5)#" index="arrFruitsIX"&gt;</p> <p>  &lt;tr&gt;</p> <p> &lt;cfloop array="#arrFruitsIX#" index="arrFruit"&gt;</p> <p>     &lt;td&gt;#arrFruit#&lt;/td&gt;</p> <p> &lt;/cfloop&gt;</p> <p>  &lt;/tr&gt;</p> <p> &lt;/cfloop&gt;</p> <p> &lt;/cfoutput&gt;</p> <p>&lt;/table&gt;</p> <p>[/code]</p> <p>With an output that looks like:</p> <p><img src="another_image.jpg" alt="" width="342" height="85" /></p> What I'm trying to do, is write a regular expression that will remove all the or , and whenever it finds a , it will replace it with a line-break. So far, my pattern looks like this: /\<p\>(.*?)(<\/p>)/g And I'm replacing the matches with: $1\n It all looks good, but it's also replacing the contents inside the [code][/code] tags, which in this case should not replace the tags at all, so as a result, i would lkike to get rid of the tags, when the content isn't inside the [code] tags. I can't ever get negation right, I know it will be something along the lines of \<p\>^\[code*\](.*?)(<\/p>) But obviously this doesn't work :-) Could anyone please lend me a hand with this regex? BTW, I know I shouldn't be using regular expressions to parse HTML at all. I'm fully aware of that, but still, for this specific case, I'd like to use regex. Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • How to add addtional disks to a Windows 2008 KVM based Guest?

    - by taazaa
    I have a Win 2008 KVM based guest VM running on a Ubuntu 10 host. It is a raw image of 22G. I want to add a "data" drive which would show up as "D:\" drive on the guest. I first created a raw image using: qemu-img create -f raw ~/vmdisk2.img 50G Then, tried attaching it using virsh attach-disk. When that did not work, I tried editing the xml file of the VM directly. Both did not seem to work. I would greatly appreciate any help on how to do this and what the best practice is. I want to keep the base image small, so that I can clone it (hopefully) and then attach necessary storage based on the application at hand. Update: The xml of the vm before adding the second drive: <domain type='kvm'> <name>win08e-vm1</name> <uuid>183a4ba0-1c0b-0b04-ad01-aa7c3a4cb390</uuid> <memory>1048576</memory> <currentMemory>1048576</currentMemory> <vcpu>2</vcpu> <os> <type arch='x86_64' machine='pc-0.12'>hvm</type> <boot dev='hd'/> </os> <features> <acpi/> <apic/> <pae/> </features> <clock offset='localtime'/> <on_poweroff>destroy</on_poweroff> <on_reboot>restart</on_reboot> <on_crash>restart</on_crash> <devices> <emulator>/usr/bin/kvm</emulator> <disk type='file' device='disk'> <driver name='qemu' type='raw'/> <source file='/var/lib/libvirt/images/win08e-vm1.img'/> <target dev='hda' bus='ide'/> <address type='drive' controller='0' bus='0' unit='0'/> </disk> <disk type='file' device='cdrom'> <driver name='qemu' type='raw'/> <source file='/home/taazaa/iso/Win08ER264.iso'/> <target dev='hdc' bus='ide'/> <readonly/> <address type='drive' controller='0' bus='1' unit='0'/> </disk> <controller type='ide' index='0'> <address type='pci' domain='0x0000' bus='0x00' slot='0x01' function='0x1'/> </controller> <interface type='bridge'> <mac address='52:54:00:7f:a7:ae'/> <source bridge='br0'/> <address type='pci' domain='0x0000' bus='0x00' slot='0x03' function='0x0'/> </interface> <serial type='pty'> <target port='0'/> </serial> <console type='pty'> <target type='serial' port='0'/> </console> <input type='tablet' bus='usb'/> <input type='mouse' bus='ps2'/> <graphics type='vnc' port='-1' autoport='yes' keymap='en-us'/> <video> <model type='vga' vram='9216' heads='1'/> <address type='pci' domain='0x0000' bus='0x00' slot='0x02' function='0x0'/> </video> <memballoon model='virtio'> <address type='pci' domain='0x0000' bus='0x00' slot='0x04' function='0x0'/> </memballoon> </devices> </domain> Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Listening for TCP and UDP requests on the same port

    - by user339328
    I am writing a Client/Server set of programs Depending on the operation requested by the client, I use make TCP or UDP request. Implementing the client side is straight-forward, since I can easily open connection with any protocol and send the request to the server-side. On the servers-side, on the other hand, I would like to listen both for UDP and TCP connections on the same port. Moreover, I like the the server to open new thread for each connection request. I have adopted the approach explained in: link text I have extended this code sample by creating new threads for each TCP/UDP request. This works correctly if I use TCP only, but it fails when I attempt to make UDP bindings. Please give me any suggestion how can I correct this. tnx Here is the Server Code: public class Server { public static void main(String args[]) { try { int port = 4444; if (args.length > 0) port = Integer.parseInt(args[0]); SocketAddress localport = new InetSocketAddress(port); // Create and bind a tcp channel to listen for connections on. ServerSocketChannel tcpserver = ServerSocketChannel.open(); tcpserver.socket().bind(localport); // Also create and bind a DatagramChannel to listen on. DatagramChannel udpserver = DatagramChannel.open(); udpserver.socket().bind(localport); // Specify non-blocking mode for both channels, since our // Selector object will be doing the blocking for us. tcpserver.configureBlocking(false); udpserver.configureBlocking(false); // The Selector object is what allows us to block while waiting // for activity on either of the two channels. Selector selector = Selector.open(); tcpserver.register(selector, SelectionKey.OP_ACCEPT); udpserver.register(selector, SelectionKey.OP_READ); System.out.println("Server Sterted on port: " + port + "!"); //Load Map Utils.LoadMap("mapa"); System.out.println("Server map ... LOADED!"); // Now loop forever, processing client connections while(true) { try { selector.select(); Set<SelectionKey> keys = selector.selectedKeys(); // Iterate through the Set of keys. for (Iterator<SelectionKey> i = keys.iterator(); i.hasNext();) { SelectionKey key = i.next(); i.remove(); Channel c = key.channel(); if (key.isAcceptable() && c == tcpserver) { new TCPThread(tcpserver.accept().socket()).start(); } else if (key.isReadable() && c == udpserver) { new UDPThread(udpserver.socket()).start(); } } } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); System.err.println(e); System.exit(1); } } } The UDPThread code: public class UDPThread extends Thread { private DatagramSocket socket = null; public UDPThread(DatagramSocket socket) { super("UDPThread"); this.socket = socket; } @Override public void run() { byte[] buffer = new byte[2048]; try { DatagramPacket packet = new DatagramPacket(buffer, buffer.length); socket.receive(packet); String inputLine = new String(buffer); String outputLine = Utils.processCommand(inputLine.trim()); DatagramPacket reply = new DatagramPacket(outputLine.getBytes(), outputLine.getBytes().length, packet.getAddress(), packet.getPort()); socket.send(reply); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } socket.close(); } } I receive: Exception in thread "UDPThread" java.nio.channels.IllegalBlockingModeException at sun.nio.ch.DatagramSocketAdaptor.receive(Unknown Source) at server.UDPThread.run(UDPThread.java:25) 10x

    Read the article

  • MVC 2 Ajax.Beginform passes returned Html + Json to javascript function

    - by Joe
    Hi, I have a small partial Create Person form in a page above a table of results. I want to be able to post the form to the server, which I can do no problem with ajax.Beginform. <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("Create", new AjaxOptions { OnComplete = "ProcessResponse" })) {%> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <div class="editor-label"> <%=Html.LabelFor(model => model.FirstName)%> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%=Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.FirstName)%> <%=Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.FirstName)%> </div> <div class="editor-label"> <%=Html.LabelFor(model => model.LastName)%> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%=Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.LastName)%> <%=Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.LastName)%> </div> <p> <input type="submit" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> Then in my controller I want to be able to post back a partial which is just a table row if the create is successful and append it to the table, which I can do easily with jquery. $('#personTable tr:last').after(data); However, if server validation fails I want to pass back my partial create person form with the validation errors and replace the existing Create Person form. I have tried returning a Json array Controller: return Json(new { Success = true, Html= this.RenderViewToString("PersonSubform",person) }); Javascript: var json_data = response.get_response().get_object(); with a pass/fail flag and the partial rendered as a string using the solition below but that doesnt render the mvc validation controls when the form fails. SO RenderPartialToString So, is there any way I can hand my javascript the out of the box PartialView("PersonForm") as its returned from my ajax.form? Can I pass some addition info as a Json array so I can tell if its pass or fail and maybe add a message? UPDATE I can now pass the HTML of a PartialView to my javascript but I need to pass some additional data pairs like ServerValidation : true/false and ActionMessage : "you have just created a Person Bill". Ideally I would pass a Json array rather than hidden fields in my partial. function ProcessResponse(response) { var html = response.get_data(); $("#campaignSubform").html(html); } Many thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • No data when attempting to get JSONP data from cross domain PHP script

    - by Alex
    I am trying to pull latitude and longitude values from another server on a different domain using a singe id string. I am not very familiar with JQuery, but it seems to be the easiest way to go about getting around the same origin problem. I am unable to use iframes and I cannot install PHP on the server running this javascript, which is forcing my hand on this. My queries appear to be going through properly, but I am not getting any results back. I was hoping someone here might have an idea that could help, seeing as I probably wouldn't recognize most obvious errors here. My javascript function is: var surl = "http://...omitted.../pull.php"; var idnum = 5a; //in practice this is defined above alert("BEFORE"); $.ajax({ url: surl, data: {id: idnum}, dataType: "jsonp", jsonp : "callback", jsonp: "jsonpcallback", success: function (rdata) { alert(rdata.lat + ", " + rdata.lon); } }); alert("BETWEEN"); function jsonpcallback(rtndata) { alert("CALLED"); alert(rtndata.lat + ", " + rtndata.lon); } alert("AFTER"); When my javascript is run, the BEFORE, BETWEEN and AFTER alerts are displayed. The CALLED and other jsonpcallback alerts are not shown. Is there another way to tell if the jsoncallback function has been called? Below is the PHP code I have running on the second server. I added the count table to my database just so that I can tell when this script is run. Every time I call the javascript, count has had an extra item inserted and the id number is correct. <?php header("content-type: application/json"); if (isset($_GET['id']) || isset($_POST['id'])){ $db_handle = mysql_connect($server, $username, $password); if (!$db_handle) { die('Could not connect: ' . mysql_error()); } $db_found = mysql_select_db($database, $db_handle); if ($db_found) { if (isset($_POST['id'])){ $SQL = sprintf("SELECT * FROM %s WHERE loc_id='%s'", $loctable, mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['id'])); } if (isset($_GET['id'])){ $SQL = sprintf("SELECT * FROM %s WHERE loc_id='%s'", $loctable, mysql_real_escape_string($_GET['id'])); } $result = mysql_query($SQL, $db_handle); $db_field = mysql_fetch_assoc($result); $rtnjsonobj -> lat = $db_field["lat"]; $rtnjsonobj -> lon = $db_field["lon"]; if (isset($_POST['id'])){ echo $_POST['jsonpcallback']. '('. json_encode($rtnjsonobj) . ')'; } if (isset($_GET['id'])){ echo $_GET['jsonpcallback']. '('. json_encode($rtnjsonobj) . ')'; } $SQL = sprintf("INSERT INTO count (bullshit) VALUES ('%s')", $_GET['id']); $result = mysql_query($SQL, $db_handle); $db_field = mysql_fetch_assoc($result); } mysql_close($db_handle); } else { $rtnjsonobj -> lat = 404; $rtnjsonobj -> lon = 404; echo $_GET['jsonpcallback']. '('. json_encode($rtnjsonobj) . ')'; }?> I am not entirely sure if the jsonp returned by this PHP is correct. When I go directly to the PHP script without including any parameters, I do get the following. ({"lat":404,"lon":404}) The callback function is not included, but that much can be expected when it isn't included in the original call. Does anyone have any idea what might be going wrong here? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • When saving a model with has_one or has_many associations, which side of the association is saved fi

    - by SeeBees
    I have three simplified models: class Team < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :players has_one :coach end class Player < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :team validates_presence_of :team_id end class Coach < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :team validates_presence_of :team_id end I use the following code to test these models: t = Team.new team.coach = Coach.new team.save! team.save! returns true. But in another test: t = Team.new team.players << Player.new team.save! team.save! gives the following error: > ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid: > Validation failed: Players is invalid > from > /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/validations.rb:1090:in > `save_without_dirty!' from > /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/dirty.rb:87:in `save_without_transactions!' from > /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:200:in > `save!' from > /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/connection_adapters/abstract/database_statements.rb:136:in > `transaction' from > /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:182:in > `transaction' from > /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:200:in > `save!' from > /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:208:in > `rollback_active_record_state!' from > /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:200:in > `save!' from (irb):14 I figured out that when team.save! is called, it first calls player.save!. player needs to validate the presence of the id of the associated team. But at the time player.save! is called, team hasn't been saved yet, and therefore, team_id doesn't yet exist for player. This fails the player's validation, so the error occurs. But on the other hand, team is saved before coach.save!, otherwise the first example will get the same error as the second one. So I've concluded that when a has_many bs, a.save! will save bs prior to a. When a has_one b, a.save! will save a prior to b. If I am right, why is this the case? It doesn't seem logical to me. Why do has_one and has_many association have different order in saving? Any ideas? And is there any way I can change the order? Say I want to have the same saving order for both has_one and has_many. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • jQuery - animating 'left' position of absolutely positioned div when sliding panel is revealed

    - by trickymatt
    Hello, I have a hidden panel off the left side of the screen which slides into view on the click of a 'tab' positioned on the left side of the screen. I need the panel to slide over the top of the existing page content, and I need the tab to move with it. and so both are absolutely positioned in css. Everything works fine, apart from I need the tab (and thus the tab-container) to move left with the panel when it is revealed, so it appears to be stuck to the right-hand-side of the panel. Its relatively simple when using floats, but of course this affects the layout of the existing content, hence absolute positioning. I have tried animating the left position of the panel-container (see the documented jquery function), but I cant get it to work. My HTML <div><!--sample page content--> <p> Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit, sed do eiusmod tempor incididunt ut labore et </p> </div> <div id="panel" class="height"> <!--the hidden panel --> <div class="content"> <p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit, sed do eiusmod tempor incididunt ut labore</p> </div> </div> <!--if javascript is disabled use this link--> <div id="tab-container" class="height"> <a href="#" onclick="return()"> <div id="tab"><!-- this will activate the panel. --></div> </a> </div> My jQuery $(document).ready(function(){ $("#panel, .content").hide(); //hides the panel and content from the user $('#tab').toggle(function(){ //adding a toggle function to the #tab $('#panel').stop().animate({width:"400px", opacity:0.8}, 100, //sliding the #panel to 400px // THIS NEXT FUNCTION DOES NOT WORK --> function() { $('#tab-container').animate({left:"400px"} //400px to match the panel width }); function() { $('.content').fadeIn('slow'); //slides the content into view. }); }, function(){ //when the #tab is next cliked $('.content').fadeOut('slow', function() { //fade out the content $('#panel').stop().animate({width:"0", opacity:0.1}, 500); //slide the #panel back to a width of 0 }); }); }); and this is the css #panel { position:absolute; left:0px; top:50px; background-color:#999999; height:500px; display:none;/*hide the panel if Javascript is not running*/ } #panel .content { width:290px; margin-left:30px; } #tab-container{ position:absolute; top:20px; width:50px; height:620px; background:#161616; } #tab { width:50px; height:150px; margin-top:100px; display:block; cursor:pointer; background:#DDD; } Many thanks

    Read the article

  • OpenVPN IPv6 over IPv4 tunnel

    - by user66779
    Today I installed OpenVPN 2.3rc2 on both my windows 7 client machine and centos 6 server. This new version of OpenVPN provides full compatibility for IPv6. The Problem: I am currently able to connect to the server (through the IPv4 tunnel) and ping the IPv6 address which is assigned to my client and I can also ping the tun0 interface on the server. However, I cannot browse to any IPv6 websites. My vps provider has given me this: 2607:f840:0044:0022:0000:0000:0000:0000/64 is routed to this server (2607:f840:0:3f:0:0:0:eda). This is ifconfig after setup with OpenVPN running: eth0 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr 00:16:3E:12:77:54 inet addr:208.111.39.160 Bcast:208.111.39.255 Mask:255.255.255.0 inet6 addr: 2607:f740:0:3f::eda/64 Scope:Global inet6 addr: fe80::216:3eff:fe12:7754/64 Scope:Link UP BROADCAST RUNNING MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:2317253 errors:0 dropped:7263 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:1977414 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:1000 RX bytes:1696120096 (1.5 GiB) TX bytes:1735352992 (1.6 GiB) Interrupt:29 lo Link encap:Local Loopback inet addr:127.0.0.1 Mask:255.0.0.0 inet6 addr: ::1/128 Scope:Host UP LOOPBACK RUNNING MTU:16436 Metric:1 RX packets:0 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:0 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:0 RX bytes:0 (0.0 b) TX bytes:0 (0.0 b) tun0 Link encap:UNSPEC HWaddr 00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00 inet addr:10.8.0.1 P-t-P:10.8.0.2 Mask:255.255.255.255 inet6 addr: 2607:f740:44:22::1/64 Scope:Global UP POINTOPOINT RUNNING NOARP MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:739567 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:1218240 errors:0 dropped:1542 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:100 RX bytes:46512557 (44.3 MiB) TX bytes:1559930874 (1.4 GiB) So OpenVPN is sucessfully creating a tun0 interface and assigning clients IPv6 addresses using 2607:f840:44:22::/64. The first client to connect is getting 2607:f840:44:22::1000 and the second 2607:f840:44:22::1001, and so on... plus 1 each time. After connecting as the first client, I can ping from my windows client machine 2607:f740:44:22::1 and 2607:f740:44:22::1000. However, I have no access to IPv6 websites. I believe the problem is that the tun0 IPv6 addressees are not being forwarded to the eth0 interface. This is the firewall running on the server: #!/bin/sh # # iptables configuration script # # Flush all current rules from iptables # iptables -F iptables -t nat -F # # Allow SSH connections on tcp port 22 # iptables -A INPUT -i eth0 -p tcp --dport 22 -j ACCEPT iptables -A OUTPUT -o eth0 -p tcp --sport 22 -j ACCEPT # # Set access for localhost # iptables -A INPUT -i lo -j ACCEPT # # Accept connections on 1195 for vpn access from client # iptables -A INPUT -i eth0 -p udp --dport 1195 -m state --state NEW,ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT iptables -A OUTPUT -o eth0 -p udp --sport 1195 -m state --state ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT # # Apply forwarding for OpenVPN Tunneling # iptables -A FORWARD -m state --state RELATED,ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT iptables -A FORWARD -s 10.8.0.0/24 -j ACCEPT iptables -t nat -A POSTROUTING -o eth0 -j SNAT --to 209.111.39.160 iptables -A FORWARD -j REJECT # # Enable forwarding # echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward # # Set default policies for INPUT, FORWARD and OUTPUT chains # iptables -P INPUT ACCEPT iptables -P FORWARD ACCEPT iptables -P OUTPUT ACCEPT # # IPv6 # IP6TABLES=/sbin/ip6tables $IP6TABLES -F INPUT $IP6TABLES -F FORWARD $IP6TABLES -F OUTPUT echo -n "1" >/proc/sys/net/ipv6/conf/all/forwarding echo -n "1" >/proc/sys/net/ipv6/conf/all/proxy_ndp echo -n "0" >/proc/sys/net/ipv6/conf/all/autoconf echo -n "0" >/proc/sys/net/ipv6/conf/all/accept_ra $IP6TABLES -A INPUT -i eth0 -m state --state ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT $IP6TABLES -A INPUT -i eth0 -p tcp --dport 22 -j ACCEPT $IP6TABLES -A INPUT -i eth0 -p icmpv6 -j ACCEPT $IP6TABLES -P INPUT ACCEPT $IP6TABLES -P FORWARD ACCEPT $IP6TABLES -P OUTPUT ACCEPT Server.conf: server-ipv6 2607:f840:44:22::/64 server 10.8.0.0 255.255.255.0 port 1195 proto udp dev tun ca ca.crt cert server.crt key server.key dh dh2048.pem ifconfig-pool-persist ipp.txt push "redirect-gateway def1 bypass-dhcp" push "dhcp-option DNS 208.67.222.222" push "dhcp-option DNS 208.67.220.220" keepalive 10 60 tls-auth ta.key 0 cipher AES-256-CBC comp-lzo user nobody group nobody persist-key persist-tun status openvpn-status.log log-append openvpn.log verb 5 Client.conf: client dev tun nobind keepalive 10 60 hand-window 15 remote 209.111.39.160 1195 udp persist-key persist-tun ca ca.crt key client1.key cert client1.crt remote-cert-tls server tls-auth ta.key 1 comp-lzo verb 3 cipher AES-256-CBC I'm not sure where I am going wrong, it could be the firewall, or something missing from server or client.conf. This version of OpenVPN was only released yesterday, and there's little info on the internet about how to setup an IPv6 over IPv4 vpn tunnel. I've read the manual for this new version of OpenVPN (parts pertaining to IPv6) and it provides very little info too. Thanks for any help.

    Read the article

  • C++ templated factory constructor/de-serialization

    - by KRao
    Hi, I was looking at the boost serialization library, and the intrusive way to provide support for serialization is to define a member function with signature (simplifying): class ToBeSerialized { public: //Define this to support serialization //Notice not virtual function! template<class Archive> void serialize(Archive & ar) {.....} }; Moreover, one way to support serilization of derived class trough base pointers is to use a macro of the type: //No mention to the base class(es) from which Derived_class inherits BOOST_CLASS_EXPORT_GUID(Derived_class, "derived_class") where Derived_class is some class which is inheriting from a base class, say Base_class. Thanks to this macro, it is possible to serialize classes of type Derived_class through pointers to Base_class correctly. The question is: I am used in C++ to write abstract factories implemented through a map from std::string to (pointer to) functions which return objects of the desired type (and eveything is fine thanks to covariant types). Hover I fail to see how I could use the above non-virtual serialize template member function to properly de-serialize (i.e. construct) an object without knowing its type (but assuming that the type information has been stored by the serializer, say in a string). What I would like to do (keeping the same nomenclature as above) is something like the following: XmlArchive xmlArchive; //A type or archive xmlArchive.open("C:/ser.txt"); //Contains type information for the serialized class Base_class* basePtr = Factory<Base_class>::create("derived_class",xmlArchive); with the function on the righ-hand side creating an object on the heap of type Derived_class (via default constructor, this is the part I know how to solve) and calling the serialize function of xmlArchive (here I am stuck!), i.e. do something like: Base_class* Factory<Base_class>::create("derived_class",xmlArchive) { Base_class* basePtr = new Base_class; //OK, doable, usual map string to pointer to function static_cast<Derived_class*>( basePtr )->serialize( xmlArchive ); //De-serialization, how????? return basePtr; } I am sure this can be done (boost serialize does it but its code is impenetrable! :P), but I fail to figure out how. The key problem is that the serialize function is a template function. So I cannot have a pointer to a generic templated function. As the point in writing the templated serialize function is to make the code generic (i.e. not having to re-write the serialize function for different Archivers), it does not make sense then to have to register all the derived classes for all possible archive types, like: MY_CLASS_REGISTER(Derived_class, XmlArchive); MY_CLASS_REGISTER(Derived_class, TxtArchive); ... In fact in my code I relies on overloading to get the correct behaviour: void serialize( XmlArchive& archive, Derived_class& derived ); void serialize( TxtArchive& archive, Derived_class& derived ); ... The key point to keep in mind is that the archive type is always known, i.e. I am never using runtime polymorphism for the archive class...(again I am using overloading on the archive type). Any suggestion to help me out? Thank you very much in advance! Cheers

    Read the article

  • DNS no longer works after server reboot

    - by Burning the Codeigniter
    Strangely enough, when I reboot my Ubuntu 12.04 server, the DNS no longer works, which makes the domain unavailable to access to my site. Normally the DNS should be working after a reboot, but this doesn't happen anymore. I use nginx to serve content, but nginx is already configured to work with my domains. What are the typical practises must I do after a reboot and how can I solve this issue I experience? I already have BIND, networking and resolvconf to boot when the server boots up. ; <<>> DiG 9.8.1-P1 <<>> mysite.com ;; global options: +cmd ;; connection timed out; no servers could be reached This is my output with dig $ttl 38400 mysite.com. IN SOA ns1.mysite.com. webmaster.mysite.com. ( 1055026205 6H 1H 5D 20M ) mysite.com. IN A xx.xx.xx.xx # Server IP *.mysite.com. IN A xx.xx.xx.xx # Server IP www.mysite.com. IN CNAME mysite.com. ns1.mysite.com. IN A xx.xx.xx.xx # Server 2nd IP ns2.mysite.com. IN A xx.xx.xx.xx # Server 3rd IP mysite.com. IN NS ns1.mysite.com. mysite.com. IN NS ns2.mysite.com. mail.mysite.com. IN MX 1 mysite.com. This is the contents of /etc/resolv.conf # Dynamic resolv.conf(5) file for glibc resolver(3) generated by resolvconf(8) # DO NOT EDIT THIS FILE BY HAND -- YOUR CHANGES WILL BE OVERWRITTEN nameserver 85.17.150.123 nameserver 85.17.96.69 nameserver 62.212.64.122 search localdomain After using more dig commands, outputs: ; <<>> DiG 9.7.3-P3 <<>> @85.17.150.123 mysite.com ; (1 server found) ;; global options: +cmd ;; Got answer: ;; ->>HEADER<<- opcode: QUERY, status: REFUSED, id: 24847 ;; flags: qr rd; QUERY: 1, ANSWER: 0, AUTHORITY: 0, ADDITIONAL: 0 ;; WARNING: recursion requested but not available ;; QUESTION SECTION: ;mysite.com. IN A ;; Query time: 2145 msec ;; SERVER: 85.17.150.123#53(85.17.150.123) ;; WHEN: Mon Nov 5 16:31:32 2012 ;; MSG SIZE rcvd: 30 ; <<>> DiG 9.7.3-P3 <<>> @85.17.96.69 mysite.com ; (1 server found) ;; global options: +cmd ;; Got answer: ;; ->>HEADER<<- opcode: QUERY, status: REFUSED, id: 27879 ;; flags: qr rd; QUERY: 1, ANSWER: 0, AUTHORITY: 0, ADDITIONAL: 0 ;; WARNING: recursion requested but not available ;; QUESTION SECTION: ;mysite.com. IN A ;; Query time: 949 msec ;; SERVER: 85.17.96.69#53(85.17.96.69) ;; WHEN: Mon Nov 5 16:32:59 2012 ;; MSG SIZE rcvd: 30 ; <<>> DiG 9.7.3-P3 <<>> @62.212.64.122 mysite.com ; (1 server found) ;; global options: +cmd ;; Got answer: ;; ->>HEADER<<- opcode: QUERY, status: REFUSED, id: 29293 ;; flags: qr rd; QUERY: 1, ANSWER: 0, AUTHORITY: 0, ADDITIONAL: 0 ;; WARNING: recursion requested but not available ;; QUESTION SECTION: ;mysite.com. IN A ;; Query time: 825 msec ;; SERVER: 62.212.64.122#53(62.212.64.122) ;; WHEN: Mon Nov 5 16:33:39 2012 ;; MSG SIZE rcvd: 30 With Google DNS (8.8.8.8): ; <<>> DiG 9.7.3-P3 <<>> @8.8.8.8 mysite.com ; (1 server found) ;; global options: +cmd ;; Got answer: ;; ->>HEADER<<- opcode: QUERY, status: SERVFAIL, id: 38498 ;; flags: qr rd ra; QUERY: 1, ANSWER: 0, AUTHORITY: 0, ADDITIONAL: 0 ;; QUESTION SECTION: ;mysite.com. IN A ;; Query time: 3982 msec ;; SERVER: 8.8.8.8#53(8.8.8.8) ;; WHEN: Mon Nov 5 16:37:27 2012 ;; MSG SIZE rcvd: 30

    Read the article

  • Need help to properly remove duplicates in NHibernate

    - by Michael D. Kirkpatrick
    Here is the problem I am having. I have a database with over 100 records in it. I am paging through the data to get 9 results at a time. When I added a check to see if items are active, it caused the results to start doubling up. A little background: "Product" is the actual product line "ProductSkus" are the actual products that exist in the product line When there is more then 1 ProductSku within Product, it causes a duplicate entry to be returned. See the NHibernate Query below: result = this.Session.CreateCriteria<Model.Product>() .Add(Expression.Eq("IsActive", true)) .AddOrder(new Order("Name", true)) .SetFirstResult(indexNumber).SetMaxResults(maxNumber) // This part of the query duplicates the products .CreateAlias("ProductSkus", "ProdSkus", JoinType.InnerJoin) .Add(Expression.Eq("ProdSkus.IsActive", true)) .CreateAlias("ProductToSubcategory", "ProdToSubcat") .CreateAlias("ProdToSubcat.ProductSubcategory", "ProdSubcat") .Add(Expression.Eq("ProdSubcat.ID", subCatId)) // This part takes out the duplicate products - Removes too many items... // Turns out that with .SetFirstResult(indexNumber).SetMaxResults(maxNumber) // it gets 9 records back then the duplicates are removed. // Example: // Total Records over 100 // Max = 9 // 4 Duplicates removed // Yields 5 records when there should be 9 // Why??? This line is ran in NHibernate on the data after it has been extracted from the SQL server. .SetResultTransformer(new NHibernate.Transform.DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()) .List<Model.Product>(); I added the DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer to clean up the duplicates. The problem is that it pulls 9 records back that contains duplicates. DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer then cleans up the duplicates in the 9 records. I am basically needing a distinct statement to be ran on the SQL server to begin with. However, distinct on SQL is not going to work since NHibernate by default wants to add every field from every table in the select part of the statement. I am only using the fields that belong to the root table to begin with (Model.Product). If I can tell NHibernate to not add the fields to the joined tables into the select part of the statement along with adding Distinct, it would work. I use NHibernare Profiler to see the actual query: SELECT top 9 this_.ID as ID351_3_, this_.Name as Name351_3_, this_.Description as Descript3_351_3_, this_.IsActive as IsActive351_3_, this_.ManufacturerID as Manufact5_351_3_, prodskus1_.ID as ID373_0_, prodskus1_.Description as Descript2_373_0_, prodskus1_.PartNumber as PartNumber373_0_, prodskus1_.Price as Price373_0_, prodskus1_.IsKit as IsKit373_0_, prodskus1_.IsActive as IsActive373_0_, prodskus1_.IsFeaturedProduct as IsFeatur7_373_0_, prodskus1_.DateAdded as DateAdded373_0_, prodskus1_.Weight as Weight373_0_, prodskus1_.TimesViewed as TimesVi10_373_0_, prodskus1_.TimesOrdered as TimesOr11_373_0_, prodskus1_.ProductID as ProductID373_0_, prodskus1_.OverSizedBoxID as OverSiz13_373_0_, prodtosubc2_.ID as ID362_1_, prodtosubc2_.MasterSubcategory as MasterSu2_362_1_, prodtosubc2_.ProductID as ProductID362_1_, prodtosubc2_.ProductSubcategoryID as ProductS4_362_1_, prodsubcat3_.ID as ID352_2_, prodsubcat3_.Name as Name352_2_, prodsubcat3_.ProductCategoryID as ProductC3_352_2_, prodsubcat3_.ImageID as ImageID352_2_, prodsubcat3_.TriggerShow as TriggerS5_352_2_ FROM Product this_ inner join ProductSku prodskus1_ on this_.ID = prodskus1_.ProductID and (prodskus1_.IsActive = 1) inner join ProductToSubcategory prodtosubc2_ on this_.ID = prodtosubc2_.ProductID inner join ProductSubcategory prodsubcat3_ on prodtosubc2_.ProductSubcategoryID = prodsubcat3_.ID WHERE this_.IsActive = 1 /* @p0 */ and prodskus1_.IsActive = 1 /* @p1 */ and prodsubcat3_.ID = 3 /* @p2 */ ORDER BY this_.Name asc If I hand modify the query and run it directly on the SQL server I get the result set I want (I removed all the extra fields in the select section and added DISTINCT): SELECT DISTINCT top 9 this_.ID as ID351_3_, this_.Name as Name351_3_, this_.Description as Descript3_351_3_, this_.IsActive as IsActive351_3_, this_.ManufacturerID as Manufact5_351_3_, FROM Product this_ inner join ProductSku prodskus1_ on this_.ID = prodskus1_.ProductID and (prodskus1_.IsActive = 1) inner join ProductToSubcategory prodtosubc2_ on this_.ID = prodtosubc2_.ProductID inner join ProductSubcategory prodsubcat3_ on prodtosubc2_.ProductSubcategoryID = prodsubcat3_.ID WHERE this_.IsActive = 1 /* @p0 */ and prodskus1_.IsActive = 1 /* @p1 */ and prodsubcat3_.ID = 3 /* @p2 */ ORDER BY this_.Name asc The big question I now must ask is... What must I change in the NHibernate Query to ultimately get the exact same result? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191  | Next Page >