Search Results

Search found 5749 results on 230 pages for 'miles away'.

Page 186/230 | < Previous Page | 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193  | Next Page >

  • Message driven bean not responding until client method is complete

    - by poijoi
    Hi, I have a MDB deployed on Jboss 4.2.2 and a client on the same server that produces messages and expects a reply from the MDB via a temporary queue created before the message is sent. When I run the client, I see that it creates the message, puts it in the queue and waits for the reply (no problem so far) ... but when I check in the logs I see that the timeout is reached and no response is received. When the timeout occurs and the client's method is complete the MDB starts processing the message that should have been processed the moment the client put it in the queue. As a consequence of this timing issue, when the MDB tries to reply to the temp queue, it fails since the client is already gone. If I run the same client from a remote server, I have no problem... The MDB picks up the message from the queue right away and the client receives its response right after the processing is complete. I'm using container managed transactions. I suspect it has something to do with that... I think the client's "send message/receive reply" might be all be considered a transaction before it commits to put the message in the queue... but I'm not sure if this is correct. If this is the case, why did I not see the same behavior from the remote client? is client managed transaction the default setting and that's what my remote server was using? Any idea how to fix this? Thanks in advance! PJ

    Read the article

  • How to find an embedded platform?

    - by gmagana
    I am new to the locating hardware side of embedded programming and so after being completely overwhelmed with all the choices out there (pc104, custom boards, a zillion option for each board, volume discounts, devel kits, ahhh!!) I am asking here for some direction. Basically, I must find a new motherboard and (most likely) re-implement the program logic. Rewriting this in C/C++/Java/C#/Pascal/BASIC is not a problem for me. so my real problem is finding the hardware. This motherboard will have several other devices attached to it. Here is a summary of what I need to do: Required: 2 RS232 serial ports (one used all the time for primary UI, the second one not continuous) 1 modem (9600+ baud ok) [Modem will be in simultaneous use with only one of the serial port devices, so interrupt sharing with one serial port is OK, but not both] Minimum permanent/long term storage: Whatever O/S requires + 1 MB (executable) + 512 KB (Data files) RAM: Minimal, whatever the O/S requires plus maybe 1MB for executable. Nice to have: USB port(s) Ethernet network port Wireless network Implementation languages (any O/S I will adapt to): First choice Java/C# (Mono ok) Second choice is C/Pascal Third is BASIC Ok, given all this, I am having a lot of trouble finding hardware that will support this that is low in cost. Every manufacturer site I visit has a lot of options, and it's difficult to see if their offering will even satisfy my must-have requirements (for example they sometimes list 3 "serial ports", but it appears that only one of the three is RS232, for example, and don't mention what the other two are). The #1 constraint is cost, #2 is size. Can anyone help me with this? This little task has left me thinking I should have gone for EE and not CS :-). EDIT: A bit of background: This is a system currently in production, but the original programmer passed away, and the current hardware manufacturer cannot find hardware to run the (currently) DOS system, so I need to reimplement this in a modern platform. I can only change the programming and the motherboard hardware.

    Read the article

  • Boost link error when using "--layout=system" on VS2005

    - by Kevin
    I'm new to boost, and thought I'd try it out with some realistic deployment scenarios for the .dlls, so I used the following command to compile/install the libraries: .\bjam install --layout=system variant=debug runtime-link=shared link=shared --with-date_time --with-thread --with-regex --with-filesystem --includedir=<my include directory> --libdir=<my bin directory> > installlog.txt That seemed to work, but my simple program (taken right from the "Getting Started" page) fails: #include <boost/regex.hpp> #include <iostream> #include <string> // Place your functions after this line int main() { std::string line; boost::regex pat( "^Subject: (Re: |Aw: )*(.*)" ); while (std::cin) { std::getline(std::cin, line); boost::smatch matches; if (boost::regex_match(line, matches, pat)) std::cout << matches[2] << std::endl; } } This fails with the following linker error: fatal error LNK1104: cannot open file 'libboost_regex-vc80-mt-1_42.lib' I'm sure that both the .lib and the .dlls are in that directory, and named how I want them to be (ie: boost_regex.lib, etc, all unversioned, as the --layout=system says). So why is it looking for the versioned type of it? And how do I get it to look for the unversioned type of the library? I've tried this with more "normal" options, such as below: .\bjam stage --build-type=complete --with-date_time --with-thread --with-filesystem --with-regex > mybuildlog.txt And that works fine. I made sure my compiler saw the "stage\lib" directory, and it compiled and ran fine with nothing beyond having the environment looking into the right lib directory. But when I took those "testing" directories away, and wanted to use these others (unversioned), then it failed. I'm under VS2005 here on XP. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • iPhone: Does it ever make sense for an object to retain its delegate?

    - by randombits
    According to the rules of memory management in a non garbage collected world, one is not supposed to retain a the calling object in a delegate. Scenario goes like this: I have a class that inherits from UITableViewController and contains a search bar. I run expensive search operations in a secondary thread. This is all done with an NSOperationQueue and subclasses NSOperation instances. I pass the controller as a delegate that adheres to a callback protocol into the NSOperation. There are edge cases when the application crashes because once an item is selected from the UITableViewController, I dismiss it and thus its retain count goes to 0 and dealloc gets invoked on it. The delegate didn't get to send its message in time as the results are being passed at about the same time the dealloc happens. Should I design this differently? Should I call retain on my controller from the delegate to ensure it exists until the NSOperation itself is dealloc'd? Will this cause a memory leak? Right now if I put a retain on the controller, the crashes goes away. I don't want to leak memory though and need to understand if there are cases where retaining the delegate makes sense. Just to recap. UITableViewController creates an NSOperationQueue and NSOperation that gets embedded into the queue. The UITableViewController passes itself as a delegate to NSOperation. NSOperation calls a method on UITableViewController when it's ready. If I retain the UITableViewController, I guarantee it's there, but I'm not sure if I'm leaking memory. If I only use an assign property, edge cases occur where the UITableViewController gets dealloc'd and objc_msgSend() gets called on an object that doesn't exist in memory and a crash is imminent.

    Read the article

  • SSH with Perl using file handles, not Net::SSH

    - by jorge
    Before I ask the question: I can not use cpan module Net::SSH, I want to but can not, no amount of begging will change this fact I need to be able to open an SSH connection, keep it open, and read from it's stdout and write to its stdin. My approach thus far has been to open it in a pipe, but I have not been able to advance past this, it dies straight away. That's what I have in mind, I understand this causes a fork to occur. I've written code accordingly for this fork (or so I think). Below is a skeleton of what I want, I just need the system to work. #!/usr/bin/perl use warnings; $| = 1; $pid = open (SSH,"| ssh user\@host"); if(defined($pid)){ if(!$pid){ #child while(<>){ print; } }else{ select SSH; $| = 1; select STDIN; #parent while(<>){ print SSH $_; while(<SSH>){ print; } } close(SSH); } } I know, from what it looks like, I'm trying to recreate "system('ssh user@host')," that is not my end goal, but knowing how to do that would bring me much closer to the end goal. Basically, I need a file handle to an open ssh connection where I can read from it the output and write to it input (not necessarily straight from my program's STDIN, anything I want, variables, yada yada) This includes password input. I know about key pairs, part of the end goal involves making key pairs, but the connection needs to happen regardless of their existence, and if they do not exist it's part of my plan to make them exist.

    Read the article

  • CSS call from code behind not working

    - by SmartestVEGA
    I have the following entries in the css file. a.intervalLinks { font-size:11px; font-weight:normal; color:#003399; text-decoration:underline; margin:0px 16px 0px 0px; } a.intervalLinks:link { text-decoration:underline; } a.intervalLinks:hover { text-decoration:none; } a.intervalLinks:visited { text-decoration:underline; } a.selectedIntervalLink { font-size:12px; font-weight:bold; color:#003399; text-decoration:none; margin:0px 16px 0px 0px; } a.intervalLinks:active { text-decoration:underline; font-size:large ; } Whenever i take the click on some links (not shown) which is embedded in the webpage ..i can see the change in the link a.intervalLinks:active { text-decoration:underline; font-size:large ; (the font of the link will become large) but after clicking the page refreshes ..the changes will go away i want to keep the change for ever in that link ...even there is a page refresh i understood that ..this can achieved only throughg the code behind of asp.net Following code should work:but unfortunately its not ..could anyone help? protected override void OnInit(EventArgs e) { rptDeptList.ItemDataBound += new RepeaterItemEventHandler(rptDeptList_ItemDataBound); } void rptDeptList_ItemDataBound(object sender, RepeaterItemEventArgs e) { if (e.Item.DataItem == null) return; LinkButton btn = (LinkButton)e.Item.FindControl("LinkButton1"); btn.Attributes.Add("class", "intervalLinks"); } Current html code for links has been shown below : <ItemTemplate> <div class='dtilsDropListTxt'><div class='rightArrow' ></div> <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" runat="server" Text=<%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "WORK_AREA")%> CssClass="intervalLinks" OnClick="LinkButton1_Click" ></asp:LinkButton> </div> </ItemTemplate> Could anyone help?

    Read the article

  • Connecting to an RMI object without registry

    - by Mark Probst
    I think I need to connect to a remote RMI object without going through the registry, but I don't know how. My situation is this: I'm implementing a simple job distribution service which consists of one distributor and multiple workers. The distributor has a registered RMI object to which clients connect to send jobs, and workers connect to accept jobs. Unfortunately the distributor and worker hosts are behind a firewall. To get to the distributor host I am tunneling two ports (one for the registry, one for the distributor object) via SSH, so I can get to the registry and the distributor from outside the firewall. To make that work I have to set "-Djava.rmi.server.hostname=localhost" on the distributor JVM so that the clients connect to their local, tunneled port, instead of the port on the actual distributor host, which is blocked. This creates a problem for the workers, though, because they need to connect to the distributor directly, but because of the "localhost" redirection they behave like clients and try to connect to a port on their own host, which is not available, because I'm not tunneling on the workers (it is impractical). Now, if I could connect to a remote object directly by giving the hostname and port, I could do away both with the registry on the distributor and the "localhost" hack, and make the workers connect properly. How do I do that? Or is there a different solution to this problem?

    Read the article

  • Instanced drawing with OpenGL ES 2.0

    - by Mårten Wikström
    In short: Is it possible to use the gl_InstanceID built-in variable in OpenGL ES 2.0? And, if so, how? Some more info: I want to draw multiple instances of an object using glDrawArraysInstanced and gl_InstanceID, and I want my application to run on multiple platforms, including iOS. The specification clearly says that these features require ES 3.0. According to the iOS Device Compatibility Reference ES 3.0 is only available on a few devices (those based on the A7 GPU; so iPhone 5s, but not on iPhone 5 or earlier). So my first assumption was that I needed to avoid using instanced drawing on older iOS devices. However, further down in the compatibility reference document it says that the EXT_draw_instanced extension is supported for all SGX Series 5 processors (that includes iPhone 5 and 4s). This makes me think that I could indeed use instanced drawing on older iOS devices too, by looking up and using the appropriate extension function (EXT or ARB) for glDrawArraysInstanced. I'm currently just running some test code using SDL and GLEW on Windows so I haven't tested anything on iOS yet. However, in my current setup I'm having trouble using the gl_InstanceID built-in variable in a vertex shader. I'm getting the following error message: 'gl_InstanceID' : variable is not available in current GLSL version Enabling the "draw_instanced" extension in GLSL has no effect: #extension GL_ARB_draw_instanced : enable #extension GL_EXT_draw_instanced : enable The error goes away when I specifically declare that I need ES 3.0 (GLSL 300 ES): #version 300 es Although that seem to work fine on my Windows desktop machine in an ES 2.0 context I doubt that this would work on an iPhone 5. So, shall I abandon the idea of being able to use instanced drawing on older iOS devices?

    Read the article

  • Bash script to insert code from one file at a specific location in another file?

    - by Kurtosis
    I have a fileA with a snippet of code, and I need a script to insert that snippet into fileB on the line after a specific pattern. I'm trying to make the accepted answer in this thread work, but it's not, and is not giving an error so not sure why not: sed -e '/pattern/r text2insert' filewithpattern Any suggestions? pattern (insert snippet on line after): def boot { also tried escaped pattern but no luck: def\ boot\ { def\ boot\ \{ fileA snippet: LiftRules.htmlProperties.default.set((r: Req) => new Html5Properties(r.userAgent)) fileB (Boot.scala): package bootstrap.liftweb import net.liftweb._ import util._ import Helpers._ import common._ import http._ import sitemap._ import Loc._ /** * A class that's instantiated early and run. It allows the application * to modify lift's environment */ class Boot { def boot { // where to search snippet LiftRules.addToPackages("code") // Build SiteMap val entries = List( Menu.i("Home") / "index", // the simple way to declare a menu // more complex because this menu allows anything in the // /static path to be visible Menu(Loc("Static", Link(List("static"), true, "/static/index"), "Static Content"))) // set the sitemap. Note if you don't want access control for // each page, just comment this line out. LiftRules.setSiteMap(SiteMap(entries:_*)) // Use jQuery 1.4 LiftRules.jsArtifacts = net.liftweb.http.js.jquery.JQuery14Artifacts //Show the spinny image when an Ajax call starts LiftRules.ajaxStart = Full(() => LiftRules.jsArtifacts.show("ajax-loader").cmd) // Make the spinny image go away when it ends LiftRules.ajaxEnd = Full(() => LiftRules.jsArtifacts.hide("ajax-loader").cmd) // Force the request to be UTF-8 LiftRules.early.append(_.setCharacterEncoding("UTF-8")) } }

    Read the article

  • Executing logic before save or validation with EF Code-First Models

    - by Ryan Norbauer
    I'm still getting accustomed to EF Code First, having spent years working with the Ruby ORM, ActiveRecord. ActiveRecord used to have all sorts of callbacks like before_validation and before_save, where it was possible to modify the object before it would be sent off to the data layer. I am wondering if there is an equivalent technique in EF Code First object modeling. I know how to set object members at the time of instantiation, of course, (to set default values and so forth) but sometimes you need to intervene at different moments in the object lifecycle. To use a slightly contrived example, say I have a join table linking Authors and Plays, represented with a corresponding Authoring object: public class Authoring { public int ID { get; set; } [Required] public int Position { get; set; } [Required] public virtual Play Play { get; set; } [Required] public virtual Author Author { get; set; } } where Position represents a zero-indexed ordering of the Authors associated to a given Play. (You might have a single "South Pacific" Play with two authors: a "Rodgers" author with a Position 0 and a "Hammerstein" author with a Position 1.) Let's say I wanted to create a method that, before saving away an Authoring record, it checked to see if there were any existing authors for the Play to which it was associated. If no, it set the Position to 0. If yes, it would find set the Position of the highest value associated with that Play and increment by one. Where would I implement such logic within an EF code first model layer? And, in other cases, what if I wanted to massage data in code before it is checked for validation errors? Basically, I'm looking for an equivalent to the Rails lifecycle hooks mentioned above, or some way to fake it at least. :)

    Read the article

  • Code Golf: Find the possible ways on a numpad

    - by ikar
    I was bored today at school and so I tried to amuse myself using my calculator and a "game" I've invented which isn't really a game but keeps the boringness away. Also some time has passed since the last real code-golf here, so I decided to create this one. Imagine a simplified numpad like you know it from your phone (I'll leave the 0 out for this code-golf as it kinda destroys all the fun) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Now the rules of the game were always: At the end every digit must have been visited exactly once You can start at any digit you want You can always move one digit up, down, left or right. You can't move diagonally! There a quite a lot of possible ways (or not; I haven't found out yet), here some trivial examples: > > v v < < > > | The output of the golf-program should look something like the above, I'll try to explain: Symbols: Go right < Go left ^ Go up v Go down | End of the way Example solutions: (Program output can either be the numbers pressed in the right order from beginning point to end, or an (ASCII) picture like above) 147852369 569874123 523698741 So if we speak out the example above it would be: Start at 1, move right to 2, move right to 3, go down to 6, go left to 5, go left to 4, go down to 7, go right to 8 then go right to 9 and we are finished! Now there are many different ways possible: You could as well start at 5 and go around it in a circle. So the task would be: Write a program that can compute (using brute-force or whatever) the possible solutions for the numpad problem described above. (Friendly rethorical question with smiley removed because it made some people think that this is homework)

    Read the article

  • String or binary data would be truncated -- Heisenberg problem

    - by harpo
    When you get this error, the first thing you ask is, which column? Unfortunately, SQL Server is no help here. So you start doing trial and error. Well, right now I have a statement like: INSERT tbl (A, B, C, D, E, F, G) SELECT A, B * 2, C, D, E, q.F, G FROM tbl ,othertable q WHERE etc etc Note that Some values are modified or linked in from another table, but most values are coming from the original table, so they can't really cause truncation going back to the same field (that I know of). Eliminating fields one at a time eventually makes the error go away, if I do it cumulatively, but — and here's the kicker — it doesn't matter which fields I eliminate. It's as if SQL Server is objecting to the total length of the row, which I doubt, since there are only about 40 fields in all, and nothing large. Anyone ever seen this before? Thanks. UPDATE: I have also done "horizontal" testing, by filtering out the SELECT, with much the same result. In other words, if I say WHERE id BETWEEN 1 AND 100: Error WHERE id BETWEEN 1 AND 50: No error WHERE id BETWEEN 50 AND 100: No error I tried many combinations, and it cannot be limited to a single row.

    Read the article

  • Delphi fsstayontop oddity

    - by TallGuy
    Here is the deal. Main form set to fsnormal. This main form is maximized full screen with a floating toolbar. Toolbar is normal form with style set to fsstayontop. Most fo the time this works as expected. The mainform displays and the toolbar floats over on top of it. Sometimes (this is a bugger to find a reproducable set of steps) when alt-tabbing to and from other apps (or when clicking the delphi app icon on the taskbar) the following symptoms can happen... When alt-tabbing away from the delphi app the floating topmost fsstayontop form stays on top of the other apps. So if I alt-tab to firefox then the floating menu stays on top of firefox too. When alt-tabbing from another app to the delphi app the flaoting menu is not visible (as it is behhind the fsnormal mainform). Is there a known bug or any hacks to force it to work? This also seems to happen most when mutliple copies of the app are running (they have no interaction between them and should be running in their own windows "sandbox"). It is as if delphi gets confused which window is meant to be on top and swaps them or changes the floating form to stayontopofeverything mode. Or have I misunderstood fsstayontop? I am assuming setting a form style to fsstayontop makes it stay on top of all other forms within the current app and not all windows across other running apps. Thanks for any tips or workarounds.

    Read the article

  • Using ASP.NET SQL Membership Provider, how do I store my own per-user data?

    - by Gary McGill
    I'm using the ASP.NET SQL Membership Provider. So, there's an aspnet_Users table that has details of each of my users. (Actually, the aspnet_Membership table seems to contain most of the actual data). I now want to store some per-user information in my database, so I thought I'd just create a new table with a UserId (GUID) column and an FK relationship to aspnet_Users. However, I then discovered that I can't easily get access to the UserId since it's not exposed via the membership API. (I know I can access it via the ProviderUserKey, but it seems like the API is abstracting away the internal UserID in favor of the UserName, and I don't want to go too far against the grain). So, I thought I should instead put a LoweredUserName column in my table, and create an FK relationship to aspnet_Users using that. Bzzzt. Wrong again, because while there is a unique index in aspnet_Users that includes the LoweredUserName, it also includes the ApplicationId - so in order to create my FK relationship, I'd need to have an ApplicationId column in my table too. At first I thought: fine, I'm only dealing with a single application, so I'll just add such a column and give it a default value. Then I realised that the ApplicationId is a GUID, so it'd be a pain to do this. Not hard exactly, but until I roll out my DB I can't predict what the GUID is going to be. I feel like I'm missing something, or going about things the wrong way. What am I supposed to do?

    Read the article

  • Moving to an arbitrary position in a file in Python

    - by B Rivera
    Let's say that I routinely have to work with files with an unknown, but large, number of lines. Each line contains a set of integers (space, comma, semicolon, or some non-numeric character is the delimiter) in the closed interval [0, R], where R can be arbitrarily large. The number of integers on each line can be variable. Often times I get the same number of integers on each line, but occasionally I have lines with unequal sets of numbers. Suppose I want to go to Nth line in the file and retrieve the Kth number on that line (and assume that the inputs N and K are valid --- that is, I am not worried about bad inputs). How do I go about doing this efficiently in Python 3.1.2 for Windows? I do not want to traverse the file line by line. I tried using mmap, but while poking around here on SO, I learned that that's probably not the best solution on a 32-bit build because of the 4GB limit. And in truth, I couldn't really figure out how to simply move N lines away from my current position. If I can at least just "jump" to the Nth line then I can use .split() and grab the Kth integer that way. The nuance here is that I don't just need to grab one line from the file. I will need to grab several lines: they are not necessarily all near each other, the order in which I get them matters, and the order is not always based on some deterministic function. Any ideas? I hope this is enough information. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Is there an application that can help someone create an XML document based on the Relax NG schema?

    - by meowsqueak
    I've spent a bit of time creating a Relax NG schema for use within our team to validate XML documents we use for exchanging information. The schema is not complicated, but it is reasonably large. I am wondering if there exists a tool that can read in such a Relax NG schema and assist a user in creating a corresponding instance document, using the schema as a template. Perhaps an application with a GUI that creates fields and drop-down selections for each part of the document? For example, the tool might create an outline XML document and prompt the user to select multiples of certain elements, fill in each field, perhaps with permitted values read directly from the schema. It might also show the user via visual feedback when their document is 'complete', or highlight validation problems as they come up. I could anticipate writing a custom GUI tool to create such an XML document, but I'd really like changes to the schema to be automatically reflected by the GUI - and I really wonder if this hasn't already been done. I know some editors can automatically validate an XML document against a schema as it's being written, but I would really like to get my users one step away from the XML so they don't have to worry about the details of the XML syntax.

    Read the article

  • What is the benefit of using ONLY OpenID authentication on a site?

    - by Peter
    From my experience with OpenID, I see a number of significant downsides: Adds a Single Point of Failure to the site It is not a failure that can be fixed by the site even if detected. If the OpenID provider is down for three days, what recourse does the site have to allow its users to login and access the information they own? Takes a user to another sites content and every time they logon to your site Even if the OpenID provider does not have an error, the user is re-directed to their site to login. The login page has content and links. So there is a chance a user will actually be drawn away from the site to go down the Internet rabbit hole. Why would I want to send my users to another company's website? [ Note: my provider no longer does this and seems to have fixed this problem (for now).] Adds a non-trivial amount of time to the signup To sign up with the site a new user is forced to read a new standard, chose a provider, and signup. Standards are something that the technical people should agree to in order to make a user experience frictionless. They are not something that should be thrust on the users. It is a Phisher's Dream OpenID is incredibly insecure and stealing the person's ID as they log in is trivially easy. [ taken from David Arno's Answer below ] For all of the downside, the one upside is to allow users to have fewer logins on the Internet. If a site has opt-in for OpenID then users who want that feature can use it. What I would like to understand is: What benefit does a site get for making OpenID mandatory?

    Read the article

  • JQuery plugin: catch events for clicking/tabbing into and out of an input box

    - by poswald
    I'm creating a Javascript JQuery Timepicker control plugin (which I hope to open source soon) and I would like some advice on how to best register the events in the cleanest way. The control will attach to an <input> box and provide a graphical way to enter times of day ( 14:25, 2:45 AM, etc...). It does this by adding a <div> after the input box. What I want is to bind an openControl() function that fires when the input is clicked or tabbed to, and a closeControl() function that fires when the input box is tabbed away from or deselected but not if the control itself is clicked. That is, I don't want to close the control if you're clicking inside of the control's <input> or the <div>. Here's what I have been doing to try to get there: /* Close the control attached to the passed inputNode */ function closeContainer(inputNode, options) { $input = $(inputNode); if ( $input.next().is(':visible')) { $input.next().hide(options.hideAnim, options.hideOptions, options.hideDuration, options.onHide ); } } /* Open the control */ function openContainer(node, options) { $input = $(node); $input.next().show(options.showAnim, options.showOptions, options.showDuration, options.onShow ); // bind a click handler for closing the contol $("body").bind('click', function (e) { $('.time-control').each( function () { $input = $(this).prev(); // only close if click is outside of the control or the input box if (jQuery.contains(this, e.target) || ($input.get(0) === e.target) ) { closeContainer($input, options); setTime($input, $input.next(), options); } else { closeContainer($input, options); } }); }); } I want to add support for tabbing in/out but I feel like this approach is wrong. Focus/Blur wasn't working well because the blur event fires if you click on the control. Should I be using those events but filtering out if they are inside the control's div? Anyone have a better way of doing this? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to make HTML layout whitespace-agnostic?

    - by ssg
    If you have consecutive inline-blocks white-space becomes significant. It adds some level of space between elements. What's the "correct" way of avoiding whitespace effect to HTML layout if you want those blocks to look stuck to each other? Example: <span>a</span> <span>b</span> This renders differently than: <span>a</span><span>b</span> because of the space inbetween. I want whitespace-effect to go away without compromising HTML source code layout. I want my HTML templates to stay clean and well-indented. I think these options are ugly: 1) Tweaking text-indent, margin, padding etc. (Because it would be dependent on font-size, default white-space width etc) 2) Putting everything on a single line, next to each other. 3) Zero font-size. That would require overriding font-size in blocks, which would otherwise be inherited. 4) Possible document-wide solutions. I want the solution to stay local for a certain block of HTML. Any ideas, any obvious points which I'm missing?

    Read the article

  • LINQ-SQL Updating Multiple Rows in a single transaction

    - by RPM1984
    Hi guys, I need help re-factoring this legacy LINQ-SQL code which is generating around 100 update statements. I'll keep playing around with the best solution, but would appreciate some ideas/past experience with this issue. Here's my code: List<Foo> foos; int userId = 123; using (DataClassesDataContext db = new FooDatabase()) { foos = (from f in db.FooBars where f.UserId = userId select f).ToList(); foreach (FooBar fooBar in foos) { fooBar.IsFoo = false; } db.SubmitChanges() } Essentially i want to update the IsFoo field to false for all records that have a particular UserId value. Whats happening is the .ToList() is firing off a query to get all the FooBars for a particular user, then for each Foo object, its executing an UPDATE statement updating the IsFoo property. Can the above code be re-factored to one single UPDATE statement? Ideally, the only SQL i want fired is the below: UPDATE FooBars SET IsFoo = FALSE WHERE UserId = 123 EDIT Ok so looks like it cant be done without using db.ExecuteCommand. Grr...! What i'll probably end up doing is creating another extension method for the DLINQ namespace. Still require some hardcoding (ie writing "WHERE" and "UPDATE"), but at least it hides most of the implementation details away from the actual LINQ query syntax.

    Read the article

  • Out of memory while iterating through rowset

    - by Phliplip
    Hi All, I have a "small" table of 60400 rows with zipcode data. I wan't to iterate through them all, update a column value, and then save it. The following is part of my Zipcodes model which extends My_Db_Table that a totalRows function that - you guessed it.. returns the total number of rows in the table (60400 rows) public function normalizeTable() { $this->getAdapter()->setProfiler(false); $totalRows = $this->totalRows(); $rowsPerQuery = 5; for($i = 0; $i < $totalRows; $i = $i + $rowsPerQuery) { $select = $this->select()->limit($i, $rowsPerQuery); $rowset = $this->fetchAll($select); foreach ($rowset as $row) { $row->{self::$normalCityColumn} = $row->normalize($row->{self::$cityColumn}); $row->save(); } unset($rowset); } } My rowClass contains a normalize function (basicly a metaphone wrapper doing some extra magic). At first i tried a plain old $this-fetchAll(), but got a out of memory (128MB) right away. Then i tried splitting the rowset into chunks, only difference is that some rows actually gets updated. Any ideas on how i can acomplish this, or should i fallback to ye'olde mysql_query()

    Read the article

  • How to implement an ID field on a POCO representing an Identity field in SQL Server?

    - by Dr. Zim
    If I have a Domain Model that has an ID that maps to a SQL Server identity column, what does the POCO look like that contains that field? Candidate 1: Allows anyone to set and get the ID. I don't think we want anyone setting the ID except the Repository, from the SQL table. public class Thing { public int ID {get;set;} } Candidate 2: Allows someone to set the ID upon creation, but we won't know the ID until after we create the object (factory creates a blank Thing object where ID = 0 until we persist it). How would we set the ID after persisting? public class Thing { public Thing () : This (ID: 0) {} public Thing (int ID) { this.ID = ID } private int _ID; public int ID { get { return this.ID;}; } Candidate 3: Methods to set ID? Somehow we would need to allow the Repository to set the ID without allowing the consumer to change it. Any ideas? Is this barking up the wrong tree? Do we send the object to the Repository, save it, throw it away, then create a new object from the loaded version and return that as a new object?

    Read the article

  • Why does a change of Session State provider lead to an ASPx page yielding garbage?

    - by Rory Becker
    I have an aspnet webapp which has worked very well up until now. I was recently asked to explore ways of making it scale better. I found that seperation of database and Webapp would help. Further I was told that if I changed my session providing mechanism to SQLServer, I would be able to duplicate the Web Stack to several machines which could each call back to the state server allowing the load to be distirbuted better. This sounds logical. So I created an ASPState database using ASPNet_RegSQL.exe as detailed in many locations across the web and changed the web.config on my app from: <sessionState mode="InProc" cookieless="false" timeout="20" /> To: <sessionState mode="SQLServer" sqlConnectionString="Server=SomeSQLServer;user=SomeUser;password=SomePassword" cookieless="false" timeout="20" /> Then I addressed my app, which presented me with its logon screen and I duly logged in. Once in I was presented, not with the page I was expecting, but with: I can change the sessionstate back and forth. This problem goes away and then comes back based on which set of configuration I use. Why is this happening?

    Read the article

  • How can I make nested string splits?

    - by Statement
    I have what seemed at first to be a trivial problem but turned out to become something I can't figure out how to easily solve. I need to be able to store lists of items in a string. Then those items in turn can be a list, or some other value that may contain my separator character. I have two different methods that unpack the two different cases but I realized I need to encode the contained value from any separator characters used with string.Split. To illustrate the problem: string[] nested = { "mary;john;carl", "dog;cat;fish", "plainValue" } string list = string.Join(";", nested); string[] unnested = list.Split(';'); // EEK! returns 7 items, expected 3! This would produce a list "mary;john;carl;dog;cat;fish;plainValue", a value I can't split to get the three original nested strings from. Indeed, instead of the three original strings, I'd get 7 strings on split and this approach thus doesn't work at all. What I want is to allow the values in my string to be encoded so I can unpack/split the contents just the way before I packed/join them. I assume I might need to go away from string.Split and string.Join and that is perfectly fine. I might just have overlooked some useful class or method. How can I allow any string values to be packed / unpacked into lists? I prefer neat, simple solutions over bulky if possible. For the curious mind, I am making extensions for PlayerPrefs in Unity3D, and I can only work with ints, floats and strings. Thus I chose strings to be my data carrier. This is why I am making this nested list of strings.

    Read the article

  • JMeter CSV Data Set is corrupting Japanese strings stored as proper UTF-8, I get Question Marks instead

    - by Mark Bennett
    I read in search terms from a simple text file to send to a search engine. It works fine in English, but gives me ???? for any Japanese text. Text with mixed English and Japanese does show the English text, so I know it's reading it. What I'm seeing: Input text: Snow Leopard ??????????????? Turns into: Snow Leopard ??????????????? This is in my POST field of an HTTP. If I set JMeter to encode the data, it just puts in the percent sequence for question marks. Interesting note: In the example above there are 15 Japanese characters, and then 15 question marks, so at some point it's being seen as full characters and not just bytes. About the Data: The CSV file is very simple in structure. There's only one field / one column, which I name TERM, and later use as ${TERM} I don't really need full CSV because it's only one string per line. There's no commas or quotes. When I run the Unix "file" command on the file, it says UTF-8 text. I've also verified it in command line and graphical mode on two machines. JMeter CSV Dataset Config: Filename: japanese-searches.csv File encoding: UTF-8 (also tried without) Variable names: TERM Delimiter: , Allow Quoted Data: False (I also tried True, different, but still wrong) Recycle at EOF: True Stop at EOF: False Staring mode: All threads A few things I've tried: Tried Allow quoted Data. It changed to other strange characters. -Dfile.encoding=UTF-8 Tried encoding the POST, but it just turned into a bunch of %nn for question marks And I'm not sure how "debug" just after the each line of the CSV is read in. I think it's corrupted right away, but I'm not sure. If it's only mangled when I reference it, then instead of ${TERM} perhaps there's some other "to bytes" function call. I'll start checking into that. I haven't done anything with the JMeter functions yet.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193  | Next Page >