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  • Behavior of local variables in JavaScripts with()-statement

    - by thr
    I noticed some weird (and to my knowledge undefined behavior, by the ECMA 3.0 Spec at least), take the following snippet: var foo = { bar: "1", baz: "2" }; alert(bar); with(foo) { alert(bar); alert(bar); } alert(bar); It crashes in both Firefox and Chrome, because "bar" doesn't exist in the first alert(); statement, this is as expected. But if you add a declaration of bar inside the with()-statement, so it looks like this: var foo = { bar: "1", baz: "2" }; alert(bar); with(foo) { alert(bar); var bar = "g2"; alert(bar); } alert(bar); It will produce the following: undefined, 1, g2, undefined It seems as if you create a variable inside a with()-statement most browsers (tested on Chrome or Firefox) will make that variable exist outside that scope also, it's just set to undefined. Now from my perspective bar should only exist inside the with()-statement, and if you make the example even weirder: var foo = { bar: "1", baz: "2" }; var zoo; alert(bar); with(foo) { alert(bar); var bar = "g2"; zoo = function() { return bar; } alert(bar); } alert(bar); alert(zoo()); It will produce this: undefined, 1, g2, undefined, g2 So the bar inside the with()-statement does not exist outside of it, yet the runtime somehow "automagically" creates a variable named bar that is undefined in its top level scope (global or function) but this variable does not refer to the same one as inside the with()-statement, and that variable will only exist if a with()-statement has a variable named bar that is defined inside it. Very weird, and inconsistent. Anyone have an explanation for this behavior? There is nothing in the ECMA Spec about this.

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  • Entity Framework in layered architecture

    - by Kamyar
    I am using a layered architecture with the Entity Framework. Here's What I came up with till now (All the projects Except UI are class library): Entities: The POCO Entities. Completely persistence ignorant. No Reference to other projects. Generated by Microsoft's ADO.Net POCO Entity Generator. DAL: The EDMX (Entity Model) file with the context class. (t4 generated). References: Entities BLL: Business Logic Layer. Will implement repository pattern on this layer. References: Entities, DAL. This is where the objectcontext gets populated: var ctx=new DAL.MyDBEntities(); UI: The presentation layer: ASP.NET website. References: Entities, BLL + a connection string entry to entities in the config file (question #2). Now my three questions: Is my layer discintion approach correct? In my UI, I access BLL as follows: var customerRep = new BLL.CustomerRepository(); var Customer = customerRep.GetByID(myCustomerID); The problem is that I have to define the entities connection string in my UI's web.config/app.config otherwise I get a runtime exception. IS defining the entities connectionstring in UI spoils the layers' distinction? Or is it accesptible in a muli layered architecture. Should I take any additional steps to perform chage tracking, lazy loading, etc (by etc I mean the features that Entity Framework covers in a conventional, 1 project, non POCO code generation)? Thanks and apologies for the lengthy question.

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  • What makes deployment successful for some users and unsuccessful for others?

    - by Julien
    I am trying to deploy a Visual C++ application (developed with Microsoft Visual Studio 2008) using a Setup and Deployment Project. After installation, users on some target computers get the following error message after launching the application executable: “This application has failed to start because the application configuration is incorrect. Reinstalling the application may fix the problem.” Another user after installation could run the application properly. I cannot find the root cause of this problem, despite spending several hours on the Visual Studio help files and online forums (most postings date back to 2006). Does anyone at Stack Overflow have a suggestion? Thanks in advance. Additional details appear below. The application uses FLTK 1.1.9 for a GUI library, as well as some Boost 1.39 libraries (regex, lexical_cast, date_time, math). I made sure I am trying to deploy the release version (not the debug version) of the application. The Runtime library in the Code Generation settings is Multi-threaded DLL (/MD). The dependency walker of myapp.exe lists the following DLLs: wsock32.dll, comctl32.dll, kernel32.dll, user32.dll, gdi32.dll, shell32.dll, ole32.dll, mvcp90.dll, msvcr90.dll. In the Setup and Deployment Project, I add the following DLLs to the File System on Target Machine: fltkdlld.dll, and a folder named Microsoft.VC90.CRT with msvcm90.dll, msvcp90.dll, mcvcr90.dll and Microsoft.VC90.CRT.manifest. The installation process on the target computers getting the error message requires having the .Net Framework 3.5 installed first. Any suggestion? Thanks in advance!

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  • Taking my ASP.NET from my local comp to the server

    - by Andrew G. Johnson
    Hi All, So I have been developing a small ASP.NET web app in C# for my company over the past few weeks and now I am trying to push it onto our Rackspace server. First step was to create a virtual directory because we want it to be www.ourdomain.com/appname/ and most of the stuff on ourdomain.com is currently in classic ASP. So I did this and then uploaded my stuff to the new folder. I *think* I did this at least semi-right because the error message I am getting is that nice puke color (ASP.NET style instead of classic ASP style) -- problem is it is generic and just saying runtime error. I tried just copy/pasting <customErrors mode="On" /> into the web.config file in the /appname/ directory but nothing changed So the actual questions are: How can I get a more descriptive error, when I was developing locally I just pushed the "play button" in VS2010 and it would either show me the app or tell me where I screwed up Is there anything else I'm doing wrong that may be causing this? If there's things I need to check lemme know!

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  • MySQL default value based on view

    - by Jake
    Basically I have a bunch of views based on a simple discriminator column (eg. CREATE VIEW tablename AS SELECT * FROM tablename WHERE discrcolumn = "discriminator value"). Upon inserting a new row into this view, it should insert "discriminator value" into discrcolumn. I tried this, but apparently MySQL doesn't figure this out itself, as it throws an error "Field of view viewname underlying table does not have a default value". The discriminator column is set to NOT NULL of course. How do I mend this? Perhaps a pre-insert trigger? UPDATE: Triggers won't work on views, see below comment. Would it work to create a trigger on the table which uses a variable, and set that variable at establishing the connection? For each connection the value of that variable would be the same, but it could differ from other connections. EDIT: This appears to work... Setup: CREATE TRIGGER insert_[tablename] BEFORE INSERT ON [tablename] FOR EACH ROW SET NEW.[discrcolumn] = @variable Runtime: SET @variable = [descrvalue]; INSERT INTO [viewname] ([columnlist]) VALUES ([values]);

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  • Dynamic Auto updating (to UI, Grid) binding list in C# Winform?

    - by Dhana
    I'm not even sure if i'm doing this correctly. But basically I have a list of objects that are built out of a class/interface. From there, I am binding the list to a datagrid view that is on a Windows Form (C#) Here the list is a Sync list which will auto update the UI, in this case datagridview. Every thing works fine now, but now i would like to have the List should have an dynamic object, that is the object will have by default two static property (ID, Name), and at run time user will select remaining properties. These should be bind to the data grid. Any update on the list should be auto reflected in the grid. I am aware that, we can use dynamic objects, but i would like to know , how to approach for solution, datagridview.DataSource = myData; // myData is AutoUpdateList<IPersonInfo> Now IPersonInfo is the type of object, need to add dynamic properties for this type at runtime. public class AutoUpdateList<T> : System.ComponentModel.BindingList<T> { private System.ComponentModel.ISynchronizeInvoke _SyncObject; private System.Action<System.ComponentModel.ListChangedEventArgs> _FireEventAction; public AutoUpdateList() : this(null) { } public AutoUpdateList(System.ComponentModel.ISynchronizeInvoke syncObject) { _SyncObject = syncObject; _FireEventAction = FireEvent; } protected override void OnListChanged(System.ComponentModel.ListChangedEventArgs args) { try { if (_SyncObject == null) { FireEvent(args); } else { _SyncObject.Invoke(_FireEventAction, new object[] { args }); } } catch (Exception) { // TODO: Log Here } } private void FireEvent(System.ComponentModel.ListChangedEventArgs args) { base.OnListChanged(args); } } Could you help out on this?

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  • how to handle onclick event of button inside popup window in android

    - by henna
    In my application i have a button initially on the screen and in onclick of the button ,popup window should open. In the popup window i have an imagebutton , now on click of this button i want to start an activity. The popup window opens but i dont understand how to handle the onclick of the imagebtn inside popup window. In main.xml i have a button and in popup_example.xml i have an imagebutton. Hi my Java code is as follows: final LayoutInflater inflater = (LayoutInflater)this.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); final Button b=(Button)findViewById(R.id.btn); b.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { PopupWindow pw = new PopupWindow(inflater.inflate(R.layout.popup_example,(ViewGroup)findViewById(R.layout.main))); pw.showAtLocation(v, Gravity.LEFT,0,0); pw.update(8,-70,150,270); //if onclick written here, it gives null pointer exception. ImageButton img=(ImageButton)findViewById(R.id.home); img.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { Intent..... } }); //if onclick is written here it gives runtime exception. }); and i have two xml layouts.........1)main.xml 2)popup_example.xml main.xml popup_example.xml <ImageButton android:id="@+id/home" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:focusable="true" android:src="@drawable/vitalss" android:layout_weight="1" android:background="#8E2323" />

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  • dynamical binding or switch/case?

    - by kingkai
    A scene like this: I've different of objects do the similar operation as respective func() implements. There're 2 kinds of solution for func_manager() to call func() according to different objects Solution 1: Use virtual function character specified in c++. func_manager works differently accroding to different object point pass in. class Object{ virtual void func() = 0; } class Object_A : public Object{ void func() {}; } class Object_B : public Object{ void func() {}; } void func_manager(Object* a) { a->func(); } Solution 2: Use plain switch/case. func_manager works differently accroding to different type pass in typedef _type_t { TYPE_A, TYPE_B }type_t; void func_by_a() { // do as func() in Object_A } void func_by_b() { // do as func() in Object_A } void func_manager(type_t type) { switch(type){ case TYPE_A: func_by_a(); break; case TYPE_B: func_by_b(); default: break; } } My Question are 2: 1. at the view point of DESIGN PATTERN, which one is better? 2. at the view point of RUNTIME EFFCIENCE, which one is better? Especailly as the kinds of Object increases, may be up to 10-15 total, which one's overhead oversteps the other? I don't know how switch/case implements innerly, just a bunch of if/else? Thanks very much!

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  • Java downcasting and is-A has-A relationship

    - by msharma
    HI, I have a down casting question, I am a bit rusty in this area. I have 2 clasess like this: class A{ int i; String j ; //Getters and setters} class B extends A{ String k; //getter and setter} I have a method like this, in a Utility helper class: public static A converts(C c){} Where C are objects that are retireved from the database and then converted. The problem is I want to call the above method by passing in a 'C' and getting back B. So I tried this: B bClasss = (B) Utility.converts(c); So even though the above method returns A I tried to downcast it to B, but I get a runtime ClassCastException. Is there really no way around this? DO I have to write a separate converts() method which returns a B class type? If I declare my class B like: class B { String k; A a;} // So instead of extending A it has-a A, getter and setters also then I can call my existing method like this: b.setA(Utility.converts(c) ); This way I can reuse the existing method, even though the extends relationship makes more sense. What should I do? Any help much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Converted PowerBuilder to ASP.Net browsing Errors

    - by user493325
    I had a powerbuilder application which i converted to web application in the format of ASP.Net (aspx) files. after deploying and publishing the converted web application (copy it and add ASP.Net and network Service AND IUser permissions to enable users to access it) in IIS V6.0 over Windows server 2003 and The ASP.Net version is 2.0 The error messages I get when I browse default.aspx web page are as the following:- Server Error in '/' Application. Runtime Error Description: An application error occurred on the server. The current custom error settings for this application prevent the details of the application error from being viewed remotely (for security reasons). It could, however, be viewed by browsers running on the local server machine. Details: To enable the details of this specific error message to be viewable on remote machines, please create a tag within a "web.config" configuration file located in the root directory of the current web application. This tag should then have its "mode" attribute set to "Off". <!-- Web.Config Configuration File --> <configuration> <system.web> <customErrors mode="Off"/> </system.web> </configuration> Notes: The current error page you are seeing can be replaced by a custom error page by modifying the "defaultRedirect" attribute of the application's configuration tag to point to a custom error page URL. <!-- Web.Config Configuration File --> <configuration> <system.web> <customErrors mode="RemoteOnly" defaultRedirect="mycustompage.htm"/> </system.web> </configuration> Another error message appears on the server is:- Server Error in '/' Application. Configuration Error <roleManager enabled="true"> <membership> </roleManager> Thanks in Advance...

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  • Passing an arbitrary JSONValue to a JSNI function

    - by Riley Lark
    I have a JSONValue in my Java that may be a JSONArray, a JSONObject, a JSONString, etc. I want to pass it to a JSNI function that can accept any of those types. If I naively write my JSNI as something like: public final native jsni(Object parameter) /*-{ doSomething(parameter); }-*/; public void useFunction(JSONValue value) { jsni(value); //Throws js exception at runtime :( } then I get a javascript exception, because GWT doesn't know how to convert the JSONValue to a JavaScriptObject (or native string / number value). My current workaround is public final native jsniForJSO(Object parameter) /*-{ doSomething(parameter); }-*/; public final native jsniForString(String parameter) /*-{ doSomething(parameter); }-*/; public final native jsniForNumber(double parameter) /*-{ doSomething(parameter); }-*/; public actuallyUseFunction(JSONValue value) { if (value.isObject()) { jsniForJSO(value.isObject().getJavaScriptObject()); } else if (value.isString()) { jsniForString(value.isString().stringValue()); } else { //etc } } This is a big burden for code maintainability, etc... especially if you have more than one parameter. Is there a way to generate these functions automatically, or get around this issue altogether? I've taken to wrapping everything in a JSONObject first, so I can definitely get a JavaScriptObject to pass to my jsni, but that's another clumsy mechanic.

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  • Is the Java classpath final after JVM startup?

    - by Jens
    Hi, I have read a lot about the Java class loading process lately. Often I came across texts that claimed that it is not possible to add classes to the classpath during runtime and load them without class loader hackery (URLClassLoaders etc.) As far as I know classes are loaded dynamically. That means their bytecode representation is only loaded and transformed to a java.lang.Class object when needed. So shouldn't it be possible to add a JAR or *.class file to the classpath after the JVM started and load those classes, provided they haven't been loaded yet? (To be clear: In this case the classpath is simple folder on the filesystem. "Adding a JAR or *.class file" simply means dropping them in this folder.) And if not, does that mean that the classpath is searched on JVM startup and all fully qualified names of the found classes are cached in an internal "list"? It would be nice of you if you could point me to some sources in your answers. Preferably the offical SUN documentation: Sun JVM Spec. I have read the spec but could not find anything about the classpath and if it's finalized on JVM startup. P.s. This is a theoretical question. I just want to know if it is possible. There is nothing practical I want to achieve. There is just my thirst for knowledge :)

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  • Issue calling superclass method in subclass constructor

    - by stormin986
    I get a NullPointerException calling a Superclass Method in Subclass Inner Class Constructor... What's the Deal? In my application's main class (subclass of Application), I have a public inner class that simply contains 3 public string objects. In the parent class I declare an object of that inner class. public class MainApplication extends Application { public class Data { public String x; public String y; public String z; } private Data data; MainApplication() { data = new Data() data.x = SuperClassMethod(); } } After I instantiate the object in the constructor, I get a runtime error when I try to assign a value in the inner class with a superclass method. Any idea what's up here?? Can you not call superclass methods in the subclass constructor? ** Edit ** Original question was about inner class member assignment in outer class constructor. Turned out the issue was with calling a superclass method in the class's constructor. It was giving me a null pointer exception. Thus, the question has changed.

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  • Build a Visual Studio Project without access to referenced dlls

    - by David Reis
    I have a project which has a set of binary dependencies (assembly dlls for which I do no have the source code). At runtime those dependencies are required pre-installed on the machine and at compile time they are required in the source tree, e,g in a lib folder. As I'm also making source code available for this program I would like to enable a simple download and build experience for it. Unfortunately I cannot redistribute the dlls, and that complicates things, since VS wont link the project without access to the referenced dlls. Is there anyway to enable this project to be built and linked in absence of the real referenced dlls? Maybe theres a way to tell VS to link against an auto generated stub of the dll, so that it can rebuild without the original? Maybe there's a third party tool that will do this? Any clues or best practices at all in this area? I realize the person must have access to the dlls to run the code, so it makes sense that he could add them to the build process, but I'm just trying to save them the pain of collecting all the dlls and placing them in the lib folder manually.

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  • Linux C debugging library to detect memory corruptions

    - by calandoa
    When working sometimes ago on an embedded system with a simple MMU, I used to program dynamically this MMU to detect memory corruptions. For instance, at some moment at runtime, the foo variable was overwritten with some unexpected data (probably by a dangling pointer or whatever). So I added the additional debugging code : at init, the memory used by foo was indicated as a forbidden region to the MMU; each time foo was accessed on purpose, access to the region was allowed just before then forbidden just after; a MMU irq handler was added to dump the master and the address responsible of the violation. This was actually some kind of watchpoint, but directly self-handled by the code itself. Now, I would like to reuse the same trick, but on a x86 platform. The problem is that I am very far from understanding how is working the MMU on this platform, and how it is used by Linux, but I wonder if any library/tool/system call already exist to deal with this problem. Note that I am aware that various tools exist like Valgrind or GDB to manage memory problems, but as far as I know, none of these tools car be dynamically reconfigured by the debugged code. I am mainly interested for user space under Linux, but any info on kernel mode or under Windows is also welcome!

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  • problem adding object to hashtable

    - by daemonkid
    I am trying to call a class method dynamically depending on a condition. This is how I am doing it I have three classes implement a single interface interface IReadFile { string DoStuff(); } The three classes A,B,C implement the interface above. I am trying to add them to a hashtable with the code below _HashT.Add("a", new classA()); _HashT.Add("b", new classB()); _HashT.Add("c", new classC()); This compiles fine, but gives a runtime error.{Object reference not set to an instance of an object.} I was planning to return the correct class to the interface type depending on a parameter that matches the key value. say if I send in a. ClassA is returned to the interface type and the method is called. IReadFile Obj = (IReadFile )_HashT["a"].GetType(); obj.DoStuff(); How do I correct the part above where the objects need to be added to the hashtable? Or do I need to use a different approach? All the classes are in the same assembly and namespace. Thanks for your time.

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  • Java Servlet: getInitParameter not work in Service()

    - by Gabriele
    I've added some parameters in my web.xml config file, as follow: <context-param> <param-name>service1</param-name> <param-value>http://www.example.com/example2.html</param-value> </context-param> <context-param> <param-name>service2</param-name> <param-value>http://www.example.com/example2.html</param-value> </context-param> ... I try to get the parameter in my servlet, in particular in my service method: protected void service(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { System.out.println(this.getServletContext().getInitParameter("service1")); ... but at runtime I have a NullPointerException... How can I get the parameter value included in web.xml? This is the stacktrace: GRAVE: Servlet.service() for servlet DispatcherServlet threw exception java.lang.NullPointerException at javax.servlet.GenericServlet.getServletContext(GenericServlet.java:160) at it.servlethope.DispatcherServlet.service(DispatcherServlet.java:66) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:290) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.tuckey.web.filters.urlrewrite.RuleChain.handleRewrite(RuleChain.java:176) at org.tuckey.web.filters.urlrewrite.RuleChain.doRules(RuleChain.java:145) at org.tuckey.web.filters.urlrewrite.UrlRewriter.processRequest(UrlRewriter.java:92) at org.tuckey.web.filters.urlrewrite.UrlRewriteFilter.doFilter(UrlRewriteFilter.java:381) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:235) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapperValve.invoke(StandardWrapperValve.java:233) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContextValve.invoke(StandardContextValve.java:191) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardHostValve.invoke(StandardHostValve.java:127) at org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java:102) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardEngineValve.invoke(StandardEngineValve.java:109) at org.apache.catalina.connector.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java:298) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Processor.process(Http11Processor.java:852) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.process(Http11Protocol.java:588) at org.apache.tomcat.util.net.JIoEndpoint$Worker.run(JIoEndpoint.java:489) at java.lang.Thread.run(Unknown Source) DispatcherServlet.java:66 is the line where I try the getInitParameter()

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  • How to Inject code in c# method calls from a separate app

    - by Fusspawn
    I was curious if anyone knew of a way of monitoring a .Net application's runtime info (what method is being called and such) and injecting extra code to be run on certain methods from a separate running process. say i have two applications: app1.exe that for simplicity's sake could be class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { while(true){ Somefunc(); } } static void Somefunc() { Console.WriteLine("Hello World"); } } and I have a second application that I wish to be able to detect when Somefunc() from application 1 is running and inject its own code, class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { while(true){ if(App1.SomeFuncIsCalled) InjectCode(); } } static void InjectCode() { App1.Console.WriteLine("Hello World Injected"); } } So The result would be Application one would show Hello World Hello World Injected I understand its not going to be this simple ( By a long shot ) but I have no idea if it's even possible and if it is where to even start. Any suggestions ? I've seen similar done in java, But never in c#. EDIT: To clarify, the usage of this would be to add a plugin system to a .Net based game that I do not have access to the source code of.

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  • To what extent should code try to explain fatal exceptions?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    I suspect that all non-trivial software is likely to experience situations where it hits an external problem it cannot work around and thus needs to fail. This might be due to bad configuration, an external server being down, disk full, etc. In these situations, especially if the software is running in non-interactive mode, I expect that all one can really do is log an error and wait for the admin to read the logs and fix the problem. If someone happens to interact with the software in the meantime, e.g. a request comes in to a server that failed to initialize properly, then perhaps an appropriate hint can be given to check the logs and maybe even the error can be echoed (depending on whether you can tell if they're a technical guy as opposed to a business user). For the moment though let's not think too hard about this part. My question is, to what extent should the software be responsible for trying to explain the meaning of the fatal error? In general, how much competence/knowledge are you allowed to presume on administrators of the software, and how much should you include troubleshooting information and potential resolution steps when logging fatal errors? Of course if there's something that's unique to the runtime context this should definitely be logged; but lets assume your software needs to talk to Active Directory via LDAP and gets back an error "[LDAP: error code 49 - 80090308: LdapErr: DSID-0C090334, comment: AcceptSecurityContext error, data 525, vece]". Is it reasonable to assume that the maintainers will be able to Google the error code and work out what it means, or should the software try to parse the error code and log that this is caused by an incorrect user DN in the LDAP config? I don't know if there is a definitive best-practices answer for this, so I'm keen to hear a variety of views.

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  • getting CS1502 compiler error on dev environment but not production.

    - by nw
    When I try to run my ASP.NET app from my development environment I get the following error message: Compiler Error Message: CS1502: The best overloaded method match for 'mmars.Printing.printFunctions.SetPrintSummaryProperties(mmars.contextInfo, ref mmars.Printing.printObjSummary)' has some invalid arguments. When I publish and run on our production server I don't get this error. It seems to compile fine when I build from the build menu (in fact if I change the second argument of the bolded function call below, i get a compiler error in visual studio), but now i've suddenly started getting this error message at runtime. So another question I have in addition to getting rid of the error is why is the .NET development server even trying to do JIT compilation on my project if it is already compiled into a DLL? Printing.printObjSummary myPrintObj = new Printing.printObjSummary(); Printing.printFunctions.SetPrintSummaryProperties(ci, ref myPrintObj); printObjects.Add(myPrintObj); This seems to have just suddenly appeared from nowhere today and it's extremely frustrating. Also, though there are no warnings at compile-time, when I get redirected to the page with that first compilation error there are many warnings like the following: Warning: CS0436: The type 'mmars.MMARSSummaryDataItem' in 'c:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\3dad423c\40569048\App_Code.b0rgpkzr.4.cs' conflicts with the imported type 'mmars.MMARSSummaryDataItem' in 'c:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\3dad423c\40569048\assembly\dl3\7179c19a\345f948c_ece7ca01\mmars.DLL'. Using the type defined in 'c:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\3dad423c\40569048\App_Code.b0rgpkzr.4.cs'. What's the deal with that? Is the webserver complaining about name conflicts in the source file and dll resulting from the source file?

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  • C# custom control to get internal text as string

    - by Ed Woodcock
    ok, I'm working on a custom control that can contain some javascript, and read this out of the page into a string field. This is a workaround for dynamic javascript inside an updatepanel. At the moment, I've got it working, but if I try to put a server tag inside the block: <custom:control ID="Custom" runat="server"> <%= ControlName.ClientID %> </custom:control> The compiler does not like it. I know these are generated at runtime, and so might not be compatible with what I'm doing, but does anyone have any idea how I can get that working? EDIT Error message is: Code blocks are not supported in this context EDIT 2 The control: [DataBindingHandler("System.Web.UI.Design.TextDataBindingHandler, System.Design, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a"), ControlValueProperty("Text"), DefaultProperty("Text"), ParseChildren(true, "Text"), AspNetHostingPermission(SecurityAction.LinkDemand, Level = AspNetHostingPermissionLevel.Minimal), AspNetHostingPermission(SecurityAction.InheritanceDemand, Level = AspNetHostingPermissionLevel.Minimal)] public class CustomControl : Control, ITextControl { [DefaultValue(""), Bindable(true), Localizable(true)] public string Text { get { return (string)(ViewState["Text"] ?? string.Empty); } set { ViewState["Text"] = value; } } }

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  • C standard addressing simplification inconsistency

    - by Chris Lutz
    Section §6.5.3.2 "Address and indirection operators" ¶3 says (relevant section only): The unary & operator returns the address of its operand. ... If the operand is the result of a unary * operator, neither that operator nor the & operator is evaluated and the result is as if both were omitted, except that the constraints on the operators still apply and the result is not an lvalue. Similarly, if the operand is the result of a [] operator, neither the & operator nor the unary * that is implied by the [] is evaluated and the result is as if the & operator were removed and the [] operator were changed to a + operator. ... This means that this: int *i = NULL; printf("%p", (void *) (&*i) ); printf("%p", (void *) (&i[10]) ); Should be perfectly legal, printing the null pointer (probably 0) and the null pointer plus 10 (probably 10). The standard seems very clear that both of those cases are required to be optimized. However, it doesn't seem to require the following to be optimized: struct { int a; short b; } *s = 0; printf("%p", (void *) (&s->b) ); This seems awfully inconsistent. I can see no reason that the above code shouldn't print the null pointer plus sizeof(int) (possibly 4). Simplifying a &-> expression is going to be the same conceptually (IMHO) as &[], a simple address-plus-offset. It's even an offset that's going to be determinable at compile time, rather than potentially runtime with the [] operator. Is there anything in the rationale about why this is so seemingly inconsistent?

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  • A generic error occurred in GDI+, JPEG Image to MemoryStream

    - by madcapnmckay
    Hi, This seems to be a bit of an infamous error all over the web. So much so that I have been unable to find an answer to my problem as my scenario doesn't fit. An exception gets thrown when I save the image to the stream. Weirdly this works perfectly with a png but gives the above error with jpg and gif which is rather confusing. Most similar problem out there relate to saving images to files without permissions. Ironically the solution is to use a memory stream as I am doing.... public static byte[] ConvertImageToByteArray(Image imageToConvert) { using (var ms = new MemoryStream()) { ImageFormat format; switch (imageToConvert.MimeType()) { case "image/png": format = ImageFormat.Png; break; case "image/gif": format = ImageFormat.Gif; break; default: format = ImageFormat.Jpeg; break; } imageToConvert.Save(ms, format); return ms.ToArray(); } } More detail to the exception. The reason this causes so many issues is the lack of explanation :( System.Runtime.InteropServices.ExternalException was unhandled by user code Message="A generic error occurred in GDI+." Source="System.Drawing" ErrorCode=-2147467259 StackTrace: at System.Drawing.Image.Save(Stream stream, ImageCodecInfo encoder, EncoderParameters encoderParams) at System.Drawing.Image.Save(Stream stream, ImageFormat format) at Caldoo.Infrastructure.PhotoEditor.ConvertImageToByteArray(Image imageToConvert) in C:\Users\Ian\SVN\Caldoo\Caldoo.Coordinator\PhotoEditor.cs:line 139 at Caldoo.Web.Controllers.PictureController.Croppable() in C:\Users\Ian\SVN\Caldoo\Caldoo.Web\Controllers\PictureController.cs:line 132 at lambda_method(ExecutionScope , ControllerBase , Object[] ) at System.Web.Mvc.ActionMethodDispatcher.Execute(ControllerBase controller, Object[] parameters) at System.Web.Mvc.ReflectedActionDescriptor.Execute(ControllerContext controllerContext, IDictionary`2 parameters) at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeActionMethod(ControllerContext controllerContext, ActionDescriptor actionDescriptor, IDictionary`2 parameters) at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.<>c__DisplayClassa.<InvokeActionMethodWithFilters>b__7() at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeActionMethodFilter(IActionFilter filter, ActionExecutingContext preContext, Func`1 continuation) InnerException: OK things I have tried so far. Cloning the image and working on that. Retrieving the encoder for that MIME passing that with jpeg quality setting. Please can anyone help.

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  • IIS Flash Remoting Request Limit introduced with Coldfusion 9

    - by ciaranarcher
    Hi all We've just been our Coldfusion servers from Enterprise CF 8.01 to CF 9. They are running Win 2008. We ran into trouble on those servers that provide the Flash remoting back-end for a Flex application we provide. Once the CF 9 upgrade was complete we noticed that during busy times when many Flex clients were connecting, we appeared to have a hard limit of 25 Flash Remoting Requests running, despite having much higher limits (in fact 150) set in CF Admin. Initially we thought that this was an issue with the fact that Blaze DS was now bundled with CF 9 (rather than a separate install) so we decided to roll-back the CF 9 installation. This, unfortunately, didn't work and we were still stuck with out hard limit of 25 Flash Remoting requests. Then looking at IIS we noticed that the CF9 ISAPI filter was still installed (after we had ran the Web Service Configuration part of the install). That was removed and the CF 8 one was re-run and all of a sudden the Flash Remoting hard limit disappeared. So it seems that it might have had something to do with the wsconfig of CF 9 (C:\ColdFusion9\runtime\bin\wsconfig.exe) Has anyone else had this problem, or does anybody know of where these hard limits are configured in IIS? Any and all help appreciated!

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  • can a webservice load jars during run time

    - by KItis
    I have created a simple web-service using Java. i want to load jars related to web-service during runtime. I have done this task for normal Java application. there what I did was JarFile jar = new JarFile(f.getPath()); final Manifest manifest = jar.getManifest(); final Attributes mattr = manifest.getMainAttributes(); // Read the manifset in jar files and get the Name attribute // whare it specified the class that need to load //for (Object a : mattr.keySet()) { for (Iterator iter = mattr.keySet().iterator(); iter.hasNext();) { Object obj = (Object)iter.next(); if ("ServiceName".equals(obj.toString())) className = mattr.getValue((Name) obj); //System.out.println(className); } /* * Create the jar class loader and use the first argument passed * in from the command line as the jar file to use. */ JarClassLoader jarLoader = new JarClassLoader(f.getPath()); /* Load the class from the jar file and resolve it. */ Class c = jarLoader.loadClass(className, true); My problem is can I put jars that need to be loaded during run time in to separate folder rather than putting in to WEBINF folder. do i have to put jars both in axis and web-application. thanks in advance for any contribution for this question.

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