Search Results

Search found 5718 results on 229 pages for 'apply'.

Page 187/229 | < Previous Page | 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194  | Next Page >

• Interactive World Map, highlight countries on mouseover

  - by BrenGG

  I need to create an interactive world map on the front page of a site, the view portal will be about 650x200 pixels. The interactivity would include the following, mouse-over a country would highlight (the countries are will literally be filled with "red" for example) that country and display the countries' name (preferably text in a div), I will also be linking the highlighting event with a that will highlight a country when selected. I am having a difficult time finding a suitable solution, I refuse to use or learn a proprietry technology such as flash so it is not an option. I created a simple mockup using openlayers and a custom map image but the countries' markers load too slowly in IE6. Also svg seems too large, as I tried to use RaphaelJS, but abondoned it when I realised the world map data is 1.2mb which is totally un acceptable for the front page of a site.. I am really at a loss on how I am going to do this, my last resort is to manually create 250+ (however many countries there are) pngs and apply mouseover events to hotspots in the image... but this is probably going to be a dead end too.. desperately seeking a solution, any helpful comments will be appreciated!

  Read the article

• Using XSLT to Find Nodes Given a Set of Parameters

  - by davecardwell

  Sorry about the title—wasn’t sure how to word it. Basically I have some XML like this: <countries> <country handle="bangladesh"/> <country handle="india"/> <country handle="pakistan"/> </countries> And some XSLT like this (which doesn’t work): <xsl:template match="/countries"> <xsl:param name="popular"/> <xsl:apply-templates select="country[count($popular/country[@handle = current()/@handle]) &gt; 0]" /> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="/countries/country"> … </xsl:template> I want to pass in a list of popular destinations like this: <popular> <country handle="india"/> <country handle="pakistan"/> </popular> …to the /countries template and have it only operate on the ones in the $popular param. At the moment this simply does nothing. Changing the selector to country[true()] operates on them all, so at least I know the basic structure is right. Any ideas? I think I may be getting confused by what is currently “current()”.

  Read the article

• How to specialize a type parameterized argument to multiple different types for in Scala?

  - by jmount

  I need a back-check (please). In an article ( http://www.win-vector.com/blog/2010/06/automatic-differentiation-with-scala/ ) I just wrote I stated that it is my belief in Scala that you can not specify a function that takes an argument that is itself a function with an unbound type parameter. What I mean is you can write: def g(f:Array[Double]=>Double,Array[Double]):Double but you can not write something like: def g(f[Y]:Array[Y]=>Double,Array[Double]):Double because Y is not known. The intended use is that inside g() I will specialize fY to multiple different types at different times. You can write: def g[Y](f:Array[Y]=>Double,Array[Double]):Double but then f() is of a single type per call to g() (which is exactly what we do not want). However, you can get all of the equivalent functionality by using a trait extension instead insisting on passing around a function. What I advocated in my article was: 1) Creating a trait that imitates the structure of Scala's Function1 trait. Something like: abstract trait VectorFN { def apply[Y](x:Array[Y]):Y } 2) declaring def g(f:VectorFN,Double):Double (using the trait is the type). This works (people here on StackOverflow helped me find it, and I am happy with it)- but am I mis-representing Scala by missing an even better solution?

  Read the article

• Help me clean up this crazy lambda with the out keyword

  - by Sarah Vessels

  My code looks ugly, and I know there's got to be a better way of doing what I'm doing: private delegate string doStuff( PasswordEncrypter encrypter, RSAPublicKey publicKey, string privateKey, out string salt ); private bool tryEncryptPassword( doStuff encryptPassword, out string errorMessage ) { ...get some variables... string encryptedPassword = encryptPassword(encrypter, publicKey, privateKey, out salt); ... } This stuff so far doesn't bother me. It's how I'm calling tryEncryptPassword that looks so ugly, and has duplication because I call it from two methods: public bool method1(out string errorMessage) { string rawPassword = "foo"; return tryEncryptPassword( (PasswordEncrypter encrypter, RSAPublicKey publicKey, string privateKey, out string salt) => encrypter.EncryptPasswordAndDoStuff( // Overload 1 rawPassword, publicKey, privateKey, out salt ), out errorMessage ); } public bool method2(SecureString unencryptedPassword, out string errorMessage) { return tryEncryptPassword( (PasswordEncrypter encrypter, RSAPublicKey publicKey, string privateKey, out string salt) => encrypter.EncryptPasswordAndDoStuff( // Overload 2 unencryptedPassword, publicKey, privateKey, out salt ), out errorMessage ); } Two parts to the ugliness: I have to explicitly list all the parameter types in the lambda expression because of the single out parameter. The two overloads of EncryptPasswordAndDoStuff take all the same parameters except for the first parameter, which can either be a string or a SecureString. So method1 and method2 are pretty much identical, they just call different overloads of EncryptPasswordAndDoStuff. Any suggestions? Edit: if I apply Jeff's suggestions, I do the following call in method1: return tryEncryptPassword( (encrypter, publicKey, privateKey) => { var result = new EncryptionResult(); string salt; result.EncryptedValue = encrypter.EncryptPasswordAndDoStuff( rawPassword, publicKey, privateKey, out salt ); result.Salt = salt; return result; }, out errorMessage ); Much the same call is made in method2, just with a different first value to EncryptPasswordAndDoStuff. This is an improvement, but it still seems like a lot of duplicated code.

  Read the article

• Unit Testing Private Method in Resource Managing Class (C++)

  - by BillyONeal

  I previously asked this question under another name but deleted it because I didn't explain it very well. Let's say I have a class which manages a file. Let's say that this class treats the file as having a specific file format, and contains methods to perform operations on this file: class Foo { std::wstring fileName_; public: Foo(const std::wstring& fileName) : fileName_(fileName) { //Construct a Foo here. }; int getChecksum() { //Open the file and read some part of it //Long method to figure out what checksum it is. //Return the checksum. } }; Let's say I'd like to be able to unit test the part of this class that calculates the checksum. Unit testing the parts of the class that load in the file and such is impractical, because to test every part of the getChecksum() method I might need to construct 40 or 50 files! Now lets say I'd like to reuse the checksum method elsewhere in the class. I extract the method so that it now looks like this: class Foo { std::wstring fileName_; static int calculateChecksum(const std::vector<unsigned char> &fileBytes) { //Long method to figure out what checksum it is. } public: Foo(const std::wstring& fileName) : fileName_(fileName) { //Construct a Foo here. }; int getChecksum() { //Open the file and read some part of it return calculateChecksum( something ); } void modifyThisFileSomehow() { //Perform modification int newChecksum = calculateChecksum( something ); //Apply the newChecksum to the file } }; Now I'd like to unit test the calculateChecksum() method because it's easy to test and complicated, and I don't care about unit testing getChecksum() because it's simple and very difficult to test. But I can't test calculateChecksum() directly because it is private. Does anyone know of a solution to this problem?

  Read the article

• Is ADO.NET Entity framework database schema update possible?

  - by fyasar

  I'm working on proof of concept application like crm and i need your some advice. My application's data layer completely dynamic and run onto EF 3.5. When the user update the entity, change relation or add new column to the database, first i'm planning make for these with custom classes. After I rebuild my database model layer with new changes during the application runtime. And my model layer tie with tightly coupled to my project for easy reflecting model layer changes (It connected to my project via interfaces and loading onto to application domain in the runtime). I need to create dynamic entities, create entity relations and modify them during the runtime after that i need to create change database script for updating database schema. I know ADO.NET team says "we will be able to provide this property in EF 4.0", but i don't need to wait for them. How can i update database changes during the runtime via EF 3.5 ? For example, i need to create new entity or need to change some entity schema, add new properties or change property types after than how can apply these changes on the physical database schema ? Any ideas ?

  Read the article

• Login in via curl then open that page logged in

  - by user207022

  I'm trying the following code to send post data to the login form, then reload that page in the browser as a logged in user. somehow it's not saving the cookie, and reusing it for the header() function, can the same thing as header be done by calling curl again after sending the login details? .. $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL,$url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION,true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 60); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER , false ); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST , false ); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, $defined_vars['HTTP_USER_AGENT']); //curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, $cookie); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, $cookie); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_MAXREDIRS, 1); // Apply the XML to our curl call curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $data); $data = curl_exec($ch); setcookie($cookie); header('location: ' . $url); die();

  Read the article

• NHibernate unintential lazy property loading

  - by chiccodoro

  I introduced a mapping for a business object which has (among others) a property called "Name": public class Foo : BusinessObjectBase { ... public virtual string Name { get; set; } } For some reason, when I fetch "Foo" objects, NHibernate seems to apply lazy property loading (for simple properties, not associations): The following code piece generates n+1 SQL statements, whereof the first only fetches the ids, and the remaining n fetch the Name for each record: ISession session = ...IQuery query = session.CreateQuery(queryString); ITransaction tx = session.BeginTransaction(); List<Foo> result = new List<Foo>(); foreach (Foo foo in query.Enumerable()) { result.Add(foo); } tx.Commit(); session.Close(); produces: NHibernate: select foo0_.FOO_ID as col_0_0_ from V1_FOO foo0_ NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 81 NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 36470 NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 36473 Similarly, the following code leads to a LazyLoadingException after session is closed: ISession session = ... ITransaction tx = session.BeginTransaction(); Foo result = session.Load<Foo>(id); tx.Commit(); session.Close(); Console.WriteLine(result.Name); Following this post, "lazy properties ... is rarely an important feature to enable ... (and) in Hibernate 3, is disabled by default." So what am I doing wrong? I managed to work around the LazyLoadingException by doing a NHibernateUtil.Initialize(foo) but the even worse part are the n+1 sql statements which bring my application to its knees. This is how the mapping looks like: <class name="Foo" table="V1_FOO"> ... <property name="Name" column="NAME"/> </class> BTW: The abstract "BusinessObjectBase" base class encapsulates the ID property which serves as the internal identifier.

  Read the article

• Created function not found

  - by skerit

  I'm trying to create a simple function, but at runtime firebug says the function does not exist. Here's the function code: <script type="text/javascript"> function load_qtip(apply_qtip_to) { $(apply_qtip_to).each(function(){ $(this).qtip( { content: { // Set the text to an image HTML string with the correct src URL to the loading image you want to use text: '<img class="throbber" src="/projects/qtip/images/throbber.gif" alt="Loading..." />', url: $(this).attr('rel'), // Use the rel attribute of each element for the url to load title: { text: 'Nieuwsbladshop.be - ' + $(this).attr('tooltip'), // Give the tooltip a title using each elements text //button: 'Sluiten' // Show a close link in the title } }, position: { corner: { target: 'bottomMiddle', // Position the tooltip above the link tooltip: 'topMiddle' }, adjust: { screen: true // Keep the tooltip on-screen at all times } }, show: { when: 'mouseover', solo: true // Only show one tooltip at a time }, hide: 'mouseout', style: { tip: true, // Apply a speech bubble tip to the tooltip at the designated tooltip corner border: { width: 0, radius: 4 }, name: 'light', // Use the default light style width: 250 // Set the tooltip width } }) } } </script> And I'm trying to call it here: <script type="text/javascript"> // Create the tooltips only on document load $(document).ready(function() { load_qtip('#shopcarousel a[rel]'); // Use the each() method to gain access to each elements attributes }); </script> What am I doing wrong?

  Read the article

• Synchronizing in SQL Replication works when manually syncing, but not automatically

  - by Dominic Zukiewicz

  I'm using SQL Server 2005 to create a replication copy of the main databases, so that the reports can point to the replication copy instead of locking out our main databases. I have set up the 3 databases as publications and then 3 subscribers moving the transactions over to the subscribers, instantaneously I hope! What seems to be happening is that when using the "Insert Tracer" function, replication take publisher to distributor < 2 seconds, but to replicate to the subscribers can take over 7 minutes (and these are local databases on a SAN). This could be for 2 reasons: The SQL statements used to query the database are obtaining locks which are stopping the transactions updating the subscribers. The subscribers are just too busy for the replication to apply the changes. What seems to trouble me more, is that although the Replication Monitor / Insert Tracer are showing these statistics, if you use the "View Subscription Details" and then click Start, it will sync within seconds. My goal would be to have the data syncing (ideally) continuously, or every minute, perhaps I should reduce the batch size of the transactions? What am I doing wrong? [Note that the -Continuous flag is set!]

  Read the article

• Python CGI Premature end of script error depending on script parameters.

  - by nickengland

  I have a python script which should parse a file and produce some output to disk, as well as returning a webpage linking to the outputted files. When run with a file posted from the HTML form I get no HTML output back, just a 500 error page and the error_log contains the line: [Mon Apr 19 15:03:23 2010] [error] [client xxx.xxx.121.79] Premature end of script headers: uploadcml.py, referer: http://xxx.ch.cam.ac.uk:9000/ However, the files which the script should be saving are indeed saved to disk. If I run it without any arguments, the script returns the correct HTML indicating no file was parsed. All the information I have found on the web about Premature end of script headers implies it is due to either a missing header, or lack of permissions on the python script but neither can apply to me. The first lines of the script are: #!/home/nwe23/bin/bin/python import cgitb; cgitb.enable() import cgi import pybel,openbabel import random print "Content-Type: text/html" print so when run, I can see no way for it to fail to output the header, and it DOES output the header when run without a file to parse, but when given a file produces the error(but still parsed the file and saves the output to disk!). Does anyone know how this is happening and what can be done to fix it? I have tried adding wrongly-indented gibberish (such as foobar) at various points in the file, and this results in adding an indent error to the error_log wherever it is, even if its the very last line in the script. The Premature script headers error remains though. Does this mean the script is executing all the way through?

  Read the article

• C headers: compiler specific vs library specific?

  - by leonbloy

  Is there some clear-cut distinction between standard C *.h header files that are provided by the C compiler, as oppossed to those which are provided by a standard C library? Is there some list, or some standard locations? Motivation: int this answer I got a while ago, regarding a missing unistd.h in the latest TinyC compiler, the author argued that unistd.h (contrarily to sys/unistd.h) should not be provided by the compiler but by your C library. I could not make much sense of that response (for one thing shouldn't that also apply to, say, stdio.h?) but I'm still wondering about it. Is that correct? Where is some authoritative reference for this? Looking in other compilers, I see that other "self contained" POSIX C compilers that are hosted in Windows (like the GCC toolchain that comes with MinGW, in several incarnations; or Digital Mars compiler), include all header files. And in a standard Linux distribution (say, Centos 5.10) I see that the gcc package provides a few header files (eg, stdbool.h, syslimits.h) in /usr/lib/gcc/i386-redhat-linux/4.1.1/include/, and the glibc-headers package provides the majority of the headers in /usr/include/ (including stdio.h, /usr/include/unistd.h and /usr/include/sys/unistd.h). So, in neither case I see support for the above claim.

  Read the article

• Any solution to IE8 bug rendering error when hiding elements?

  - by Magnar

  Bug: when hiding an element with JavaScript in IE8, the margin of still-visible other elements on the side is ignored. This bug has been introduced with IE8, since it works as expected in IE6+7 (and other browsers). <html> <head> <style> #a, #b, #c, #d {background: #ccf; padding: 4px; margin-bottom: 8px;} </style> </head> <body> <div id="a">a</div> <div id="b">b</div> <div id="c">c</div> <div id="d">d</div> <script> setTimeout(function () { document.getElementById("b").style.display = "none"; }, 1000); </script> </body> </html> When running this code, notice how a and c have a margin of 8 between them in normal browsers, but a margin of 0 in IE8. Remove the padding, and IE8 behaves like normal. Remove the timeout and IE8 behaves like normal. A border behaves the same way. I've been working with IE-bugs the last 10 years, but this has me stumped. The solution for now is to wrap the divs, and apply the margin to the outer element and other styles to the inner. But that's reminicent of horrible IE6-workarounds. Any better solutions?

  Read the article

• Actually XSLT Lookup (Store variables during loop and use in it another template)

  - by krisvandenbergh

  Is there a way to store a variable/param during a for-each loop in a sort of array, and use it in another template, namely <xsl:template match="Foundation.Core.Classifier.feature">. All the classname values that appear during the for-each should be stored. How would you implement that in XSLT? Here's my current code. <xsl:for-each select="Foundation.Core.Class"> <xsl:for-each select="Foundation.Core.ModelElement.name"> <xsl:param name="classname"> <xsl:value-of select="Foundation.Core.ModelElement.name"/> </xsl:param> </xsl:for-each> <xsl:apply-templates select="Foundation.Core.Classifier.feature" /> </xsl:for-each> Here's the template in which the classname parameters should be used. <xsl:template match="Foundation.Core.Classifier.feature"> <xsl:for-each select="Foundation.Core.Attribute"> <owl:DatatypeProperty rdf:ID="{Foundation.Core.ModelElement.name}"> <rdfs:domain rdf:resource="$classname" /> </owl:DatatypeProperty> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:template> The input file can be found at http://krisvandenbergh.be/uml_pricing.xml

  Read the article

• UIImageView Centering Problem.

  - by sagar

  To understand my problem let's follow this steps. Open - XCode - New Project - View based application. Open View Controller.xib file. Drag an image-view into viewController's view. Place that image view on center of viewController's view. Apply size of 125x125 to image-view. Take any image with dimension of 320 width & 460 height. Drag that image into your application resources directory. Now, Again back to .xib File & select image-view Set image (which is in your resources) to image-view Set Image-view Mode to - Center Ok. Let me explain the situation now. after performing all above steps - image-view has an image which is larger than image-view's size. However, Image-view places that image on center & in View controller image-view is looking proper ( not scaled ). But When you run your application, image-view will be displayed in size of 320x460. ( but it is not actually scaled. ) Now, I can't find the reason, why interface builder is displaying something else & simulator/iphone is displaying something else ? My Query. I want the image's center portion within image-view no matter what image size is. Thanks in advance for sharing your knowledge. Sagar.

  Read the article

• Align 3 images in a div , left-centre-right, uneven margin

  - by Adrian

  I could find a work around for this if I wanted but it seems wrong and am trying to learn to code in a neater way. Basically I have a div with 3 images in it, the div is 700px, and each image is 220px, So thats 660px with two 20px gaps left and right of the centre image, and the outside images going all the way to their end of the div. Is there a quicker way of doing this without setting up seperate ids for each image? .contentpictureblock { float:left; } .contentpictureblock img { margin-right:20px; } <div class="contentpictureblock"> <img src="http://..."> <img src="http://..."> <img src="http://..."> </div> Doing the above^ pushes the third image to the next line, which is understandable. I know I could always make seperate divs for each image, and adjust the margins for each one but Im just wondering is there a quicker one off overflow type command that I could apply to the above? It would mean the right margin would be on all the images but would have no effect on its positioning in the last image. Thanks for the help.

  Read the article

• Advice needed: cold backup for SQL Server 2008 Express?

  - by Mikey Cee

  What are my options for achieving a cold backup server for SQL Server Express instance running a single database? I have an SQL Server 2008 Express instance in production that currently represents a single point of failure for my application. I have a second physical box sitting at the installation that is currently doing nothing. I want to somehow replicate my database in near real time (a little bit of data loss is acceptable) to the second box. The database is very small and resources are utilized very lightly. In the case that the production server dies, I would manually reconfigure my application to point to the backup server instead. Although Express doesn't support log shipping, I am thinking that I could manually script a poor man's version of it, where I use batch files to take the logs and copy them across the network and apply them to the second server at 5 minute intervals. Does anyone have any advice on whether this is technically achievable, or if there is a better way to do what I am trying to do? Note that I want to avoid having to pay for the full version of SQL Server and configure mirroring as I think it is an overkill for this application. I understand that other DB platforms may present suitable options (eg. a MySQL Cluster), but for the purposes of this discussion, let's assume we have to stick to SQL Server.

  Read the article

• Http authentication with apache httpcomponents

  - by matdan

  Hi, I am trying to develop a java http client with apache httpcomponents 4.0.1. This client calls the page "https://myHost/myPage". This page is protected on the server by a JNDIRealm with a login form authentication, so when I try to get https://myHost/myPage I get a login page. I tried to bypass it unsuccessfully with the following code : //I set my proxy HttpHost proxy = new HttpHost("myProxyHost", myProxyPort); //I add supported schemes SchemeRegistry supportedSchemes = new SchemeRegistry(); supportedSchemes.register(new Scheme("http", PlainSocketFactory .getSocketFactory(), 80)); supportedSchemes.register(new Scheme("https", SSLSocketFactory .getSocketFactory(), 443)); // prepare parameters HttpParams params = new BasicHttpParams(); HttpProtocolParams.setVersion(params, HttpVersion.HTTP_1_1); HttpProtocolParams.setContentCharset(params, "UTF-8"); HttpProtocolParams.setUseExpectContinue(params, true); ClientConnectionManager ccm = new ThreadSafeClientConnManager(params, supportedSchemes); DefaultHttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(ccm, params); httpclient.getParams().setParameter(ConnRoutePNames.DEFAULT_PROXY, proxy); //I add my authentication information httpclient.getCredentialsProvider().setCredentials( new AuthScope("myHost/myPage", 443), new UsernamePasswordCredentials("username", "password")); HttpHost host = new HttpHost("myHost", 443, "https"); HttpGet req = new HttpGet("/myPage"); //show the page ResponseHandler<String> responseHandler = new BasicResponseHandler(); String rsp = httpClient.execute(host, req, responseHandler); System.out.println(rsp); When I run this code, I always get the login page, not myPage. How can I apply my credential parameters to avoid this login form? Any help would be fantastic

  Read the article

• Memeory Leak in Windows Page file when calling a shell command

  - by Arno

  I have an issue on our Windows 2003 x64 Build Server when invoking shell commands from a script. Each call causes a "memory leak" in the page file so it grows quite rapidly until it reaches the maximum and the machine stops working. I can reproduce the problem very nicely by running a perl script like for ($count=1; $count<5000; $count++) { system "echo huhu"; } It is independent of he scripting language as the same happens with lua: for i=1,5000 do os.execute("echo huhu") end I found somebody describing the same issue with php at http://www.issociate.de/board/post/454835/Memory_leak_occurs_when_exec%28%29_function_is_used_on_Windows_platform.html His solution: Firewall/Virus Scanner does not apply, neither are running on the machine. We can also reproduce the issue on other Developer Machines running XP 64, but not on XP 32 Bit. I also found an article describing a leak situation in page file at http://www.programfragment.com/ The guilty guy for the allocation is C:\WINDOWS\System32\svchost.exe -k netsvcs which runs all the basic Windows services. Does anybody know the issue and how to resolve it ?

  Read the article

• How can I shared controller logic in ASP.NET MVC for 2 controllers, where they are overriden

  - by AbeP

  Hello, I am trying to implement user-friendly URLS, while keeping the existing routes, and was able to do so using the ActionName tag on top of my controller (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/436866/can-you-overload-controller-methods-in-asp-net-mvc) I have 2 controllers: ActionName("UserFriendlyProjectIndex")] public ActionResult Index(string projectName) { ... } public ActionResult Index(long id) { ... } Basically, what I am trying to do is I store the user-friendly URL in the database for each project. If the user enters the URL /Project/TopSecretProject/, the action UserFriendlyProjectIndex gets called. I do a database lookup and if everything checks out, I want to apply the exact same logic that is used in the Index action. I am basically trying to avoid writing duplicate code. I know I can separate the common logic into another method, but I wanted to see if there is a built-in way of doing this in ASP.NET MVC. Any suggestions? I tried the following and I go the View could not be found error message: [ActionName("UserFriendlyProjectIndex")] public ActionResult Index(string projectName) { var filteredProjectName = projectName.EscapeString().Trim(); if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filteredProjectName)) return RedirectToAction("PageNotFound", "Error"); using (var db = new PIMPEntities()) { var project = db.Project.Where(p => p.UserFriendlyUrl == filteredProjectName).FirstOrDefault(); if (project == null) return RedirectToAction("PageNotFound", "Error"); return View(Index(project.ProjectId)); } } Here's the error message: The view 'UserFriendlyProjectIndex' or its master could not be found. The following locations were searched: ~/Views/Project/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.aspx ~/Views/Project/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.ascx ~/Views/Shared/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.aspx ~/Views/Shared/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.ascx Project\UserFriendlyProjectIndex.spark Shared\UserFriendlyProjectIndex.spark I am using the SparkViewEngine as the view engine and LINQ-to-Entities, if that helps. thank you!

  Read the article

• Dynamically compose ASP MVC view based on context

  - by robertFall

  I have several views that are composed of several partial views based on context. For example, we have a Project view that shows all the details of a project, which includes the scalar values, name etc, and also all the assigned employees, tasks and/or clients. The problem I have is that certain types of project have all of the above sections while others have only two or even on section, ie. details only. What is the best way to compose the Projects master view? I don't want to have logic to check the project in the view. Is there a way to compose a view in code by programatically rendering the relevant partials and ignoring the rest? Otherwise are there any other ideas how to do this in a maintainable way? I could of course just render the partials using if statements to check if they apply, but that way the view contains VERY important logic. In another situation we want to use this method to display content based on the type of subscription a user has. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Trait, FunctionN, or trait-inheriting-FunctionN in Scala?

  - by Willis Blackburn

  I have a trait in Scala that has a single method. Call it Computable and the single method is compute(input: Int): Int. I can't figure out whether I should Leave it as a standalone trait with a single method. Inherit from (Int = Int) and rename "compute" to "apply." Just get rid of Computable and use (Int = Int). A factor in favor of it being a trait is that I could usefully add some additional methods. But of course if they were all implemented in terms of the compute method then I could just break them out into a separate object. A factor in favor of just using the function type is simplicity and the fact that the syntax for an anonymous function is more concise than that for an anonymous Computable instance. But then I've no way to distinguish objects that are actually Computable instances from other functions that map Int to Int but aren't meant to be used in the same context as Computable. How do other people approach this type of problem? No right or wrong answers here; I'm just looking for advice.

  Read the article

• MySQL SELECT combining 3 SELECTs INTO 1

  - by Martin Tóth

  Consider following tables in MySQL database: entries: creator_id INT entry TEXT is_expired BOOL other: creator_id INT entry TEXT userdata: creator_id INT name VARCHAR etc... In entries and other, there can be multiple entries by 1 creator. userdata table is read only for me (placed in other database). I'd like to achieve a following SELECT result: +------------+---------+---------+-------+ | creator_id | entries | expired | other | +------------+---------+---------+-------+ | 10951 | 59 | 55 | 39 | | 70887 | 41 | 34 | 108 | | 88309 | 38 | 20 | 102 | | 94732 | 0 | 0 | 86 | ... where entries is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM entries GROUP BY creator_id, expired is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM entries WHERE is_expired = 0 GROUP BY creator_id and other is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM other GROUP BY creator_id. I need this structure because after doing this SELECT, I need to look for user data in the "userdata" table, which I planned to do with INNER JOIN and select desired columns. I solved this problem with selecting "NULL" into column which does not apply for given SELECT: SELECT creator_id, COUNT(any_entry) as entries, COUNT(expired_entry) as expired, COUNT(other_entry) as other FROM ( SELECT creator_id, entry AS any_entry, NULL AS expired_entry, NULL AS other_enry FROM entries UNION SELECT creator_id, NULL AS any_entry, entry AS expired_entry, NULL AS other_enry FROM entries WHERE is_expired = 1 UNION SELECT creator_id, NULL AS any_entry, NULL AS expired_entry, entry AS other_enry FROM other ) AS tTemp GROUP BY creator_id ORDER BY entries DESC, expired DESC, other DESC ; I've left out the INNER JOIN and selecting other columns from userdata table on purpose (my question being about combining 3 SELECTs into 1). Is my idea valid? = Am I trying to use the right "construction" for this? Are these kind of SELECTs possible without creating an "empty" column? (some kind of JOIN) Should I do it "outside the DB": make 3 SELECTs, make some order in it (let's say python lists/dicts) and then do the additional SELECTs for userdata? Solution for a similar question does not return rows where entries and expired are 0. Thank you for your time.

  Read the article

• UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character [...]

  - by user1461135

  I have read the HOWTO on Unicode from the official docs and a full, very detailed article as well. Still I don't get it why it throws me this error. Here is what I attempt: I open an XML file that contains chars out of ASCII range (but inside allowed XML range). I do that with cfg = codecs.open(filename, encoding='utf-8, mode='r') which runs fine. Looking at the string with repr() also shows me a unicode string. Now I go ahead and read that with parseString(cfg.read().encode('utf-8'). Of course, my XML file starts with this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?>. Although I suppose it is not relevant, I also defined utf-8 for my python script, but since I am not writing unicode characters directly in it, this should not apply here. Same for the following line: from __future__ import unicode_literals which also is right at the beginning. Next thing I pass the generated Object to my own class where I read tags into variables like this: xmldata.getElementsByTagName(tagName)[0].firstChild.data and assign it to a variable in my class. Now what perfectly works are those commands (obj is an instance of the class): for element in obj: print element And this command does work as well: print obj.__repr__() I defined __iter__() to just yield every variable while __repr__() uses the typical printf stuff: "%s" % self.varname Both commands print perfectly and can output the unicode character. What does not work is this: print obj And now I am stuck because this throws the dreaded UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character u'\xfc' in position 47: So what am I missing? What am I doing wrong? I am looking for a general solution, I always want to handle strings as unicode, just to avoid any possible errors and write a compatible program. Edit: I also defined this: def __str__(self): return self.__repr__() def __unicode__(self): return self.__repr__() From documentation I got that this

  Read the article

• Would making plain int 64-bit break a lot of reasonable code?

  - by R..

  Until recently, I'd considered the decision by most systems implementors/vendors to keep plain int 32-bit even on 64-bit machines a sort of expedient wart. With modern C99 fixed-size types (int32_t and uint32_t, etc.) the need for there to be a standard integer type of each size 8, 16, 32, and 64 mostly disappears, and it seems like int could just as well be made 64-bit. However, the biggest real consequence of the size of plain int in C comes from the fact that C essentially does not have arithmetic on smaller-than-int types. In particular, if int is larger than 32-bit, the result of any arithmetic on uint32_t values has type signed int, which is rather unsettling. Is this a good reason to keep int permanently fixed at 32-bit on real-world implementations? I'm leaning towards saying yes. It seems to me like there could be a huge class of uses of uint32_t which break when int is larger than 32 bits. Even applying the unary minus or bitwise complement operator becomes dangerous unless you cast back to uint32_t. Of course the same issues apply to uint16_t and uint8_t on current implementations, but everyone seems to be aware of and used to treating them as "smaller-than-int" types.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194  | Next Page >