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  • 406 Not Acceptable error when using Jquery $.post in Firefox but not in Safari or Chrome

    - by jlfenaux
    I'm using Jquery (1.3.2) $.post command to trigger an ajax call to a rails server. The code works great on Safari and on Google Chrome (mac), but when I tried it on Firefox (3.5.7), I got a weird '406 Not Acceptable' error. When I look at the headers, it Firefox indicated that it accepted only ' text/javascript' responses. And the response Content-Type was 'text/html; charset=utf-8'. In Chrome the accepted types were 'application/json, text/javascript, /, text/javascript' and the response Content-Type was 'application/json; charset=utf-8'. I tried to force the content type in rails to 'text/javascript' format.json do render :json => @races.to_json, :content_type => 'text/javascript' end The content type is indeed changed in Chrome, but not in Firefox where it remains 'text/html'. Here is the code I used to trigger the ajax call. $.post( "/locator", params, function(data){...}, "json" ); Is there something I can do to make this work in Firefox? Thanks

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  • Getting nice sound from Java

    - by Peter Lang
    I managed to play midi files using Java, but it produces some distracting noise. I figured out that this is caused by the poor quality soundbank file shipped with Java 6 SDK/JRE. How can I improve that quality? Here is what I have so far: MidiNote example using a Receiver works fine (sounds the same as when playing midi files with other players), so it does not seem to use the Soundbank shipped with Java but the fallback mechanism that uses a hardware MIDI port. Using SimpleMidiPlayer example to play a Midi file works, but the quality is poor. When I delete lib/audio/soundbank.gm, the quality is not bad any more, so the fallback is used again. When I put soundbank-deluxe.gm into the same directory, it is used and produces much better sound. Messing with the clients soundbank file as described in the official Installation Instructions certainly isn't an option, so I tried to put the new soundbank-file into the jar-file and load it: Soundbank soundbank = MidiSystem.getSoundbank( getClass().getResourceAsStream("soundbank-deluxe.gm")); if(synthesizer.isSoundbankSupported(soundbank)) { System.out.println(synthesizer.loadAllInstruments(soundbank)); } This prints true, but the sound remains unchanged. What am I doing wrong loading the soundbank file? Can I force the hardware MIDI port to be used instead of the standard soundbank file?

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  • Designing secure consumer blackberry application

    - by Kiran Kuppa
    I am evaluating a requirement for a consumer blackberry application that places high premium on security of user's data. Seems like it is an insurance company. Here are my ideas on how I could go about it. I am sure this would be useful for others who are looking for similar stuff Force the user to use device password. (I am guessing that this would be possible - though not checked it yet). Application can request notifications when the device is about to be locked and just after it has been unlocked. Encryption of application specific data can be managed at those times. Application data would be encrypted with user's password. User's credentials would be encrypted with device password. Remote backup of the data could be done over HTTPS (any better ideas are appreciated) Questions: What if the user forgets his device password. If the user forgets his application password, what is the best and secure way to reset the password? If the user losses the phone, remote backup must be done and the application data must be cleaned up. I have some ideas on how to achieve (3) and shall share them. There must be an off-line verification of the user's identity and the administrator must provide a channel using which the user must be able to send command to the device to perform the wiping of application data. The idea is that the user is ALWAYS in control of his data. Without the user's consent, even the admin must not be able to do activities such as cleaning up the data. In the above scheme of things, it appears as if the user's password need not be sent over the air to server. Am I correct? Thanks, --Kiran Kumar

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  • Is it possible to alternate between two types in an XML Schema

    - by lief79
    I'm wondering if I am missing something obvious. I have a list of numbers, possibly including ranges (think of the print page option of a print dialog). Ideally I'd like to have the final XML output look like this, with page and pageRange in an order. <pages> <page> 1</page> <pageRange><start>3</start><end>6</end></pageRange> <page> 34</page> </pages> What would I have to put into a schema to allow this? From what I saw: Sequence with multiple page and page Range allowed doesn't permit alternation. Choice only allows one or the other. I tried messing with all, but I wasn't getting it to validate properly. My short term solution is to have a sequence of ranges, and to force single numbers into the range, but it seems potentially cumbersome. So am I missing something?

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  • Deployment Setup (.Net) - Search target machine -> Registry search (64 bit)

    - by Joonas Kirsebom
    I have a windows installer project which installs some software (winform, service, mce addin). During the installation I need to search the machine for a registry key. This is done with with the "Launch Condition" - "Add Registry Search" (Deployment Project). I have filled out all the properties right, and checked against the regestry that the value actually can be found. The problem is that the "Registry Search" searches in the x86 part of the registry (HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Wow6432Node\...) although my system is a x64 and the deployment setup is also set to x64. Does anyone know how to force the "Registry Search" to search the x64 registry? Or know about a workaround? The weird thing about this, is that Registry setting in the deployment setup is writing to the right registry (x64). My idea is that the "Registry Search" program is only developed to the x86 architecture, and therefore can't read the right registry. I found this article from microsoft, so it seams that they know about this problem. https://connect.microsoft.com/VisualStudio/feedback/ViewFeedback.aspx?FeedbackID=110105&wa=wsignin1.0#details My system is: Windows 7 64bit Visual Studio 2008

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  • Switch between multiple views while respecting orientation

    - by zoul
    Hello! I have an MVC application with a single model and several views (something like skins). I want the user to be able to switch the views and I can’t get it working with interface orientation. The most simple approach looks like this: - (void) switchToADifferentView: (UIView*) newView { // self is a descendant of UIViewController self.view = newView; } This does not work because the incoming view does not get rotated according to current orientation (until the next orientation change, test case). Is there a way to force the orientation on a view? It looks like the system is trying really hard to keep the interface controls for itself. (Or is it as simple as setting the right transform by hand?) I figured I’d better not switch the views directly and switch controllers instead. This makes sense, as it makes the initial code simpler. But how do I switch controllers that have no “navigation relation” between them? I guess I could use presentModalViewController:, but that seems like a hack. Same goes for navigation controller. If I exchange the controllers by hand, I get the wrong orientation again: - (void) switchToAController: (id) incoming { [currentController.view removeFromSuperview]; [window addSubview:incoming.view]; // does not respect current orientation } Now how the heck do I simply exchange the current controller for another one? Again, the controllers are something like “skins” operating above a shared model, so it really makes no sense to pretend that skin A is a “modal” dialog above skin B or that they’re a part of a navigation stack.

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  • Prototype VS jQuery

    - by aSeptik
    Hi All guys! First of, thank's for your time; then i want go directly to the point by saying that, i don't want to open another "Yet Another Js VS Js" 3d , the web is almost busy of this! I want also make a premise, i have used both theese js frameworks and i love it and i know, that there are a lot of good js frameworks around, maybe better then this two; but, as you know we need to be perfomant and quickly by doing our works, so i want keep this two, that are the most famous and therefore have a great community support! now, if you are going to say me, that the choise depends on what i'm going to do!? then i can think, hey, in the end they are both javascript and they have almost the same methods and functions and for achieve a task they needs almost the same lines of code! So i want hear from you guys, from you that have really used one of theese, for a real Rich Internet Application what are the real points of force and what the weaknesses you find!? Regards.

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  • Core Data - How to check if a managed object's properties have been deallocated?

    - by georryan
    I've created a program that uses core data and it works beautifully. I've since attempted to move all my core data methods calls and fetch routines into a class that is self contained. My main program then instantiates that class and makes some basic method calls into that class, and the class then does all the core data stuff behind the scenes. What I'm running into, is that sometimes I'll find that when I grab a managed object from the context, I'll have a valid object, but its properties have been deallocated, and I'll cause a crash. I've played with the zombies and looked for memory leaks, and what I have gathered is it seems that the run loop is probably responsible for deallocating the memory, but I'm not sure. Is there a way to determine if that memory has been deallocated and force the core data to get it back if I need to access it? My managedObjectContext never gets deallocated, and the fetchedResultsController never does, either. I thought maybe I needed to use the [managedObjectContext refreshObject:mergeData:] method, or the [managedObjectContext setRetainsRegisteredObjects:] method. Although, I'm under the impression that last one may not be the best bet since it will be more memory intensive (from what I understand). These errors only popped up when I moved the core data calls into another class file, and they are random when they show up. Any insight would be appreciated. -Ryan

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  • PocketPC c++ windows message processing recursion problem

    - by user197350
    Hello, I am having a problem in a large scale application that seems related to windows messaging on the Pocket PC. What I have is a PocketPC application written in c++. It has only one standard message loop. while (GetMessage (&msg, NULL, 0, 0)) { { TranslateMessage (&msg); DispatchMessage (&msg); } } We also have standard dlgProc's. In the switch of the dlgProc, we will call a proprietary 3rd party API. This API uses a socket connection to communicate with another process. The problem I am seeing is this: whenever two of the same messages come in quickly (from the user clicking the screen twice too fast and shouldn't be) it seems as though recursion is created. Windows begins processing the first message, gets the api into a thread safe state, and then jumps to process the next (identical ui) message. Well since the second message also makes the API call, the call fails because it is locked. Because of the design of this legacy system, the API will be locked until the recursion comes back out (which also is triggered by the user; so it could be locked the entire working day). I am struggling to figure out exactly why this is happening and what I can do about it. Is this because windows recognizes the socket communication will take time and preempts it? Is there a way I can force this API call to complete before preemption? Is there a way I can slow down the message processing or re-queue the message to ensure the first will execute (capturing it and doing a PostMessage back to itself didnt work). We don't want to lock the ui down while the first call completes. Any insight is greatly appreciated! Thanks!!

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  • Div click and AUTOCOMPLETE password dialog problem

    - by ticky
    And what if you want to autocomplete passwords? I am using similar thing here... I am using Div (id=loginButton) and it has some image - I don't want button control in MVC application (), neither image button. I have hidden input control which is hidden button actually (id=submit_btn). So, on div's (id=loginButton) click, I want to call hidden input control (id=submit_btn) and it's submit action. HTML: <div id="loginButton" > </div> <input type="submit" style="display:none" name="submit" id="submit_btn" /> And JQuery: $(document).ready(function() { $('#loginButton').click(function() { $('#LoginForm').submit(); }); $("form[action$='HandleLoginForm']").submit(function() { Login(); return false; }); return false; }); Function Login() is working with Ajax, without downloading file dialog, but I need also auto complete passwords dialog. function Login() { var urlData = $("#LoginForm").serialize(); if (returnUrl != "") { urlData = $("#LoginForm").serialize() + "&returnUrl=" + returnUrl; } $.ajax({ url: $("#LoginForm").attr("action"), type: "POST", data: urlData, dataType: "json", success: function(result) { if (result.Content != null) { if (result.Valid) { window.location = result.Content.toString(); } else { document.body.innerHTML = result.Content.toString(); } } } }); return false; } It is easy when you use only <input type="submit"> instead of DIV. Form knows that it is for auto completing passwords, but if I use div and force hidden button click like in the code from below, it doesn't show autocomplete password dialog. $('#submit_btn').click(); It will not work. User is logged in, but no reminding for browser to store password. I need this.

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  • Eclipse+PyDev+GAE memcache error

    - by bocco
    I've started using Eclipe+PyDev as an environment for developing my first app for Google App Engine. Eclipse is configured according to this tutorial. Everything was working until I start to use memcache. PyDev reports the errors and I don't know how to fix it: Error: Undefined variable from import: get How to fix this? Sure, it is only PyDev checker problem. Code is correct and run on GAE. UPDATE: I'm using PyDev 1.5.0 but experienced the same with 1.4.8. My PYTHONPATH includes (set in Project Properties/PyDev - PYTHONPATH): C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\lib\django C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\lib\webob C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\lib\yaml\lib UPDATE 2: I took a look at C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\api\memcache\__init__.py and found get() is not declared as memcache module function. They use the following trick to do that (I didn't hear about such possibility): _CLIENT = None def setup_client(client_obj): """Sets the Client object instance to use for all module-level methods. Use this method if you want to have customer persistent_id() or persistent_load() functions associated with your client. Args: client_obj: Instance of the memcache.Client object. """ global _CLIENT var_dict = globals() _CLIENT = client_obj var_dict['set_servers'] = _CLIENT.set_servers var_dict['disconnect_all'] = _CLIENT.disconnect_all var_dict['forget_dead_hosts'] = _CLIENT.forget_dead_hosts var_dict['debuglog'] = _CLIENT.debuglog var_dict['get'] = _CLIENT.get var_dict['get_multi'] = _CLIENT.get_multi var_dict['set'] = _CLIENT.set var_dict['set_multi'] = _CLIENT.set_multi var_dict['add'] = _CLIENT.add var_dict['add_multi'] = _CLIENT.add_multi var_dict['replace'] = _CLIENT.replace var_dict['replace_multi'] = _CLIENT.replace_multi var_dict['delete'] = _CLIENT.delete var_dict['delete_multi'] = _CLIENT.delete_multi var_dict['incr'] = _CLIENT.incr var_dict['decr'] = _CLIENT.decr var_dict['flush_all'] = _CLIENT.flush_all var_dict['get_stats'] = _CLIENT.get_stats setup_client(Client()) Hmm... Any idea how to force PyDev to recognize that?

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  • How can I do such a typical unittest?

    - by Malcom.Z
    This is a simple structure in my project: MyAPP--- note--- __init__.py views.py urls.py test.py models.py auth-- ... template--- auth--- login.html register.html note--- noteshow.html media--- css--- ... js--- ... settings.py urls.py __init__.py manage.py I want to make a unittest which can test the noteshow page working propeyly or not. The code: from django.test import TestCase class Note(TestCase): def test_noteshow(self): response = self.client.get('/note/') self.assertEqual(response.status_code, 200) self.assertTemplateUsed(response, '/note/noteshow.html') The problem is that my project include an auth mod, it will force the unlogin user redirecting into the login.html page when they visit the noteshow.html. So, when I run my unittest, in the bash it raise an failure that the response.status_code is always 302 instead of 200. All right though through this result I can check the auth mod is running well, it is not like what I want it to be. OK, the question is that how can I make another unittest to check my noteshow.template is used or not? Thanks for all. django version: 1.1.1 python version: 2.6.4 Use Eclipse for MAC OS

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  • C# string.Split() Matching Both Slashes?

    - by Sheep Slapper
    I've got a .NET 3.5 web application written in C# doing some URL rewriting that includes a file path, and I'm running into a problem. When I call string.Split('/') it matches both '/' and '\' characters. Is that... supposed to happen? I assumed that it would notice that the ASCII values were different and skip it, but it appears that I'm wrong. // url = 'someserver.com/user/token/files\subdir\file.jpg string[] buffer = url.Split('/'); The above code gives a string[] with 6 elements in it... which seems counter intuitive. Is there a way to force Split() to match ONLY the forward slash? Right now I'm lucky, since the offending slashes are at the end of the URL, I can just concatenate the rest of the elements in the string[], but it's a lot of work for what we're doing, and not a great solution to the underlying problem. Anyone run into this before? Have a simple answer? I appreciate it!

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  • As a newbie, where should I go if I want to create a small GUI program?

    - by jimbmk
    Hello, I'm a newbie with a little experience writing in BASIC, Python and, of all things, a smidgeon of assembler (as part of a videogame ROM hack). I wanted to create small tool for modifying the hex values at particular points, in a particular file, that would have a GUI interface. What I'm looking for is the ability to create small GUI program, that I can distribute as an EXE (or, at least a standalone directory). I'm not keen on the idea of the .NET languages, because I don't want to force people to download a massive .NET framework package. I currently have Python with IDLE and Boa Constructor set up, and the application runs there. I've tried looking up information on compiling a python app that relies on Wxwidgets, but the search results and the information I've found has been confusing, or just completely incomprehensible. My questions are: Is python a good language to use for this sort of project? If I use Py2Exe, will WxWidgets already be included? Or will my users have to somehow install WxWidgets on their machines? Am I right in thinking at Py2Exe just produces a standalone directory, 'dist', that has the necessary files for the user to just double click and run the application? If the program just relies upon Tkinter for GUI stuff, will that be included in the EXE Py2Exe produces? If so, are their any 'visual' GUI builders / IDEs for Python with only Tkinter? Thankyou for your time, JBMK

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  • How to deploy RSWebParts.cab manually?

    - by denni
    I'm using the SSRS 2005 Web parts to display my reports in a MOSS 2007 SP1 Portal. I have successfully installed the Web parts in my development, testing, and UAT servers using the following command: stsadm -o addwppack -filename path/to/RSWebParts.cab. But when I tried running the same command in the production server, it will give me the following error: This solution contains no resources scoped for a Web application and cannot be deployed to a particular Web application. I know I usually will get this kind of error message when I tried to deploy my custom solutions having no Web application resources (such as web.config entries) to a specific Web application. But this is not my custom solution, it is an out-of-the-box SSRS Web part and it does have resources scoped to a Web application. I tried to even use different combination of the command by providing the -url, -globalinstall, and -force switches but it still give the same error. The configuration of the 4 servers are exactly the same, both from software and hardware perspectives. All other features are working properly on the production server. I even tried to extract the cab file manually to the bin folder of my Web application, then modify the Web.config manually to include the SafeControl element (copied from the manifest.xml inside the cab file). But it gave me an error saying it couldn't find the resources file. Even though, I extracted the whole file, including the resource files in the bin folder. Is there anyone who can help me resolve the problem? Thanks a lot.

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  • Can I ignore a SIGFPE resulting from division by zero?

    - by Mikeage
    I have a program which deliberately performs a divide by zero (and stores the result in a volatile variable) in order to halt in certain circumstances. However, I'd like to be able to disable this halting, without changing the macro that performs the division by zero. Is there any way to ignore it? I've tried using #include <signal.h> ... int main(void) { signal(SIGFPE, SIG_IGN); ... } but it still dies with the message "Floating point exception (core dumped)". I don't actually use the value, so I don't really care what's assigned to the variable; 0, random, undefined... EDIT: I know this is not the most portable, but it's intended for an embedded device which runs on many different OSes. The default halt action is to divide by zero; other platforms require different tricks to force a watchdog induced reboot (such as an infinite loop with interrupts disabled). For a PC (linux) test environment, I wanted to disable the halt on division by zero without relying on things like assert.

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  • Embedding/deploying custom font in .NET app

    - by Swingline Rage
    Is there an official way to distribute (deploy) a specific font with a .NET application? We have a (public domain) "LED font" that prints numbers with the retro LED instrumentface look. This is a standard True Type or Open Type font like any other except it looks funky. Obviously for that to work, this font needs to be on the user's machine. But we'd prefer to not force the user to "install our special font into your font folder". We'd prefer to either load a Font object directly from the TTF, or programatically install the font so it's available. How do applications handle this sort of things? Eg, I notice Adobe XYZ installs various fonts on the system without user intervention. That's what we'd like to do. EDIT: okay, ideally, we'd prefer not to install the font directly. We don't want our nifty themed LED font showing up in the user's font dropdown in MS Word. We'd prefer to use this font, but restrict its use or appearance to our app. Any way to do this? Thanks!

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  • Java: attributes order in .jsp getting inversed

    - by NoozNooz42
    Every single time I've read about the meta tags, the attribute where in this order for the description: <meta name="description" content="..." /> First name, then content. It's also like that in the Google Webmaster documentation. Basically, it's like that everywhere. Now in a .jsp (in XML notation) I've got the following: <meta name="description" content="${metadesc}"/> So it's name first, then content. Yet on the generated webpage, I get this: <meta content="...(200 chars or so here making it a very long line)..." name="description"/> Somehow the attributes have been inversed. Because the content follows the official W3C and Google recommendations, the content is a bit less than 200 characters long, which makes it a major pain to "visually verify" that the name attribute is correctly there (I've got to scroll). Anyway... Why are these attribute not appearing in the order defined in the .jsp? Can I force them to appear in the same order as I wrote them in my .jsp? I realize the resulting tag may be valid... But I can also imagine a lot of very creative ways to have valid tags which users would be very upset about. Does this make any sense to inverse these attributes? EDIT wow, just wow... If I invert the attributes in my .jsp (that is, writing them in the "wrong" order), then they appear as I want them to appear in the generated web page. (Tomcat 6.0.26 btw)

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  • Multiple, Simultaneous Factories and Protocols in Twisted: Same Service, Different Ports

    - by RichardCroasher
    Greetings, Forum. I'm working on a program in Python that uses Twisted to manage networking. The basis of this program is a TCP service that is to listen for connections on multiple ports. However, instead of using one Twisted factory to handle a protocol object for each port, I am trying to use a separate factory for each port. The reason for this is to force a separation among the groups of clients connecting to the different ports. Unfortunately, it appears that this architecture isn't quite working: clients that connect to one port appear to be available among all the factories (e.g., the protocol class used by each factory includes a 'self.factory.clients.append (self)' statement...instead of adding a given client to just the factory for a particular port, the client is added to all factories), and whenever I shutdown service on one port the listeners on all ports also stop. I've been working with Twisted for a short while, and fear I simply don't fully understand how its factory classes are managed. My question is: is it simply not possible to have multiple, simultaneous instances of the same factory and same protocol in use across different ports (without these instances stepping on each other's toes)?

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  • Close application on error

    - by poke
    I’m currently writing an application for the Android platform that requires a mounted SD card (or ExternalStorage). I know that it might not be the best way to require something like that, but the application will work with quite a lot of data, and I don’t even want to think about storing that on the device’s storage. Anyway, to ensure that the application won’t run without the external storage, I do a quick check in the activity’s onCreate method. If the card is not mounted, I want to display an error message and then quit the application. My current approach looks like this: public void onCreate ( Bundle savedInstanceState ) { super.onCreate( savedInstanceState ); setContentView( R.layout.main ); try { // initialize data storage // will raise an exception if it fails, or the SD card is not mounted // ... } catch ( Exception e ) { AlertDialog.Builder builder = new AlertDialog.Builder( this ); builder .setMessage( "There was an error: " + e.getMessage() ) .setCancelable( false ) .setNeutralButton( "Ok.", new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { public void onClick ( DialogInterface dialog, int which ) { MyApplication.this.finish(); } } ); AlertDialog error = builder.create(); error.show(); return; } // continue ... } When I run the application, and the exception gets raised (I raise it manually to check if everything works), the error message is displayed correctly. However when I press the button, the application closes and I get an Android error, that the application was closed unexpectedly (and I should force exit). I read some topics before on closing an application, and I know that it maybe shouldn’t happen like that. But how should I instead prevent the application from continuing to run? How do you close the application correctly when an error occurs?

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  • Avoid the problem with BigDecimal when migrating to Java 1.4 to Java 1.5+

    - by romaintaz
    Hello, I've recently migrated a Java 1.4 application to a Java 6 environment. Unfortunately, I encountered a problem with the BigDecimal storage in a Oracle database. To summarize, when I try to store a "7.65E+7" BigDecimal value (76,500,000.00) in the database, Oracle stores in reality the value of 7,650,000.00. This defect is due to the rewritting of the BigDecimal class in Java 1.5 (see here). In my code, the BigDecimal was created from a double using this kind of code: BigDecimal myBD = new BigDecimal("" + someDoubleValue); someObject.setAmount(myBD); // Now let Hibernate persists my object in DB... In more than 99% of the cases, everything works fine. Except that in really few case, the bug mentioned above occurs. And that's quite annoying. If I change the previous code to avoid the use of the String constructor of BigDecimal, then I do not encounter the bug in my uses cases: BigDecimal myBD = new BigDecimal(someDoubleValue); someObject.setAmount(myBD); // Now let Hibernate persists my object in DB... However, how can I be sure that this solution is the correct way to handle the use of BigDecimal? So my question is to know how I have to manage my BigDecimal values to avoid this issue: Do not use the new BigDecimal(String) constructor and use directly the new BigDecimal(double)? Force Oracle to use toPlainString() instead of toString() method when dealing with BigDecimal (and in this case how to do that)? Any other solution? Environment information: Java 1.6.0_14 Hibernate 2.1.8 (yes, it is a quite old version) Oracle JDBC 9.0.2.0 and also tested with 10.2.0.3.0 Oracle database 10.2.0.3.0

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  • Exception Handling in ASP.NET MVC and Ajax - [HandleException] filter

    - by Graham
    All, I'm learning MVC and using it for a business app (MVC 1.0). I'm really struggling to get my head around exception handling. I've spent a lot of time on the web but not found anything along the lines of what I'm after. We currently use a filter attribute that implements IExceptionFilter. We decorate a base controller class with this so all server side exceptions are nicely routed to an exception page that displays the error and performs logging. I've started to use AJAX calls that return JSON data but when the server side implementation throws an error, the filter is fired but the page does not redirect to the Error page - it just stays on the page that called the AJAX method. Is there any way to force the redirect on the server (e.g. a ASP.NET Server.Transfer or redirect?) I've read that I must return a JSON object (wrapping the .NET Exception) and then redirect on the client, but then I can't guarantee the client will redirect... but then (although I'm probably doing something wrong) the server attempts to redirect but then gets an unauthorised exception (the base controller is secured but the Exception controller is not as it does not inherit from this) Has anybody please got a simple example (.NET and jQuery code). I feel like I'm randomly trying things in the hope it will work Exception Filter so far... public class HandleExceptionAttribute : FilterAttribute, IExceptionFilter { #region IExceptionFilter Members public void OnException(ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (filterContext.ExceptionHandled) { return; } filterContext.Controller.TempData[CommonLookup.ExceptionObject] = filterContext.Exception; if (filterContext.HttpContext.Request.IsAjaxRequest()) { filterContext.Result = AjaxException(filterContext.Exception.Message, filterContext); } else { //Redirect to global handler filterContext.Result = new RedirectToRouteResult(new RouteValueDictionary(new { controller = AvailableControllers.Exception, action = AvailableActions.HandleException })); filterContext.ExceptionHandled = true; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); } } #endregion private JsonResult AjaxException(string message, ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(message)) { message = "Server error"; //TODO: Replace with better message } filterContext.HttpContext.Response.StatusCode = (int)HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.TrySkipIisCustomErrors = true; //Needed for IIS7.0 return new JsonResult { Data = new { ErrorMessage = message }, ContentEncoding = Encoding.UTF8, }; } }

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  • Why is a CoreData forceFetch required after a delete on the iPad but not the iPhone?

    - by alyoshak
    When the following code is run on the iPhone the count of fetched objects after the delete is one less than before the delete. But on the iPad the count remains the same. This inconsistency was causing a crash on the iPad because elsewhere in the code, soon after the delete, fetchedObjects is called and the calling code, trusting the count, attempts access to the just-deleted object's properties, resulting in a NSObjectInaccessibleException error (see below). A fix has been to use that commented-out call to performFetch, which when executed makes the second call to fetchObjects yield the same result as on the iPhone without it. My question is: Why is the iPad producing different results than the iPhone? This is the second of these differences that I've discovered and posted recently. -(NSError*)deleteObject:(NSManagedObject*)mo; { NSLog(@"\n\nNum objects in store before delete: %i\n\n", [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchedObjects] count]); [self.managedObjectContext deleteObject:mo]; // Save the context. NSError *error = nil; if (![self.managedObjectContext save:&error]) { } // [self.fetchedResultsController performFetch:&error]; // force a fetch NSLog(@"\n\nNum objects in store after delete (and save): %i\n\n", [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchedObjects] count]); return error; } (The full NSObjectInaccessibleException is: "Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSObjectInaccessibleException', reason: 'CoreData could not fulfill a fault for '0x1dcf90 <x-coredata://DC02B10D-555A-4AB8-8BC4-F419C4982794/Blueprint/p"

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  • How to develop JSP/Servlets Web App using MVC pattern?

    - by A.S al-shammari
    I'm developing a JSP/Servlets web app (no frameworks). I want to use MVC pattern. I designed my project like this : Controller :a servlet that reads a request, extracts the values,communicates with model objects and gives information to a JSP page. View : JSP Pages. Model : Java Classes / Java Beans .. etc . The problem : Index.jsp is the starting point (default page) in my web site. So, the Index.jsp becomes the controller to parse the request! .For example , the following request : index.jsp?section=article&id=10 parsed in index.jsp as following : <div class="midcol"> <!-- Which section? --> <%String fileName = request.getParameter("section"); if (fileName == null) { fileName = "WEB-INF/jspf/frontpage.jsp"; } else { fileName = "WEB-INF/jspf/" + fileName + ".jsp"; } %> <jsp:include page='<%= fileName%>' /> </div> Here, I can't force the servlet to be a controller .. because the index.jsp is the controller here since it's the starting point! Is there any solution to forward the request from index.jsp to the servlet and then go back to index.jsp ? Or any solution that achieves the MVC goal - the servlet should be the controller - ? I'm thinking of making a FrontPageController servlet as default page instead of index.jsp ! but I don't know if it's a perfect idea ?!

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  • Scheduling of tasks to a single resource using Prolog

    - by Reed Debaets
    I searched through here as best I could and though I found some relevant questions, I don't think they covered the question at hand: Assume a single resource and a known list of requests to schedule a task. Each request includes a start_after, start_by, expected_duration, and action. The goal is to schedule the tasks for execution as soon as possible while keeping each task scheduled between start_after and start_by. I coded up a simple prolog example that I "thought" should work but I've been unfortunately getting errors during run time: "=/2: Arguments are not sufficiently instantiated". Any help or advice would be greatly appreciated startAfter(1,0). startAfter(2,0). startAfter(3,0). startBy(1,100). startBy(2,500). startBy(3,300). duration(1,199). duration(2,199). duration(3,199). action(1,'noop1'). action(2,'noop2'). action(3,'noop3'). can_run(R,T) :- startAfter(R,TA),startBy(R,TB),T>=TA,T=<TB. conflicts(T,R1,T1) :- duration(R1,D1),T=<D1+T1,T>T1. schedule(R1,T1,R2,T2,R3,T3) :- can_run(R1,T1),\+conflicts(T1,R2,T2),\+conflicts(T1,R3,T3), can_run(R2,T2),\+conflicts(T2,R1,T1),\+conflicts(T2,R3,T3), can_run(R3,T3),\+conflicts(T3,R1,T1),\+conflicts(T3,R2,T2). % when traced I *should* see T1=0, T2=400, T3=200 Edit: conflicts goal wasn't quite right: needed extra TT1 clause. Edit: Apparently my schedule goal works if I supply valid Request,Time pairs ... but I'm stucking trying to force prolog to find valid values for T1..3 when given R1..3?

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