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  • Apache RewriteRule: it is possible to 'detect' the first and second path segment?

    - by DaNieL
    Im really really a newbie in regexp and I can’t figure out how to do that. My goal is to have the RewriteRule to 'slice' the request URL path in 3 parts: example.com/foo #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=&c= example.com/foo/bar #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=bar&c= example.com/foo/bar/baz #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=bar&c=baz example.com/foo/bar/baz/bee #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=bar&c=baz/bee example.com/foo/bar/baz/bee/apple #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=bar&c=baz/bee/apple example.com/foo/bar/baz/bee/apple/and/whatever/else/no/limit/in/those/extra/parameters #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=bar&c=baz/bee/apple/and/whatever/else/no/limit/in/those/extra/parameters In short, the first segment in the URL path (foo) should be given to a, the second segment (bar) to b, and the rest of the string in c I wroted this one <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !=/favicon.ico RewriteRule ^(([a-z0-9/]))?(([a-z0-9/]+))?(([a-z0-9]+))(.*)$ index.php?a=$1&b=$2&c=$3 [L,QSA] </IfModule> But obviously doesn’t work, and I don’t even know if what I want is possible. Any suggestion? EDIT: After playing with coach manager, I got this one working too: RewriteRule ^([^/]*)?/?([^/]*)?/?(.*)?$ index.php?a=$1&b=$2&c=$3 [L,QSA]

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  • Divide and conquer of large objects for GC performance

    - by Aperion
    At my work we're discussing different approaches to cleaning up a large amount of managed ~50-100MB memory.There are two approaches on the table (read: two senior devs can't agree) and not having the experience the rest of the team is unsure of what approach is more desirable, performance or maintainability. The data being collected is many small items, ~30000 which in turn contains other items, all objects are managed. There is a lot of references between these objects including event handlers but not to outside objects. We'll call this large group of objects and references as a single entity called a blob. Approach #1: Make sure all references to objects in the blob are severed and let the GC handle the blob and all the connections. Approach #2: Implement IDisposable on these objects then call dispose on these objects and set references to Nothing and remove handlers. The theory behind the second approach is since the large longer lived objects take longer to cleanup in the GC. So, by cutting the large objects into smaller bite size morsels the garbage collector will processes them faster, thus a performance gain. So I think the basic question is this: Does breaking apart large groups of interconnected objects optimize data for garbage collection or is better to keep them together and rely on the garbage collection algorithms to processes the data for you? I feel this is a case of pre-optimization, but I do not know enough of the GC to know what does help or hinder it.

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  • Extensionless URLs in IIS 6

    - by Jason Marsell
    My client has asked me to build a personalized URL system so that they can send out really short URLs in postcards to customers like this: www.client.com/JasonSmith03 www.client.com/TonyAdams With these URLs, I need IIS 6 to trap the incoming request and pass that “JasonSmith03” token to my database to determine which landing page to redirect them to. I’d love to use an HttpHandler or HttpModule but they both look like they require an file extension (.aspx) in the URL. Wildcard mapping will chew up every incoming request and that’s ridiculous. ISAPI filters are just text routing files, so I can’t employ logic to call the database. According to Scott Guthrie, this would be cake if I had IIS 7, but I don’t. Can this be done using MVC? I’ve been working with MVP for the last few years, so I haven’t done any MVC and routing. I thought I remembered that MVC has the ability to use REST-style extensionless URLs. I’d be more than happy to have these personalized URLs land on a site that’s built in MVC, if it will work. Thank you!

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  • Please take a stab at this VB.Net Oracle-related sample and help me with String.Format.

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    If the database is not Oracle, it is MS SQl 2008. My task: if Oracle, add two more parameters when calling a stored proc. Oracle and MSFT stored procs are generated; Oracle ones have 3 extra parameters: Vret_val out number, Vparam2 in out number, Vparam3 in out number, ... the rest (The are not actually named Vparam2 and Vparam3, but this should not matter). So, the code for a helper VB.Net class that calls a stored proc: Imports System.Data.Odbc Imports System.Configuration Dim objCon As OdbcConnection = Nothing Dim objAdapter As OdbcDataAdapter Dim cmdCommand As New OdbcCommand Dim objDataTable As DataTable Dim sconnection As String Try sconnection = mConnectionString objAdapter = New OdbcDataAdapter objCon = New OdbcConnection(sconnection) objCon.Open() objAdapter.SelectCommand = cmdCommand objAdapter.SelectCommand.Connection = objCon objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandTimeout = Globals.mReportTimeOut If Not mIsOracle Then objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandText = String.Format("{{call {0}}}", spName) Else Dim returnValue As New OdbcParameter returnValue.Direction = ParameterDirection.Output returnValue.ParameterName = "@Vret_val" returnValue.OdbcType = OdbcType.Numeric objAdapter.SelectCommand.Parameters.Add(returnValue) objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandText = String.Format("{{call {0}(?)}}", spName) End If Try objDataTable = New DataTable(spName) objAdapter.Fill(objDataTable) Catch ex As Exception ... Question: I am puzzled as to what String.Format("{{call {0}(?)}}", spName) does, in particular the (?) part. My understanding of the String.Format is that it will simply replace {0} with spName. The {{, }}, and (?) do throw me off because { reminds me of formatting, (?) hints at some advanced regex use. Unfortunately I am getting little help from a key person who is on vacation without a leash [smart]phone. I am guessing that I simply add 5 more lines for each additional parameter, and change String.Format("{{call {0}(?)}}", spName) to String.Format("{{call {0}(?,?,?)}}", spName). I forgot to mention that I am coding this "blindly" - I have a compiler to help me, but no environment set up to test this. This will be over in a few days, but I need to do my best to try finishing it on time :) Thanks.

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  • HTML5 Shiv not parsing quick enough

    - by Mikey Hogarth
    One of our web designers is working on a site at the moment and is using HTML5 elements, which she styles up in older browsers using the well documented Html5Shiv; http://css-tricks.com/html5-innershiv/ She reported some pretty weird behavior today and it looks like this is the cause. Initially it was very confusing, and went something along the lines of; "The page looks fine, I refresh it looks fine, refresh several times and occasionally it will not apply my styles to the HTML5 elements" Current best theory is that the shiv is not kicking in quick enough, and the page loads before the new elements have been registered. I was wondering if anyone could suggest a surefire way of including the shiv and making sure it's loaded and been parsed BEFORE the rest of the elements, so they will definitely get styled. EDIT (more info) Shiv is being included in the head, directly below the title/meta tags; <!--[if IE]> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://html5shiv.googlecode.com/svn/trunk/html5.js"></script> <![endif]--> The bit that is being styled is in the footer and is cross-site. Many of the pages will change in size as they're being powered by a CMS that our marketing team will use so I am unable to give an exact page size. All I would say is that if page size is an issue and there is no workaround, can someone let me know as this will mean we basically can't use HTML5 on this project (or at the very least we'll need to add superflous markup such as divs to ensure that the layout doesn't go crazy) EDIT 2 There is no chance of me posting the code unfortunately - it's only re-creatable under really obscure circumstances and the project is marked "top secret" at the moment :( If nobody knows then I'm guessing it's either a case of "everyone knows it happens but kinda ignores it" or just that it's something else other than the shiv.

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  • Can I interrupt javascript code and then continue on a keystroke?

    - by Brian Ramsay
    I am porting an old game from C to Javascript. I have run into an issue with display code where I would like to have the main game code call display methods without having to worry about how those status messages are displayed. In the original code, if the message is too long, the program just waits for the player to toggle through the messages with the spacebar and then continues. This doesn't work in javascript, because while I wait for an event, all of the other program code continues. I had thought to use a callback so that further code can execute when the player hits the designated key, but I can't see how that will be viable with a lot of calls to display.update(msg) scattered throughout the code. Can I architect things differently so the event-based, asynchronous model works, or is there some other solution that would allow me to implement a more traditional event loop? Am I making sense? Example: // this is what the original code does, but obviously doesn't work in Javascript display = { update : function(msg) { // if msg is too long // wait for user input // ok, we've got input, continue } }; // this is more javascript-y... display = { update : function(msg, when_finished) { // show part of the message $(document).addEvent('keydown', function(e) { // display the rest of the message when_finished(); }); } }; // but makes for amazingly nasty game code do_something(param, function() { // in case do_something calls display I have to // provide a callback for everything afterwards // this happens next, but what if do_the_next_thing needs to call display? // I have to wait again do_the_next_thing(param, function() { // now I have to do this again, ad infinitum } }

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  • Using nohup mysqldump from php script is inserting a '!' and breaking to a new line.

    - by Aglystas
    I'm trying to run a mysqldump from php using the nohup command to prevent the script from hanging. Here's the command (The database is mc6_erik_test, everything else is just a table list until you get to the end) exec("mysqldump -u root -pPassword -h vfmy1-dev.mountainmedia.com mc6_erik_test access_log admin affiliate affiliate_2_product authorized_ip category category_2_product claim_code claim_code_log country_exclude customer customer_2_subscription customer_account_log customer_address customer_bill customer_discount customer_ip customer_key email_bulk_log email_draft email_queue email_queue_log email_template endicia_log gift_wrap image_bulk_upload log mailing_list manufacturer merchant merchant_checkout merchant_ip merchant_ship merchant_ship_conf new_account_temp order_dest order_item order_item_2_dest order_item_2_package order_item_log order_item_registrant order_note order_package order_package_label orders package package_2_product pref product product_2_supplier product_also product_event_date product_image product_option product_related product_review product_review_helpful product_ship_disable report search_log subscription supplier temp_product transaction_account transactions wish_list wish_list_fill wish_list_item --opt --where='merchant_id=\'6\'' /tmp/sync_db_card_20100519105358.sql"); As you can see it's really long, because I have to specifically include only the tables I want to dump. The command works great from the command line, however when I run it through a web script towards the end the following is being used as the command... supplier temp_product transaction_account transactio! ns wish_list wish_list_fill wish_list_item --opt --where='merchant_id="6"' > /tmp/sync_db_card_20100519105358.sql So the table 'transactions' is being split by an exclamation point and newline. The rest of the command is exactly the same. And if I run this through the php-cli interface it doesn't happen only when I try running it via the webserver using nohup. I'm wondering if there is some inherit string length to using the exec command within a php script, or really if anyone has any general idea what is going on here.

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  • Center a TextBox over the top of a ScrollViewer in WPF.

    - by Eric
    I have a MainView that contains a navigation bar which selects one of many XAML pages to be displayed in the page view pane. The MainView contains a ScrollViewer around the pages. This allows the pages to be whatever size they need to be and the MainView's ScrollViewer scrolls them. This all works great. On one of the pages, I need to (sometimes) center a TextBox in the middle of the page view pane (over the top of the page content). This was easily done by placing both the page content and the TextBox overlapping each other in a Grid (and I hide the TextBox as necessary). This all seems to work great. However, if the page content grows to be larger than the pane, the TextBox is centered not on the pane, but on the full page content. Thus, it moves from center screen down and/or to the right (and eventually off the screen). Bummer. Options: Remove the ScrollViewer from the MainView. This would require placing one on every page! Argh. Do option #1, and create a ScrolledPage base class. This is a lot of work, and I'm worried about tools issues (Blend issues). It also requires changing every page (to subclass this page). Somehow override the ScrollViewer on just this page. Then, place another ScrollViewer on the page content to Scroll it. Option 3 seems preferable, because it contains the issue to just modifying this page (instead of changing the rest of the pages). However, I can't figure out how to do it. Ideas? Thanks in advance! Eric

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  • Transmission and verification of certificate (openssl) with socket in c

    - by allenzzzxd
    Hello, guys, I have to write these codes in c. I have already generate the certificate of one terminate t1: t1.pem, which is generated by openssl. The communication between the terminates t1 and t2 has been established via socket in c. Now I want to send this certificate to another terminate t2.and I want t2 to receive the certificate, verify it and answer with an acceptance to t1. When t1 get this acceptance, it will the rest of stuffs.. But I don't know how to do these things. For example, I transmit t1.pem as a string? But in t2 side, how can I do to verify? I know there are functions in openssl to do so, but I'm not so clear about it. At last, normally, the acceptance should be like how? @[email protected] lot of questions here.. sorry...if someone could give me some guide.. Thanks a lot in advance!

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  • Is it safe to use random Unicode for complex delimiter sequences in strings?

    - by ccomet
    Question: In terms of program stability and ensuring that the system will actually operate, how safe is it to use chars like ¦, § or ‡ for complex delimiter sequences in strings? Can I reliable believe that I won't run into any issues in a program reading these incorrectly? I am working in a system, using C# code, in which I have to store a fairly complex set of information within a single string. The readability of this string is only necessary on the computer side, end-users should only ever see the information after it has been parsed by the appropriate methods. Because some of the data in these strings will be collections of variable size, I use different delimiters to identify what parts of the string correspond to a certain tier of organization. There are enough cases that the standard sets of ;, |, and similar ilk have been exhausted. I considered two-char delimiters, like ;# or ;|, but I felt that it would be very inefficient. There probably isn't that large of a performance difference in storing with one char versus two chars, but when I have the option of picking the smaller option, it just feels wrong to pick the larger one. So finally, I considered using the set of characters like the double dagger and section. They only take up one char, and they are definitely not going to show up in the actual text that I'll be storing, so they won't be confused for anything. But character encoding is finicky. While the visibility to the end user is meaningless (since they, in fact, won't see it), I became recently concerned about how the programs in the system will read it. The string is stored in one database, while a separate program is responsible for both encoding and decoding the string into different object types for the rest of the application to work with. And if something is expected to be written one way, is possibly written another, then maybe the whole system will fail and I can't really let that happen. So is it safe to use these kind of chars for background delimiters?

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  • CATransaction: Layer Changes But Does Not Animate

    - by macinjosh
    I'm trying to animate part of UI in an iPad app when the user taps a button. I have this code in my action method. It works in the sense that the UI changes how I expect but it does not animate the changes. It simply immediately changes. I must be missing something: - (IBAction)someAction:(id)sender { UIViewController *aViewController = <# Get an existing UIViewController #>; UIView *viewToAnimate = aViewController.view; CALayer *layerToAnimate = viewToAnimate.layer; [CATransaction begin]; [CATransaction setAnimationDuration:1.0f]; CATransform3D rotateTransform = CATransform3DMakeRotation(0.3, 0, 0, 1); CATransform3D scaleTransform = CATransform3DMakeScale(0.10, 0.10, 0.10); CATransform3D positionTransform = CATransform3DMakeTranslation(24, 423, 0); CATransform3D combinedTransform = CATransform3DConcat(rotateTransform, scaleTransform); combinedTransform = CATransform3DConcat(combinedTransform, positionTransform); layerToAnimate.transform = combinedTransform; [CATransaction commit]; // rest of method... } I've tried simplifying the animation to just change the opacity (for example) and it still will not animate. The opacity just changes instantly. That leads me to believe something is not setup properly. Any clues would be helpful!

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  • Object addSubview only works in viewDidLoad

    - by DecodingSand
    Hi, I'm new to iPhone dev and need some help with adding subViews. I have a reusable object that I made that is stored in a separate .h .m and xib file. I would like to use this object in my main project's view controller. I have included the header and the assignment of the object generates no errors. I am able to load the object into my main project but can only do things with it inside my viewDidLoad method. I intend to have a few of these objects on my screen and am looking fora solution that is more robust then just hard wiring up multiple copies of the shape object. As soon as I try to access the object outside of the viewDidLoad it produces a variable unknown error - first use in this function. Here is my viewDidLoad method: shapeViewController *shapeView = [[shapeViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"shapeViewController" bundle:nil]; [self.view addSubview: shapeView.view]; // This is the problem line // This code works changes the display on the shape object [shapeView updateDisplay:@"123456"]; ---- but the same code outside of the viewDidLoad generates the error. So to sum up, everything works except when I try to access the shapeView object in the rest of the methods. Thanks in advance

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  • White space problem while using php proxy

    - by KCC
    Hi, I'm using a php web proxy with my URL already encoded and keep having getting a malformed request error once I have any text after a %20. Any idea why this would be happening? The web proxy code I'm using is just a sample that I took from yahoo services: <?php // PHP Proxy example for Yahoo! Web services. // Responds to both HTTP GET and POST requests // // Author: Jason Levitt // December 7th, 2005 // // Allowed hostname (api.local and api.travel are also possible here) define ('HOSTNAME', 'http://search.yahooapis.com/'); // Get the REST call path from the AJAX application // Is it a POST or a GET? $path = ($_POST['yws_path']) ? $_POST['yws_path'] : $_GET['yws_path']; $url = HOSTNAME.$path; // Open the Curl session $session = curl_init($url); // If it's a POST, put the POST data in the body if ($_POST['yws_path']) { $postvars = ''; while ($element = current($_POST)) { $postvars .= urlencode(key($_POST)).'='.urlencode($element).'&'; next($_POST); } curl_setopt ($session, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt ($session, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $postvars); } // Don't return HTTP headers. Do return the contents of the call curl_setopt($session, CURLOPT_HEADER, false); curl_setopt($session, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); // Make the call $xml = curl_exec($session); // The web service returns XML. Set the Content-Type appropriately //header("Content-Type: text/xml"); echo $xml; curl_close($session); ?>

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  • Resizing image to fit its container

    - by jack moore
    #foo {width: 300px; height: 400px; overflow: hidden;} <div id="foo"></div> this.someimage = randomImageUrl; $("foo").innerHTML = "<img src='"+this.someimage+"' class='fooimage' />"; Now, the picture could be 200x200 or 1100x400 ... it's totally random. I can just stretch it (or reduce its size) by using: .fooimage {width: 300px; height: 400px;} $("foo").innerHTML = "<img src='"+this.someimage+"' class='fooimage' />"; Or I could test its size: imgHeight = newImg.height; imgWidth = newImg.width; ... and maybe something like this: if(imgHeight >400){ $("foo").innerHTML = "<img src='"+this.someimage+"' height='400' />"; } and browsers will do the rest. But there must be something better. Any ideas? Thanks! :)

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  • Flash CS4 [AS3]: Playing Card Deck Array

    - by Ben
    I am looking to make a card game in Flash CS4 using AS3 and I am stuck on the very first step. I have created graphics for a standard 52 card deck of playing cards and imported them into the library in Flash and then proceeded to convert them all to Movie Clips. I have also used the linkage to make them available in the code. The movie clips and the linkage are named in sequence, as in the Ace of Clubs would be C1, two of Diamonds is called D2, Jack of Spades is S11. (C = Clubs, D = Diamonds, S = Spades, H = Hearts and numbers 1 through 13 are the card values. 1 being Ace, 11 being Jack, 12 being Queen, 13 being King). As far as I know my next step would be to arrange the cards into an array. This is the part that I am having problems with. Can someone please point me in the right direction, what would be the best way to do this. Could you provide me with a bit of sample code as well? I have had a look at few tutorials online but they are all telling me different things, some are incomplete and the rest...well...they're just cr*ppy. Thanks in advance! Ben

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  • Concatenate CLOB-rows with PL/SQL

    - by david K
    Hi, I've got a table which has an id and a clob content like: Create Table v_example_l ( nip number, xmlcontent clob ); We insert our data: Insert into V_EXAMPLE_L (NIP,XMLCONTENT) Values (17852,'<section><block><name>delta</name><content>548484646846484</content></block></section>'); Insert into V_EXAMPLE_L (NIP,XMLCONTENT) Values (17852,'<section><block><name>omega</name><content>545648468484</content></block></section>'); Insert into V_EXAMPLE_L (NIP,XMLCONTENT) Values (17852,'<section><block><name>gamma</name><content>54564846qsdqsdqsdqsd8484</content></block></section>'); I'm trying to do a function that concatenates the rows of the clob that gone be the result of a select, i mean without having to give multiple parameter about the name of table or such, i should only give here the column that contain the clobs, and it should handle the rest. CREATE OR REPLACE function assemble_clob(q varchar2) return clob is v_clob clob; tmp_lob clob; hold VARCHAR2(4000); --cursor c2 is select xmlcontent from V_EXAMPLE_L where id=17852 cur sys_refcursor; begin OPEN cur FOR q; LOOP FETCH cur INTO tmp_lob; EXIT WHEN cur%NOTFOUND; --v_clob := v_clob || XMLTYPE.getClobVal(tmp_lob.xmlcontent); v_clob := v_clob || tmp_lob; END LOOP; return (v_clob); --return (dbms_xmlquery.getXml( dbms_xmlquery.set_context("Select 1 from dual")) ) end assemble_clob; The function is broken... (if anybody could give me a help, thanks a lot, and i'm noob in sql so ....). Thanks!

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  • backbone js or knockout js as a web framework with jquery mobile

    - by Dan
    without trying to cause a mass discussion I would like some advice from the fellow users of stack overflow. I am about to start building a mobile website that gets it data from JSON that comes from a PHP rest api. I have looked into different mobile frameworks and feel that JQM will work best for us as we have the knowledge of jQuery even though a little large. Currently at work however we are using jQuery for all our sites and realise that now we are building a mobile website I need to think about javascript frameworks to move us onto a more MV* approach, which I understand the benefits of and will bring much needed structure to this mobile site and future web applications we may bring. I have made a comparision table where I have managed to bring the selection down to 2 - backbone and knockout. I have been looking around the web and it seems that there is more support for backbone in general and maybe even more support for backbone with JQM. http://jquerymobile.com/test/docs/pages/backbone-require.html One thing I have noticed however is that backbone doesnt support view bindings (declarative approach) whereas knockout does - is this a massive bonus? one of the main reasons for using a mv* for us is to get more structure - so I would like to use the library that will intergrate best with jQuery and especially jQuery mobile. neither of them seem to have that similar syntax... Thanks

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  • Attaching an event to an Iframe that contains more iframes

    - by Oscar Godson
    I have an editor which is in my window that contains a wrapping iframe and then 2 more iframes inside like (the HTML inside the <iframe> element is inserted via write() in JS, not hardcoded like this): <iframe class="parent"> <div class="wrapper"> <iframe class="editor"></iframe> <iframe class="previewer"></iframe> </div> </iframe> One is an editor, the other is a previewer. The first one that contains the two (we'll call this the parent) has an eventListener for mousemove attached to it, but nothing is firing. If i add a 5px border for example, the event will fire when I move my mouse on the border of the parent, but not when i hover over the middle which contains the editor or previewer (previewer is display:none while the editor is visible, and vice versa). So, the blue area in the following i can mousemove, but the rest I can't. It's most likely because of the stacking order, but how can I attach an event to fire on the entire frame? I need mousemove because on mousemove I display a menu in the bottom right. I want the same menu to display whether or not the editor or the previewer is visible.

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  • Response.Redirect not firing due to code to prevent re-submission

    - by Marco
    I have an event which needs to contact some third party providers before performing a redirect (think 'final payment page on ecommerce site') and hence has some lag associated with its processing. It is very important that these third party providers are not contacted more than once, and sometimes impatient users may try and refresh the page (hence re-submitting the data). The general code structure is: If Session("orderStatus") <> 'processing' Then Session("orderStatus") = 'processing' DoThirdPartyStuffThatTakesSomeTime() Response.Redirect("confirmationPage.asp", True) End If The problem is, if the user refreshes the page, the response.redirect does not happen (even though the rest of the code will run before the redirect from the original submission). It seems that the new submission creates a new thread for the browser which takes precedence - it skips this bit of code obviously to prevent the third party providers being contacted a second time, and since there is no redirect, just comes back to the same page. The whole second submission may have completed before the first submission has finished its job. Any help on how I can still ignore all of the subsequent submissions of the page, but still make the redirect work...? Thanks

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  • Problem with WHERE columnName = Data in MySQL query in C#

    - by Ryan Sullivan
    I have a C# webservice on a Windows Server that I am interfacing with on a linux server with PHP. The PHP grabs information from the database and then the page offers a "more information" button which then calls the webservice and passes in the name field of the record as a parameter. So i am using a WHERE statement in my query so I only pull the extra fields for that record. I am getting the error: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException:Invalid column name '42' Where 42 is the value from the name field from the database. my query is string selectStr = "SELECT name, castNotes, triviaNotes FROM tableName WHERE name =\"" + show + "\""; I do not know if it is a problem with my query or something is wrong with the database, but here is the rest of my code for reference. NOTE: this all works perfectly when I grab all of the records, but I only want to grab the record that I ask my webservice for. public class ktvService : System.Web.Services.WebService { [WebMethod] public string moreInfo(string show) { string connectionStr = "MyConnectionString"; string selectStr = "SELECT name, castNotes, triviaNotes FROM tableName WHERE name =\"" + show + "\""; SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(connectionStr); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(selectStr, conn); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); da.Fill(ds, "tableName"); DataTable dt = ds.Tables["tableName"]; DataRow theShow = dt.Rows[0]; string response = "Name: " + theShow["name"].ToString() + "Cast: " + theShow["castNotes"].ToString() + " Trivia: " + theShow["triviaNotes"].ToString(); return response; } }

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  • MSBuild script fails but produces no errors

    - by Kate
    I have a MSBuild script that I am executing through TeamCity. One of the tasks that is runs is from Xheo DeploxLX CodeVeil which obfuscates some DLLs. The task I am using is called VeilProject. I have run the CodeVeil Project through the interface manually and it works correctly, so I think I can safely assume that the actual obfuscate process is ok. This task used to take around 40 minutes and the rest of the MSBuild file executed perfectly and finished without errors. For some reason this task is now taking 1hr 20 minutes or so to execute. Once the VeilProject task is finished the output from the task says it completely successfully, however the MSBuild script fails at this point. I have a task directly after the VeilProject task and it does not get outputted. Using diagnostic output from MSBUild I can see the following: My questions are: Would it be possible that the MSBuild script has timed out? Once the task has completed it is after a certain timeout period so it just fails? Why would the build fail with no errors and no warnings? [05:39:06]: [Target "Obfuscate"] Finished. [05:39:06]: [Target "Obfuscate"] Saving exception map [05:49:21]: [Target "Obfuscate"] Ended at 11/05/2010 05:49:21, ~1 hour, 48 minutes, 6 seconds [05:49:22]: [Target "Obfuscate"] Done. [05:49:51]: MSBuild output: Ended at 11/05/2010 05:49:21, ~1 hour, 48 minutes, 6 seconds (TaskId:8) Done. (TaskId:8) Done executing task "VeilProject" -- FAILED. (TaskId:8) Done building target "Obfuscate" in project "AMK_Release.proj.teamcity.patch.tcprojx" -- FAILED.: (TargetId:12) Done Building Project "C:\Builds\Scripts\AMK_Release.proj.teamcity.patch.tcprojx" (All target(s)) -- FAILED. Project Performance Summary: 6535484 ms C:\Builds\Scripts\AMK_Release.proj.teamcity.patch.tcprojx 1 calls 6535484 ms All 1 calls Target Performance Summary: 156 ms PreClean 1 calls 266 ms SetBuildVersionNumber 1 calls 2406 ms CopyFiles 1 calls 6532391 ms Obfuscate 1 calls Task Performance Summary: 16 ms MakeDir 2 calls 31 ms TeamCitySetBuildNumber 1 calls 31 ms Message 1 calls 62 ms RemoveDir 2 calls 234 ms GetAssemblyIdentity 1 calls 2406 ms Copy 1 calls 6528047 ms VeilProject 1 calls Build FAILED. 0 Warning(s) 0 Error(s) Time Elapsed 01:48:57.46 [05:49:52]: Process exit code: 1 [05:49:55]: Build finished

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  • How to structure applications as multiple projects an name the packages in Java

    - by lostiniceland
    Hello Everyone I would like to know how you set up your projects in Java For example, in my current work-project, a six year old J2EE app with approximately 2 million LoC, we only have one project in Eclipse. The package structure is split into tiers and then domains, so it follows guidelines from Sun/Oracle. A huge ant-script is building different jars out of this one source-folder Personally I think it would be better to have multiple projects, at least for each tier. Recently I was playing around with a projects-structure like this: Domainproject (contains only annotated pojos, needed by all other projects) Datalayer (only persistence) Businesslogic (services) Presenter View This way, it should be easier to exchange components and when using a build tool like Maven I can have everything in a repository so when only working on the frontend I can get the rest as a dependecy in my classpath. Does this makes sense to you? Do you use different approaches and how do they look like? Furthermore I am struggeling how to name my packages/projects correctly. Right now, the above project-structure reflects in the names of the packages, eg. de.myapp.view and it continues with some technical subfolders like internal or interfaces. What I am missing here, and I dont know how to do this properly, is the distinction to a certain domain. When the project gets bigger it would be nice to recognise a particular domain but also the technical details to navigate more easily within the project. This leads to my second question: how do you name your projects and packages?

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  • Should I Solve this with Multithreading in Ruby?

    - by viatropos
    I have a strange case, here's the sequence of actions: User edits a document and hits save Application sends GET request to service Service sends POST request back to application in the middle of responding to the GET request Application, in the same state as when it made the GET request, responds to the POST request (sends document data) to service. Service sends data back to Application (responding to original GET request) Application handles the rest... The use case is this: I was thinking how can I make Yahoo Pipes POST data? Specifically, I want it to be able to update Google Docs when a user makes a change locally (on a custom editor). So user edits doc, makes GET request to Yahoo Pipes, Pipes makes a POST request back to App to get the document (Pipes can only make this type of POST request), App sends doc, Pipes formats data according to the Google API, Pipes responds to GET request with Google API formatted XML, App makes the post request. Theoretically, how would I accomplish this? It seems that I need to create a separate ruby Process for the GET request, and when Pipes sends the POST request, I find that process and send its output, then I'm stuck. This would cut out the need for a database for this particular case (I could save the stuff temporarily in a database, but that doesn't seem right). Any ideas? This would make it so I don't have to format things to the Google API in ruby, I could leave that to Pipes.

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  • Jrails and jquery-rails together?

    - by ecoologic
    I hope you forgive me if I'm a little confused about this. Jrails rewrites all the helper methods for rjs otherwise in prototype. Jquery-rails overrides rails.js (so I taught the rjs helpers as well, but I see it's not) and the rest of the libraries in jquery instead of prototype. Does it means that with just Jquery-rails I can't use rjs at all? Then do these gems work well together and let me completely forget prototype? Is there any disadvantage in using them together? I read some complaining about the fact that jrails uses jq 1.5 and now there is 1.8, but jquery-rails gives me the last version (is there retro compatibility?), but how will this affect my development (using both the gems together)? I mean have you got some examples of jquery-ui plugins I can't use or I could have problems with? Any help is appreciated. Don't get me wrong, I'm not against prototype, just I keep on having conflicts over conflicts using both of them, and I have to chose I pick Jquery.

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  • image appears larger than bounding rectangle?

    - by Kildareflare
    Hello I'm implementing a custom print preview control. One of the objects it needs to display is an image which can be several pages high and wide. I've successfully divided the image into pages and displayed them in the correct order. Each "page" is drawn within the marginbounds. (That is, each page is sized to be the same as the marginBounds.) The problem I have is that the image the page represents exceeds the bottom margin. However if I draw a rectangle with the same dimensions as the image, at the same position as the image, the rectangle matches the marginbounds. Thus when drawn to the page (in print preview and printed page) the image is larger than a rectangle drawn based on the image dimensions. I.e. The image is drawn at the same size as e.MarignBounds and is drawn at e.MarginBounds.Location yet exceeds the bottom margin. How is this? I've checked resoutions at each step of the process and they are all 96DPI. //... private List<Image> m_printImages = new List<Image>(); //... private void ImagePrintDocument_PrintPage(object sender, PrintPageEventArgs e) { PrepareImageForPrinting(e); e.Graphics.DrawImage(m_printImages[m_currentPage], new Point(e.MarginBounds.X, e.MarginBounds.Y); e.Graphics.DrawRectangle(new Pen(Color.Blue, 1.0F), new Rectangle( new Point(e.MarginBounds.X, e.MarginBounds.Y), new Size(m_printImages[m_currentPage].Width, m_printImages[m_currentPage].Height))); //rest of handler } PS Not able to show an image as free image hosting blocked here.

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