Search Results

Search found 5464 results on 219 pages for 'effect'.

Page 189/219 | < Previous Page | 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196  | Next Page >

• How can I create dynamically updated views in a tab bar view, based on settings selection?

  - by Diggers

  Hi all, Noob question.... I've created a Tab Bar application. It has four tabs and works fine. Each view is created with a XIB and is effectively static. Each view takes user input and responds on screen. What I need to be able to do is change the input options the user have - in effect remove some UITextFields dependant upon which option the user selects in settings. I've created root.plist and created settings no problem i've also created additional XIBS for the altered UI, but what I don't know how to do, is call these into the tab view controller on demand. Effectively tab one has 3 possible views, tab two 3 possible views etc. But I only want the one that's relevant for the users settings selction to be displayed? Make sense? For reference, if we call the different views - UIInputViewA1, ...A2,....A3 UIInputViewB1,....B2....B3 etc. Hope someone can help, been trawling the net for nights trying to get my head round this. Beggining iPhone Development Bible doesn't help either. If you need any more info, please shout. Cheers Paul.

  Read the article

• Joomla User Login Question

  - by user277127

  I would like to enable users of my existing web app to login to Joomla with the credentials already stored in my web app's database. By using the Joomla 1.5 authentication plugin system -- http://docs.joomla.org/Tutorial:Creating_an_Authentication_Plugin_for_Joomla_1.5 -- I would like to bypass the Joomla registration process and bypass creating users in the Joomla database altogether. My thought had been that I could simply populate a User object, which would be stored in the Session, and that this would replace the need to store a user in the Joomla database. After looking through the code surrounding user management in Joomla, it seems like any time you interact with the User object, the database is being queried. It therefore seems like my initial idea won't work. Is that right? It looks like, in order to achieve the effect I want, I will have to actually register a user from within the authentication plugin at the time they first login. This is not ideal, so before I go forward with it, I wanted to check with Joomla developers whether it is possible to do what I described above. Thanks in advance -- I am new to Joomla and greatly appreciate your help!

  Read the article

• How do I get a reference to a rootViewController to a sub-view?

  - by Andy

  An answer posted for one of my previous questions brings up another question; I am calling a new view controller, "RuleBuilder," from my rootViewController. The rootViewController holds a reference to a contacts array. How do I get a reference to that array into the RuleBuilder? I tried adding UITableViewController *rootViewController; ... @property (nonatomic, retain) UITableViewController *rootViewController; to RuleBuilder.h, and then @synthesize rootViewController; in RuleBuilder.m. When I instantiate and push the RuleBuilder from within rootViewController, I do this: ruleBuilder.rootViewController = self; But when I try this [rootViewController.contacts addObject:newContact]; from within RuleBuilder, I get a compiler error to the effect of "request for 'contacts' in something not a struct" (or very similar; I haven't implemented this exact snippet of code, but I tried an identical approach not an hour ago for a couple of different references that I never was able to get working). Thanks, again, for your help.

  Read the article

• How can I get a default value in some instances but not others?

  - by Connor Wagner

  I am making an iPhone app and want to use an 'if' statement and a boolean to set default values in some instances but not others... is this possible? Are there alternative options if it is not possible? In the MainViewController.m I have: @interface MainViewController (){ BOOL moveOver; } [...] - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; _label.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%i", computerSpeed]; } } [...] - (void)flipsideViewControllerDidFinish:(FlipsideViewController *)controller { [self dismissViewControllerAnimated:YES completion:nil]; moveOver = true; } The problem that it is redefined when the ViewDidLoad runs... I need a statement that will not redefine when the ViewDidLoad runs. I have something that I feel like is much closer to working... In the ViewDidLoad I have: if (playToInt != 10 || computerMoveSpeed != 3) { moveOver = TRUE; } which connects to my created method, gameLoop. It has if (moveOver == false) { computerMoveSpeed = 3; playToInt = 10; } I have tried putting the code in the gameLoop into the ViewDidLoad, but it had the same effect. When moveOver was false, the computerMoveSpeed and the playToInt were both seemingly 0. I have two UITextFields and typed 10 and 3 in them... does this not set it to the default? It seems to set the default to 0 for both, how do I change this? THIS IS A DIFFERENT ISSUE THAN THE THREE BOOLEAN VALUES QUESTION

  Read the article

• Overriding CSS properties for iframe width

  - by user2898989

  I'm trying to put an iframe into a webpage, but no matter what I try to put in either the iframe properties or the custom CSS section of the website builder (or how many times I try to add !important to anything from width to right-margin), I can't get the iframe to extend rightward further than the page's preset width. Here's an example of the page and iframe that I'm working with: http://fmlcapitalinvestment.com/Search_Properties.html I need that script/iframe to be wide enough to show the search area. It seems pointless to copy and paste code and attributes I've tried setting, because nothing I do seems to have any effect, but just for showing how much I have no idea what I'm doing, here's my iframe code: <iframe id="idxFrame" style="padding:0; margin:0; padding-top: 0px; overflow-x:auto; width:1000px!important; border:0px solid transparent; background-color:transparent; max-width:none!important; right-margin:-200px!important" frameborder="0" scrolling="on" src="http://www.themls.com/IDXNET/Default.aspx?wid=8MSsp7Pf9eI55yjkDuB%2blX5awn7LnnVXh5PNYhq2ImAEQL" width="1200px" height="900px"></iframe> The "Website Builder" that I'm forced to use to make these kinds of pages is infuriating, but it does have a "Custom CSS" area where I can input additional CSS information. Is there something I could generically use to set iframes to their own widths?

  Read the article

• Background loading javascript into iframe without using jQuery/Ajax?

  - by user210099

  I'm working on an offline only help system which requires loading a large amount of search-related data into an iframe before the search functionality can be used. Due to the folder structure of the project, I am unable to use Ajax-related background load methods, since the files I need are loaded a few directories "up and over." I have written some code which delays the loading of the help data until the rest of the webpage is loaded. The help data consists of a bunch of javascript files which have information about the terms, ect that exist in the help books which are installed on the system. The webpage works fine, until I start to load this help data into a hidden iframe. While the javascript files are loading, I can not use any of the webpage. Links that require a small files be downloaded for hover over effects don't show up, javascript (switching tabs on the page) has no effect. I'm wondering if this is just a limitation of the way javascript works, or if there's something else going on here. Once all the files are loaded for the help system, the webpage works as expected. function test(){ var MGCFrame = eval("parent.parent"); if((ALLFRAMESLOADED == true)){ t2 = MGCFrame.setTimeout("this.IHHeader.frames[0].loadData()",1); } else{ t1 = MGCFrame.setTimeout("this.IHHeader.frames[0].test()",1000); } } Load data simply starts the data loading process. Thanks for any help you can provide.

  Read the article

• jQuery code works in Chrome, not in IE9

  - by Francis Ducharme

  Pretty new to jQuery here, I've got a chunk of code that works OK in Chrome, but fails in IE9 (have not tried FF yet). Here's the code: var textColor = $('#navmenu-body').css('color'); textColor = textColor.slice(4); In IE9, I get an error to the effect that slice can't be called because textColor is undefined. I was not sure if it's because jQuery just can't find the #navmenu-body element or that it can't find the CSS attribute color. So I did: var j = $('#navmenu-body'); var textColor = $('#navmenu-body').css('color'); textColor = textColor.slice(4); In IE9's console, j.length returns 0. So the selector is indeed, not working Here's the #navmenu-body HTML DOM <div id="navmenu-body" class="x-panel-body x-panel-body-cssmenu x-layout-fit x-panel-body-cssmenu" style="height: 398px; left: 0px; top: 0px; width: 200px;"> </div> Do I need to do something else for IE9 support ?

  Read the article

• Do Distributed Version Control Systems promote poor backup habits?

  - by John

  In a DVCS, each developer has an entire repository on their workstation, to which they can commit all their changes. Then they can merge their repo with someone else's, or clone it, or whatever (as I understand it, I'm not a DVCS user). To me that flags a side-effect, of being more vulnerable to forgetting to backup. In a traditional centralised system, both you as a developer and the people in charge know that if you commit something, it's held on a central server which can have decent backup solutions in place. But using a DVCS, it seems you only have to push your work to a server when you feel like sharing it. It's all very well you have the repo locally so you can work on your feature branch for a month without bothering anyone, but it means (I think) that checking in your code to the repo is not enough, you have to remember to do regular pushes to a backed-up server. It also means, doesn't it, that a team lead can't see all those nice SVN commit emails to keep a rough idea what's going on in the code-base? Is any of this a real issue?

  Read the article

• IE showing hidden div under certain circumstances

  - by karola

  After googling around and finding a lot of ie bugs I still did not find a description of the problem I have. The initial situation is a standard one. We have a tooltip which is actually a hidden div that will be displayed on mouseover at a given location. The div is hidden with display:none and contains a table with the content. We tried different libraries for showing the div (scriptaculous and jQuery Cluetip) but the effect is the same. The problem: Everything is fine as long as the contents fits the width of my window. But when I resize it until the horizontal scrollbar is activated the content of the hidden div will be shown at the end of the page when the tooltip is activated. This is really strange as it happens only under these premises. When more than one tooltip is involved the browser might even crash (and under Vista takes the whole system with him duh). I know it's a bit complicated to explain but I hope that someone at least had heard of that bug and can point me into the right direction.

  Read the article

• Calling a constructor to reinitialize variables doesn't seem to work?

  - by Matt

  I wanted to run 1,000 iterations of a program, so set a counter for 1000 in main. I needed to reinitialize various variables after each iteration, and since the class constructor had all the initializations already written out - I decided to call that after each iteration, with the result of each iteration being stored in a variable in main. However, when I called the constructor, it had no effect...it took me a while to figure out - but it didn't reinitialize anything! I created a function exactly like the constructor - so the object would have its own version. When I called that, it reinitialized everything as I expected. int main() { Class MyClass() int counter = 0; while ( counter < 1000 ) { stuff happens } Class(); // This is how I tried to call the constructor initially. // After doing some reading here, I tried: // Class::Class(); // - but that didn't work either /* Later I used... MyClass.function_like_my_constructor; // this worked perfectly */ } ...Could someone try to explain why what I did was wrong, or didn't work, or was silly or what have you? I mean - mentally, I just figured - crap, I can call this constructor and have all this stuff reinitialized. Are constructors (ideally) ONLY called when an object is created?

  Read the article

• Any point in subclassing UIButton to create a custom looking button?

  - by glitch

  I want to create a set of buttons that would work and feel very much like the Metro-style tiles that are available on Windows Phones. I would like to allow the user to tap them to access their underlying functionality (open a modal or something or that sort). I'm concerned that subclassing UIButton will not get me there. I need square corners and dynamic content inside the tiles themselves. The posts I've found around SO seem to suggest that subclassing a UIButton would not be a good idea for several reasons and that I should instead use UIView. That reply is from 2010, and I have no idea if in the 2+ years since then there have been considerable changes to how one would achieve that effect. Most users these days will have iOS 5.1+ if not 6.0 soon. Let's say I do go the UIView route. Should I implement UIResponder's touch events or should I instead go the UITapGestureRecognizer route? What's the better practice in 2012? Thank you!

  Read the article

• How to get an inner div to fill the entire wrapper div?

  - by ripper234

  I have the following html code: <div class="outer ui-draggable" style="position: relative;"> <div class="inner">Foo bar</div> </div> With this CSS: .outer { background-color: #F7F085; margin: 5px; height: 100px; width: 150px; text-align:center; vertical-align:text-bottom; } .outer .inner { display:inline; vertical-align:middle; height: 100px; width: 150px; } I would like the inner div to fill the outer div completely - the text block should be an entire 100X150 box. The problem is that this code doesn't produce the desired effect. The outer div is indeed the correct size, but the inner div seems to only fill a small area at the top of the outer div. I also tried using height:inherit and width:inherit instead of specifying a size.

  Read the article

• How do you have jquery slide up and down on hover without distorting shape?

  - by anita

  How do you have an object slide up as if it were hidden behind something, rather than bending out. example In the jsfiddle demo, you can see the circle bends flat as it slides, but I'd like it to slide out as if it were hidden behind something. (I unfortunately can't just put an image or div with the same background color over the circle and have the circle underneath slide upward.) html <div class="button">Hover</div> <div class="box"> Sliding down! </div> jquery $('.box').hide(); $('.button').hover( function() { $('.box').slideToggle('slow'); } ); update: You guys had really good answers! But I found one of the solutions: http://jsfiddle.net/7fNbM/36/ I decided to just wrap the .button div and .box div in a container, and give the container a specific height, specific width, and overflow of hidden. This way I wouldn't have to cover the image in the background and it provides the effect I was looking for.

  Read the article

• Desperate help using PHP's $_SERVER["DOCUMENT_ROOT"] on a web server?

  - by Nickersoft

  I've spent the past few months building a website on localhost. Throughout the site, instead of using relative paths, I used $_SERVER["DOCUMENT_ROOT"] to access the root of my server so I could reference files from there. However, I just decided to upload my site to 000webhost. As I soon found out, and for those of you who use them, you are probably aware, that their server root is different than your actual directory in which you upload your files. I believe it's virtual hosting... anyway, my $_SERVER["DOCUMENT_ROOT"] now throws errors along the lines of this on the site: Warning: include_once() [function.include-once]: open_basedir restriction in effect. File(/usr/local/apache/htdocs/mypath) is not within the allowed path(s) Every other site I looked at said that you should just replace $_SERVER["DOCUMENT_ROOT"] with the home directory provided to you by 000webhost. However, if I want to change hosting services in the future, I'm screwed. Is there any way to use $_SERVER to access a set virtual directory or use htaccess or something to make my code work? I tried using DocumentRoot in a htaccess file in my root directory, but it threw a 404 error when trying to access the page. I'm in desperate need... can anyone help me?

  Read the article

• CSS 100% height with padding/margin

  - by Toji

  This has been driving me crazy for a couple of days now, but in reality it's a problem that I've hit off and on for the last few years: With HTML/CSS how can I make an element that has a width and/or height that is 100% of it's parent element and still has proper padding or margins? By "proper" I mean that if my parent element is 200px tall and I specify 100% height with 5px padding I would expect that I should get a 190px high element with 5px "border" on all sides, nicely centered in the parent element. Now, I know that that's not how the standard box model specifies it should work (although I'd like to know why, exactly...), so the obvious answer doesn't work: #myDiv { width: 100% height: 100%; padding: 5px; } But it would seem to me that there must be SOME way of reliably producing this effect for a parent of arbitrary size. Does anyone know of a way of accomplishing this (seemingly simple) task? Oh, and for the record I'm not terribly interested in IE compatibility so that should (hopefully) make things a bit easier. EDIT: Since an example was asked for, here's the simplest one I can think of: <html style="height: 100%"> <body style="height: 100%"> <div style="background-color: black; height: 100%; padding: 25px"></div> </body> </html> The challenge is then to get the black box to show up with a 25 pixel padding on all edges without the page growing big enough to require scrollbars.

  Read the article

• Power cycles on/off 3 times before booting properly from cold start, no other issues (New System)

  - by James

  Relevant Specs: Sapphire 5850, core i7 920, Seasonic x750 power supply, ECS X58B-A2 mobo. From a cold boot, meaning all power totally disconnected at the wall, the system will power on for less than a second and then power off completely. After two seconds of being powered off this will repeat and on the third "attempt" the computer will boot. To be very specific here is what happens: The power is turned on at the wall and on the psu, the orange stdby LED on the mobo is illuminated but the system is 'off'. I hit the power button on the case or on the mobo itself I hear the relay (?) in the psu closing The case light comes on and the mobo power light comes on. The fans start rotating. Immediately after this the I hear some relay click - the power lights extinguish, the fans stop, the stdby light remains on. Less than 2 seconds pass and the cycle repeats without any intervention from me. On the third attempt it boots normally and the machine runs perfectly. If I do a soft reboot or a full shutdown the computer starts normally the next time. It's only if I pull the power cord or flick the switch off on the PSU that I get the cycling again. Basically any time the stdby light on the mobo goes out. I have removed the graphics card and I get the same problem. I have removed the PSU, hotwired it to the ON position and verified voltages on all lines. The relay does not cycle when I do this. If I connect only the 24 pin ATX connector to the mobo and not the 8 pin ATX12V / CPU connector then I will not get the cycling, the fans run, the power light stays on, but obviously the system can't boot. Disconnecting all fans has no effect on the problem. My feeling it that it's something to do with the motherboard like a capacitor that's taking a long time to charge because it's leaking or something along those lines. But I can't imagine what could be 'wrong' with it and only manifest itself as a problem under these very specific circumstances. Any ideas? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Windows Server 2003 Terminal Server does not give out all available licenses (solved)

  - by Erwin Blonk

  I installed the Terminal Server role in Windows Server 2003 Standard 64-bits. Still, only 2 connections are allowed. The License Manager says that there are 10 Device CALs available, which is correct, and that none are given out. For good measure I let the server reboot, to no effect. Before this, there was another server (same Windows, except that it is 32 bits) active as a licensing server. I removed the role first and then then added it to the new server. I then removed the Terminal Server Licensing Server component off the old one and added it to the new one. After that, I added to licenses. When that didn't give the required result, I rebooted to new server. Still, the new server, with licenses and all, acts as if it has the 2 license RDP. The server are all stand-alone, there is no active directory been set up. Both servers are in different workgroups. Update (4/12/10): The server has changed the entries in the Terminal Server Licensing a few times. After installing the licenses it added an entry of which the exact phrasing I forgot but it was about temporary Windows 2003 device licenses. Later it added Windows Server 2003 - TS Per Device CAL. The temporary held 2 licenses (standard RDP licenses, I think) and the other 10. At some point, seemingly unrelated from the testing we did, it used a licenses from the new pool. This morning, 2 licenses were used from the pool of 10 and only 1 from the temporary/RDP pool (I wish I had screenshots to show, it changed every few hours oir so it seems). Although I had already activated the server over the internet, and re-activated it, I decided to go through the whole procedure by phone. Update 2 (4/12/10) The problem has been solved. It seems the activation over the web, while it said to have succeeded, did not work correctly. After activating by phone, it did work. What was different from the old setup and what put me on the wrong foot from that moment, was that I now need to create seperate user account because a session with one user account will be taken over by someone else when that account is used by that person. On the previous server, it was possible to open several sesions with the same account. We now use Per Device licenses, I'm not sure what was used before. Thanks all for the replies.

  Read the article

• How to allow local LAN access while connected to Cisco VPN?

  - by Ian Boyd

  How can I maintain local LAN access while connected to Cisco VPN? When connecting using Cisco VPN, the server has to ability to instruct the client to prevent local LAN access. Assuming this server-side option cannot be turned off, how can allow local LAN access while connected with a Cisco VPN client? I used to think it was simply a matter of routes being added that capture LAN traffic with a higher metric, for example: Network Destination Netmask Gateway Interface Metric 10.0.0.0 255.255.0.0 10.0.0.3 10.0.0.3 20 <--Local LAN 10.0.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.199.1 192.168.199.12 1 <--VPN Link And trying to delete the 10.0.x.x -> 192.168.199.12 route don't have any effect: >route delete 10.0.0.0 >route delete 10.0.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0 >route delete 10.0.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0 192.168.199.1 >route delete 10.0.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0 192.168.199.1 if 192.168.199.12 >route delete 10.0.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0 192.168.199.1 if 0x3 And while it still might simply be a routing issue, attempts to add or delete routes fail. At what level is Cisco VPN client driver doing what in the networking stack that takes overrides a local administrator's ability to administer their machine? The Cisco VPN client cannot be employing magic. It's still software running on my computer. What mechanism is it using to interfere with my machine's network? What happens when an IP/ICMP packet arrives on the network? Where in the networking stack is the packet getting eaten? See also No internet connection with Cisco VPN Cisco VPN Client interrupts connectivity to my LDAP server Cisco VPN stops Windows 7 Browsing How can I prohibit the creation of a route in Windows XP upon connection to Cisco VPN? Rerouting local LAN and Internet traffic when in VPN VPN Client "Allow local LAN Access" Allow Local LAN Access for VPN Clients on the VPN 3000 Concentrator Configuration Example LAN access gone when I connect to VPN Windows XP Documentation: Route Edit: Things I've not yet tried: >route delete 10.0.* Update: Since Cisco has abandoned their old client, in favor of AnyConnect (HTTP SSL based VPN), this question, unsolved, can be left as a relic of history. Going forward, we can try to solve the same problem with their new client.

  Read the article

• Import/rip/convert DVD to Adobe Premiere Pro for Mac

  - by alexyu2010

  For those who want to edit their videos, Adobe Premiere Pro will inevitably a good choice, it is a professional, real time, timeline based video editing software application that supports many video editing cards and plug-ins for accelerated processing, additional file format support and video/audio effects. Although Adobe Premiere Pro is said to be for professionals, is not so complicated that a hobbyist can't excel at using it in an hour or so. General file formats supported by Adobe Premiere Pro Up to now, Adobe Creative Suite has released several versions of Adobe Premiere Pro, including Adobe Premiere 1.0, Adobe Premiere 2.0, Adobe Premiere Pro CS3, Adobe Premiere Pro CS4 and the newly published Adobe Premiere Pro CS5. Although I saw diversity in file formats they support, I did find some common file formats supported by all of them, such as AVI, MOV, MPG. Importing DVD, Adobe Premiere Pro says "NO" It is obvious to all of us that Adobe Premiere Pro will never give DVD a hug, and it isn't rare to see that many people are really confused when they want to import their DVDs to Adobe Premiere Pro for editing. What to do? Yes, you may have noticed that, there is only a way out, that is ripping your DVDs to some formats workable with Adobe Premiere Pro natively, and this is what DVD to Adobe Premiere Pro can do. Importing DVD to Adobe Premiere Pro on Mac DVD to Adobe Premiere Pro converter for Mac is the specially designed application for ripping/converting DVD movies, DVD VOB files or DVD clips to Adobe Premiere Pro compatible AVI, MOV, MPG files with either DVD ripping tool and video converting tool within the versatile DVD to Adobe Premiere Pro converter who is a powerful program for dealing with DVD and videos perfectly. Mac DVD to Adobe Premiere Pro converter can work with a wide variety of files including DVD, VOB, AVI, WMV, MPG, MOV, MP4, DV, FLV, MKV, ASF, SWF, HD video for using with other editing tools like iMovie, FCP etc, play on QuickTime, iTunes, put on portable devices like iPod, iPhone, iPad, iRiver, BlackBerry, Gphone, Mobile Phone or upload to webistes such as YouTube, MySpace. DVD to Adobe Premiere Pro converter for Mac can also help you do some basic editing. You can trim, crop your DVD movie or DVD clip, apply special effect to make it more artistic, merge several DVD clips to a single one or tweak the output parameters for video and audio separately to get a better quality rendering. Besides, to get a good common of the process the preview widnows is also available for you.

  Read the article

• Ubuntu - Ruby Daemon script creates two processes - sh and ruby - PID file points at sh, not ruby

  - by Jonathan Scoles

  The PID file for a ruby process I have running as a daemon is getting the wrong PID. It appears that running /etc/init.d/sinatra start creates two processes - sh and ruby, and the PID that ends up in the PID file is that of the sh process. This means that when I then run /etc/init.d/sinatra stop or /etc/init.d/sinatra restart, it is killing sh and leaving the ruby process still running. I'd like to know a) why is my script launching two processes - sh and ruby, and not just ruby, and b) how do I fix it to just launch ruby? Details of the setup: I have a small Sinatra server set up on an ubuntu server, running as a daemon. It is set to automatically at server startup run a script named sinatra in /etc/init.d that launches the a control script control.rb, which then runs a ruby daemon command to start the server. The script is run under the 'sinatrauser' account, which has permissions for the directories the script needs. contents of /etc/init.d/sinatra #!/bin/bash # sinatra Startup script for Sinatra server. sudo -u sinatrauser ruby /var/www/sinatra/control.rb $1 RETVAL=$? exit $RETVAL To install this script, I simply copied it to /etc/init.d/ and ran sudo update-rc.d sinatra defaults contents of /var/www/sinatra/control.rb require 'rubygems' require 'daemons' pwd = Dir.pwd Daemons.run_proc('sinatraserver.rb', {:dir_mode => :normal, :dir => "/opt/pids/sinatra"}) do Dir.chdir(pwd) exec 'ruby /var/www/sinatra/sintraserver.rb >> /var/log/sinatra/sinatraOutput.log 2>&1' end portion of output from ps -A 6967 ? 00:00:00 apache2 10181 ? 00:00:00 sh <--- PID file gets this PID 10182 ? 00:00:02 ruby <--- Actual ruby process running Sinatra 12172 ? 00:00:00 sshd The PID file gets created in /opt/pids/sinatra/sinatraserver.rb.pid, and always contains the PID of the sh instance, which is always one less than the PID of the ruby process EDIT: I tried micke's solution, but it had no effect on the behavior I am seeing. This is the output from ps -A f. This output looks the same whether I use sudo -u sinatrauser ... or su sinatrauser -c ... in the service start script in /etc/init.d. 1146 ? S 0:00 sh -c ruby /var/www/sinatra/sinatraserver.rb >> /var/log/sinatra/sinatraOutput.log 2>&1 1147 ? S 0:00 \_ ruby /var/www/sinatra/sinatraserver.rb

  Read the article

• Using WSUS Admin Console from outside domain

  - by Nick

  Environment: I have a workstation on our primary domain. We have a primary WSUS Server that is the upstream server of 8 different testing domains. The Primary WSUS server is not part of any domain. Routing is configured between my workstation and the Primary WSUS server. I can RDP to the Primary WSUS sever without any problem. The router is configured to forward any any between my workstation and the Primary WSUS server. This WSUS server cannot be part of a domain due to external requirements (I can't change them) on the lab I work in. The version of WSUS is WSUS 3.0 SP 2 What I want to do: I need to connect to the WSUS server with the WSUS Admin console from my local workstation. The end goal is to connect via Powershell and manage with that. I also need to take what I do here and port it to the 8 test domains so I can manage those WSUS servers. The routing is all in place so I can talk to the servers, it's just connecting to the WSUS console that is causing problems. The problem: I cannot get my workstation to connect to the WSUS Console. I get one of the following errors depending on the setup. 1st error: Cannot connect to 'WSUS'. You do not have the permissions required to access this WSUS server. To connect to the server you must be a member of the WSUS Administrators or WSUS Reporters security groups I also get the warning 7012 from the event log that says the same thing. 2nd error: Cannot connect to 'WSUS'. The server may be using another port or different Secure Sockets Layer setting. What I have tried: So far I have configured IIS for Anonymous Authentication on both the WSUS Administration and ApiRemoting30 using an account will call WSUS_User. With this in place, I get the 1st error. When I do this though, the local WSUS Console cannot be used either. Reverting back to only Windows Authentication allows the local console to work, but the remote console now give the 2nd error. I have confirmed the port, and that there is no SSL in use (which is a policy that is pushed from above, that I cannot effect). I have placed WSUS_User in the groups mentioned above, but it still does not connect. I made sure WSUS_User has full access on C:\Program Files\Update Services and C:\Program Files\Update Services\WebServices I am not very familiar with the workings of WSUS or IIS, and have gone as far as I can figure out on my own. Googling these errors all take me to the same steps about Anonymous Authentication and configuring permissions on folders. Note: I have cross-posted this to StackOverflow as well.

  Read the article

• Virtual Network Interface and NAT disables localhost access for MySQL and Apache

  - by Interarticle

  I'm running an Ubuntu Server 12.04, and recently I configured it to do NAT for my laptop. Since the server has only one NIC, I followed instructions online to create a virtual network device (eth0:0) that has a LAN IP address, then further configured iptables and UFW to allow internet sharing. However, just a few days ago, I discovered that one of the PHP pages hosted on the server failed for no apparent reason. A little digging revealed that the MySQL server started refusing connections from localhost. The same happened with a page (PhpMyAdmin) that was configured to be accessible only from localhost (in Apache2). The error, as shown by $mysql --protocol=tcp -u root -p looks like ERROR 1130 (HY000): Host '<host name of eth0>' is not allowed to connect to this MySQL server However, the funny thing is, I configured the mysql server to allow root access from localhost (only). Moreover, the mysql server listens only on 127.0.0.1:3306, as shown by: sudo netstat -npa | head Active Internet connections (servers and established) Proto Recv-Q Send-Q Local Address Foreign Address State PID/Program name tcp 0 0 127.0.0.1:3306 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 1029/mysqld which means that the connection could have only come from 127.0.0.1 (Note that MySQL is working because I can still connect to it via unix domain sockets) In effect, it seems that all tcp connections originating from 127.0.0.1 to 127.0.0.1 appear to any local daemon to come from the eth0 IP address. Indeed, apache2 allowed me to access PhpMyAdmin after I added allow <eth0 IP address>. The following are my network configurations (redacted): /etc/hosts: 127.0.0.1 localhost 211.x.x.x <host name of eth0> <server name> #IPv6 Defaults follows .... /etc/network/interfaces: auto lo iface lo inet loopback auto eth0 iface eth0 inet static address 211.x.x.x netmask 255.255.255.0 gateway 211.x.x.x dns-nameservers 8.8.8.8 # dns-* options are implemented by the resolvconf package, if installed dns-search xxxxxxx.com hwaddress ether xx:xx:xx:xx:xx:xx auto eth0:0 iface eth0:0 inet static address 192.168.57.254 netmask 255.255.254.0 broadcast 192.168.57.255 network 192.168.57.0 /etc/ufw/sysctl.conf: #Uncommented the following lines net/ipv4/ip_forward=1 net/ipv6/conf/default/forwarding=1 /etc/default/ufw: DEFAULT_FORWARD_POLICY="ACCEPT" #Changed DROP to ACCEPT /etc/init/internet-sharing.conf (upstart script I wrote), section pre-start script: iptables -A FORWARD -o eth0 -i eth0:0 -s 192.168.57.22 -m conntrack --ctstate NEW -j ACCEPT iptables -A FORWARD -m conntrack --ctstate ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT iptables -A POSTROUTING -t nat -j MASQUERADE Note again that my problem here is that programs cannot access localhost tcp services, from the server itself, and that access is blocked because the services have access control allowing only 127.0.0.1. I have no problem connecting (as in TCP connections) to services via tcp, even if the services listen only on 127.0.0.1. I do NOT want to connect to the services from another computer.

  Read the article

• Can you set up a gaming LAN using OpenVPN installed in a VMware guest OS and be playing the game on the host OS?

  - by Coder

  I would like to setup a gaming VPN. Ie. I have some games that work over LAN and would like to play them with people that are not on my LAN. I know I can do this with OpenVPN. My ultimate goal would be to run OpenVPN portably on my host OS and not even need any virtualization. As such i don't want to install it on my host, but i'm fine with running it portably. I'm even fine with temporarily adding registry keys, and then running a .reg file to remove these entries once i'm done. To this effect i have installed OpenVPN on a virtual machine and diffed the registry. I then manually (using a .reg file) added all the keys that seem important on my host OS and copied the installation folder of OpenVPN onto my host machine. Then i try to run openVPN GUI 1.0.3 as a test and it says "Error opening registy for reading (HKLM\SOFTWARE\OpenVPN). OpenVPN is probably not installed". I verified that that key is indeed in the registry with all subkeys and it looks correct. I have tried running the GUI as an administrator and in compatibility mode with no success. I am running Windows 7. If this fails then i would be happy with installing OpenVPN on a virtual machine in VMWare but they key is that i will be running the game installed on my host machine. The first question for this option is if this is even possible. The second is, that I can't get the VM to have internet access if I use bridging but i can if i use NAT. Is it possible to do this game VPN setup with VMWare guest OS running using NAT? Summary of questions: -Is it possible to run openVPN portably and if so what did i miss above? -If it's not possible to run it portably, then can setup a gaming LAN by installing OpenVPN in a guest OS with NAT and how can i do this? -If the above is not possible then can i install OpenVPN in a guest using bridging and if so how can i set this up with a Windows 7 host and Windows XP guest as currently i can't get the guest to be able to access the internet in bridging mode, but it working in NAT mode. -In general is there any good documentation on setting up a gaming LAN with OpenVPN (i am using 2.1.4) as i have never set up a VPN of any sort before so any help would be much appreciated. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Postfix SMTP auth not working with virtual mailboxes + SASL + Courier userdb

  - by Greg K

  So I've read a variety of tutorials and how-to's and I'm struggling to make sense of how to get SMTP auth working with virtual mailboxes in Postfix. I used this Ubuntu tutorial to get set up. I'm using Courier-IMAP and POP3 for reading mail which seems to be working without issue. However, the credentials used to read a mailbox are not working for SMTP. I can see from /var/log/auth.log that PAM is being used, does this require a UNIX user account to work? As I'm using virtual mailboxes to avoid creating user accounts. li305-246 saslauthd[22856]: DEBUG: auth_pam: pam_authenticate failed: Authentication failure li305-246 saslauthd[22856]: do_auth : auth failure: [user=fred] [service=smtp] [realm=] [mech=pam] [reason=PAM auth error] /var/log/mail.log li305-246 postfix/smtpd[27091]: setting up TLS connection from mail-pb0-f43.google.com[209.85.160.43] li305-246 postfix/smtpd[27091]: Anonymous TLS connection established from mail-pb0-f43.google.com[209.85.160.43]: TLSv1 with cipher ECDHE-RSA-RC4-SHA (128/128 bits) li305-246 postfix/smtpd[27091]: warning: SASL authentication failure: Password verification failed li305-246 postfix/smtpd[27091]: warning: mail-pb0-f43.google.com[209.85.160.43]: SASL PLAIN authentication failed: authentication failure I've created accounts in userdb as per this tutorial. Does Postfix also use authuserdb? What debug information is needed to help diagnose my issue? main.cf: # TLS parameters smtpd_tls_cert_file = /etc/ssl/certs/smtpd.crt smtpd_tls_key_file = /etc/ssl/private/smtpd.key smtpd_use_tls=yes smtpd_tls_session_cache_database = btree:${data_directory}/smtpd_scache smtp_tls_session_cache_database = btree:${data_directory}/smtp_scache # SMTP parameters smtpd_sasl_local_domain = smtpd_sasl_auth_enable = yes smtpd_sasl_security_options = noanonymous broken_sasl_auth_clients = yes smtpd_recipient_restrictions = permit_sasl_authenticated,permit_mynetworks,reject_unauth_destination smtp_tls_security_level = may smtpd_tls_security_level = may smtpd_tls_auth_only = no smtp_tls_note_starttls_offer = yes smtpd_tls_CAfile = /etc/ssl/certs/cacert.pem smtpd_tls_loglevel = 1 smtpd_tls_received_header = yes smtpd_tls_session_cache_timeout = 3600s tls_random_source = dev:/dev/urandom /etc/postfix/sasl/smtpd.conf pwcheck_method: saslauthd mech_list: plain login /etc/default/saslauthd START=yes PWDIR="/var/spool/postfix/var/run/saslauthd" PARAMS="-m ${PWDIR}" PIDFILE="${PWDIR}/saslauthd.pid" DESC="SASL Authentication Daemon" NAME="saslauthd" MECHANISMS="pam" MECH_OPTIONS="" THREADS=5 OPTIONS="-c -m /var/spool/postfix/var/run/saslauthd" /etc/courier/authdaemonrc authmodulelist="authuserdb" I've only modified one line in authdaemonrc and restarted the service as per this tutorial. I've added accounts to /etc/courier/userdb via userdb and userdbpw and run makeuserdb as per the tutorial. SOLVED Thanks to Jenny D for suggesting use of rimap to auth against localhost IMAP server (which reads userdb credentials). I updated /etc/default/saslauthd to start saslauthd correctly (this page was useful) MECHANISMS="rimap" MECH_OPTIONS="localhost" THREADS=0 OPTIONS="-c -m /var/spool/postfix/var/run/saslauthd -r" After doing this I got the following error in /var/log/auth.log: li305-246 saslauthd[28093]: auth_rimap: unexpected response to auth request: * BYE [ALERT] Fatal error: Account's mailbox directory is not owned by the correct uid or gid: li305-246 saslauthd[28093]: do_auth : auth failure: [user=fred] [service=smtp] [realm=] [mech=rimap] [reason=[ALERT] Unexpected response from remote authentication server] This blog post detailed a solution by setting IMAP_MAILBOX_SANITY_CHECK=0 in /etc/courier/imapd. Then restart your courier and saslauthd daemons for config changes to take effect. sudo /etc/init.d/courier-imap restart sudo /etc/init.d/courier-authdaemon restart sudo /etc/init.d/saslauthd restart Watch /var/log/auth.log while trying to send email. Hopefully you're good!

  Read the article

• OCZ Vertex 2 not recognized by Ubuntu installer

  - by Zsub

  As I boot into the Ubuntu 10.10 (or 11.04, doesn't matter) live environment or installer, it just refuses to recognise my Vertex 2. It reports the disk as ATA and not supporting smart, shows no serial number, and doesn't list the size correctly. All fdisk tells me is Unable to read /dev/sda (it's the only storage in the PC). I'm now running a temporary install of Windows 7 off of it, which worked like a charm, so where am I going wrong with Ubuntu... Specs: Asus M4N68T-M LE V2 (BIOS 0702, most recent) OCZ Vertex 2 SSD 60 GB Amd Athlon II X4 640 Patriot PSD34G13332 4GB DDR3 ram (two banks) EDIT I installed a second drive, installed Ubuntu on that and booted, it recognised the SSD just fine. I'm now trying to apt-get upgrade the live-environment. I wonder if there is any way to sort of install Ubuntu from Ubuntu (I boot into the working install on the other drive, install it on the SSD and then boot from the SSD). EDIT2 Ok, so that doesn't work. The install detects the SSD, however, it cannot format it. EDIT3 After a fresh boot I can read out SMART-data and even perform a read-benchmark, but if I try to format it, or do a write-bench, it'll crap out and after that it says SMART is not supported. So basically it seems I can't write to the disk, as it will stop working when I do, I will try to run repeated read-benchmarks to see if that has any effect. EDIT4 I'm running several read benchmarks on the drive right now, they give results that are to be expected from an SSD. If the read-benches don't fail, I can use fdisk on the disk, but it is now stuck trying to re-read the partition table after issueing the 'w' command. EDIT5 Parted Magic did recognize the drive and with hdparm -I even could tell me the drive was in a frozen state. I powercycled it (just pull out the plug from the SSD and plug it back in) and it wasn't frozen anymore. After that I could upgrade the firmware on the drive (still using Parted Magic) and format it to Ext4. After I rebooted into the Ubuntu installer, it wouldn't get recognized and hdparm didn't want to talk to it saying HDIO_DRIVE_CMD(identify) failed: Invalid exchange. EDIT6 For some reason if I enable one of the RAID controllers (the one the SSD is connected to, obviously) Ubuntu will let me format it, mount it and write to it. The installer also recognizes it. However if the raid controller is enabled but no array is defined the motherboard can't boot from it :(

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196  | Next Page >