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  • [C++] Multiple inheritance from template class

    - by Tom P.
    Hello, I'm having issues with multiple inheritance from different instantiations of the same template class. Specifically, I'm trying to do this: template <class T> class Base { public: Base() : obj(NULL) { } virtual ~Base() { if( obj != NULL ) delete obj; } template <class T> T* createBase() { obj = new T(); return obj; } protected: T* obj; }; class Something { // ... }; class SomethingElse { // ... }; class Derived : public Base<Something>, public Base<SomethingElse> { }; int main() { Derived* d = new Derived(); Something* smth1 = d->createBase<Something>(); SomethingElse* smth2 = d->createBase<SomethingElse>(); delete d; return 0; } When I try to compile the above code, I get the following errors: 1>[...](41) : error C2440: '=' : cannot convert from 'SomethingElse *' to 'Something *' 1> Types pointed to are unrelated; conversion requires reinterpret_cast, C-style cast or function-style cast 1> [...](71) : see reference to function template instantiation 'T *Base<Something>::createBase<SomethingElse>(void)' being compiled 1> with 1> [ 1> T=SomethingElse 1> ] 1>[...](43) : error C2440: 'return' : cannot convert from 'Something *' to 'SomethingElse *' 1> Types pointed to are unrelated; conversion requires reinterpret_cast, C-style cast or function-style cast The issue seems to be ambiguity due to member obj being inherited from both Base< Something and Base< SomethingElse , and I can work around it by disambiguating my calls to createBase: Something* smth1 = d->Base<Something>::createBase<Something>(); SomethingElse* smth2 = d->Base<SomethingElse>::createBase<SomethingElse>(); However, this solution is dreadfully impractical, syntactically speaking, and I'd prefer something more elegant. Moreover, I'm puzzled by the first error message. It seems to imply that there is an instantiation createBase< SomethingElse in Base< Something , but how is that even possible? Any information or advice regarding this issue would be much appreciated.

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  • Dual Exchange 2010 on different VM + single public IP + multiple domains

    - by Shivan Raptor
    Here is the scenario: I have 2 Exchange Server 2010 on 2 different Virtual Machines, created by and based on Hyper-V. They have IP and domain: 192.168.5.11, domainA.com ; and 192.168.5.12, domainB.com respectively. The problem is, I only have 1 public IP, say 123.123.1.1 . How do I configure the settings so that I can successfully receive emails using both Exchange servers? Given that I cannot use single Exchange server for multiple domains. -- UPDATE -- To clarify, the domainA.com and domainB.com mentioned above are website domains, instead of multiple Active Directory forests. Users of the two Exchange Server shares the same Active Directory. I know that ONE Exchange Server can handle multiple domains, but I would like to separate them into different Virtual Machines, for load balancing and data separation.

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  • Multiple domains, one config, hosted on apache2

    - by Kristoffer Sall Hansen
    First a quick disclaimer, I'm not a 'server guy' or a 'unix pro' or anything like that, I'm a web programmer who got stuck doing server works since I ran linux (ubuntu) on my netbook. I'm trying to set up an apache server running on Debian to automagically serve multiple domains, each domain needs to have its own directory in /var/www. Since this is the last thing I do for this company I really need it to be easy for my successor (who is even more a beginner at servers than I am), to create more domains without having to muck around with ssh or /etc/apache2/sites-available, so what I'm looking for is basically any magic mumbo-jumbo in default (or apt-get, or conf.d) that makes the server start serving any domain that has a matching folder in /var/www they will ofcourse have to initiate domain transfers the usual way. I have no problem setting up domains individually. Ick... hope the above makes sense to someone.

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  • Hosting 2 different SSL domains on the same IP [closed]

    - by Jim
    Possible Duplicate: Multiple SSL domains on the same IP address and same port? I have 2 different domains, domain1.com and domain2.net. Both require SSL certificates. I've got the certificates signed by a CA and now need to set them up on Apache. I've got a single IP address and have found a post here: SSL site not using the correct IP in Apache and Ubuntu that apparently works for ubuntu but I am on CentOS and have not had the same luck trying that configuration. When I try that configuration, Apache dies telling me that the port is already in use: (98)Address already in use: make_sock: could not bind to address 0.0.0.0:443 I had SSL working for a single domain but now that I've added the second, I get a browser warning about the cert not belonging to the domain. How do I get both domains to work using virtual host containers?

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  • Setting Up Multiple Domains (plus wildcard subdomains) to Point to the Same Site/VirtualHost

    - by Derek Reynolds
    I have my primary domain with wildcard subdomains setup already. username.maindomain.com and maindomain.com I want to provide my users with additional domains that they can select. additional1.com, additional2.com, additional3.com... These additional domains would also need to support wildcard subdomains (as the subdomains route to a username). Anyone know how to properly configure this in DNS and VirtualHost config? Currently I have the additional domains as A records pointing to the same IP as my main domain (with a wildcard subdomain A record for each as well). In my VirtualHost config I am placing the additional domain names in the ServerAlias directive. Let me know if any more detail is needed.

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  • Invalid domains in DNS don't work on mac/*nix like systems

    - by David Mulder
    At work we use domains like abc-01, which work fine on windows. Whilst developing mobile applications we already saw that this doesn't work on both iOS and android which we fixed for a few specific domains (by setting the dns up that abc-01.def.local also works in those) and was assumed to be caused by it being an invalid domain. Now however it's necessary to connect through VPN from a mac and changing all relevant domains is not an option at the moment (far too many of them and would require changing the settings of far too many applications), so I was hoping whether somebody knows a trick or setting to get this to work on mac (or even linux in general).

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  • Implementation of SSL on SaaS App with seprate domains

    - by asifch
    Hi, We are developing a SaaS application in Asp.net, where we have used the Single application and Per Tenant Database. The application is more like a Saas e-commerce where SSL and data separation are required features. Now we want that every Tenant can have his separate top level domain names instead of the second level domains like 37Signals. So all the domains abc.com and xyz.com are using the same single app. What i need to know is how to implement and deploy the https in the application so that everything works out fine, also how should we configure the NameServer and web application on IIS so that all the domains are pointing to the one application.

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  • LDAP Authentication for multiple AD Domains

    - by TrevJen
    I have 3 full trust domains (2 child and one root). I need to use LDAP to allow authntication for domain users. The trick is that I need the application to use an AD server for the child domain BUT proxy the LDAP query and authentication for the root domain. I see that it maty be possible with AD LDS and some trusts and synching, but it looks pretty hairy and overly complicated. The short of it is: 3 domains (Parent, ChildA, ChildB) My 3rd party app will need to use ChildA domain servers to authenticate either: a. a user in the parent domain or b. a user in the ChildB domain I already have full trusts between all domains, and regular NTLM authentication works fine (unless you are trying to authenticate with LDAP)

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  • Multiple Domains on an Exchange Server

    - by William
    When I create a new user in exchange, it asks me to provide the User Logon Name. There is a dropdown box that supposedly allows you to select a domain for the user's login. What is this referring to? How can I make it so that I can create users with different domains in their user logon name? p.s. I am very aware of 'Accepted Domains' in Exchange allowing one user to have several email addresses in different domains. I am just curious how I can modify the user's Logon name specifically.

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  • How can i set new domains to respond to my server

    - by André
    I would like to create a page for new clients in my hosting. When someone register a domain, sometimes that person don't have a dns, or the hosting didn't created the account. So the page will not respond. Is there any way to set in my primary domain DNS to respond to all domains pointing to me, to a specific new page like home/resseler/public_html/soon.html ? Like a CNAME myserver.com/soon.html CNAME ~~all domains pointing to my ns1 and ns2. A normal default page for news domains pointed to my server without account creation.

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  • mod_rewrite for specific domains in a mappings file

    - by scott
    I have a bunch of domains that I want to go to one domain but various parts of that domain. # this is what I currently have RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^.*\.?foo\.com$ [NC] RewriteRule ^.*$ ${domainmappings:www.foo.com} [L,R=301] # rewrite map file www.foo.com www.domain.com/domain/foo.com.php www.bar.com www.domain.com/domain/bar.com.php www.baz.com www.domain.com/other/baz.php.foo The problem is that I don't want to have to have each domain be part of the RewriteCond. I tried RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www\.(.*) RewriteRule (.*) http://%1/$1 [R=301,L] but that will do it for EVERY domain. I only want the domains that are in the mappings file to redirect, and then continue on to other rewrites if it doesn't match any domains in the mappings file.

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  • Issues With IIS Hosting Two Domains From Same Folder

    - by Bob Mc
    I have two different domain names that resolve to the same ASP.Net site. Both domains are hosted on the same server, which runs Windows Server 2003 and IIS6. The sites are differentiated in IIS Manager using host headers. However, both of the sites point to the same folder on the local drive for the site's page files. I am occasionally experiencing an ASP.Net error that says "The state information is invalid for this page and might be corrupted." I'm the site developer so I've addressed all the relevant code-related causes for this issue. However, I was wondering whether having two domains/sites sharing the same folder for an ASP.Net application might be causing this intermittent error. Also, is this generally a bad practice? Should I make separate, duplicate folders for each of the domains? Seems like that can become a maintenance headache.

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  • Need hosting (e-mail, http) for external domains

    - by disappointed
    This may not be the right place, but since it is a more technical aspect of the hosting world, I am taking the liberty to ask: I'm currently running a virtual server with nginx and postfix for web and e-mail, but I can't handle the administration and, due to frequent problems with e-mail services, I need to resolve this with a almost-standard hosting package (anything should work, even 5 MB static files would be OK). The exception being that I would like to use several domains, hosted with different registrars, for web and e-mail. Currently, this is a very simple configuration in my setup. All hosters I have looked at seem to think this a costly business (more than domain registration costs), but of course the recommend to transfer domains to them (they want the $$). Does anyone know of a hosting company that allows its customers to freely manage domains registered somewhere else?

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  • Java multiple class compositing and boiler plate reduction

    - by h2g2java
    We all know why Java does/should not have multiple inheritance. So this is not questioning about what has already been debated till-cows-come-home. This discusses what we would do when we wish to create a class that has the characteristics of two or more other classes. Probably, most of us would do this to "inherit" from three classes. For simplicity, I left out the constructor.: class Car extends Vehicle { final public Transport transport; final public Machine machine; } So that, Car class directly inherits methods and objects of Vehicle class, but would have to refer to transport and machine explicitly to refer to objects instantiated in Transport and Machine. Car car = new Car(); car.drive(); // from Vehicle car.transport.isAmphibious(); // from Transport car.machine.getCO2Footprint(); // from Machine I thought this was a good idea until when I encounter frameworks that require setter and getter methods. For example, the XML <Car amphibious='false' footPrint='1000' model='Fordstatic999'/> would look for the methods setAmphibious(..), setFootPrint(..) and setModel(..). Therefore, I have to project the methods from Transport and Machine classes class Car extends Vehicle { final public Transport transport; final public Machine machine; public void setAmphibious(boolean b){ this.transport.setAmphibious(b); } public void setFootPrint(String fp){ this.machine.setFootPrint(fp); } } This is OK, if there were just a few characteristics. Right now, I am trying to adapt all of SmartGWT into GWT UIBinder, especially those classes that are not a GWT widget. There are lots of characteristics to project. Wouldn't it be nice if there exists some form of annotation framework that is like this: class Car extends Vehicle @projects {Transport @projects{Machine @projects Guzzler}} { /* No need to explicitly instantiate Transport, Machine or Guzzler */ .... } Where, in case of common names of characteristics exist, the characteristics of Machine would take precedence Guzzler's, and Transport's would have precedence over Machine's, and Vehicle's would have precedence over Transport's. The annotation framework would then instantiate Transport, Machine and Guzzler as hidden members of Car and expand to break-out the protected/public characteristics, in the precedence dictated by the @project annotation sequence, into actual source code or into byte-code. Preferably into byte-code. So that the setFootPrint method is found in both Machine and Guzzler, only that of Machine's would be projected. Questions: Don't you think this is a good idea to have such a framework? Does such a framework already exist? Tell me where/what. Is there an eclipse plugin that does it? Is there a proposal or plan anywhere that you know about such an annotation framework? It would be wonderful too, if the annotation/plugin framework lets me specify that boolean, int, or whatever else needs to be converted from String and does the conversion/parsing for me too. Please advise, somebody. I hope wording of my question was clear enough. Thx. Edited: To avoid OO enthusiasts jumping to conclusion, I have renamed the title of this question.

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  • Templates, interfaces (multiple inheritance) and static functions (named constructors)

    - by fledgling Cxx user
    Setup I have a graph library where I am trying to decompose things as much as possible, and the cleanest way to describe it that I found is the following: there is a vanilla type node implementing only a list of edges: class node { public: int* edges; int edge_count; }; Then, I would like to be able to add interfaces to this whole mix, like so: template <class T> class node_weight { public: T weight; }; template <class T> class node_position { public: T x; T y; }; and so on. Then, the actual graph class comes in, which is templated on the actual type of node: template <class node_T> class graph { protected: node_T* nodes; public: static graph cartesian(int n, int m) { graph r; r.nodes = new node_T[n * m]; return r; } }; The twist is that it has named constructors which construct some special graphs, like a Cartesian lattice. In this case, I would like to be able to add some extra information into the graph, depending on what interfaces are implemented by node_T. What would be the best way to accomplish this? Possible solution I thought of the following humble solution, through dynamic_cast<>: template <class node_T, class weight_T, class position_T> class graph { protected: node_T* nodes; public: static graph cartesian(int n, int m) { graph r; r.nodes = new node_T[n * m]; if (dynamic_cast<node_weight<weight_T>>(r.nodes[0]) != nullptr) { // do stuff knowing you can add weights } if (dynamic_cast<node_position<positionT>>(r.nodes[0]) != nullptr) { // do stuff knowing you can set position } return r; } }; which would operate on node_T being the following: template <class weight_T, class position_T> class node_weight_position : public node, public node_weight<weight_T>, public node_position<position_T> { // ... }; Questions Is this -- philosophically -- the right way to go? I know people don't look nicely at multiple inheritance, though with "interfaces" like these it should all be fine. There are unfortunately problems with this. From what I know at least, dynamic_cast<> involves quite a bit of run-time overhead. Hence, I run into a problem with what I had solved earlier: writing graph algorithms that require weights independently of whether the actual node_T class has weights or not. The solution with this 'interface' approach would be to write a function: template <class node_T, class weight_T> inline weight_T get_weight(node_T const & n) { if (dynamic_cast<node_weight<weight_T>>(n) != nullptr) { return dynamic_cast<node_weight<weight_T>>(n).weight; } return T(1); } but the issue with it is that it works using run-time information (dynamic_cast), yet in principle I would like to decide it at compile-time and thus make the code more efficient. If there is a different solution that would solve both problems, especially a cleaner and better one than what I have, I would love to hear about it!

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  • "undefined reference" error with namespace across multiple files

    - by user1330734
    I've looked at several related posts but no luck with this error. I receive this undefined reference error message below when my namespace exists across multiple files. If I compile only ConsoleTest.cpp with contents of Console.cpp dumped into it the source compiles. I would appreciate any feedback on this issue, thanks in advance. g++ Console.cpp ConsoleTest.cpp -o ConsoleTest.o -Wall /tmp/cc8KfSLh.o: In function `getValueTest()': ConsoleTest.cpp:(.text+0x132): undefined reference to `void Console::getValue<unsigned int>(unsigned int&)' collect2: ld returned 1 exit status Console.h #include <iostream> #include <sstream> #include <string> namespace Console { std::string getLine(); template <typename T> void getValue(T &value); } Console.cpp #include "Console.h" using namespace std; namespace Console { string getLine() { string str; while (true) { cin.clear(); if (cin.eof()) { break; // handle eof (Ctrl-D) gracefully } if (cin.good()) { char next = cin.get(); if (next == '\n') break; str += next; // add character to string } else { cin.clear(); // clear error state string badToken; cin >> badToken; cerr << "Bad input encountered: " << badToken << endl; } } return str; } template <typename T> void getValue(T &value) { string inputStr = Console::getLine(); istringstream strStream(inputStr); strStream >> value; } } ConsoleTest.cpp #include "Console.h" void getLineTest() { std::string str; std::cout << "getLinetest" << std::endl; while (str != "next") { str = Console::getLine(); std::cout << "<string>" << str << "</string>"<< std::endl; } } void getValueTest() { std::cout << "getValueTest" << std::endl; unsigned x = 0; while (x != 12345) { Console::getValue(x); std::cout << "x: " << x << std::endl; } } int main() { getLineTest(); getValueTest(); return 0; }

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  • FineUploader multiple instances and dynamic naming

    - by RichieMN
    I am using FineUploader 4.0.8 within a MVC4 project using the jquery wrapper. Here is an example of my js code that creates a single instance of the fineUploader and is working just fine. At this time, I have the need for more than one instance of fineUploader, but each individual control doesn't know anything about the other and they're rendered as needed on a page (I've seen previous questions using a jQuery .each, which won't work here). Currently, I can't seem to correctly render any upload buttons, probably due to having an ID duplicated or something. See below for how I'm using MVC's Razor to create unique variables and html IDs for that individual instance. Here's my current implementation where I've added the dynamic values (places where you see _@Model.{PropertyName}): // Uploader control setup var [email protected] = $('#[email protected]').fineUploader({ debug: true, template: '[email protected]', button: $("#[email protected]"), request: { endpoint: '@Url.Action("UploadFile", "Survey")', customHeaders: { Accept: 'application/json' }, params: { [email protected]: (function () { return instance; }), [email protected]: (function () { return surveyItemResultId; }), [email protected]: (function () { return itemId; }), [email protected]: (function () { return loopingCounter++; }) } }, validation: { acceptFiles: ['image/*', 'application/xls', 'application/pdf', 'text/csv', 'application/vnd.openxmlformats-officedocument.spreadsheetml.template', 'application/vnd.openxmlformats-officedocument.spreadsheetml.sheet', 'application/vnd.ms-excel'], allowedExtensions: ['jpeg', 'jpg', 'gif', 'png', 'bmp', 'csv', 'xls', 'xlsx', 'pdf', 'xlt', 'xltx', 'txt'], sizeLimit: 1024 * 1024 * 2.5, // 2.5MB stopOnFirstInvalidFile: false }, failedUploadTextDisplay: { mode: 'custom' }, multiple: true, text: { uploadButton: 'Select your upload file(s)' } }).on('submitted', function (event, id, filename) { $("#modal-overlay").fadeIn(); $("#modal-box").fadeIn(); [email protected]++; $(':input[type=button], :input[type=submit], :input[type=reset]').attr('disabled', 'disabled'); }).on('complete', function (event, id, filename, responseJSON) { [email protected]++; if ([email protected] == [email protected]) { $(':input[type=button], :input[type=submit], :input[type=reset]').removeAttr('disabled'); //$("#overlay").fadeOut(); $("#modal-box").fadeOut(); $("#modal-overlay").fadeOut(); } }).on('error', function (event, id, name, errorReason, xhr) { //$("#overlay").fadeOut(); alert('error: ' + errorReason); $("#modal-box").fadeOut(); $("#modal-overlay").fadeOut(); }); }); Using the same principle as above, I've added this logic to the template too. Here's part of my template: <script type="text/template" id="[email protected]"> <div class="qq-uploader-selector qq-uploader"> <div class="qq-upload-drop-area-selector qq-upload-drop-area qq-hide-dropzone"> <span>Drop files here to upload</span> What I see when I use the above code is only the drag and drop section visible, and no button. There are no js errors either. I do have an example that only has one instance of this control on it and the results are the same visible drag and drop section and no button). Any thought as to what's going on? I'll gladly update the question if you find I'm missing something helpful. Please don't just -1 me if it's something I can easily improve or fix.

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  • Possible to download entire whois database / list of registered domains?

    - by Parand
    I wanted to do some analysis on registered domain names. Looks like I can hit whois.internic.net to get information about each domain, but it also looks like there are rate limits that prevent me from doing large numbers of queries. Is there a way to periodically (say daily) grab the entire whois database? I really only care about whether a domain is registered or not, so I don't need the full whois information.

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  • SEO non-English domain name advice

    - by Dominykas Mostauskis
    I'm starting a website, that is meant for a non-English region, using an alphabet that is a bit different than that of English. Current plan is as follows. The website name, and the domain name, will be in the local language (not English); however, domain name will be spelled in the English alphabet, while the website's title will be the same word(s), but spelled properly with accents. E.g.: 'www.litterat.fr' and 'Littérat'. Does the difference between domain name and website name character use influence the site's SEO? Is it better, SEO-wise, to choose a name that can be spelled the same way in the English alphabet? From my experience, when searching online, invariably, the English alphabet is used, no matter the language, so people will still be searching 'litterat' (without accents and such). Edit: To sum up: Things have been said about IDN (Internationalized domain name). To make it simple, they are second-level domain names that contain language specific characters (LSP)(e.g. www.café.fr). Here you can check what top-level domains support what LSPs. Check initall's answer for more info on using LSPs in paths and queries. To answer my question about how and if search engines relate keywords spelled with and without language specific characters: Google can potentially tell that series and séries is the same keyword. However, (most relevant for words that are spelled differently across languages and have different meanings, like séries), for Google to make the connection (or lack thereof) between e and é, it has to deduce two things: Language that you are searching in. Language of your query. You can specify it manually through Advanced search or it guesses it, sometimes. I presume it can guess it wrong too. The more keywords specific to this language you use the higher Google's chance to guess the language. Language of the crawled document, against which the ASCII version of the word will be compared (in this example – series). Again, check initall's answer for how to help Google in understanding what language your document is in. Once it has that it can tell whether or not these two spellings should be treated as the same keyword. Google has to understand that even though you're not using french (in this example) specific characters, you're searching in French. The reason why I used the french word séries in this example, is that it demonstrates this very well. You have it in French and you have it in English without the accent. So if your search query is ambiguous like our series, unless Google has something more to go on, it will presume that there's no correlation between your search and séries in French documents. If you augment your query to series romantiques (try it), Google will understand that you're searching in French and among your results you'll see séries as well. But this does not always work, you should test it out with your keywords first. For example, if you search series francaises, it will associate francaises with françaises, but it will not associate series with séries. It depends on the words. Note: worth stressing that this problem is very relevant to words that, written in plain ASCII, might have some other meanings in other languages, it is less relevant to words that can be, by a distinct margin, just some one language. Tip: I've noticed that sometimes even if my non-accented search query doesn't get associated with the properly spelled word in a document (especially if it's the title or an important keyword in the doc), it still comes up. I followed the link, did a Ctrl-F search for my non-accented search query and found nothing, then checked the meta-tags in the source and you had the page's title in both accented and non-accented forms. So if you have meta-tags that can be spelled with language specific characters and without, put in both. Footnote: I hope this helps. If you have anything to add or correct, go ahead.

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  • Looking for simple windows scan (multiple pages) to one pdf application?

    - by Troggy
    I would like to find some simple scan software for a windows machine that can scan to pdf, but I would like it to do batch or multiple pages into one big pdf. I saw a couple questions on scan to pdf software, but did not see anything talking about scanning to large multiple page pdf's. EDIT: I am surprised there are not more options out there. Do many of the scanners/all in one devices come with included software that perform this function? EDIT 2: I tried Scan2PDF and it locked up on me multiple times in the middle of the scan job and then gave me non-english error messages. Otherwise, I liked how simple the app was, just select number of pages and hit ok. Any other success stories out there?

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  • Moved DNS and Email Hosting, Now Can't Send/Receive To/From Domains Hosted on Previous Host

    - by maxfinis
    Our company had 4 domains whose emails and DNS were hosted by one company, and then we moved the email and DNS hosting for 3 of the 4 domains to a new company. Now, the 3 domains that were moved can't send or receive emails to and from the one domain still left on the old server. All other email functions work fine for all 4 domains. There are no bouncebacks, error messages, or emails stuck in queue, and no evidence of these missing emails hitting the new servers. The new hosting company confirms that everything is fine on their end, and assures me that it's most likely an old zone file still remaining on the old nameserver, and so the emails sent from the old host is routed to what it believes is still the authoritative nameserver. Because the old zone file's MX records still contain the old resource, the requests never leave the old nameserver to go online to do a fresh search for the real (new) authoritative nameserver. The compounding problem is that the old company is rather inept and doesn't seem to have the technical expertise to identify the problem, much less fix it. (I know, I know.) Is the problem truly that this old zone file just needs to be deleted from the old company's nameserver? If so, what's the best way for me to describe this to them? If not, what do you think could be the issue? Any help is much appreciated. I'm not in IT, so all this is new to me. I know it seems weird for me (the client) to have to do this legwork, but I just want to get this resolved. Here's what I've done: Ran dig to verify that the old server's MX records still point to the old authoritative server, instead of going online to do a fresh search: ~$ dig @old.nameserver.com domainthatwasmoved.com mx ; << DiG 9.6.0-APPLE-P2 << @old.nameserver.com domainThatWasMoved.com mx ; (1 server found) ;; global options: +cmd ;; Got answer: ;; -HEADER<<- opcode: QUERY, status: NOERROR, id: 61227 ;; flags: qr aa rd ra; QUERY: 1, ANSWER: 1, AUTHORITY: 0, ADDITIONAL: 1 ;; QUESTION SECTION: ;domainthatwasmoved.com. IN MX ;; ANSWER SECTION: domainthatwasmoved.com. 3600 IN MX 10 mail.oldmailserver.com. ;; ADDITIONAL SECTION: mail.oldmailserver.com. 3600 IN A 65.198.191.5 ;; Query time: 29 msec ;; SERVER: 65.198.191.5#53(65.198.191.5) ;; WHEN: Sun Dec 26 16:59:22 2010 ;; MSG SIZE rcvd: 88 Ran dig to try to see where the new hosting company's servers look when emails are sent from the 3 domains that were moved, and got refused: ~$ dig @new.nameserver.net domainStillAtOldHost.com mx ; << DiG 9.6.0-APPLE-P2 << @new.nameserver.net domainStillAtOldHost.com mx ; (1 server found) ;; global options: +cmd ;; Got answer: ;; -HEADER<<- opcode: QUERY, status: REFUSED, id: 31599 ;; flags: qr rd; QUERY: 1, ANSWER: 0, AUTHORITY: 0, ADDITIONAL: 0 ;; WARNING: recursion requested but not available ;; QUESTION SECTION: ;domainStillAtOldHost.com. IN MX ;; Query time: 31 msec ;; SERVER: 216.201.128.10#53(216.201.128.10) ;; WHEN: Sun Dec 26 17:00:14 2010 ;; MSG SIZE rcvd: 34

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  • SEO Implications of creating Niche Product Blogs vs Main Company Blog with Categories.

    - by Frank
    Our company has a dilemma that I am hoping the users of Pro WebMasters can help us with. Right now as it stands we create a seperate website for each product that we sell. We also have our corporate site which lists each of these brands. For Example: www.Apple.com < --- main company site www.Ipad.com <--- Product www.Iphone.com <--- Product www.Imac.com <-- Product We are looking to build a wordpress blog mainly for the purpose of increasing our SEO rank. Here are our two options: SINGLE BLOG - On Our Corporate Domain http://apple.com/blog Each post is categoried http://apple.com/category/ipad/ipad-5-realeasd.htm Easier to manage than multiple blogs More content since its listing about all our products. ONE BLOG PER PRODUCT - on each site http://ipad.com/blog Each product has its own blog with only its own articles Harder to manage, but does it benefit SEO? Can the team here tell me the SEO benefits of either approach? Similar to Apple all the products our company sells are loosely related. Although its not likely that a customer of product A would be interested in product B.

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  • jquery boxy plugin: prevent multiple instances of the same dialog when clicking the link multiple ti

    - by Lyon
    Hi, I'm using the Boxy jQuery plugin to open dialog windows and populating it through ajax. http://onehackoranother.com/projects/jquery/boxy/ Here's my code so far: $("a.create").click(function (e) { url = $(e.target).attr('href'); Boxy.load(url, {title:'Test'}); }); This opens up a dialog alright. However, if I click the link again, another dialog will open. How can I make it such that the previously opened Boxy dialog will come into focus? I only want one instance of this dialog. I tried assigning a variable to var ele = Boxy.load(); but the variable ele returns undefined... Alas, I can't make out much from the limited Boxy documentation available. Enabling the option modal: true would prevent the user from clicking on the link multiple times, but I don't want the overlay to show. Thanks for any light you can shed on this. -Lyon

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  • How can I easily print multiple layers on multiple pages in Visio

    - by Mark Robinson
    We've created a flow chart using Visio that has multiple layers. (The background is that each layer represents variations on a basic process.) Now we want to be able to print each layer individually. Currently this involves lots of clicking to select the correct layer and and then press print - then repeating this for each of the 10 layers. Is there a simpler way? E.g. define each layer once and use a "print each layer" tool / macro?

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