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  • An alternative to reading input from Java's System.in

    - by dvanaria
    I’m working on the UVa Online Judge problem set archive as a way to practice Java, and as a way to practice data structures and algorithms in general. They give an example input file to submit to the online judge to use as a starting point (it’s the solution to problem 100). Input from the standard input stream (java.lang.System.in) is required as part of any solution on this site, but I can’t understand the implementation of reading from System.in they give in their example solution. It’s true that the input file could consist of any variation of integers, strings, etc, but every solution program requires reading basic lines of text input from System.in, one line at a time. There has to be a better (simpler and more robust) method of gathering data from the standard input stream in Java than this: public static String readLn(int maxLg) { byte lin[] = new byte[maxLg]; int lg = 0, car = -1; String line = “”; try { while (lg < maxLg) { car = System.in.read(); if ((car < 0) || (car == ‘\n’)) { break; } lin[lg++] += car; } } catch (java.io.IOException e) { return (null); } if ((car < 0) && (lg == 0)) { return (null); // eof } return (new String(lin, 0, lg)); } I’m really surprised by this. It looks like something pulled directly from K&R’s “C Programming Language” (a great book regardless), minus the access level modifer and exception handling, etc. Even though I understand the implementation, it just seems like it was written by a C programmer and bypasses most of Java’s object oriented nature. Isn’t there a better way to do this, using the StringTokenizer class or maybe using the split method of String or the java.util.regex package instead?

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  • Silverlight client never calls WCF Service

    - by Doug Nelson
    Hi all, This one has me completed stumped. I have developed a silverlight application that calls back to WCF services ( it's a silverlight - basicHttpBinding) The site works perfectly fine from my development machine, but when it is deployed to the developement server. The application is delivered with the XAP just fine, but it never attempts to talk to the service. I have a service call in the bootstrapper so it should be calling this when the client starts up. The services are healthy. They can be browsed to and show the standard WCF service display. We have been through the bindings many times and everything seems to be ok. I have added an extensive amount of error handling for displaying any errors, but on this dev server, no service calls and no errors are being raised. Fiddler shows the page being loaded up, but my client never issues a call to the service. The service is in the same folder as the default.aspx which hosts the Silverlight client. This is a Silverlight 3.0 app. Anybody ever seen anything similar?

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  • how to use gettimeofday() or something equivalent with Visual Studio C++ 2008?

    - by make
    Hi, Could someone please help me to use gettimeofday() function with Visual Studio C++ 2008 on Windows XP? here is a code that I found somewhere on the net: #include < time.h > #include <windows.h> #if defined(_MSC_VER) || defined(_MSC_EXTENSIONS) #define DELTA_EPOCH_IN_MICROSECS 11644473600000000Ui64 #else #define DELTA_EPOCH_IN_MICROSECS 11644473600000000ULL #endif struct timezone { int tz_minuteswest; /* minutes W of Greenwich */ int tz_dsttime; /* type of dst correction */ }; int gettimeofday(struct timeval *tv, struct timezone *tz) { FILETIME ft; unsigned __int64 tmpres = 0; static int tzflag; if (NULL != tv) { GetSystemTimeAsFileTime(&ft); tmpres |= ft.dwHighDateTime; tmpres <<= 32; tmpres |= ft.dwLowDateTime; /*converting file time to unix epoch*/ tmpres -= DELTA_EPOCH_IN_MICROSECS; tmpres /= 10; /*convert into microseconds*/ tv->tv_sec = (long)(tmpres / 1000000UL); tv->tv_usec = (long)(tmpres % 1000000UL); } if (NULL != tz) { if (!tzflag) { _tzset(); tzflag++; } tz->tz_minuteswest = _timezone / 60; tz->tz_dsttime = _daylight; } return 0; } ... // call gettimeofday() gettimeofday(&tv, &tz); tm = localtime(&tv.tv_sec); Last yesr when I tested this code VC++6, it works fine. But now when I use VC++ 2008, I am getting error of exception handling. So is there any idea on how to use gettimeofday or something equivalent? Thanks for your reply and any help would be very appreciated:

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  • Would OpenID or OAuth work for authorization/authentication on a distributed web service?

    - by David Eyk
    We're in the early stages of designing a RESTful/resource-oriented web service API for a computational lingustics application. Because many of the resources we plan to serve are rights-encumbered, a key design decision has been to specify the platform so that each resource provider can expose their own web service that complies with the API spec. This way, the rights owner maintains control over their content (and thus the ability to throttle or deny access at will) and a direct relationship with the consumer, while still being able to participate in in the collaborative network. At the same time, to simplify the job of writing a client for this service, we want to allow a client access to the distributed service through one end-point, with the server handling content negotiation and retrieval from the appropriate providers. Right now, we're at an impasse on authentication/authorization schemes. One of our number has argued for the (technical) simplicity of a central authentication registry, but others are concerned about the organizational complexity of such a scheme. It seems to me, based on an albeit limited understanding of the technologies, that a combination of OpenID and OAuth would do the trick, with a client authenticating with the end-point via OpenID, and the server taking action on the user's behalf with the various content providers using OAuth. I've only ever seen implementations (e.g. stackoverflow, twitter, etc.) where a human was present to intervene, and I still need to do more research on these technologies. Would a scheme like this work for an automated web service, or would it make the client too difficult to implement and operate?

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  • Guice, JDBC and managing database connections

    - by pledge
    I'm looking to create a sample project while learning Guice which uses JDBC to read/write to a SQL database. However, after years of using Spring and letting it abstract away connection handling and transactions I'm struggling to work it our conceptually. I'd like to have a service which starts and stops a transaction and calls numerous repositories which reuse the same connection and participate in the same transaction. My questions are: Where do I create my Datasource? How do I give the repositories access to the connection? (ThreadLocal?) Best way to manage the transaction (Creating an Interceptor for an annotation?) The code below shows how I would do this in Spring. The JdbcOperations injected into each repository would have access to the connection associated with the active transaction. I haven't been able to find many tutorials which cover this, beyond ones which show creating interceptors for transactions. I am happy with continuing to use Spring as it is working very well in my projects, but I'd like to know how to do this in pure Guice and JBBC (No JPA/Hibernate/Warp/Reusing Spring) @Service public class MyService implements MyInterface { @Autowired private RepositoryA repositoryA; @Autowired private RepositoryB repositoryB; @Autowired private RepositoryC repositoryC; @Override @Transactional public void doSomeWork() { this.repositoryA.someInsert(); this.repositoryB.someUpdate(); this.repositoryC.someSelect(); } } @Repository public class MyRepositoryA implements RepositoryA { @Autowired private JdbcOperations jdbcOperations; @Override public void someInsert() { //use jdbcOperations to perform an insert } } @Repository public class MyRepositoryB implements RepositoryB { @Autowired private JdbcOperations jdbcOperations; @Override public void someUpdate() { //use jdbcOperations to perform an update } } @Repository public class MyRepositoryC implements RepositoryC { @Autowired private JdbcOperations jdbcOperations; @Override public String someSelect() { //use jdbcOperations to perform a select and use a RowMapper to produce results return "select result"; } }

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  • Posting xml from classic asp to asp.net

    - by Chris Dunaway
    I apologize if this has been asked before. I searched and didn't find anything that matched my situation. Also bear in mind I am fairly new to asp/asp.net development. My current project is a relatively simple e-commerce site. The customer will connect to the site, select products, input shipping and billing information, payment information (credit card) and submit the order. The project is being split into two parts: The store front which includes displaying the items and taking the customer's shipping and billing information and the payment site which will collect the customers credit card, compute tax, and save the order into the company's system. The reason that the site was split up, was that our side (payment side) already has facilities for credit card handling and tax computation. There may also be some regulatory issues that the store front side does not want to deal with (which we already do). I'm working on the payment portion of the app and I am using asp.net. The store front side is being written in classic asp (not my decision). Each part will be hosted on different servers. The problem I am having is transferring the contents of the "shopping cart" to our app so that we can collect the cc info and submit the order. We had thought that the classic asp could somehow post an xml fragment which contains the billing/shipping info and the items selected. Our side would display a summary of the order, securely collect the credit card info, and submit the order to our system. But I have been unable to post or send the xml from a classic asp on one server, to our asp.net application on another. It all works just fine when I test on the same server. How can I post (or otherwise transfer) the shopping cart data from classic asp to asp.net across server boundaries and transfer control to the asp.net application? As I said, I am new to web development, so this is proving quite a challenge for me. Thanks

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  • Raytraced Shadows Problem

    - by Mat
    Hey There! I've got a problem with shadowrays in my raytracer. Please have a look at the following two pictures 3D sMax: My Raytracer: The scene is lit by a very bright light, shining from the back. It's so bright that there is no gradient in the shading, just either white or dark (due to the overexposure). both images were rendered using 3DStudioMax and both use the exact same geometry, just in one case the normals are interpolated across the triangles. Now consider the red dot on the surface. In the case of the unsmoothed version, it lies in a dark area. this means that the light source is not visible from this triangle, since it's facing away from it. In the smoothed version however, it lies in the lit area, because the interpolated normal would suggest, that the light would be visible at that point (although the actual geometry of the triangle is facing away from the lightsource). My problem now is when raytraced shadows come in. if a shadowray is shot into the scene, from the red dot, to test whether the light-source is visible or not (to determine shadowing), the shadowray will return an intersection, independent of whether normals are interpolated or not (because intersections only depend on the geometry). Therefore the pixel would be shaded dark. 3dsamx is handling the case correctly - the rendered image was generated with Raytraced shadows turned on. However, my own Raytracer runs exactly into this problem when i turn on raytraced shadows (in my raytracer, the point is dark in both cases, because raytraced shadows determine the point lying in the shadow), and i don't know how to solve it. I hope someone knows this problem and how to deal with it.. thanks!

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  • Spaces and backslashes in Visual Studio build events

    - by gencha
    I have an application that is supposed to aid my project in terms of pre- and post-build event handling. I'm using ndesk.options for command line argument parsing. Which gave me weird results when my project path contains spaces. I thought this was the fault of ndesk.options but I guess my own application is to blame. I call my application as a post-built event like so: build.exe --in="$(ProjectDir)" --out="c:\out\" A simple foreach over args[] displays the following: --in=c:\my project" --out=c:\out" What happened is that the last " in each parameter was treated as if it was escaped. Thus the trailing backslash was removed. And the whole thing is treated as a single argument. Now I thought I was being smart by simply escaping the first " as well, like so: build.exe --in=\"$(ProjectDir)" --out=\"c:\out\" In that case the resulting args[] look like this: --path="c:\my project" --out="c:\out" The trailing backslash in the parameters is still swallowed and the first parameter is now split up. Passing this args[] to ndesk.options will then yield wrong results. How should the right command line look so that the correct elements end up in the correct args[] slots? Alternatively, how is one supposed to parse command line arguments like these with or without ndesk.options? Any suggestion is welcome. Thanks in advance

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  • HTTP requests and Apache modules: Creative attack vectors

    - by pinkgothic
    Slightly unorthodox question here: I'm currently trying to break an Apache with a handful of custom modules. What spawned the testing is that Apache internally forwards requests that it considers too large (e.g. 1 MB trash) to modules hooked in appropriately, forcing them to deal with the garbage data - and lack of handling in the custom modules caused Apache in its entirety to go up in flames. Ouch, ouch, ouch. That particular issue was fortunately fixed, but the question's arisen whether or not there may be other similar vulnerabilities. Right now I have a tool at my disposal that lets me send a raw HTTP request to the server (or rather, raw data through an established TCP connection that could be interpreted as an HTTP request if it followed the form of one, e.g. "GET ...") and I'm trying to come up with other ideas. (TCP-level attacks like Slowloris and Nkiller2 are not my focus at the moment.) Does anyone have a few nice ideas how to confuse the server and/or its modules to the point of self-immolation? Broken UTF-8? (Though I doubt Apache cares about encoding - I imagine it just juggles raw bytes.) Stuff that is only barely too long, followed by a 0-byte, followed by junk? et cetera I don't consider myself a very good tester (I'm doing this by necessity and lack of manpower; I unfortunately don't even have a more than basic grasp of Apache internals that would help me along), which is why I'm hoping for an insightful response or two or three. Maybe some of you have done some similar testing for your own projects? (If stackoverflow is not the right place for this question, I apologise. Not sure where else to put it.)

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  • How to express inter project dependencies in Eclipse PDE

    - by Roland Tepp
    I am looking for the best practice of handling inter project dependencies between mixed project types where some of the projects are eclipse plug-in/OSGI bundle projects (an RCP application) and others are just plain old java projects (web services modules). Few of the eclipse plug-ins have dependencies on Java projects. My problem is that at least as far as I've looked, there is no way of cleanly expressing such a dependency in Eclipse PDE environment. I can have plug-in projects depend on other plug-in projects (via Import-Package or Require-Bundle manifest headers), but not of the plain java projects. I seem to be able to have project declare a dependency on a jar from another project in a workspace, but these jar files do not get picked up by neither export nor launch configuration (although, java code editing sees the libraries just fine). The "Java projects" are used for building services to be deployed on an J2EE container (JBoss 4.2.2 for the moment) and produce in some cases multiple jar's - one for deploying to the JBoss ear and another for use by client code (an RCP application). The way we've "solved" this problem for now is that we have 2 more external tools launcher configurations - one for building all the jar's and another for copying these jar's to the plug-in projects. This works (sort of), but the "whole build" and "copy jars" targets incur quite a large build step, bypassing the whole eclipse incremental build feature and by copying the jars instead of just referencing the projects I am decoupling the dependency information and requesting quite a massive workspace refresh that eats up the development time like it was candy. What I would like to have is a much more "natural" workspace setup that would manage dependencies between projects and request incremental rebuilds only as they are needed, be able to use client code from service libraries in an RCP application plug-ins and be able to launch the RCP application with all the necessary classes where they are needed. So can I have my cake and eat it too ;) NOTE To be clear, this is not so much about dependency management and module management at the moment as it is about Eclipse PDE configuration. I am well aware of products like [Maven], [Ivy] and [Buckminster] and they solve a quite different problem (once I've solved the workspace configuration issue, these products can actually come in handy for materializing the workspace and building the product)

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  • Creating a mouse drag done observable with Reactive Extensions

    - by juharr
    I have the following var leftMouseDown = Observable.FromEvent<MouseButtonEventArgs>(displayCanvas, "MouseLeftButtonDown"); var leftMouseUp = Observable.FromEvent<MouseButtonEventArgs>(displayCanvas, "MouseLeftButtonUp"); var mouseMove = Observable.FromEvent<MouseEventArgs>(displayCanvas, "MouseMove"); var leftMouseDragging = from down in leftMouseDown let startPoint = down.EventArgs.GetPosition(displayCanvas) from move in mouseMove.TakeUntil(leftMouseUp) let endPoint = move.EventArgs.GetPosition(displayCanvas) select new { Start = startPoint, End = endPoint }; which when I subscribe to it will give me the start point of the drag and the current end point. Now I need to do something once the drag is done. I was unsuccessful in attempting to do this completely with RX and ended up doing leftMouseDragging.Subscribe(value=> { dragging = true; //Some other code }); leftMouseUp.Subscribe(e=> { if(dragging) { MessageBox.Show("Just finished dragging"); dragging = false; } }); This works fine until I do a right mouse button drag. Then when I click the left mouse button I get the message box. If I only do a left button drag I get the message box, and then clicking the left mouse button doesn't produce the box. I'd like to do this without the external state, but if nothing else I'd at least like for it to work properly. FYI: I tried making dragging volatile and using a lock, but that didn't work. EDIT It turns out my problem was with a right click context menu. Once I got rid of that my above code worked. So, now my problem is how to I get to have the context menu and still have my code work. I assume the Context menu was handling the left mouse click and that somehow caused my code to not work, but I'm still puzzling it out.

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  • BroadcastReceiver not receiving an alarm's broadcast

    - by juanjux
    I have a code that sets a new repeating alarm (on production I'll use a inexactRepeating), but the BroadCastReceiver I've registered for handling it is not being called. Here is the code where I set the alarm: newAlarmPeriod = 5000; // For debugging Intent alarmIntent = new Intent(this, GroupsCheckAlarmReceiver.class); PendingIntent sender = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(this, Constants.CHECK_ALARM_CODE, alarmIntent, 0); AlarmManager am = (AlarmManager) getSystemService(ALARM_SERVICE); am.setRepeating(AlarmManager.RTC_WAKEUP, System.currentTimeMillis() + newAlarmPeriod, newAlarmPeriod, sender); It seems to work and it triggers and alarm every five seconds, as seen in the output of "adb shell dumpsys alarm": DUMP OF SERVICE alarm: Current Alarm Manager state: Realtime wakeup (now=1269941046923): RTC_WAKEUP #1: Alarm{43cbac58 type 0 android} type=0 when=1269997200000 repeatInterval=0 count=0 operation=PendingIntent{43bb1738: PendingIntentRecord{43bb1248 android broadcastIntent}} RTC_WAKEUP #0: Alarm{43ce30e0 type 0 com.almarsoft.GroundhogReader} type=0 when=1269941049555 repeatInterval=5000 count=1 operation=PendingIntent{43d990c8: PendingIntentRecord{43d49108 com.almarsoft.GroundhogReader broadcastIntent}} RTC #1: Alarm{43bfc250 type 1 android} type=1 when=1269993600000 repeatInterval=0 count=0 operation=PendingIntent{43c5a618: PendingIntentRecord{43c4f048 android broadcastIntent}} RTC #0: Alarm{43d67dd8 type 1 android} type=1 when=1269941100000 repeatInterval=0 count=0 operation=PendingIntent{43c4e0f0: PendingIntentRecord{43c4f6c8 android broadcastIntent}} Broadcast ref count: 0 Alarm Stats: android 24390ms running, 0 wakeups 80 alarms: act=android.intent.action.TIME_TICK flg=0x40000004 com.almarsoft.GroundhogReader 26ms running, 2 wakeups 2 alarms: flg=0x4 cmp=com.almarsoft.GroundhogReader/.GroupsCheckAlarmReceiver But for some reason my BroadCastReceiver is not being called when the alarm is triggered. I've declared it on the Manifest: <receiver android:name=".GroupsCheckAlarmReceiver" /> And this is the abbreviated code: public class GroupsCheckAlarmReceiver extends BroadcastReceiver{ @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { Toast.makeText(context, "XXX Alarm worked.", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); Log.d("XXX", "GroupsCheckAlarmReceiver.onReceive"); }

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  • Using cellUpdateEvent with YUI DataTable and JSON DataSource

    - by Rob Hruska
    I'm working with a UI that has a (YUI2) JSON DataSource that's being used to populate a DataTable. What I would like to do is, when a value in the table gets updated, perform a simple animation on the cell whose value changed. Here are some relevant snippets of code: var columns = [ {key: 'foo'}, {key: 'bar'}, {key: 'baz'} ]; var dataSource = new YAHOO.util.DataSource('/someUrl'); dataSource.responseType = YAHOO.util.DataSource.TYPE_JSON; dataSource.connXhrMode = 'queueRequests'; dataSource.responseSchema = { resultsList: 'results', fields: [ {key: 'foo'}, {key: 'bar'}, {key: 'baz'} ] }; var dataTable = new YAHOO.widget.DataTable('container', columns, dataSource); var callback = function() { success: dataTable.onDataReturnReplaceRows, failure: function() { // error handling code }, scope: dataTable }; dataSource.setInterval(1000, null, callback); And here's what I'd like to do with it: dataTable.subscribe('cellUpdateEvent', function(record, column, oldData) { var td = dataTable.getTdEl({record: record, column: column}); YAHOO.util.Dom.setStyle(td, 'backgroundColor', '#ffff00'); var animation = new YAHOO.util.ColorAnim(td, { backgroundColor: { to: '#ffffff'; } }); animation.animate(); }; However, it doesn't seem like using cellUpdateEvent works. Does a cell that's updated as a result of the setInterval callback even fire a cellUpdateEvent? It may be that I don't fully understand what's going on under the hood with DataTable. Perhaps the whole table is being redrawn every time the data is queried, so it doesn't know or care about changes to individual cells?. Is the solution to write my own specific function to replace onDataReturnReplaceRows? Could someone enlighten me on how I might go about accomplishing this? Edit: After digging through datatable-debug.js, it looks like onDataReturnReplaceRows won't fire the cellUpdateEvent. It calls reset() on the RecordSet that's backing the DataTable, which deletes all of the rows; it then re-populates the table with fresh data. I tried changing it to use onDataReturnUpdateRows, but that doesn't seem to work either.

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  • Data loss when downloading data from LDAP server

    - by Ricky D'Amelio
    Hi there. This question comes from a previous one I asked about handling NSData objects: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2453785/converting-nsdata-to-an-nsstring-representation-is-failing. I have reached the point where I am taking an NSImage, turning it into NSData and uploading those data bytes to the LDAP server. I am doing this like so; //connected successfully to LDAP server above... struct berval photo_berval; struct berval *jpegPhoto_values[2]; photo_berval.bv_len = [photo length]; photo_berval.bv_val = [photo bytes]; jpegPhoto_values[0] = &photo_berval; jpegPhoto_values[1] = NULL; mod.mod_type = "jpegPhoto"; mod.mod_op = LDAP_MOD_REPLACE|LDAP_MOD_BVALUES; mod.mod_bvalues = jpegPhoto_values; mods[0] = &mod; mods[1] = NULL; //perform the modify operation rc = ldap_modify_ext_s(ld, givenModifyEntry, mods, NULL, NULL); That happens with no errors, and you can see a big blob of data when you're in the command line. My problem is, when I go to access the same data at a later stage, I am getting an image file back that's about 120 times smaller than the original image. //find the jpegPhoto attribute photoA = ldap_first_attribute(ld, photoE, &photoBer); while (strcasecmp(photoA, "jpegphoto") != 0) { photoA = ldap_next_attribute(ld, photoE, photoBer); } //get the value of the attribute if ((list_of_photos = ldap_get_values_len(ld, photoE, photoA)) != NULL) { //get the first JPEG photo_data = *list_of_photos[0]; selectedPictureData = [NSData dataWithBytes:&photo_data length:sizeof(photo_data)]; [selectedPictureData writeToFile:@"/Users/username/Desktop/Photo 2.jpg" atomically:YES]; NSLog (@"%@", selectedPictureData); Has anyone successfully done this before or can anyone see what I might be doing wrong? I appreciate anyone's help. Sorry to post so many questions! Ricky.

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  • Conditional Drag and Drop Operations in Flex/AS3 Tree

    - by user163757
    Good day everyone. I am currently working with a hierarchical tree structure in AS3/Flex, and want to enable drag and drop capabilities under certain conditions: Only parent/top level nodes can be moved Parent/top level nodes must remain at this level; they can not be moved to child nodes of other parent nodes Using the dragEnter event of the tree, I am able to handle condition 1 easily. private function onDragEnter(event:DragEvent):void { // only parent nodes (map layers) are moveable event.preventDefault(); if(toc.selectedItem.hasOwnProperty("layer")) DragManager.acceptDragDrop(event.target as UIComponent); else DragManager.showFeedback(DragManager.NONE); } Handling the second condition is proving to be a bit more difficult. I am pretty sure the dragOver event is the place for logic. I have been experimenting with calculateDropIndex, but that always gives me the index of the parent node, which doesn't help check if the potential drop location is acceptable or not. Below is some pseudo code of what I am looking to accomplish. private function onDragOver(e:DragEvent):void { // if potential drop location has parents // dont allow drop // else // allow drop } Can anyone provide advice how to implement this?

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  • How do you handle key down events on Android? I am having issues making it work.

    - by user279112
    For an Android program, I am having trouble handling key down and key up events, and the problem I am having with them can almost certainly be generalized to any sort of user input event. I am using Lunar Lander as one of my main learning devices as I make my first meaningful program, and I noticed that it was using onKeyDown as an overridden method to receive key down events, and it would call one of their more original methods doKeyDown. But when I tried to implement a very small version of my own onKeyDown overide and the actual handler that it calls, it didn't work. I would probably copy and paste my implementations of those two methods, but that doesn't seem to be the problem. You see, I ran the debugger and noticed that they were not getting called - at all. The same goes for my implementations of onKeyUp and the handler that it calls. Something is a little weird here, and when I tried to look at the Android documentation for it, that didn't help at all. I thought that if you had an overide for onKeyDown, then when a key was pressed during execution of the program, onKeyDown would be called as soon as reasonably possible. End of story. But apparently there's something more to it. Apparently you have to do something else somewhere - possibly in the XML when defining the layout or something - to make it work. But I do not know what, and I could not find what in their documentation. What's the secret to this? Thanks!

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  • How to deal with calculated values with Dependency Properties on a custom WPF control

    - by jpierson
    To summarize what I'm doing, I have a custom control that looks like a checked listbox and that has two dependency properties one that provides a list of available options and the other that represents a enum flag value that combines the selection options. So as I mentioned my custom control exposes two different DependencyProperties, one of which is a list of options called Options and the other property called SelectedOptions is of a specific Enum type that uses the [Flags] attribute to allow combinations of values to be set. My UserControl then contains an ItemsControl similar to a ListBox that is used to display the options along with a checkbox. When the check box is checked or unchecked the SelectedOptions property should be updated accordingly by using the corresponding bitwise operation. The problem I'm experiencing is that I have no way other than resorting to maintaining private fields and handling property change events to update my properties which just feels unatural in WPF. I have tried using ValueConverters but have run into the problem that I can't really using binding with the value converter binding so I would need to resort to hard coding my enum values as the ValueConverter parameter which is not acceptable. If anybody has seen a good example of how to do this sanely I would greatly appreciate any input. Side Note: This has been a problem I've had in the past too while trying to wrap my head around how dependency properties don't allow calculated or deferred values. Another example is when one may want to expose a property on a child control as a property on the parent. Most suggest in this case to use binding but that only works if the child controls property is a Dependency Property since placing the binding so that the target is the parent property it would be overwritten when the user of the parent control wants to set their own binding for that property.

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  • I just don't get AudioFileReadPackets

    - by Eric Christensen
    I've tried to write the smallest chunk of code to narrow down a problem. It's now just a few lines and it doesn't work, which makes it pretty clear that I have a fundamental misunderstanding of how to use AudioFileReadPackets. I've read the docs and other examples online, and apparently I'm just not getting. Could you explain it to me? Here's what this block should do: I've previously opened a file. I want to read just one packet - the first one of the file - and then print it. But it crashes on the AudioFileReadPackets line: AudioFileID mAudioFile2; AudioFileOpenURL (audioFileURL, 0x01, 0, &mAudioFile2); UInt32 *audioData2 = (UInt32 *)malloc(sizeof(UInt32) * 1); AudioFileReadPackets(mAudioFile2, false, NULL, NULL, 0, (UInt32*)1, audioData2); NSLog(@"first packet:%i",audioData2[0]); (For clarity, I've stripped out all error handling.) It's the AFRP line that crashes out. (I understand that the third and fourth argument are useful, and in my "real" code, I use them, but they're not required, right? So NULL in this case should work, right?) So then what's going on? Any guidance would be much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Using iphone accelerometer AND UIEventSubtypeMotionShake event simultaneousluy.

    - by lukya
    Hi, I am using accelerometer to move/change things on the screen in my app. I also need to detect UIEventSubtypeMotionShake in the view controller for some other animations. As my app is a simple view based app, there is just one view controller which acts as UIAccelerometerDelegate AND FirstResponder (for detecting the shake event). After the first Shake gesture is detected, I don’t need accelerometer inputs through [accelerometer didAccelerate] method so I set the accelerometer delegate to nil. -(void)motionEnded:(UIEventSubtype)motion withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { if (motion == UIEventSubtypeMotionShake) { NSLog(@"shake"); [[UIAccelerometer sharedAccelerometer] setDelegate:nil]; //my shake handling code } } The problem is that the first shake motion is not being detected correctly. I have to shake 2 3 or more times to trigger the UIEventSubtypeMotionShake event, while the subsequent shakes, after the accelerometer delegate is made nil, are being detected perfectly. This must be happening because UIEventSubtypeMotionShake in turn depends on the accelerometer didAccelerate events which are being overridden by my code. But I need to use both the events. Are there any apps or code samples which use both accelerometer and UIEventSubtypeMotionShake simultaneously? Thanks Swapnil

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  • Detection of page refresh / F5 key in ASP.NET MVC 2

    - by Michael
    How would one go about detecting a page refresh / F5 key push on the controller handling the postback? I need to distinguish between the user pressing one of two buttons (e.g., Next, Previous) and when the F5 / page refresh occurs. My scenario is a single wizard page that has different content shown between each invocation of the user pressing the "Next" or "Previous" buttons. The error that I am running into is when the user refreshes the page / presses the F5 key, the browser re-sends the request back to the controller, which is handled as a post-back and the FormCollection type is used to look for the "submitButton" key and obtain its value (e.g., "Next," "Send"). This part was modeled after the post by Dylan Beattie at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/442704/how-do-you-handle-multiple-submit-buttons-in-asp-net-mvc-framework. Maybe I'm trying to bend MVC 2 to where it isn't meant to go but I'd like to stay with the current design in that the underlying database drives the content and order of what is shown. This allows us to add new content into the database without modifying the code the displays the content. Thanks, Michael

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  • WinForms Load Event / Static Initialization Strangeness

    - by Eric J.
    Background I'm troubleshooting an WinForms 2.0 program that's already been burned to CD for distribution to an internet-challenged target audience. Some users are experiencing a fatal error that I can reproduce locally. Reproducing the Error I get the fatal error when I log into my Vista box using a standard user that I just created, even if I run the program as administrator. I do not get the fatal error when I log in as local administrator. I'm not sure that being administrator is necessarily the trigger (since runas did not help). I have reproduced this half a dozen times under each account with consistent results. The faulty code Base.cs (base class for several user controls, only one of which is shown on first screen) private void BaseWindow_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { // This message shown once in both cases MessageBox.Show("BaseWindow_Load for " + this.GetType().FullName); SkinManager.ApplySkin(this); } SkinManager.cs private static Skin skin = null; public static void ApplySkin(UserControl applyTo) { if (skin == null) { skin = new Skin(SkinsDirectory, "Default"); } } Skin.cs internal Skin(string skinPath, string skinName) { config = SkinConfig.Load(path); } SkinConfig.cs public static SkinConfig Load(string path) { // This message shown only once running as Admin but twice running as standard user System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show("@1"); // !!! LOCK path HERE !!! } A user control loads on the first form, which triggers a call to SkinManager.ApplySkin, which checks if skin is null and, if so assigns it (without thread synchronization or recursion protection), which ultimately causes a file to be opened. When logged in as local admin, that sequence completes just fine. When logged in as my test standard user, ApplySkin is always called a second time while skin is still null, causing a second attempt to load, causing the file to be locked on the second attempt. The error handling is draconian at this point and the program terminates. The Question While this code can be easily fixed, I would like to understand why the error is happening only in some cases.

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  • Cannot enlist Synchronization. LocalTransactionCoordinator is completing or completed issue with hib

    - by Bijendra Singh
    I am getting Cannot enlist Synchronization. LocalTransactionCoordinator is completing or completed exception when integrating my method is called from the portlet. I am using spring transaction management for handling all the hibernate transaction in the spring configuration file through AOP. When I run my hibernate dao method for persisting the data through Junit its working fine. Exception description: I am facing an issue that is when I run my code through unit test case data is getting updated in database properly but when I run the same code with integration with portlet my code is executing finely but after the completion of transaction the records is not getting updated to database. The following error can be seen in the log which is [4/7/10 23:06:38:685 MDT] 0000006c LocalTranCoor E WLTC0014E: Cannot enlist Synchronization. LocalTransactionContainment is completing or completed. [4/7/10 23:06:38:689 MDT] 0000006c LocalTransact E J2CA0026E: Method addSync caught java.lang.IllegalStateException: Cannot enlist Synchronization. LocalTransactionCoordinator is completing or completed. at com.ibm.ws.LocalTransaction.LocalTranCoordImpl.enlistSynchronization(LocalTranCoordImpl.java(Compiled Code)) at com.ibm.ejs.j2c.LocalTransactionWrapper.addSync(LocalTransactionWrapper.java(Compiled Code)) at com.ibm.ejs.j2c.ConnectionManager.initializeForUOW(ConnectionManager.java(Compiled Code)) at com.ibm.ejs.j2c.ConnectionManager.involveMCInTran(ConnectionManager.java(Compiled Code)) at com.ibm.ejs.j2c.ConnectionManager.associateConnection(ConnectionManager.java(Compiled Code)) at com.ibm.ejs.j2c.ConnectionManager.associateConnection(ConnectionManager.java(Compiled Code)) at com.ibm.ws.rsadapter.jdbc.WSJdbcConnection.reactivate(WSJdbcConnection.java(Compiled Code)) at com.ibm.ws.rsadapter.jdbc.WSJdbcConnection.getWarnings(WSJdbcConnection.java:1539)

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  • How to create a rails staging environment in engineyard?

    - by siulamvictor
    I have a production instance in engineyard up and running well. I would like to create a new staging instance for internal testing. I cloned the existing production instance, changed Framework Environment to staging. I can deploy all the code to staging instance from Github. Engineyard reported the server is fully configured and ready. I have subdomain-fu in my Rails app, as I have some subdomain handling in my app. I set the subdomain initializer like this.... SubdomainFu.tld_sizes = {:development => 1, :test => 0, :production => 1, :staging => 2} As the production instance is using the domain xxxxx.com, I would like my staging instance use the domain staging.xxxxx.com. But I got an error when open this domain. Seems the app use xxxxx.com as domain but not the staging.xxxxx.com. I checked the engineyard database.yml. It use xxxxx_production database, I supposed it should be xxxxx_staging. Seems the engineyard instance is not set to staging environment, but just clone all the setting from production server. Does anyone have experience with this and can show me the way on how to fix it? Thanks. :)

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  • How to use InterfaceInterceptor with NServiceBus UnityBuilder

    - by David
    I have a MessageHandler with a dependency declared as: public IRepository<Person> PersonRepository {get;set;} I set up my Unity container with: IUnityContainer container = new UnityContainer(); container.AddNewExtension<Interception>(); container.RegisterType(typeof(IRepository<Person>), typeof(Example.Data.InMemory.Repository<Person>)); container.Configure<Interception>() .AddPolicy("PersonAddAdvice") .AddMatchingRule(new AddMatchingRule()) .AddCallHandler(new PersonAddedEventPublishingCallHandler()); container.Configure<Interception>() .SetInterceptorFor<IRepository<Person>>(new InterfaceInterceptor()); Then I Init my endpoint with: class EndpointConfig : IConfigureThisEndpoint, AsA_Publisher, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { NServiceBus.Configure.With() .Log4Net() .UnityBuilder(ContainerConfig.LoadContainer()) .XmlSerializer(); } } (ContainerConfig.LoadContainer() returns the pre-configured IUnityContainer) the problem is that the IRepository dependency in my MessageHandler is not resolved (it's null when handling the messages). If I remove the interception configuration from the Unity container, and simply do this: IUnityContainer container = new UnityContainer(); container.RegisterType(typeof(IRepository<Person>), typeof(Example.Data.InMemory.Repository<Person>)); It works as expected, and the MessageHandler has an instance if IRepository resolved.

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  • Adding a Combobox to a DataGrid in Silverlight

    - by bplus
    I can add a Combobox to a DataGrid using following xmal: <local:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="SomeHeader" Width="106" HeaderStyle="{StaticResource headerAlignRightStyle}" CellStyle="{StaticResource cellAlignRightStyle}"> <local:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Text="{Binding SomeProp}" Margin="4"/> </DataTemplate> </local:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <local:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellEditingTemplate> <DataTemplate> <ComboBox x:Name="SomeCombo" SelectionChanged="SomeCombo_SelectionChanged" ItemsSource="{Binding SomeList}" DisplayMemberPath="Name" /> </DataTemplate> </local:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellEditingTemplate> </local:DataGridTemplateColumn> However what I can't figure out is a sensible way to get the row that was combox is bound to. i.e. when handling the combobox SelectionChanged event I have no way of knowing what what row the combobox belongs to. Particularly I don't know what object in the DataGrid datasource that the combobox is refering to. Any help would be much appreciated.

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