Search Results

Search found 23614 results on 945 pages for 'update'.

Page 190/945 | < Previous Page | 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197  | Next Page >

  • JavaScript: How to reverse order=[] arrays from last to first?

    - by Binyamin
    My js code does POST order.php?order[]=1&order[]=2&order[]=3&order[]=4&order[]=5&&action=update How to reverse it to order.php?order[]=5&order[]=4&order[]=3&order[]=2&order[]=1&&action=update ? JavaScript: order=[]; //var reversed = $(this).sortable("serialize").split("&").reverse().join("&"); //var order = reversed + '&action=update'; //unfortunately it does not work so $('#list ul').children('li').each(function(idx, elm) { order.push(elm.id.split('-')[1]) }); $.post('order.php', {'order[]': order, action: 'update'}); HTML: <ul> <li id="oreder-5">5</li> <li id="oreder-4">4</li> <li id="oreder-3">3</li> <li id="oreder-2">2</li> <li id="oreder-1">1</li> <ul>

    Read the article

  • vb.net sqlite how to loop through selected records and pass each record as a parameter to another fu

    - by mazrabul
    Hi, I have a sqlite table with following fields: Langauge level hours German 2 50 French 3 40 English 1 60 German 1 10 English 2 50 English 3 60 German 1 20 French 2 40 I want to loop through the records based on language and other conditions and then pass the current selected record to a different function. So I have the following mixture of actual code and psudo code. I need help with converting the psudo code to actual code, please. I am finding it difficult to do so. Here is what I have: Private sub mainp() Dim oslcConnection As New SQLite.SQLiteConnection Dim oslcCommand As SQLite.SQLiteCommand Dim langs() As String = {"German", "French", "English"} Dim i as Integer = 0 oslcConnection.ConnectionString = "Data Source=" & My.Settings.dbFullPath & ";" oslcConnection.Open() oslcCommand = oslcConnection.CreateCommand Do While i <= langs.count If langs(i) = "German" Then oslcCommand.CommandText = "SELECT * FROM table WHERE language = '" & langs(i) & "';" For each record selected 'psudo code If level = 1 Then 'psudo code update level to 2 'psudo code minorp(currentRecord) 'psudo code: calling minorp function and passing the whole record as a parameter End If 'psudo code If level = 2 Then 'psudo code update level to 3 'psudo code minorp(currentRecord) 'psudo code: calling minorp function and passing the whole record as a parameter End If 'psudo code Next 'psudo code End If If langs(i) = "French" Then oslcCommand.CommandText = "SELECT * FROM table WHERE language = '" & langs(i) & "';" For each record selected 'psudo code If level = 1 Then 'psudo code update level to 2 'psudo code minorp(currentRecord) 'psudo code: calling minorp function and passing the whole record as a parameter End If 'psudo code If level = 2 Then 'psudo code update level to 3 'psudo code minorp(currentRecord) 'psudo code: calling minorp function and passing the whole record as a parameter End If 'psudo code Next 'psudo code End If Loop End Sub Many thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • DO NOT BOTHER. THE PROBLEM IS NOT TRANSACTIONS. DUNNO HOW TO CLOSE / DELETE

    - by matti
    THE PROBLEM IS SOLVED. I DUNNO HOW TO CLOSE THIS QUESTION. ANOTHER SERVICE IS PROPABLY RUNNING AT ALMOST SAME SYNC THAT DOES THE THING. MY WORK "MATE" WILL HEAR A THING OR TWO IN THE MORNING. I have following code in windows service: data is in the dataset and it has been populated earlier and then rows are updated and inserted to dataset tables before calling code below. using (dataSetTxn = _cnctn.BeginTransaction()) { try { _somePlanAdptr.UpdateCommand.Transaction = dataSetTxn; _someLogAdptr.InsertCommand.Transaction = dataSetTxn; _someLinkAdptr.InsertCommand.Transaction = dataSetTxn; _someDataAdptr.InsertCommand.Transaction = dataSetTxn; _log.WriteDebug("Updating SomePlanAction"); _somePlanAdptr.Update(_ofDataSet, "SomePlanAction"); _log.WriteDebug(string.Format("Inserting {0} rows to SomeLog")); //error _someLogAdptr.Update(_ofDataSet, "SomeLog"); _log.WriteDebug(string.Format("Updating SomeLink with {0} rows", _ofDataSet.Tables["SomeLink"].Rows.Count)); _someLinkAdptr.Update(_ofDataSet, "SomeLink"); _log.WriteDebug(string.Format("Updating SomeData with {0} rows", _ofDataSet.Tables["SomeData"].Rows.Count)); _someDataAdptr.Update(_ofDataSet, "SomeData"); _log.WriteDebug("Commiting all changes to database."); dataSetTxn.Commit(); } catch (Exception e) { _log.WriteError("Updating database failed -> rollback", e); if (dataSetTxn != null && _cnctn.State == ConnectionState.Open) dataSetTxn.Rollback(); throw e; } } so one of the lines causes an exception log.WriteDebug(string.Format("Inserting {0} rows to SomeLog")); //error still the first adapter's data is updated to database. when debugged the data is not yet updated until the method that calls all (including this bit) exits. The method that does all is timed with System.Threading.Timer. Thanks & BR -Matti

    Read the article

  • How to remove erroneous dependency from tycho build?

    - by sfinnie
    Context: Have built an eclipse update site using tycho but trying to install into target IDE fails. The update site builds fine; I can see it from a target eclipse installation and select the feature for installation. However, the dependency check fails at start of install as it can't find a declared dependency (org.eclipselabs.xtext.utils.unittesting). This shouldn't be a dependency: it was erroneously included in MANIFEST.MF for one of my eclipse plugin projects. I removed the dependency from the manifest and run mvn clean install. Build reported success. However when I try to use the newly built update site it still complains that the dependency to org.eclipselabs.xtext.utils.unittesting (a) exists and (b) can't be satisfied. So the question is: what else do I need to do to remove the dependency from the generated update site? Thanks for any pointers. PS: I know I could add the site for o.e.x.u.unittesting in the target eclipse installation so it can satisfy the dependency. However I don't want to do that; it's not needed for the feature to work and I don't want other users to have to add an unnecessary dependency.

    Read the article

  • nhibernate mapping: delete collection, insert new collection with old IDs

    - by npeBeg
    my issue lokks similar to this one: (link) but i have one-to-many association: <set name="Fields" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="false" inverse="true"> <key column="[TEMPLATE_ID]"></key> <one-to-many class="MyNamespace.Field, MyLibrary"/> </set> (i also tried to use ) this mapping is for Template object. this one and the Field object has their ID generators set to identity. so when i call session.Update for the Template object it works fine, well, almost: if the Field object has an Id number, UPDATE sql request is called, if the Id is 0, the INSERT is performed. But if i delete a Field object from the collection it has no effect for the Database. I found that if i also call session.Delete for this Field object, everything will be ok, but due to client-server architecture i don't know what to delete. so i decided to delete all the collection elements from the DB and call session.Update with a new collection. and i've got an issue: nhibernate performs the UPDATE operation for the Field objects that has non-zero Id, but they are removed from DB! maybe i should use some other Id generator or smth.. what is the best way to make nhibernate perform "delete all"/"insert all" routine for the collection?

    Read the article

  • jQuery re-checking check boxes

    - by Jacob
    Hi, I having problems with re-checking some checkboxes after and ajax call updates a table. I have a table of what the project calls 'shares'. I want to: 1) check for and save any checked shares to an array 2) Do my ajax call to update the table of shares 3) Re-check any there we checked before the ajax update. My code is not working and I can't see why? Any tips, help or advise much appreciated. // Array to hold our checked share ids var savedShareIDs = new Array(); // Add checked share ids into array $("input:checkbox[name=share_ids]:checked").each(function() { savedShareIDs.push($(this).val()); }); // Do ajax update Dajaxice.pagination_shares('Dajax.process',{'id':1, 'page':1}) // Re-check any that were checked before ajax update $("input:checkbox[name=share_ids]").each(function() { if ( $.inArray( $(this).val(), savedShareIDs) > -1 ) { $(this).attr('checked',true) } }); The problem is the checkboxes are not checking. I'm pretty sure the loop is working and the inArray check works. Just not checking the checkboxes. Can anyone see where I'm going wrong? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Is it Possible to Use Constraints on Hierarchical Data in a Self-Referential Table?

    - by pbarney
    Suppose you have the following table, intended to represent hierarchical data: +--------+-------------+ | Field | Type | +--------+-------------+ | id | int(10) | | parent | int(10) | | name | varchar(45) | +--------+-------------+ The table is self-referential in that the parent_id refers to id. So you might have the following data: +----+--------+---------------+ | id | parent | name | +----+--------+---------------+ | 1 | 0 | fruit | | 2 | 0 | vegetable | | 3 | 1 | apple | | 4 | 1 | orange | | 5 | 3 | red delicious | | 6 | 3 | granny smith | | 7 | 3 | gala | +----+--------+---------------+ Using MySQL, I am trying to impose a (self-referential) foreign key constraint upon the data to cascade on update and prevent deletion of a record if it has any "children." So I used the following: CREATE TABLE `test`.`fruit` ( `id` INT(10) UNSIGNED NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `parent` INT(10) UNSIGNED, `name` VARCHAR(45) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), CONSTRAINT `fk_parent` FOREIGN KEY (`parent`) REFERENCES `fruit` (`id`) ON UPDATE CASCADE ON DELETE RESTRICT ) ENGINE = InnoDB; From what I understand, this should fit my requirements. (And parent must default to null to allow insertions, correct?) The problem is, if I change the id of a record, it will not cascade: Cannot delete or update a parent row: a foreign key constraint fails (`test`.`fruit`, CONSTRAINT `fk_parent` FOREIGN KEY (`parent`) REFERENCES `fruit` (`id`) ON UPDATE CASCADE) What am I missing? Feel free to correct me if my terminology is screwed up... I'm new to constraints.

    Read the article

  • hibernate executeUpdate IndexOutOfBounds

    - by luke
    I am trying to use an HQL to perform a simple update in hibernate, but i can't seem to get it to work. i have a query template defined as: private static final String CHANGE_DEVICE_STATUS = "UPDATE THING" +"SET ACTIVE = ? " +"WHERE ID = ?"; and then i try to execute it like this: Session s = HibernateSessionFactory.getSession(); Query query = s.createQuery(CHANGE_DEVICE_STATUS); query.setBoolean(0, is_active); query.setLong(1, id); query.executeUpdate(); But now i get this error: java.lang.IndexOutOfBoundsException: Index: 0, Size: 0 at java.util.ArrayList.RangeCheck(ArrayList.java:547) at java.util.ArrayList.get(ArrayList.java:322) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.HqlSqlWalker.postProcessUpdate(HqlSqlWalker.java:390) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.statement(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:164) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.QueryTranslatorImpl.analyze(QueryTranslatorImpl.java:189) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.QueryTranslatorImpl.doCompile(QueryTranslatorImpl.java:130) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.QueryTranslatorImpl.compile(QueryTranslatorImpl.java:83) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl.getQuery(SessionFactoryImpl.java:427) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.getQueries(SessionImpl.java:884) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.executeUpdate(SessionImpl.java:865) at org.hibernate.impl.QueryImpl.executeUpdate(QueryImpl.java:89) .... what am i doing wrong here? I am using hibernate 3.0 UPDATE i changed it to Query query = s.createQuery(CHANGE_DEVICE_STATUS); query.setBoolean(1, is_active); query.setLong(2, id);//<---throws here query.executeUpdate(); without changing anything else but the parameter indexes and i got this: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Positional parameter does not exist: 2 in query: UPDATE DEVICE_INSTANCES SET ACTIVE = ? WHERE DEVICE_INSTANCE_ID = ? at org.hibernate.impl.AbstractQueryImpl.setParameter(AbstractQueryImpl.java:194) at org.hibernate.impl.AbstractQueryImpl.setLong(AbstractQueryImpl.java:244) ...

    Read the article

  • jQuery: How to reverse sortable('serialize') arrays from last to first?

    - by Binyamin
    The discussion begins http://stackoverflow.com/questions/654535/jquery-what-to-do-with-the-list-that-sortableserialize-returns/2920760#2920760 How to reverse it from last to first, updateList.php?id[]=5&id[]=4&id[]=3&id[]=2&id[]=1&&action=update? <ul> <li id="oreder-5">5</li> <li id="oreder-4">4</li> <li id="oreder-3">3</li> <li id="oreder-2">2</li> <li id="oreder-1">1</li> <ul> My code: $(document).ready(function(){ order=[]; $('#list ul').children('li').each(function(idx, elm) { order.push(elm.id.split('-')[1]) }); $.post('updateList.php', {'order[]': order, action: 'update'}); function slideout(){ setTimeout(function(){ $("#response").slideUp("slow", function () {}); }, 2000); } $("#response").hide(); $(function() { $("#list ul").sortable({ opacity: 0.8, cursor: 'move', update: function() { var order = $(this).sortable("serialize") + '&action=update'; $.post("updateList.php", order, function(theResponse){ $("#response").html(theResponse); $("#response").slideDown('slow'); slideout(); }); }}); }); });

    Read the article

  • DataReader is not returning results from a MySQL Stored Proc

    - by Glenn Slaven
    I have a stored proc in MySQL (5.5) that I'm calling from a C# application (using MySQL.Data v6.4.4.0). I have a bunch of other procs that work fine, but this is not returning any results, the data reader says the result set is empty. The proc does a couple of inserts & an update inside a transaction then selects 2 local variables to return. The inserts & update are happening, but the select is not returning. When I run the proc manually it works, gives a single row with the two fields, but the data reader is empty. This is the proc: CREATE DEFINER=`root`@`localhost` PROCEDURE `File_UpdateFile`(IN siteId INT, IN fileId INT, IN description VARCHAR(100), IN folderId INT, IN fileSize INT, IN filePath VARCHAR(100), IN userId INT) BEGIN START TRANSACTION; SELECT MAX(v.versionNumber) + 1 INTO @versionNumber FROM `file_version` v JOIN `file` f ON (v.fileId = f.fileId) WHERE v.fileId = fileId AND f.siteId = siteId; INSERT INTO `file_version` (fileId, versionNumber, description, fileSize, filePath, uploadedOn, uploadedBy, fileVersionState) VALUES (fileId, @versionNumber, description, fileSize, filePath, NOW(), userId, 0); INSERT INTO filehistory (fileId, `action`, userId, createdOn) VALUES (fileId, 'UPDATE', userId, NOW()); UPDATE `file` f SET f.checkedOutBy = NULL WHERE f.fileId = fileId; COMMIT; SELECT fileId, @versionNumber `versionNumber`; END$$ I'm calling the proc using Dapper, but I've debugged into the SqlMapper class and I can see that the reader is not returning anything.

    Read the article

  • Updating UI objects in windows forms

    - by P a u l
    Pre .net I was using MFC, ON_UPDATE_COMMAND_UI, and the CCmdUI class to update the state of my windows UI. From the older MFC/Win32 reference: Typically, menu items and toolbar buttons have more than one state. For example, a menu item is grayed (dimmed) if it is unavailable in the present context. Menu items can also be checked or unchecked. A toolbar button can also be disabled if unavailable, or it can be checked. Who updates the state of these items as program conditions change? Logically, if a menu item generates a command that is handled by, say, a document, it makes sense to have the document update the menu item. The document probably contains the information on which the update is based. If a command has multiple user-interface objects (perhaps a menu item and a toolbar button), both are routed to the same handler function. This encapsulates your user-interface update code for all of the equivalent user-interface objects in a single place. The framework provides a convenient interface for automatically updating user-interface objects. You can choose to do the updating in some other way, but the interface provided is efficient and easy to use. What is the guidance for .net Windows Forms? I am using an Application.Idle handler in the main form but am not sure this is the best way to do this. About the time I put all my UI updates in the Idle event handler my app started to show some performance problems, and I don't have the metrics to track this down yet. Not sure if it's related.

    Read the article

  • How to change Hibernate´s auto persistance strategy

    - by Kristofer Borgstrom
    I just noted that my hibernate entities are automatically persisted to the database (or at least to cache) before I call any save() or update() method. To me this is a pretty strange default behavior but ok, as long as I can disable it, it´s fine. The problem I have is I want to update my entity´s state (from 1 to 2) only if the entity in the database still has the state it had when I retrieved [1] (this is to eliminate concurrency issues when another server is updating this same object). For this reason I have created a custom NamedQuery that will only update the entity if state is 1. So here is some pseudo-code: //Get the entity Entity item = dao.getEntity(); item.getState(); //==1 //Update the entity item.setState(2); //Here is the problem, this effectively changes the state of my entity braking my query that verifies that state is still == 1. dao.customUpdate(item); //Returns 0 rows changes since state != 1. So, how do I make sure the setters don´t change the state in cache/db? Thanks, Kristofer

    Read the article

  • Problems with Backbone.Model callback and THIS

    - by Rev. Samuel
    I'm building a simple weather widget. The current weather conditions are read out of the National Weather Service xml file and then I want to parse and store the relevant data in the model but the callback for the $.ajax won't connect (the way I'm doing it). var Weather = Backbone.Model.extend({ initialize: function(){ _.bindAll( this, 'update', 'startLoop', 'stopLoop' ); this.startLoop(); }, startLoop: function(){ this.update(); this.interval = window.setInterval( _.bind( this.update, this ), 1000 * 60 * 60 ); }, stopLoop: function(){ this.interval = window.clearInterval( this.interval ); }, store: function( data ){ this.set({ icon : $( data ).find( 'icon_url_name' ).text() }); }, update: function(){ $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: 'xml/KROC.xml', datatype: 'xml' }) .done( function( data ) { var that = this; that.store( $( data ).find( 'current_observation' )[ 0 ] ); }); } }); var weather = new Weather(); The data is read correctly but I can't get the done function of the call back to call the store function. (I would be happy if the "done" would just parse and then do "this.set". Thanks in advance for your help.

    Read the article

  • What is the fastest way to check if files are identical?

    - by ojblass
    If you have 1,000,0000 source files, you suspect they are all the same, and you want to compare them what is the current fasted method to compare those files? Assume they are Java files and platform where the comparison is done is not important. cksum is making me cry. When I mean identical I mean ALL identical. Update: I know about generating checksums. diff is laughable ... I want speed. Update: Don't get stuck on the fact they are source files. Pretend for example you took a million runs of a program with very regulated output. You want to prove all 1,000,000 versions of the output are the same. Update: read the number of blocks rather than bytes? Immediatly throw out those? Is that faster than finding the number of bytes? Update: Is this ANY different than the fastest way to compare two files?

    Read the article

  • Batch processing JDBC

    - by Wai Hein
    I am practicing JDBC batch processing and having errors: error 1: Unsupported feature error 2: Execute cannot be empty or null Property files include: itemsdao.updateBookName = Update Books set bookname = ? where books.id = ? itemsdao.updateAuthorName = Update books set authorname = ? where books.id = ? I know I can execute about DML statements in one update, but I am practicing batch processing in JDBC. Below is my method public void update(Item item) { String query = null; try { connection = DbConnector.getConnection(); property = SqlPropertiesLoader.getProperties("dml.properties"); connection.setAutoCommit(false); if ( property == null ) { Logging.log.debug("dml.properties does not exist. Check property loader or file name is spelled right"); return; } query = property.getProperty("itemsdao.updateBookName"); statement = connection.prepareStatement(query); statement.setString(1, item.getBookName()); statement.setInt(2, item.getId()); statement.addBatch(query); query = property.getProperty("itemsdao.updateAuthorName"); statement = connection.prepareStatement(query); statement.setString(1, item.getAuthorName()); statement.setInt(2, item.getId()); statement.addBatch(query); statement.executeBatch(); connection.commit(); }catch (ClassNotFoundException e) { Logging.log.error("Connection class does not exist", e); } catch (SQLException e) { Logging.log.error("Violating PK constraint",e); } //helper class th finally { DbUtil.close(connection); DbUtil.closePreparedStatement(statement); }

    Read the article

  • In Python, how to make sure database connection will always close before leaving a code block?

    - by Cawas
    I want to prevent database connection being open as much as possible, because this code will run on an intensive used server and people here already told me database connections should always be closed as soon as possible. def do_something_that_needs_database (): dbConnection = MySQLdb.connect(host=args['database_host'], user=args['database_user'], passwd=args['database_pass'], db=args['database_tabl'], cursorclass=MySQLdb.cursors.DictCursor) dbCursor = dbConnection.cursor() dbCursor.execute('SELECT COUNT(*) total FROM table') row = dbCursor.fetchone() if row['total'] == 0: print 'error: table have no records' dbCursor.execute('UPDATE table SET field="%s"', whatever_value) return None print 'table is ok' dbCursor.execute('UPDATE table SET field="%s"', another_value) # a lot more of workflow done here dbConnection.close() # even more stuff would come below I believe that leaves a database connection open when there is no row on the table, tho I'm still really not sure how it works. Anyway, maybe that is bad design in the sense that I could open and close a DB connection after each small block of execute. And sure, I could just add a close right before the return in that case... But how could I always properly close the DB without having to worry if I have that return, or a raise, or continue, or whatever in the middle? I'm thinking in something like a code block, similar to using try, like in the following suggestion, which obviously doesn't work: def do_something_that_needs_database (): dbConnection = MySQLdb.connect(host=args['database_host'], user=args['database_user'], passwd=args['database_pass'], db=args['database_tabl'], cursorclass=MySQLdb.cursors.DictCursor) try: dbCursor = dbConnection.cursor() dbCursor.execute('SELECT COUNT(*) total FROM table') row = dbCursor.fetchone() if row['total'] == 0: print 'error: table have no records' dbCursor.execute('UPDATE table SET field="%s"', whatever_value) return None print 'table is ok' dbCursor.execute('UPDATE table SET field="%s"', another_value) # again, that same lot of line codes done here except ExitingCodeBlock: closeDb(dbConnection) # still, that "even more stuff" from before would come below I don't think there is anything similar to ExitingCodeBlock for an exception, tho I know there is the try else, but I hope Python already have a similar feature... Or maybe someone can suggest me a paradigm move and tell me this is awful and highly advise me to never do that. Maybe this is just something to not worry about and let MySQLdb handle it, or is it?

    Read the article

  • Updating a composite primary key

    - by VBCSharp
    I am struggling with the philosophical discussions about whether or not to use composite primary keys on my SQL Server database. I have always used the surrogate keys in the past and I am challenging myself by leaving my comfort zone to try something different. I have read many discussion but can't come to any kind of solution yet. The struggle I am having is when I have to update a record with the composite PK. For example, the record in questions is like this: ContactID, RoleID, EffectiveDate, TerminationDT. The PK in this case is the ContactID, RoleID, and EffectiveDate. TerminationDT can be null. If in my UI, the user changes the RoleID and then I need to update the record. Using the surrogate key I can do an Update Table Set RoleID = 1 WHERE surrogateID = Z. However, using the Composite Key way, once one of the fields in the composite key changes I have no way to reference the old record to update it without now maintaining somewhere in the UI a reference to the old values. I do not bind datasources in my UI. I open a connection, get the data and store it in a bucket, then close the connection. What are everyone's opinions? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to pass Calendar new date in the bean without listener?

    - by isabsent
    I am trying to pass new date from PrimeFaces p:calendar (placed in p:dataTable column) to the backing bean: <p:column > <p:calendar value="#{bean.date}">` <p:ajax /> </p:calendar> </p:column> It does not update bean.date. Variants with <p:ajax update="@this" event="change"/> <p:ajax update="@this" event="select"/> do not update bean.date too. The only way I have found is using of listener. However, I suppose, there should be a way without listener implementation like for simple facelets: <p:column> <h:inputText value="#{bean.note}" > <f:ajax/> </h:inputText> </p:column> that works fine for me. Does anybody know how to get it working!?

    Read the article

  • Hide / Show menu code not working after postback

    - by WraithNath
    I have a button on my web page that toggles the menu, After a postback the menu comes back despite me updating a hidden field value to store its state. Am I doing something wrong here? If there is a better way of doing it, let me know! Markup: <asp:Button ID="btnMenu" runat="server" Text="Hide Menu" UseSubmitBehavior="False" OnClientClick="return toggleMenu(this);" /> <asp:Panel runat="server" ID="pnlMenuToggle"> //Main Menu </asp:Panel> <asp:Panel runat="server" ID="pnlSubMenuToggle"> //Sub Menu </asp:Panel> <asp:HiddenField ID="hfMenuState" runat="server" Value="true" /> <script> //Toggles menu visibility function toggleMenu(menuButton) { var menuVisible = $('#<%=hfMenuState.ClientID%>').val() == 'true' ? true : false; $('#<%=pnlMenuToggle.ClientID%>').slideToggleWidth(); $('#<%=pnlSubMenuToggle.ClientID%>').slideToggle('slow'); //Update whether the menu is visible menuVisible = !menuVisible; //Update menu button text $(menuButton).val(menuVisible ? 'Hide Menu' : 'Show Menu'); $('#<%=hfMenuState.ClientID%>').val(menuVisible) return false; } </script> Code Behind: (Page Load) bool menu = Convert.ToBoolean( hfMenuState.Value ); pnlMenuToggle.Visible = menu; pnlSubMenuToggle.Visible = menu; The javascripts updates the hidden field value but it looks like this is never posted back to the server. What can I do to make sure the menu stays hidden after postbacks. I have also tried putting the hidden field in an Update Panel with Update Mode set to Always

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to modify the value of a record's primary key in Oracle when child records exist?

    - by Chris Farmer
    I have some Oracle tables that represent a parent-child relationship. They look something like this: create table Parent ( parent_id varchar2(20) not null primary key ); create table Child ( child_id number not null primary key, parent_id varchar2(20) not null, constraint fk_parent_id foreign key (parent_id) references Parent (parent_id) ); This is a live database and its schema was designed long ago under the assumption that the parent_id field would be static and unchanging for a given record. Now the rules have changed and we really would like to change the value of parent_id for some records. For example, I have these records: Parent: parent_id --------- ABC123 Child: child_id parent_id -------- --------- 1 ABC123 2 ABC123 And I want to modify ABC123 in these records in both tables to something else. It's my understanding that one cannot write an Oracle update statement that will update both parent and child tables simultaneously, and given the FK constraint, I'm not sure how best to update my database. I am currently disabling the fk_parent_id constraint, updating each table independently, and then enabling the constraint. Is there a better, single-step way to update this content?

    Read the article

  • can't create partial objects with accepts_nested_attributes_for

    - by Isaac Cambron
    I'm trying to build a form that allows users to update some records. They can't update every field, though, so I'm going to do some explicit processing (in the controller for now) to update the model vis-a-vis the form. Here's how I'm trying to do it: Family model: class Family < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :people, dependent: :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :people, allow_destroy: true, reject_if: ->(p){p[:name].blank?} end In the controller def check edited_family = Family.new(params[:family]) #compare to the one we have in the db #update each person as needed/allowed #save it end Form: = form_for current_family, url: check_rsvp_path, method: :post do |f| = f.fields_for :people do |person_fields| - if person_fields.object.user_editable = person_fields.text_field :name, class: "person-label" - else %p.person-label= person_fields.object.name The problem is, I guess, that Family.new(params[:family]) tries to pull the people out of the database, and I get this: ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound in RsvpsController#check Couldn't find Person with ID=7 for Family with ID= That's, I guess, because I'm not adding a field for family id to the nested form, which I suppose I could do, but I don't actually need it to load anything from the database for this anyway, so I'd rather not. I could also hack around this by just digging through the params hash myself for the data I need, but that doesn't feel a slick. It seems nicest to just create an object out of the params hash and then work with it. Is there a better way? How can I just create the nested object?

    Read the article

  • How to access individual items in Android GridView?

    - by source.rar
    Hi, I'm trying to create a game with a 9x9 grid with GridView. Each item in the grid is a TextView. I am able to set the initial values of each item in the grid within the getView() method to "0", however I want to change the value of each grid individually after this but have been unable to do so. I tried adding an update() function in my extended GridAdapter class that takes a position and a number to update at that position but this doesnt seem to be working. public void update(int position, int number) { TextView cell; cell = (TextView) getItem(position); if (cell != null) { cell.setText(Integer.toString(number)); } } Doe anyone know how this can be achieved? Here's the whole GridAdapter class in case require, public class SudokuGridAdapter extends BaseAdapter { private Context myContext; private TextView[] myCells; public SudokuGridAdapter(Context c) { myContext = c; myCells = new TextView[9*9]; } @Override public int getCount() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return 9*9; } @Override public Object getItem(int position) { return myCells[position]; } @Override public long getItemId(int position) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return 0; } @Override public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { TextView cell; if (myCells[position] == null) { cell = myCells[position] = new TextView(myContext); cell.setText("0"); } else { cell = myCells[position]; } return cell; } public void update(int position, int number) { TextView cell; cell = (TextView) getItem(position); if (cell != null) { cell.setText(Integer.toString(number)); } } }

    Read the article

  • Sort the $_POST variables

    - by Jerry
    Hello guys Might be an easy for you guys. I am trying to sort the $_POST variables that were sent by a form and update the sorted result in mysql. I am not sure how to do it and appreciate it anyone can help me about it. My main.php //I have a loop here. (omitted) //$k will be increased by 1 every time the loop starts, so I will know the total times of the loops //the form will be submitted to update.php echo "<input type='hidden' name='pickTotal' value='".$k."' />"; echo "<input type='hidden' id='point' name='earnedPoint".$k."' value='".$point."' />"; echo "<input type='hidden' id='users' name='userName".$k."' value='".$userPick['user']."' />"; //loop ends My update.php if(isset($_POST['submit'])){ $pickTotal=$_POST['pickTotal']; //get the total loop for ($p=0;$p<=$pickTotal;$p++){ $userToBeUpdated=$_POST['userName'.$p]; $userPoint=$_POST['earnedPoint'.$p]; //sort the $userPoint here. //I need to find out who got the most points //and list user's place. 1st, 2nd, 3rd...etc. //update my mysql } Thanks for any helps.

    Read the article

  • Generating a twitter OAuth access key - the semi-manual way

    - by Piet
    [UPDATE] Apparently someone at Twitter was listening, or I’m going senile/blind. Let’s call it a combination of both. Instead of following all the steps below, you could just login with the Twitter account you want to use on http://dev.twitter.com, register your application and then click ‘Edit Details’ on the application overview page at http://dev.twitter.com/apps. Next click the ‘Application detail’ button on the right, followed by the ‘My Access Token’ button in order to get your Access Token and Access Token Secret. This makes the old post below rather obsolete. Clearly a case of me thinking everything is a nail and ruby is a hammer (don’t they usually say this about java coders?) [ORIGINAL POST] OAuth is great! OAuth allows your application to use your user’s data without the need to ask for their password. So Twitter made the API much safer for their and your users. Hurray! Free pizza for everyone! Unless of course you’re using the Twitter API for your own needs like running your own bot and don’t need access to other user’s data. In such cases a simple username/password combination is more than enough. I can understand however that the Twitter guys don’t really care that much about these exceptions(?). Most such uses for the API are probably rather spammy in nature. !!! If you have a twitter app that uses the API to access external user’s data: look for another solution. This solution is ONLY meant when you ONLY need access to your own account(s) through the API. Other Solutions Mr Dallas Devries posted a solution here which involves requesting and scraping a one-time PIN. But: I like to minimize the amount of calls I make to twitter’s API or pages to lessen my chances of meeting the fail whale. Also, as soon as the pin isn’t included in a div called ‘oauth_pin’ anymore, this will fail. However, mr Devries’ post was a starting point for my solution, so I’m much obliged to him posting his findings. Authenticating with the Twitter API: old vs new Acessing The Twitter API the old way: require ‘twitter’ httpauth = Twitter::HTTPAuth.new('my_account','my_secret_password') client = Twitter::Base.new(httpauth) client.update(‘Hurray!’) The OAuth way: require 'twitter' oauth = Twitter::OAuth.new('ve4whatafuzzksaMQKjoI', 'KliketyklikspQ6qYALcuNandsomemored8pQ6qYALIG7mbEQY') oauth.authorize_from_access('123-owhfmeyAgfozdyt5hDeprSevsWmPo5rVeroGfsthis', 'fGiinCdqtehMeehiddenymDeAsasaawgGeryye8amh') client = Twitter::Base.new(oauth) client.update(‘Hurray!’) In the above case, ve4whatafuzzksaMQKjoI is the ‘consumer key’ (sometimes also referred to as ‘consumer token’) and KliketyklikspQ6qYALcuNandsomemored8pQ6qYALIG7mbEQY is the ‘consumer secret’. You’ll get these from Twitter when you register your app. 123-owhfmeyAgfozdyt5hDeprSevsWmPo5rVeroGfsthis is the ‘access token’ and fGiinCdqtehMeehiddenymDeAsasaawgGeryye8amh is the ‘access secret’. This combination gives the registered application access to your account. I’ll show you how to obtain these by following the steps below. (Basically you’ll need a bunch of keys and you’ll have to jump a bit through hoops to obtain them for your server/bot. ) How to get these keys 1. Surf to the twitter apps registration page go to http://dev.twitter.com/apps to register your app. Login with your twitter account. 2. Register your application Enter something for Application name, Description, website,… as I said: they make you jump through hoops. If you plan on using the API to post tweets, Your application name and website will be used in the ‘5 minutes ago via…’ line below your tweet. You could use the this to point to a page with info about your bot, or maybe it’s useful for SEO purposes. For application type I choose ‘browser’ and entered http://www.hadermann.be/callback as a ‘Callback URL’. This url returns a 404 error, which is ideal because after giving our account access to our ‘application’ (step 6), it will redirect to this url with an ‘oauth_token’ and ‘oauth_verifier’ in the url. We need to get these from the url. It doesn’t really matter what you enter here though, you could leave it blank because you need to explicitely specify it when generating a request token. You probably want read&write access so set this at ‘Default Access type’. 3. Get your consumer key and consumer secret On the next page, copy/paste your ‘consumer key’ and ‘consumer secret’. You’ll need these later on. You also need these as part of the authentication in your script later on: oauth = Twitter::OAuth.new([consumer key], [consumer secret]) 4. Obtain your request token run the following in IRB to obtain your ‘request token’ Replace my fake consumer key and consumer secret with the one you obtained in step 3. And use something else instead http://www.hadermann.be/callback: although this will only give a 404, you shouldn’t trust me. irb(main):001:0> require 'oauth' irb(main):002:0> c = OAuth::Consumer.new('ve4whatafuzzksaMQKjoI', 'KliketyklikspQ6qYALcuNandsomemored8pQ6qYALIG7mbEQY', {:site => 'http://twitter.com'}) irb(main):003:0> request_token = c.get_request_token(:oauth_callback => 'http://www.hadermann.be/callback') irb(main):004:0> request_token.token => "UrperqaukeWsWt3IAlfbxzyBUFpwWIcWkHP94QH2C1" This (UrperqaukeWsWt3IAlfbxzyBUFpwWIcWkHP94QH2C1) is the request token: Copy/paste this token, you will need this next. 5. Authorize your application surf to https://api.twitter.com/oauth/authorize?oauth_token=[the above token], for example: https://api.twitter.com/oauth/authorize?oauth_token=UrperqaukeWsWt3IAlfbxzyBUFpwWIcWkHP94QH2C1 This will bring you to the ‘An application would like to connect to your account’- screen on Twitter where you can grant access to the app you just registered. If you aren’t still logged in, you need to login first. Click ‘Allow’. Unless you don’t trust yourself. 6. Get your oauth_verifier from the redirected url Your browser will be redirected to your callback url, with an oauth_token and oauth_verifier parameter appended. You’ll need the oauth_verifier. In my case the browser redirected to: http://www.hadermann.be/callback?oauth_token=UrperqaukeWsWt3IAlfbxzyBUFpwWIcWkHP94QH2C1&oauth_verifier=waoOhKo8orpaqvQe6rVi5fti4ejr8hPeZrTewyeag Which returned a 404, giving me the chance to copy/paste my oauth_verifier: waoOhKo8orpaqvQe6rVi5fti4ejr8hPeZrTewyeag 7. Request an access token Back to irb, use the oauth_verifier to request an access token, as follows: irb(main):005:0> at = request_token.get_access_token(:oauth_verifier => 'waoOhKo8orpaqvQe6rVi5fti4ejr8hPeZrTewyeag') irb(main):006:0> at.params[:oauth_token] => "123-owhfmeyAgfozdyt5hDeprSevsWmPo5rVeroGfsthis" irb(main):007:0> at.params[:oauth_token_secret] => "fGiinCdqtehMeehiddenymDeAsasaawgGeryye8amh" We’re there! 123-owhfmeyAgfozdyt5hDeprSevsWmPo5rVeroGfsthis is the access token. fGiinCdqtehMeehiddenymDeAsasaawgGeryye8amh is the access secret. Try it! Try the following to post an update: require 'twitter' oauth = Twitter::OAuth.new('ve4whatafuzzksaMQKjoI', 'KliketyklikspQ6qYALcuNandsomemored8pQ6qYALIG7mbEQY') oauth.authorize_from_access('123-owhfmeyAgfozdyt5hDeprSevsWmPo5rVeroGfsthis', 'fGiinCdqtehMeehiddenymDeAsasaawgGeryye8amh') client = Twitter::Base.new(oauth) client.update(‘Cowabunga!’) Now you can go to your twitter page and delete the tweet if you want to.

    Read the article

  • .NET 4.5 is an in-place replacement for .NET 4.0

    - by Rick Strahl
    With the betas for .NET 4.5 and Visual Studio 11 and Windows 8 shipping many people will be installing .NET 4.5 and hacking away on it. There are a number of great enhancements that are fairly transparent, but it's important to understand what .NET 4.5 actually is in terms of the CLR running on your machine. When .NET 4.5 is installed it effectively replaces .NET 4.0 on the machine. .NET 4.0 gets overwritten by a new version of .NET 4.5 which - according to Microsoft - is supposed to be 100% backwards compatible. While 100% backwards compatible sounds great, we all know that 100% is a hard number to hit, and even the aforementioned blog post at the Microsoft site acknowledges this. But there's so much more than backwards compatibility that makes this awkward at best and confusing at worst. What does ‘Replacement’ mean? When you install .NET 4.5 your .NET 4.0 assemblies in the \Windows\.NET Framework\V4.0.30319 are overwritten with a new set of assemblies. You end up with overwritten assemblies as well as a bunch of new ones (like the new System.Net.Http assemblies for example). The following screen shot demonstrates system.dll on my test machine (left) running .NET 4.5 on the right and my production laptop running stock .NET 4.0 (right):   Clearly they are different files with a difference in file sizes (interesting that the 4.5 version is actually smaller). That’s not all. If you actually query the runtime version when .NET 4.5 is installed with with Environment.Version you still get: 4.0.30319 If you open the properties of System.dll assembly in .NET 4.5 you'll also see: Notice that the file version is also left at 4.0.xxx. There are differences in build numbers: .NET 4.0 shows 261 and the current .NET 4.5 beta build is 17379. I suppose you can use assume a build number greater than 17000 is .NET 4.5, but that's pretty hokey to say the least. There’s no easy or obvious way to tell whether you are running on 4.0 or 4.5 – to the application they appear to be the same runtime version. And that is what Microsoft intends here. .NET 4.5 is intended as an in-place upgrade. Compile to 4.5 run on 4.0 – not quite! You can compile an application for .NET 4.5 and run it on the 4.0 runtime – that is until you hit a new feature that doesn’t exist on 4.0. At which point the app bombs at runtime. Say you write some code that is mostly .NET 4.0, but only has a few of the new features of .NET 4.5 like aync/await buried deep in the bowels of the application where it only fires occasionally. .NET will happily start your application and run everything 4.0 fine, until it hits that 4.5 code – and then crash unceremoniously at runtime. Oh joy! You can .NET 4.0 applications on .NET 4.5 of course and that should work without much fanfare. Different than .NET 3.0/3.5 Note that this in-place replacement is very different from the side by side installs of .NET 2.0 and 3.0/3.5 which all ran on the 2.0 version of the CLR. The two 3.x versions were basically library enhancements on top of the core .NET 2.0 runtime. Both versions ran under the .NET 2.0 runtime which wasn’t changed (other than for security patches and bug fixes) for the whole 3.x cycle. The 4.5 update instead completely replaces the .NET 4.0 runtime and leaves the actual version number set at v4.0.30319. When you build a new project with Visual Studio 2011, you can still target .NET 4.0 or you can target .NET 4.5. But you are in effect referencing the same set of assemblies for both regardless which version you use. What's different is the compiler used to compile and link your code so compiling with .NET 4.0 gives you just the subset of the functionality that is available in .NET 4.0, but when you use the 4.5 compiler you get the full functionality of what’s actually available in the assemblies and extra libraries. It doesn’t look like you will be able to use Visual Studio 2010 to develop .NET 4.5 applications. Good news – Bad news Microsoft is trying hard to experiment with every possible permutation of releasing new versions of the .NET framework apparently. No two updates have been the same. Clearly updating to a full new version of .NET (ie. .NET 2.0, 4.0 and at some point 5.0 runtimes) has its own set of challenges, but doing an in-place update of the runtime and then not even providing a good way to tell which version is installed is pretty whacky even by Microsoft’s standards. Especially given that .NET 4.5 includes a fairly significant update with all the aysnc functionality baked into the runtime. Most of the IO APIs have been updated to support task based async operation which significantly affects many existing APIs. To make things worse .NET 4.5 will be the initial version of .NET that ships with Windows 8 so it will be with us for a long time to come unless Microsoft finally decides to push .NET versions onto Windows machines as part of system upgrades (which currently doesn’t happen). This is the same story we had when Vista launched with .NET 3.0 which was a minor version that quickly was replaced by 3.5 which was more long lived and practical. People had enough problems dealing with the confusing versioning of the 3.x versions which ran on .NET 2.0. I can’t count the amount support calls and questions I’ve fielded because people couldn’t find a .NET 3.5 entry in the IIS version dialog. The same is likely to happen with .NET 4.5. It’s all well and good when we know that .NET 4.5 is an in-place replacement, but administrators and IT folks not intimately familiar with .NET are unlikely to understand this nuance and end up thoroughly confused which version is installed. It’s hard for me to see any upside to an in-place update and I haven’t really seen a good explanation of why this approach was decided on. Sure if the version stays the same existing assembly bindings don’t break so applications can stay running through an update. I suppose this is useful for some component vendors and strongly signed assemblies in corporate environments. But seriously, if you are going to throw .NET 4.5 into the mix, who won’t be recompiling all code and thoroughly test that code to work on .NET 4.5? A recompile requirement doesn’t seem that serious in light of a major version upgrade.  Resources http://blogs.msdn.com/b/dotnet/archive/2011/09/26/compatibility-of-net-framework-4-5.aspx http://www.devproconnections.com/article/net-framework/net-framework-45-versioning-faces-problems-141160© Rick Strahl, West Wind Technologies, 2005-2012Posted in .NET   Tweet !function(d,s,id){var js,fjs=d.getElementsByTagName(s)[0];if(!d.getElementById(id)){js=d.createElement(s);js.id=id;js.src="//platform.twitter.com/widgets.js";fjs.parentNode.insertBefore(js,fjs);}}(document,"script","twitter-wjs"); (function() { var po = document.createElement('script'); po.type = 'text/javascript'; po.async = true; po.src = 'https://apis.google.com/js/plusone.js'; var s = document.getElementsByTagName('script')[0]; s.parentNode.insertBefore(po, s); })();

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197  | Next Page >