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  • WPF create a list of controls that can be scrolled via the mouse but still remain functional

    - by Mark
    I have a list of controls that I am displaying via a WrapPanel and it horizontally oriented. I have implemented a "Click and Drag" scrolling technique so that the user scrolls with the mouse via clicking and dragging. Like so: <Canvas x:Name="ParentCanvas" PreviewMouseDown="Canvas_MouseDown" MouseMove="Canvas_MouseMove"> <WrapPanel> <WrapPanel.RenderTransform> <TranslateTransform /> </WrapPanel.RenderTransform> <!-- controls are all in here ... --> </WrapPanel> </Canvas> Then in the code behind: private Point _mousePosition; private Point _lastMousePosition; private void Canvas_MouseDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { _lastMousePosition = e.GetPosition(ParentCanvas); e.Handled = true; } private void Canvas_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { _mousePosition = e.GetPosition(ParentCanvas); var delta = _mousePosition - _lastMousePosition; if(e.LeftButton == MouseButtonState.Pressed && delta.X != 0) { var transform = ((TranslateTransform)_wrapPanel.RenderTransform).Clone(); transform.X += delta.X; _wrapPanel.RenderTransform = transform; _lastMousePosition = _mousePosition; } } This all works fine But what I want to do is make it so that when a users clicks to drag, the items within the WrapPanel dont respond (i.e. the user is only browsing), but when the user clicks (as in a full click) then they do respond to the click. Just like how the iphone works, when you press and drag directly on an app, it does not open the app, but rather scrolls the screen, but when you tap the app, it starts... I hope this makes sense. Cheers, Mark

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  • Displaying windows-1252 text in a literal control

    - by GordonB
    I currently have an aspx page that has a placeholder on it. In the code-behind page i'm adding a literal control to the placeholder controls collection. The literal control just contains text/html read from a sql server database field. The only text character encoding i've used so far is UTF-8. I have the requirement for a specific page to use windows-1252 encoding. I've strapped this to the page, and browsers now recognise the proper encoding. <% Response.Charset= "windows-1252" %> My issue is that i have various german characters ( ö / ü / etc ) that aren't displaying correctly. As presumably they are still be written to the page in UTF-8 not in windows-1252. I'm looking at; Dim textEncoder = System.Text.Encoding.GetEncoding(1252) Which seems to be more geared up to dealing with byte arrays than text. Do i have to change my text to a byte array then encode as windows-1252 then get the text back out again, or is there a simpler way of achieving what i'm after?

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  • ISO/IEC Website and Charging for C and C++ Standards

    - by Michael Aaron Safyan
    The ISO C Standard (ISO/IEC 9899) and the ISO C++ Standard (ISO/IEC 14882) are not published online; instead, one must purchase the PDF for each of those standards. I am wondering what the rationale is behind this... is it not detrimental to both the C and C++ programming languages that the authoritative specification for these languages is not made freely available and searchable online? Doesn't this encourage the use of possibly inaccurate, non-authoritative sources for information regarding these standards? While I understand that much time and effort has gone into developing the C and C++ standards, I am still somewhat puzzled by the choice to charge for the specification. The OpenGroup Base Specification, for example, is available for free online; they make money buy charging for certification. Does anyone know why the ISO standards committees don't make their revenue in certifying standards compliance, instead of charging for these documents? Also, does anyone know if the ISO standards committee's atrociously looking website is intentionally made to look that way? It's as if they don't want people visiting and buying the spec. One last thing... the C and C++ standards are generally described as "open standards"... while I realize that this means that anyone is permitted to implement the standard, should that definition of "open" be revised? Charging for the standard rather than making it openly available seems contrary to the spirit of openness. P.S. I do have a copy of the ISO/IEC 9899:1999 and ISO/IEC 14882:2003, so please no remarks about being cheap or anything... although if you are tempted to say such things, you might want to consider the high school, undergraduate, and graduate students who might not have all that much extra cash. Also, you might want to consider the fact that the ISO website is really sketchy and they don't even tell you the cost until you proceed to the checkout... doesn't really encourage one to go and get a copy, now does it?

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  • How to handle alpha in a manual "Overlay" blend operation?

    - by quixoto
    I'm playing with some manual (walk-the-pixels) image processing, and I'm recreating the standard "overlay" blend. I'm looking at the "Photoshop math" macros here: http://www.nathanm.com/photoshop-blending-math/ (See also here for more readable version of Overlay) Both source images are in fairly standard RGBA (8 bits each) format, as is the destination. When both images are fully opaque (alpha is 1.0), the result is blended correctly as expected: But if my "blend" layer (the top image) has transparency in it, I'm a little flummoxed as to how to factor that alpha into the blending equation correctly. I expect it to work such that transparent pixels in the blend layer have no effect on the result, opaque pixels in the blend layer do the overlay blend as normal, and semitransparent blend layer pixels have some scaled effect on the result. Can someone explain to me the blend equations or the concept behind doing this? Bonus points if you can help me do it such that the resulting image has correctly premultiplied alpha (which only comes into play for pixels that are not opaque in both layers, I think.) Thanks! // factor in blendLayerA, (1-blendLayerA) somehow? resultR = ChannelBlend_Overlay(baseLayerR, blendLayerR); resultG = ChannelBlend_Overlay(baseLayerG, blendLayerG); resultB = ChannelBlend_Overlay(baseLayerB, blendLayerB); resultA = 1.0; // also, what should this be??

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  • stop background of iphone webapp from responding to swipes

    - by JoeS
    I'm making a mobile version of my website, and trying to make it feel as native as possible on the iphone. However, any background areas of the page respond to swiping gestures such that you can shift the page partway off the screen. Specifically, if the user touches and swipes left, for example, the content shifts off the edge of the screen and one can see a gray background 'behind' the page. How can this be prevented? I'd like to have the page itself be 320x480 with scroll-swiping disabled (except on list elements that I choose). I have added the following meta tags to the top of the page: <meta name="viewport" content="width=320; height=480; initial-scale=1.0; maximum-scale=1.0; user-scalable=0;"/> <meta name="apple-mobile-web-app-capable" content="yes" /> <meta name="apple-mobile-web-app-status-bar-style" content="black" /> I've also tried the following as the event handler for the touchstart, touchmove, and touchend events of the body element: function cancelTouchEvent(e) { if (!e) var e = window.event; e.cancelBubble = true; if (e.stopPropagation) e.stopPropagation(); if (e.preventDefault) e.preventDefault(); return false; } It doesn't stop the swiping behavior, but does prevent clicks on all links on the page... Any help is much appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Bookmarkable URLs after Ajax for Wicket

    - by Wolfgang
    There is this well-known problem that browsers don't put Ajax request in the request history and cause problems for bookmarkability, forward/back button, and refresh. Also, there is a common solution to that problem that appends the hash symbol # and some additional parameters to the URL by using Javascript window.location.hash = .... In this question a basic solution to this problem is proposed, for example. = My question is if such a solution has been integrated in Wicket, so that existing Wicket facilities are used and no custom Javascript had to be added. If not, I'd be interested in how this could be done. Such a solution had to answer the question what should be put after the hash. I like the idea that the bookmarkable URL that (in the non-Ajax case) were in front of the hash could be put behind it. For example, when you are on http://host/catalog and reach a page http://host/product/xyz the Ajax-triggered URL would be http://host/catalog#/product/xyz. Then it would be easy to write an onload handler that checks for the # and does a redirect to the URL after the hash.

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  • why MVC instead of good old asp.net? Still not grasping why I should go this route??

    - by RJ
    I know this question has been asked before and I read all the answers but they still don't give me the answers I am looking for. I need something concrete. I volunteered to give a presentation on MVC to other developers in our group which forces me to learn it. The big question everyone has is: "What can MVC bring to the table that we can't do in asp.net or MVC can do faster. I have just gone through Nerd Dinner and actually created a complete website that sort of mimics Nerd Dinner. But as great a job that Scott Guthrie did on it, there are big gaps that aren't answered such as, how do I throw a textbox on the listing page with a button and do a simple search. In asp.net, I would throw a textbox, button and grid on the page and bind it to a sproc and away I go. What is the equivalent in MVC. I guess I need a really good tutorial on how to use MVC without using Linq-to-Sql. I know I am sort of babbling on about this but it is a very serious question that still seems to go unanswered. On a side note, the View page of MVC brings back nightmares of classic asp with all the in-line code that we got away from way back when with code behind pages. Yes, MVC has Controller and Model classes which are great but I still don't like the classic asp tags in the html. Help me out here, I really like the concept of MVC and want it to be successful but I need more!

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  • master pages, form pages, form runat=server > all onclick methods on master page?

    - by b0x0rz
    the problem i have is that i have multiple nested master pages: level 1: global (header, footer, login, navigation, etc...) level 2: specific (search pages, account pages, etc...) level 3: the page itself now, since only one form can have runat=server, i put the form at global page (so i can handle things like login, feedback, etc...). now with this solution i'd have to also put the for example level 3 (see above) methods, such as search also on the level 1 master page, but this will lead to this page being heavy (for development) with code from all places, even those that are used on a single page only (change email form for example). is there any way to delegate such methods (for example: ChangeEMail) from level 1 (global masterpage) to level 3 (the single page itself). to be even more clear: i want to NOT have to have the method ChangeEMail on the global master page code behind, but would like to 'MOVE' it somehow to the only page that will actually use it. the reason why it currently has to be on the global master is that global master has form runat=server and there can be only one of those per aspx page. this way it will be easier (more logical) to structure the code. thnx (hope i explained it correctly) have searched but did not find any general info on handling this case, usualy the answer is: have all the methods on the master page, but i don't like it. so ANY way of moving it to the specific page would be awesome. thnx

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  • Stale connection with Pheanstalk

    - by token47
    I'm using beanstalkd to offload some work to other machines. The setup is a bit unusual, the server is on the internet (public ip) but the consumers are behind adsl lines on some peoples homes. So there is a linux server as client going out through a dynamic ip and connecting to the server to get a job. It's all PHP and I'm using pheanstalk library. Everything runs smoothly for some time, but then the adsl changes the IP (every 24h hours the provider forces a disconnect-reconnect) the client just hangs, never to go out of "reserve". I thought that putting a timeout on the reserve would help it, but it didn't. As it seems, the client issues a command and blocks, it never checks the timeout. It just issues a reserve-with-timeout (instead of a simple reserve) and it is the servers responsibility to return a TIME_OUT as the timeout occurs. The problem is, the connection is broken (but the TCP/IP doesn't know about that yet until any of the sides try to talk to the other side) and if the client blocked reading, it will never return. The library seems to have support for some kind of timeouts locally (for example when trying to connect to server), but it does not seem to contemplate this scenario. How could I detect the stale connection and force a reconnect? Is there some kind of keepalive on the protocol (and on the pheanstalk itself)? Thanks!

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  • iPhone - adding views and landscape orientation

    - by Franz
    I got a problem with Cocoa touch and landscape orientation. I instantiate my view from a .xib; i added in my view controller - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { return interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight; } to only allow landscape orientation. This works find for the first view i add.. if I add a second view however it is rotated again like the landscape view is shown in portrait mode (rotated 90 degree counterclockwise). I really don't know what is going on and can't find a workaround. I even tried to get behind what is happening just adding my view twice: MainMenuViewController* controller = [[MainMenuViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainMenu" bundle:nil]; [window addSubview: controller.view]; MainMenuViewController* controller2 = [[MainMenuViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainMenu" bundle:nil]; [window addSubview: controller2.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; The view of controller is displayed correctly, while the view of controller2 is rotated by 90 degrees. Does anyone have an idea how this can happen? Thanks for your help.

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  • Is there really such a thing as a char or short in modern programming?

    - by Dean P
    Howdy all, I've been learning to program for a Mac over the past few months (I have experience in other languages). Obviously that has meant learning the Objective C language and thus the plainer C it is predicated on. So I have stumbles on this quote, which refers to the C/C++ language in general, not just the Mac platform. With C and C++ prefer use of int over char and short. The main reason behind this is that C and C++ perform arithmetic operations and parameter passing at integer level, If you have an integer value that can fit in a byte, you should still consider using an int to hold the number. If you use a char, the compiler will first convert the values into integer, perform the operations and then convert back the result to char. So my question, is this the case in the Mac Desktop and IPhone OS environments? I understand when talking about theses environments we're actually talking about 3-4 different architectures (PPC, i386, Arm and the A4 Arm variant) so there may not be a single answer. Nevertheless does the general principle hold that in modern 32 bit / 64 bit systems using 1-2 byte variables that don't align with the machine's natural 4 byte words doesn't provide much of the efficiency we may expect. For instance, a plain old C-Array of 100,000 chars is smaller than the same 100,000 ints by a factor of four, but if during an enumeration, reading out each index involves a cast/boxing/unboxing of sorts, will we see overall lower 'performance' despite the saved memory overhead?

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  • Apache proxy to Lighttpd: changing $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] in php

    - by watain
    I have a WordPress blog running on lighttpd-1.4.19, listening on at www00:81. On the same host, apache-2.2.11 listens on port 80, which creates a proxy connection from http://blog.mydomain.org:80 to http://blog.mydomain.org:81. The Apache virtualhost looks as follows: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName blog.mydomain.org ProxyRequests Off <Proxy *> Order deny,allow Allow from all </Proxy> ProxyPass / http://blog.mydomain.org:81/ ProxyPassReverse / http://blog.mydomain.org:81/ </VirtualHost> Using debug.log-request-handling = "enable" I get the following log entry when I browse http://blog.mydomain.org:80 (notice the Host headers): 2010-05-10 08:47:14: (request.c.294) fd: 6 request-len: 853 GET / HTTP/1.1 Host: blog.mydomain.org:81 [...] 2010-05-10 08:47:15: (request.c.294) fd: 8 request-len: 754 GET /wp-content/uploads/2010/01/image.gif?w=280 HTTP/1.1 Host: www00:81 My problem: as far as I know, the PHP environment variable $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] is set to that Host header variable. Unfortunately, WordPress uses that variable in their system to create URLs to pictures on the blog. These URLs won't be accessible behind a firewall of course. How can I force the host header to be blog.mydomain.org instead of blog.mydomain.org:81, respectively www00:81? I already added set server.name = "blog.mydomain.org" to my lighttpd.conf, but this didn't work. Any suggestions are appreciated, thank you.

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  • Web User Control og Event

    - by Mcoroklo
    I have a web user control, CreateQuestion.ascx, in ASP.NET. I want an event "QuestionAdded" to fire when a specific button is clicked. I don't want to send any data, I just want to know WHEN the button is fired. My implementation: CreateQuestion.ascx: public event EventHandler QuestionAdded; protected virtual void OnQuestionAdded(EventArgs e) { if (QuestionAdded != null) QuestionAdded(this, e); } /// This is the button I want to know when is fired protected void SubmitButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //question.Save(); this.OnQuestionAdded(new EventArgs()); } On the page AnswerQuestion.aspx, I use this: private void SetupControls(int myId) { CreateQuestionControl.QuestionAdded += new EventHandler(QuestionAdded); } private void QuestionAdded(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Write("HEJ KARL?"); } My problem No matter what, the event is never fired. I know that both SetupControls() is being run, and the code behind the button which should fire the event is run. When I debug, I can see the event QuestionAdded always are null. How do I make this work? Thanks a lot

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  • Cookie not working after mod rewrite rule

    - by moonwalker
    Hi all, I have a simple Cookie to set the chosen language: $lang = $_GET['lang']; $myLang = $_COOKIE["myLang"]; if (!isset($_COOKIE["myLang"])){ setcookie("myLang", "en", $expire); include "languages/en.php"; $myLang = "en"; }else{ include "languages/$myLang.php"; } // One year to expire $expire = time()+60*60*24*30*365; // Put $languages in a common header file. $languages = array('en' => 1, 'fr' => 2, 'nl' => 3); if (array_key_exists($lang, $languages)) { include "languages/{$lang}.php"; setcookie("myLang", $lang, $expire); $myLang = $lang; } After using some rewrite rules, it just doesn't work anymore. I tried the following: setcookie("myLang", "en", $expire, "/" , false); No luck at all. This is my .htaccess file: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> Options +FollowSymLinks Options +Indexes RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteRule ^sort/([^/]*)/([^/]*)$ /3arsi2/sort.php?mode=$1&cat=$2 [L] RewriteRule ^category/([^/]*)$ /3arsi2/category.php?cat=$1 [L] RewriteRule ^category/([^/]*)/([^/]*)$ /3arsi2/category.php?cat=$1&lang=$2 [L] RewriteRule ^search/([^/]*)$ /3arsi2/search.php?mode=$1 [L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^u/([^/]+)/?$ 3arsi2/user.php?user=$1 [NC,L] RewriteRule ^u/([^/]+)/(images|videos|music)/?$ 3arsi2/user.php?user=$1&page=$2 [NC,L] RewriteRule ^([^\.]+)$ 3arsi2/$1.php [NC,L] </IfModule> Any idea how to solve this? I'm still new to the mod rewrite thing, so I still don't really understand the logic behind it all. Thanks for any help you can provide.

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  • Getting a handle on GIS math, where do I start?

    - by Joshua
    I am in charge of a program that is used to create a set of nodes and paths for consumption by an autonomous ground vehicle. The program keeps track of the locations of all items in its map by indicating the item's position as being x meters north and y meters east of an origin point of 0,0. In the real world, the vehicle knows the location of the origin's lat and long, as it is determined by a dgps system and is accurate down to a couple centimeters. My program is ignorant of any lat long coordinates. It is one of my goals to modify the program to keep track of lat long coords of items in addition to an origin point and items' x,y position in relation to that origin. At first blush, it seems that I am going to modify the program to allow the lat long coords of the origin to be passed in, and after that I desire that the program will automatically calculate the lat long of every item currently in a map. From what I've researched so far, I believe that I will need to figure out the math behind converting to lat long coords from a UTM like projection where I specify the origin points and meridians etc as opposed to whatever is defined already for UTM. I've come to ask of you GIS programmers, am I on the right track? It seems to me like there is so much to wrap ones head around, and I'm not sure if the answer isn't something as simple as, "oh yea theres a conversion from meters to lat long, here" Currently, due to the nature of DGPS, the system really doesn't need to care about locations more than oh, what... 40 km? radius away from the origin. Given this, and the fact that I need to make sure that the error on my coordinates is not greater than .5 meters, do I need anything more complex than a simple lat/long to meters conversion constant? I'm knee deep in materials here. I could use some pointers about what concepts to research. Thanks much!

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  • Are Dynamic Prepared Statements Bad? (with php + mysqli)

    - by John
    I like the flexibility of Dynamic SQL and I like the security + improved performance of Prepared Statements. So what I really want is Dynamic Prepared Statements, which is troublesome to make because bind_param and bind_result accept "fixed" number of arguments. So I made use of an eval() statement to get around this problem. But I get the feeling this is a bad idea. Here's example code of what I mean // array of WHERE conditions $param = array('customer_id'=>1, 'qty'=>'2'); $stmt = $mysqli->stmt_init(); $types = ''; $bindParam = array(); $where = ''; $count = 0; // build the dynamic sql and param bind conditions foreach($param as $key=>$val) { $types .= 'i'; $bindParam[] = '$p'.$count.'=$param["'.$key.'"]'; $where .= "$key = ? AND "; $count++; } // prepare the query -- SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE customer_id = ? AND qty = ? $sql = "SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE ".substr($where, 0, strlen($where)-4); $stmt->prepare($sql); // assemble the bind_param command $command = '$stmt->bind_param($types, '.implode(', ', $bindParam).');'; // evaluate the command -- $stmt->bind_param($types,$p0=$param["customer_id"],$p1=$param["qty"]); eval($command); Is that last eval() statement a bad idea? I tried to avoid code injection by encapsulating values behind the variable name $param. Does anyone have an opinion or other suggestions? Are there issues I need to be aware of?

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  • Security Exception when using Custom ASP.NET Healthmonitoring event in medium trust

    - by Elementenfresser
    Hi, I'm using custom healthmonitoring events in ASP.NET We recently moved to a new server with default High Trust Permissions. Literature says that healthmonitoring and custom events should work under Medium or higher trust (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb398933.aspx). Problem is - it doesn't. In less than full trust I get a SecurityException saying The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy It works in Full trust or when I remove the inheritance of System.Web.Management.WebErrorEvent. Any suggestions anyone? Here is the super simple code behind with a custom event defined: public partial class Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { CallCustomEvent(); } catch (Exception ex) { Response.Write(ex.Message); throw ex; } } /// <summary> /// this metho is never called due to lacking permissions... /// </summary> private void CallCustomEvent() { try { //do something useful here } catch (Exception) { //code to instantiate the forbidden inheritance... WebBaseEvent.Raise(new CustomEvent()); } } } /// <summary> /// custom error inheriting WebErrorEvent which is not allowed in high trust? can't believe that... /// </summary> public class CustomEvent : WebErrorEvent { public CustomEvent() : base("test", HttpContext.Current.Request, 100001, new ApplicationException("dummy")) { } } and the Web Config excerpt for high trust: <system.web> <trust level="High" originUrl="" />

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  • How do I control the background color during the iPhone flip view animation transition?

    - by Rob S.
    I have some pretty standing flipping action going on: [UIView beginAnimations:@"swapScreens" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationTransition:UIViewAnimationTransitionFlipFromLeft forView:self.view cache:YES]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1.0]; [self.view exchangeSubviewAtIndex:0 withSubviewAtIndex:1]; [UIView commitAnimations]; To Apple's credit, this style of animation is amazingly easy to work with. Very cool, and I've been able to animate transitions, flips, fades etc. throughout the app very easily. Question: During the flip transition, the background visible 'behind' the two views during the flip is white and I'd like it to be black. I've: Set the background of the containing view (self.view above) - no dice. I really thought that would work. Set the background of each view to black - no dice. I didn't think this would work although you give different things a shot to understand better :) Google'd like crazy; keep landing on Safari-related listings. Thanks in advance!

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  • jsf messed up links

    - by Mateusz
    I'm new to JSF. My application is working, but I'm confused with links in browser when using controller. BTW, there is also PrimeFaces in my app so don't be suprised with p: tags. Let's say I have 'list' and 'show' pages with controller doing redirection between them. First I'm on http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml page. There is link created with line <p:commandLink action="#{lazyConversationBean.doShow(conv)}" ajax="false" value="View"/>. lazyConversationBean acts here as my Controller. There is method: public String doShow(Conversation c) { this.setSelectedConversation(c); return "view"; } from which I got redirected to ...... again http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml (browser shows it) even when it's correct http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/view.xhtml page. There I have link <p:commandButton action="#{lazyConversationBean.doList()}" ajax="false" value="Back to list"/> and again controller has method: public String doList() { return "list"; } from which I got redirected to ... yeah, you guessed right ... http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/view.xhtml (that is again what browser shows) even when again it is correct http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml page. It seams as browser link area is always one step behind page currently being displayed. I don't even know if it's some incorrect behaviour as I have no idea how to query google for this :D Just for test I did this short tutorial, where netbeans created whole stack of code on one of my entities, and behaviour was the same, so it's not PrimeFaces magic related. Can you tell my why it happens, and how to fix it? Users likes to copy correct links ;)

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  • Pass Parameter to Subroutine in Codebehind

    - by Sanjubaba
    I'm trying to pass an ID of an activity (RefNum) to a Sub in my codebehind. I know I'm supposed to use parentheses when passing parameters to subroutines and methods, and I've tried a number of ways and keep receiving the following error: BC30203: Identifier expected. I'm hard-coding it on the front-end just to try to get it to pass [ OnDataBound="FillSectorCBList("""WK.002""")" ], but it's obviously wrong. :( Front-end: <asp:DetailsView ID="dvEditActivity" AutoGenerateRows="False" DataKeyNames="RefNum" OnDataBound="dvSectorID_DataBound" OnItemUpdated="dvEditActivity_ItemUpdated" DataSourceID="dsEditActivity" > <Fields> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <br /><span style="color:#0e85c1;font-weight:bold">Sector</span><br /><br /> <asp:CheckBoxList ID="cblistSector" runat="server" DataSourceID="dsGetSectorNames" DataTextField="SectorName" DataValueField="SectorID" OnDataBound="FillSectorCBList("""WK.002""")" ></asp:CheckBoxList> <%-- Datasource to populate cblistSector --%> <asp:SqlDataSource ID="dsGetSectorNames" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:dbConn %>" ProviderName="<%$ ConnectionStrings:dbConn.ProviderName %>" SelectCommand="SELECT SectorID, SectorName from Sector ORDER BY SectorID"></asp:SqlDataSource> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Fields> </asp:DetailsView> Code-behind: Sub FillSectorCBList(ByVal RefNum As String, ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Dim SectorIDs As New ListItem Dim myConnection As String = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("dbConn").ConnectionString() Dim objConn As New SqlConnection(myConnection) Dim strSQL As String = "SELECT DISTINCT A.RefNum, AS1.SectorID, S.SectorName FROM Activity A LEFT OUTER JOIN Activity_Sector AS1 ON AS1.RefNum = A.RefNum LEFT OUTER JOIN Sector S ON AS1.SectorID = S.SectorID WHERE A.RefNum = @RefNum ORDER BY A.RefNum" Dim objCommand As New SqlCommand(strSQL, objConn) objCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("RefNum", RefNum) Dim ad As New SqlDataAdapter(objCommand) Try [Code] Finally [Code] End Try objCommand.Connection.Close() objCommand.Dispose() objConn.Close() End Sub Any advice would be great. I'm not sure if I even have the right approach. Thank you!

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  • Kernighan & Ritchie word count example program in a functional language

    - by Frank
    I have been reading a little bit about functional programming on the web lately and I think I got a basic idea about the concepts behind it. I'm curious how everyday programming problems which involve some kind of state are solved in a pure functional programing language. For example: how would the word count program from the book 'The C programming Language' be implemented in a pure functional language? Any contributions are welcome as long as the solution is in a pure functional style. Here's the word count C code from the book: #include <stdio.h> #define IN 1 /* inside a word */ #define OUT 0 /* outside a word */ /* count lines, words, and characters in input */ main() { int c, nl, nw, nc, state; state = OUT; nl = nw = nc = 0; while ((c = getchar()) != EOF) { ++nc; if (c == '\n') ++nl; if (c == ' ' || c == '\n' || c = '\t') state = OUT; else if (state == OUT) { state = IN; ++nw; } } printf("%d %d %d\n", nl, nw, nc); }

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  • How can I change the visibility of elements inside a DataTemplate when a row is selected in a Silver

    - by miketrash
    I'm using the MVVM pattern. I've bound my items and I want to only show the edit button when a row is selected in the datagrid. It appears to be possible with triggers in WPF but we don't have triggers in Silverlight. I tried a TemplatedParent binding but I'm not sure what the TemplatedParent is in this case. We don't have RelativeSource ancestor in Silverlight either. At this point I'm going to look at a solution using the code behind... <data:DataGrid.Columns> <data:DataGridTemplateColumn IsReadOnly="True" Header="Name" Width="300"> <data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid> <TextBlock x:Name="textBlock" Text="{Binding Name, Mode=OneWay}" VerticalAlignment="Center" Margin="4,4,0,4"/> <Button Margin="1,1,4,1" HorizontalAlignment="Right" VerticalAlignment="Center" Padding="7,4" Content="Edit" /> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn> </data:DataGrid.Columns>

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  • Get :first-letter of :hover element with CSS

    - by Rudie
    Is it possible to get the first letter of an element while in 'hover mode'? This is how it would look - I think - but it's not working in Chrome 10: a:hover:first-letter or a:first-letter:hover Technically (imho) they're not the same. The first takes the first letter of the hovering element. The second takes the entire element if the first letter is hovering. I require the first. As you can see on http://css4.hotblocks.nl (if you have a 1900px screen and a dom inspector) if you uncomment the CSS, both don't work. I want only the first letter of the element to color red, when the entire element is in :hover mode. Is it possible without additional HTML tags? Thanks. -- edit I've changed my online example for the better. CSS is now divided in separate <style> blocks. Makes for easier turning on and off try-outs. Conclusion - so far!? - is this: In Firefox 3.6/4 a:first-letter:hover does nothing (good) and a:hover:first-letter works perfectly (good!). In Chrome 10 a:first-letter:hover does nothing (good) and a:first-letter:hover breaks the previous CSS 'statement'. (In my example it breaks nothing because it's in a separate <style> block.) Which brings us to: once again Google Chrome lags behind Firefox =( --edit

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  • .change(function) can control two command

    - by klox
    dear all..i've a textfield, it using barcode scanner for input data..after scan it shows KD-R411ED 105X0001... I'm successful separate them into two text field use ".change(function)" $("#tags1").change(function() { var barcode; barCode=$("#tags1").val(); var data=barCode.split(" "); $("#tags1").val(data[0]); $("#tags2").val(data[1]); }); what i want is beside make them separate after ".change(function)" another script can read two character behind "KD-R411ED"..that is "ED"..this character can make a radiobutton which id="check1" are checked.. what's code which can combine with code above? this my complete code.. $("#tags1").change(function() { var barcode; barCode=$("#tags1").val(); var data=barCode.split(" "); $("#tags1").val(data[0]); $("#tags2").val(data[1]); var code = data[0].substr(data[0].length - 2); // suggested by Jan Willem B if (code =='UD') $('#check1').attr('checked','checked'); } else { if (code == 'ED') { $('#check2').attr('checked','checked'); } } and this the form <input id="check1" type="radio" class="check" name="check" onclick="addtext()" value="U" />U <input id="check2" type="radio" class="check" name="check" onclick="addtext_1()" value="E" />E the radiobutton still not response

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  • WPF: How to bind and update display with DataContext

    - by Am
    I'm trying to do the following thing: I have a TabControl with several tabs. Each TabControlItem.Content points to PersonDetails which is a UserControl Each BookDetails has a dependency property called IsEditMode I want a control outside of the TabControl , named ToggleEditButton, to be updated whenever the selected tab changes. I thought I could do this by changing the ToggleEditButton data context, by it doesn't seem to work (but I'm new to WPF so I might way off) The code changing the data context: private void tabControl1_SelectionChanged(object sender, SelectionChangedEventArgs e) { if (e.Source is TabControl) { if (e.Source.Equals(tabControl1)) { if (tabControl1.SelectedItem is CloseableTabItem) { var tabItem = tabControl1.SelectedItem as CloseableTabItem; RibbonBook.DataContext = tabItem.Content as BookDetails; ribbonBar.SelectedTabItem = RibbonBook; } } } } The DependencyProperty under BookDetails: public static readonly DependencyProperty IsEditModeProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsEditMode", typeof (bool), typeof (BookDetails), new PropertyMetadata(true)); public bool IsEditMode { get { return (bool)GetValue(IsEditModeProperty); } set { SetValue(IsEditModeProperty, value); SetValue(IsViewModeProperty, !value); } } And the relevant XAML: <odc:RibbonTabItem Title="Book" Name="RibbonBook"> <odc:RibbonGroup Title="Details" Image="img/books2.png" IsDialogLauncherVisible="False"> <odc:RibbonToggleButton Content="Edit" Name="ToggleEditButton" odc:RibbonBar.MinSize="Medium" SmallImage="img/edit_16x16.png" LargeImage="img/edit_32x32.png" Click="Book_EditDetails" IsChecked="{Binding Path=IsEditMode, Mode=TwoWay}"/> ... There are two things I want to accomplish, Having the button reflect the IsEditMode for the visible tab, and have the button change the property value with no code behind (if posible) Any help would be greatly appriciated.

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