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  • Has inheritance become bad?

    - by mafutrct
    Personally, I think inheritance is a great tool, that, when applied reasonably, can greatly simplify code. However, I seems to me that many modern tools dislike inheritance. Let's take a simple example: Serialize a class to XML. As soon as inheritance is involved, this can easily turn into a mess. Especially if you're trying to serialize a derived class using the base class serializer. Sure, we can work around that. Something like a KnownType attribute and stuff. Besides being an itch in your code that you have to remember to update every time you add a derived class, that fails, too, if you receive a class from outside your scope that was not known at compile time. (Okay, in some cases you can still work around that, for instance using the NetDataContract serializer in .NET. Surely a certain advancement.) In any case, the basic principle still exists: Serialization and inheritance don't mix well. Considering the huge list of programming strategies that became possible and even common in the past decade, I feel tempted to say that inheritance should be avoided in areas that relate to serialization (in particular remoting and databases). Does that make sense? Or am messing things up? How do you handle inheritance and serialization?

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  • Switching between 2 UINavigationControllers

    - by Smikey
    Hi all, I seem to have a problem switching between 2 UINavigationControllers, i.e. one which controls the main (selection) menu of my application, and the second which controls the main session (i.e. the user can't go back to the selection menu once they're started a new session). The first works just fine, but I get into trouble when trying to load the second. I have a class called GameViewController which contains the second UINavigationController instance. I set this up as usual, linking it as an IBOutlet to the delegate and setting up the NavController in the GameViewController.xib file with its 'Class' property pointing at GameScreenViewController (my main game screen), and its NIB Name property pointing to the GameScreenViewController nib file. I then create a new instance of GameViewController and load it. In IB, the navigation controller looks fine, with its View 'loaded from "GameScreenViewController"', however when the NavigationController is loaded in the game, it actually loads the GameViewController's UIWindow instance (just a blank window). I'm not sure how to make it load the Navigation Controller's view rather than its own window? Also, another quick question. When I load the second navigation controller from the first, which makes more sense to use: [self.view addSubview:gameViewController.view]; or [self presentModalViewController:gameViewController animated:YES]; Thanks for any help, much appreciated :D Michael

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  • Printing Images C# Overlapping Wrong

    - by Alen
    I have created a program much like Photoshop in the sense that you can place images (picture box) on a control, move them around, delete them, and so on... I have also managed to put together a method to print all the images on the control with no problems. But here is the weird part: When I click print, the program prints the image which was placed first, on top of the image which came second. On the screen the user can see the image which was placed second, on top of the first placed image (the way it should be) but when I print its opposite? I have no idea why it does this... I hope I've made my self as clear as possible, any help is appreciated! public void printToGraphics(Graphics graphics, Rectangle bounds) { graphics.TextRenderingHint = System.Drawing.Text.TextRenderingHint.ClearTypeGridFit; graphics.CompositingQuality = System.Drawing.Drawing2D.CompositingQuality.HighQuality; graphics.SmoothingMode = System.Drawing.Drawing2D.SmoothingMode.HighQuality; Bitmap bitmap = new Bitmap(newLabel.Width, newLabel.Height); newLabel.DrawToBitmap(bitmap, newLabel.DisplayRectangle); Rectangle target = new Rectangle(0, 0, bounds.Width, bounds.Height); target.Height = bitmap.Height; target.Width = bitmap.Width; graphics.PageUnit = GraphicsUnit.Display; graphics.DrawImage(bitmap,target); } void printDoc_PrintPage(object sender, PrintPageEventArgs e) { printToGraphics(e.Graphics, e.MarginBounds); }

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  • ARC and __unsafe_unretained

    - by J Shapiro
    I think I have a pretty good understanding of ARC and the proper use cases for selecting an appropriate lifetime qualifiers (__strong, __weak, __unsafe_unretained, and __autoreleasing). However, in my testing, I've found one example that doesn't make sense to me. As I understand it, both __weak and __unsafe_unretained do not add a retain count. Therefore, if there are no other __strong pointers to the object, it is instantly deallocated. The only difference in this process is that __weak pointers are set to nil, and __unsafe_unretained pointers are left alone. If I create a __weak pointer to a simple, custom object (composed of one NSString property), I see the expected (null) value when trying to access a property: Test * __weak myTest = [[Test alloc] init]; myTest.myVal = @"Hi!"; NSLog(@"Value: %@", myTest.myVal); // Prints Value: (null) Similarly, I would expect the __unsafe_unretained lifetime qualifier to cause a crash, due to the resulting dangling pointer. However, it doesn't. In this next test, I see the actual value: Test * __unsafe_unretained myTest = [[Test alloc] init]; myTest.myVal = @"Hi!"; NSLog(@"Value: %@", myTest.myVal); // Prints Value: Hi! Why doesn't the __unsafe_unretained object become deallocated?

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  • Is there a jQuery Equivalent of YUI 2 Custom Event Publish/Subscribe Event Model?

    - by Abe
    Hello! I learned how to develop in Javascript using the YUI 2 library and was wondering if there is a jQuery equivalent of Custom Events (http://developer.yahoo.com/yui/event/#customevent) Specifically, I want to be able to define custom events without having to attach the listeners initially. In YUI, I would create a page class and declare different custom events that can be subscribed to. Below is some example code to demonstrate what I want to do, but with jQuery function ListPage() { var me = this; this.initEvent = new YAHOO.util.CustomEvent("initEvent"); this.init = function() { // initialize events, DOM, etc this.initEvent.fire(me); } } In application Javascript, I would then like to subscribe to the initEvent. var page = new ListPage(); page.initEvent.subscribe( function (type, args) { // do stuff here } ); page.init(); Are there any tutorials/examples of something this in jQuery? I understand I can do something similar using bind() and trigger(), but the impression I get is I have to pass in the event handler when I call bind(). Is it possible in jQuery to create the custom event, but pass in the event handler later? I hope my question makes sense. thanks!

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  • passing info from facebook to UITabBarController

    - by EquinoX
    When my app first start, it shows up a main page showing to login to facebook and then it goes to the UITabBarController. The code that I have in my app delegate is the following: //this is the .h @interface NMeAppDelegate : NSObject <UIApplicationDelegate> { UIWindow *window; MainViewController *controller; UITabBarController *tabBar; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UITabBarController *tabBar; @property (nonatomic, retain) MainViewController *controller; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIWindow *window; @end //this is the .m of the app delegate #import "NMeAppDelegate.h" @implementation NMeAppDelegate @synthesize window; @synthesize tabBar; @synthesize controller; #pragma mark - #pragma mark Application lifecycle - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { // Override point for customization after application launch. controller = [[MainViewController alloc] init]; [window addSubview:tabBar.view]; [window addSubview:controller.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; } Inside of MainViewController, I actually have a Facebook * facebook object, which basically has all of the information that I need. Every information that I need for this apps is queried in the MainViewController. The problem is that after getting this info and now I am in the UITabViewController... how do I get those information that I already queried facebook for? I have a class called UserInfo as well, which basically has everything essential I need. I need to have the info from UserInfo so that the other ViewController in the UITabBarController have access to it.... I hope my question makes sense

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  • Sharepoint 2010 start workflow programmatically error

    - by user522429
    I have a workflow associated with a content type. I try to kick it off from code from within the event receiver on the same content type, so when an item is updated, if there is a certain condition (status = ready for review) I start it. //This line does find the workflow association var assoc = properties.Web.ContentTypes["Experiment Document Set"].WorkflowAssociations.GetAssociationByName("Experiment Review Workflow", ultureInfo.CurrentUICulture); //I had tried to use this line from something I found online, but it would return null //var assoc = properties.Web.WorkflowAssociations.GetAssociationByName("Experiment Review Workflow", CultureInfo.CurrentUICulture); var result = properties.Web.Site.WorkflowManager.StartWorkflow(properties.ListItem, assoc, string.Empty, SPWorkflowRunOptions.Synchronous); //The line above gives me this error: System.ArgumentException: Workflow failed to start because the workflow is associated with a content type that does not exist in a list. Before re-starting the workflow, the content type must be added to the list. To check this, I was looking at the content type of the list item being updated and it is correct properties.ListItem.ContentType.Name "Experiment Document Set" So basically I have a workfow associated with the content type "Experiment Document Set". When I try to start a workflow from an event receiver in "Experiment Document Set", I get an error saying the content type "Experiment Document Set" does not exist in the list which doesn't make sense.

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  • OpenType Font Parsing for Pleasure and Profit (anyone understand these damn tables?)

    - by mustISignUp
    So, this is mainly for fun, I'm poking around and trying to find my way inside a few fonts and i have a few questions i'd reeally appreciate some help on if anyone has done this kind of stuff. cmap table The fonts i am testing with contain several cmap subtables of different formats. I can read them, but i don't understand which i should be using. ie. what is the strategy for choosing the most appropriate subtable? Does this even make sense? glyf table This is really making my head hurt. I'm going by what is on here. Looking at the second table on that page.. I've got 'n' endPtsOfContours, 'n' instructions and 'n' flags but it is not clear to me if i have the same number of flags as contours (i know how many contours i have). Then, to make matters worse..(fun!) i have an array of xCoords and an array of yCoords. These arrays seem to be of indeterminate length and may contain data of either BYTE or SHORT but we are not going to tell you which.. Thanks to anyone willing to shed some light.

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  • Memcached getDelayed alternative implementation

    - by iBobo
    I would like to use getDelayed on the PHP Memcached extension but I think it's not implemented in the right way. Right now you ask for some keys and then retrieve all of them with fetch() and fetchAll(). But imagine a scenario where I need to retrieve 15 keys used in different parts of the page which I don't know in advance, but I can ask the various objects to give me the list. What I want is give the Memcached instance this list (each component would give its part) then later when I need them retrieve from the instance, but not all of them at once: each component would take the one it needs. Basically if I were to implement this I would prohibit using getDelayed alone and implement a bookGet($keys) method where you would add the keys to book (which actually calls getDelayed), and redefine get to handle these three cases: key is booked and retrieved - return the value; key is booked but not retrieved - go and force the fetch of the booked keys and return the correct value; key not booked - do a normal lookup. I want to know if this makes sense, your thoughts on the subject and if someone already implemented this or maybe PECL Memcached already works this way and actually the documentation doesn't explain it correctly.

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  • MySQL: optimization of table (indexing, foreign key) with no primary keys

    - by Haradzieniec
    Each member has 0 or more orders. Each order contains at least 1 item. memberid - varchar, not integer - that's OK (please do not mention that's not very good, I can't change it). So, thera 3 tables: members, orders and order_items. Orders and order_items are below: CREATE TABLE `orders` ( `orderid` INT(11) UNSIGNED NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `memberid` VARCHAR( 20 ), `Time` TIMESTAMP NOT NULL DEFAULT CURRENT_TIMESTAMP , `info` VARCHAR( 3200 ) NULL , PRIMARY KEY (orderid) , FOREIGN KEY (memberid) REFERENCES members(memberid) ) ENGINE = InnoDB; CREATE TABLE `order_items` ( `orderid` INT(11) UNSIGNED NOT NULL, `item_number_in_cart` tinyint(1) NOT NULL , --- 5 items in cart= 5 rows `price` DECIMAL (6,2) NOT NULL, FOREIGN KEY (orderid) REFERENCES orders(orderid) ) ENGINE = InnoDB; So, order_items table looks like: orderid - item_number_in_cart - price: ... 1000456 - 1 - 24.99 1000456 - 2 - 39.99 1000456 - 3 - 4.99 1000456 - 4 - 17.97 1000457 - 1 - 20.00 1000458 - 1 - 99.99 1000459 - 1 - 2.99 1000459 - 2 - 69.99 1000460 - 1 - 4.99 ... As you see, order_items table has no primary keys (and I think there is no sense to create an auto_increment id for this table, because once we want to extract data, we always extract it as WHERE orderid='1000456' order by item_number_in_card asc - the whole block, id woudn't be helpful in queries). Once data is inserted into order_items, it's not UPDATEd, just SELECTed. The questions are: I think it's a good idea to put index on item_number_in_cart. Could anybody please confirm that? Is there anything else I have to do with order_items to increase the performance, or that looks pretty good? I could miss something because I'm a newbie. Thank you in advance.

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  • C# property exactly the same, defined in two places

    - by Sarah Vessels
    I have the following classes: Defect - represents a type of data that can be found in a database FilterQuery - provides a way of querying the database by setting simple Boolean filters Both Defect and FilterQuery implement the same interface: IDefectProperties. This interface specifies particular fields that are in the database. Different classes have methods that return lists of Defect instances. With FilterQuery, you specify some filters for the particular properties implemented as part of IDefectProperties, and then you run the query and get back a list of Defect instances. My problem is that I end up implementing some properties exactly the same in FilterQuery and Defect. The two are inherently different classes, they just share some of the same properties. For example: public DateTime SubmitDateAsDate { get { return DateTime.Parse(SubmitDate); } set { SubmitDate = value.ToString(); } } This is a property required by IDefectProperties that depends on a different property, SubmitDate, which returns a string instead of a DateTime. Now SubmitDate is implemented differently in Defect and FilterQuery, but SubmitDateAsDate is exactly the same. Is there a way that I can define SubmitDateAsDate in only place, but both Defect and FilterQuery provide it as a property? FilterQuery and Defect already inherit from two different classes, and it wouldn't make sense for them to share an ancestor anyway, I think. I am open to suggestions as to my design here as well.

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  • Mongodb, linq driver. How to construct Contains with variable or statements

    - by Syska
    I'm using the LINQ Driver for C#, works great. Sorting a lot of properties but heres a problem I can't solve, its probebly simple. var identifierList = new []{"10", "20", "30"}; var newList = list.Where(x => identifierList.Contains(x.Identifier)); This is NOT supported ... So I could do something like: var newList = list.Where(x => x.Identifier == "10" || x.Identifier == "20" || x.Identifier == "30"); But since the list is variable ... how do I construct the above? Or are there even better alternatives? The list is of type IQueryable<MyCustomClass> For information ... this is used as a filter of alot of properties. In SQL I could have a parent - child relationship. But as I can't as the parent for the main ID I need to take all the ID's out and then construct it like this. Hopes this makes sense. If needed I will explain more.

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  • How to set up site specific configuration vs application configuration in Zend Framework?

    - by rbruhn
    Being fairly new to Zend Framework, I've been reading and trying out various tutorials on the web and books I've purchased. One thing all the tutorials do is hard code certain values into into the bootstrap or other code. For example, setting the title: $this-_view-headTitle('MySite'); I realize this can be set in the application.ini file, but I don't think that is appropriate either if you are distributing the application to other sites. I would be interested in hearing ideas where application specific settings are set in the application.ini file and loaded: $application = new Zend_Application( APPLICATION_ENV, APPLICATION_PATH.'/configs/application.ini' ); Then somewhere in the bootstrap, checking for a config.ini file and adding these to currently existing application config array, and if config.ini does not exist, retrieving such site specific configs from a database and writing the config.ini file (Obviously the file deleted and rewritten if a value is changed in the database). I don't need to see how the file is written or what not... just a general idea of how others are handling such things. Or provide different ideas of doing this? I would rather end up using something like this when setting various site specific configurations: $this->_view->headTitle($config->site->title); Hope this makes sense :-)

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  • Confused about std::runtime_error vs. std::logic_error

    - by David Gladfelter
    I recently saw that the boost program_options library throws a logic_error if the command-line input was un-parsable. That challenged my assumptions about logic_error vs. runtime_error. I assumed that logic errors (logic_error and its derived classes) were problems that resulted from internal failures to adhere to program invariants, often in the form of illegal arguments to internal API's. In that sense they are largely equivalent to ASSERT's, but meant to be used in released code (unlike ASSERT's which are not usually compiled into released code.) They are useful in situations where it is infeasible to integrate separate software components in debug/test builds or the consequences of a failure are such that it is important to give runtime feedback about the invalid invariant condition to the user. Similarly, I thought that runtime_errors resulted exclusively from runtime conditions outside of the control of the programmer: I/O errors, invalid user input, etc. However, program_options is obviously heavily (primarily?) used as a means of parsing end-user input, so under my mental model it certainly should throw a runtime_error in the case of bad input. Where am I going wrong? Do you agree with the boost model of exception typing?

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  • What happens when you create an instance of an object containing no state in C#?

    - by liquorice
    I am I think ok at algorithmic programming, if that is the right term? I used to play with turbo pascal and 8086 assembly language back in the 1980s as a hobby. But only very small projects and I haven't really done any programming in the 20ish years since then. So I am struggling for understanding like a drowning swimmer. So maybe this is a very niave question or I'm just making no sense at all, but say I have an object kind of like this: class Something : IDoer { void Do(ISomethingElse x) { x.DoWhatEverYouWant(42); } } And then I do var Thing1 = new Something(); var Thing2 = new Something(); Thing1.Do(blah); Thing2.Do(blah); does Thing1 = Thing2? does "new Something()" create anything? Or is it not much different different from having a static class, except I can pass it around and swap it out etc. Is the "Do" procedure in the same location in memory for both the Thing1(blah) and Thing2(blah) objects? I mean when executing it, does it mean there are two Something.Do procedures or just one?

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  • How can I join 3 tables with mysql & php?

    - by steven
    check out the page [url]http://www.mujak.com/test/test3.php[/url] It pulls the users Post,username,xbc/xlk tags etc which is perfect... BUT since I am pulling information from a MyBB bulletin board system, its quite different. When replying, people are are allowed to change the "Thread Subject" by simplying replying and changing it. I dont want it to SHOW the changed subject title, just the original title of all posts in that thread. By default it repies with "RE:thread title". They can easily edit this and it will show up in the "Subject" cell & people wont know which thread it was posted in because they changed their thread to when replying to the post. So I just want to keep the orginial thread title when they are replying. Make sense~?? Tables:mybb_users Fields:uid,username Tables:mybb_userfields Fields:ufid Tables:mybb_posts Fields:pid,tid,replyto,subject,ufid,username,uid,message Tables:mybb_threads Fields:tid,fid,subject,uid,username,lastpost,lastposter,lastposteruid I haev tried multiple queries with no success: $result = mysql_query(" SELECT * FROM mybb_users LEFT JOIN (mybb_posts, mybb_userfields, mybb_threads) ON ( mybb_userfields.ufid=mybb_posts.uid AND mybb_threads.tid=mybb_posts.tid AND mybb_users.uid=mybb_userfields.ufid ) WHERE mybb_posts.fid=42"); $result = mysql_query(" SELECT * FROM mybb_users LEFT JOIN (mybb_posts, mybb_userfields, mybb_threads) ON ( mybb_userfields.ufid=mybb_posts.uid AND mybb_threads.tid=mybb_posts.tid AND mybb_users.uid=mybb_posts.uid ) WHERE mybb_threads.fid=42"); $result = mysql_query(" SELECT * FROM mybb_posts LEFT JOIN (mybb_userfields, mybb_threads) ON ( mybb_userfields.ufid=mybb_posts.uid AND mybb_threads.tid=mybb_posts.tid ) WHERE mybb_posts.fid=42");

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  • Conditional compilation hackery in C# - is there a way to pull this off?

    - by Chris
    I have an internal API that I would like others to reference in their projects as a compiled DLL. When it's a standalone project that's referenced, I use conditional compilation (#if statements) to switch behavior of a key web service class depending on compilation symbols. The problem is, once an assembly is generated, it appears that it's locked into whatever the compilation symbols were when it was originally compiled - for instance, if this assembly is compiled with DEBUG and is referenced by another project, even if the other project is built as RELEASE, the assembly still acts as if it was in DEBUG as it doesn't need recompilation. That makes sense, just giving some background. Now I'm trying to work around that so I can switch the assembly's behavior by some other means, such as scanning the app/web config file for a switch. The problem is, some of the assembly's code I was switching between are attributes on methods, for example: #if PRODUCTION [SoapDocumentMethodAttribute("https://prodServer/Service_Test", RequestNamespace = "https://prodServer", ResponseNamespace = "https://prodServer")] #else [SoapDocumentMethodAttribute("https://devServer/Service_Test", RequestNamespace = "https://devServer", ResponseNamespace = "https://devServer")] #endif public string Service_Test() { // test service } Though there might be some syntactical sugar that allows me to flip between two attributes of the same type in another fashion, I don't know it. Any ideas? The alternative method would be to reference the entire project instead of the assembly, but I'd rather stick with just referencing the compiled DLL if I can. I'm also completely open to a whole new approach to solve the problem if that's what it takes.

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  • Find all A^x in a given range

    - by Austin Henley
    I need to find all monomials in the form AX that when evaluated falls within a range from m to n. It is safe to say that the base A is greater than 1, the power X is greater than 2, and only integers need to be used. For example, in the range 50 to 100, the solutions would be: 2^6 3^4 4^3 My first attempt to solve this was to brute force all combinations of A and X that make "sense." However this becomes too slow when used for very large numbers in a big range since these solutions are used in part of much more intensive processing. Here is the code: def monoSearch(min, max): base = 2 power = 3 while 1: while base**power < max: if base**power > min: print "Found " + repr(base) + "^" + repr(power) + " = " + repr(base**power) power = power + 1 base = base + 1 power = 3 if base**power > max: break I could remove one base**power by saving the value in a temporary variable but I don't think that would make a drastic effect. I also wondered if using logarithms would be better or if there was a closed form expression for this. I am open to any optimizations or alternatives to finding the solutions.

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  • Should I really use a UITableView in this situation?

    - by mystify
    Imagine you have a view like this: At the top, there is an UISegmentedControl with two segments. It functions like a tab. Pressing one segment will activate this particular content below that UISegmentedControl. Below the UISegmentedControl are some switches. These modify the way how the content should be rendered. And finally, below those switches, there's a table. Imagine a table not in sense of UITableView, but just what it really is: A table. It shows little messages like twitter messages or chat messages for example, one below the other. Like you know it from skype and other chats. Basically they're just rows with some formatting. A label, some image views, some lines, a background. Pretty basic. The data comes from an array. No core data. The whole thing including the segmented control and setup switches must be scrollable. So what I did is: I put all this stuff in an UIScrollView. Now I have to make the decision if I would use a UITableView inside there for that table part, or if I would just print a lot of rows on to the scroll view (with -drawRect:). But some problems stick in my head: Can I put a UITableView inside a UIScrollView? I assume this makes a lot of problems. I don't want that the table part is separately scrollable. Again imagine that view: First there are some basic choice things (segmented control, switches). Then there comes the table. When you scroll, the whole thing scrolls. That's mainly because this first part with the settings can be pretty big, so you would want to scroll it away. The next thing is: Can I customize UITableView in such a way, that it consists of two parts? One for that settings part, and one for the actual data to display?

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  • Is inheritance bad nowadays?

    - by mafutrct
    Personally, I think inheritance is a great tool, that, when applied reasonably, can greatly simplify code. However, I seems to me that many modern tools dislike inheritance. Let's take a simple example: Serialize a class to XML. As soon as inheritance is involved, this can easily turn into a mess. Especially if you're trying to serialize a derived class using the base class serializer. Sure, we can work around that. Something like a KnownType attribute and stuff. Besides being an itch in your code that you have to remember to update every time you add a derived class, that fails, too, if you receive a class from outside your scope that was not known at compile time. (Okay, in some cases you can still work around that, for instance using the NetDataContract serializer in .NET. Surely a certain advancement.) In any case, the basic principle still exists: Serialization and inheritance don't mix well. Considering the huge list of programming strategies that became possible and even common in the past decade, I feel tempted to say that inheritance should be avoided in areas that relate to serialization (in particular remoting and databases). Does that make sense? Or am messing things up? How do you handle inheritance and serialization?

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  • Parallel programming, are we not learning from history again?

    - by mezmo
    I started programming because I was a hardware guy that got bored, I thought the problems being solved in the software side of things were much more interesting than those in hardware. At that time, most of the electrical buses I dealt with were serial, some moving data as fast as 1.5 megabit!! ;) Over the years these evolved into parallel buses in order to speed communication up, after all, transferring 8/16/32/64, whatever bits at a time incredibly speeds up the transfer. Well, our ability to create and detect state changes got faster and faster, to the point where we could push data so fast that interference between parallel traces or cable wires made cleaning the signal too expensive to continue, and we still got reasonable performance from serial interfaces, heck some graphics interfaces are even happening over USB for a while now. I think I'm seeing a like trend in software now, our processors were getting faster and faster, so we got good at building "serial" software. Now we've hit a speed bump in raw processor speed, so we're adding cores, or "traces" to the mix, and spending a lot of time and effort on learning how to properly use those. But I'm also seeing what I feel are advances in things like optical switching and even quantum computing that could take us far more quickly that I was expecting back to the point where "serial programming" again makes the most sense. What are your thoughts?

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  • Why can't we just use a hash of passphrase as the encryption key (and IV) with symmetric encryption algorithms?

    - by TX_
    Inspired by my previous question, now I have a very interesting idea: Do you really ever need to use Rfc2898DeriveBytes or similar classes to "securely derive" the encryption key and initialization vector from the passphrase string, or will just a simple hash of that string work equally well as a key/IV, when encrypting the data with symmetric algorithm (e.g. AES, DES, etc.)? I see tons of AES encryption code snippets, where Rfc2898DeriveBytes class is used to derive the encryption key and initialization vector (IV) from the password string. It is assumed that one should use a random salt and a shitload of iterations to derive secure enough key/IV for the encryption. While deriving bytes from password string using this method is quite useful in some scenarios, I think that's not applicable when encrypting data with symmetric algorithms! Here is why: using salt makes sense when there is a possibility to build precalculated rainbow tables, and when attacker gets his hands on hash he looks up the original password as a result. But... with symmetric data encryption, I think this is not required, as the hash of password string, or the encryption key, is never stored anywhere. So, if we just get the SHA1 hash of password, and use it as the encryption key/IV, isn't that going to be equally secure? What is the purpose of using Rfc2898DeriveBytes class to generate key/IV from password string (which is a very very performance-intensive operation), when we could just use a SHA1 (or any other) hash of that password? Hash would result in random bit distribution in a key (as opposed to using string bytes directly). And attacker would have to brute-force the whole range of key (e.g. if key length is 256bit he would have to try 2^256 combinations) anyway. So either I'm wrong in a dangerous way, or all those samples of AES encryption (including many upvoted answers here at SO), etc. that use Rfc2898DeriveBytes method to generate encryption key and IV are just wrong.

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  • How to explain to client that you can't give them some of the source

    - by Bo
    We have a number of AS/Flex components that we've built over time and improved upon. They've been turned into components so they can be reused in different projects and save us time. So you can think of them as part of an in-house framework of sorts. We're now realizing that it doesn't make sense to release the source code for these components to the various clients as part of the project, because technically this code isn't really owned by the clients. So my question When a client comes to you, how do you explain to them that you can't give them the full source code for those components. The client doesn't understand the difference, he just expects you to give them all the code for the site that he paid you to do. He doesn't understand that this code has taken you a lot longer to write than what he's paying for his site. But since he doesn't understand, he would get turned off and thinks you're ripping him off or something. How do you handle this situation? What do you tell clients upfront? Do you advertise it on your site from the very beginning? How do you handle their objections so they still hire you? As a side question, how often do you give AS and Flex source code to your clients? In the case when the code doesn't have any in-house components that you reuse in several projects, and in the case when it does have in-house components.

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  • Jquery dynamic dropdown event not firing

    - by kevin
    Hi i am trying to create dropdownlists dynamically and populating the contents via an ajax call, this sort of works in the sense that the drop down is created and populated as required but its 'change' event does not fire. I am posting the code below, if anyone can spot something obvious, can you please let me know regards $(document).ready(function () { $("#positions select").change(function (e) { alert("in"); var id = $("#category_id").val(); $.getJSON("/Category/GetSubCategories/" + id, function (data) { if (data.length > 0) { alert(data.length); var position = document.getElementById('positions'); var tr = position.insertRow(7); var td1 = tr.insertCell(-1); var td = tr.insertCell(-1); var sel = document.createElement("select"); sel.name = 'sel'; sel.id = 'sel'; sel.setAttribute('class', 'category'); td.appendChild(sel); $.each(data, function (GetSubCatergories, category) { $('#sel').append($("<option></option>"). attr("value", category.category_id). text(category.name)); }); } }); }); });

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  • Is it possible to access the SMIL timer from javascript?

    - by Will
    I'm trying to use SMIL to animate the typing of text into a field embedded in a SVG. I tried the following code in both Chrome and a SMIL-enable Firefox nightly, but it has no effect: <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" xmlns:html="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <foreignObject> <html:input type="text" value=""> <set attributeName="value" to="Hello World" begin="0" dur="10s" fill="freeze" /> </html:input> </foreignObject> </svg> The text field appears, but remains empty. So, I thought I would register for the beginEvent and do the substitution manually. To test the events, I added: <rect id="rect" x="0" y="0" width="10" height="10"> <animate id="dx" attributeName="x" attributeType="XML" begin="0s" dur="1s" fill="freeze" from="0" to="-10" /> </rect> As well as the javascript that made sense from the event model: window.addEventListener( 'load', function() { function listen( id ) { var elem = document.getElementById( id ) elem.addEventListener( 'beginEvent', function() { console.log( 'begin ' + id ) }, false ) elem.addEventListener( 'endEvent', function() { console.log( 'end ' + id ) }, false ) } listen( 'rect' ) listen( 'dx' ) }) But there's no events fired on either the rect or the animate in either browser. The next logical step seems to be to simulate the animation (ala. FakeSmile), but I want to use the browser's animation timer if at all possible.

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