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  • Need help using the DefaultModelBinder for a nested model.

    - by Will
    There are a few related questions, but I can't find an answer that works. Assuming I have the following models: public class EditorViewModel { public Account Account {get;set;} public string SomeSimpleStuff {get;set;} } public class Account { public string AccountName {get;set;} public int MorePrimitivesFollow {get;set;} } and a view that extends ViewPage<EditorViewModel> which does the following: <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Account.AccountName)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Account.AccountName)%> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.SomeSimpleStuff )%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.SomeSimpleStuff )%> and my controller looks like: [HttpPost] public virtual ActionResult Edit(EditorViewModel account) { /*...*/ } How can I get the DefaultModelBinder to properly bind my EditorViewModel? Without doing anything special, I get an empty instance of my EditorViewModel with everything null or default. The closest I've come is by calling UpdateModel manually: [HttpPost] public virtual ActionResult Edit(EditorViewModel account) { account.Account = new Account(); UpdateModel(account.Account, "Account"); // this kills me: UpdateModel(account); This successfully updates my Account property model, but when I call UpdateModel on account (to get the rest of the public properties of my EditorViewModel) I get the completely unhelpful "The model of type ... could not be updated." There is no inner exception, so I can't figure out what's going wrong. What should I do with this?

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  • Cast exception when trying to create new Task Schedueler task.

    - by seaneshbaugh
    I'm attempting to create a new task in the Windows Task Scheduler in C#. What I've got so far is pretty much a copy and paste of http://bartdesmet.net/blogs/bart/archive/2008/02/23/calling-the-task-scheduler-in-windows-vista-and-windows-server-2008-from-managed-code.aspx Everything compiles just fine but come run time I get the following exception: Unable to cast COM object of type 'System.__ComObject' to interface type 'TaskScheduler.ITimeTrigger'. This operation failed because the QueryInterface call on the COM component for the interface with IID '{B45747E0-EBA7-4276-9F29-85C5BB300006}' failed due to the following error: No such interface supported (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80004002 (E_NOINTERFACE)). Here's all the code so you can see what I'm doing here without following the above link. TaskSchedulerClass Scheduler = new TaskSchedulerClass(); Scheduler.Connect(null, null, null, null); ITaskDefinition Task = Scheduler.NewTask(0); Task.RegistrationInfo.Author = "Test Task"; Task.RegistrationInfo.Description = "Just testing this out."; ITimeTrigger Trigger = (ITimeTrigger)Task.Triggers.Create(_TASK_TRIGGER_TYPE2.TASK_TRIGGER_DAILY); Trigger.Id = "TestTrigger"; Trigger.StartBoundary = "2010-05-12T06:15:00"; IShowMessageAction Action = (IShowMessageAction)Task.Actions.Create(_TASK_ACTION_TYPE.TASK_ACTION_SHOW_MESSAGE); Action.Id = "TestAction"; Action.Title = "Test Task"; Action.MessageBody = "This is a test."; ITaskFolder Root = Scheduler.GetFolder("\\"); IRegisteredTask RegisteredTask = Root.RegisterTaskDefinition("Background Backup", Task, (int)_TASK_CREATION.TASK_CREATE_OR_UPDATE, null, null, _TASK_LOGON_TYPE.TASK_LOGON_INTERACTIVE_TOKEN, ""); The line that is throwing the exception is this one ITimeTrigger Trigger = (ITimeTrigger)Task.Triggers.Create(_TASK_TRIGGER_TYPE2.TASK_TRIGGER_DAILY); The exception message kinda makes sense to me, but I'm afraid I don't know enough about COM to really know where to begin with this. Also, I should add that I'm using VS 2010 and I had to set the project to either be for x86 or x64 CPU's instead of the usual "Any CPU" because it kept giving me a BadImageFormatException. I doubt that's related to my current problem, but just in case I thought I might as well mention it.

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  • UrlRewriter.net Expression Examples

    - by Tarik
    Hello, I need some web.config examples for each expression types below : $number The last substring matched by group number number. $<name> The last substring matched by group named name matched by (?< name ). ${property} The value of the property when the expression is evaluated. ${transform(value)} The result of calling the transform on the specified value. ${map:value} The result of mapping the specified value using the map. Replaced with empty string if no mapping exists. ${map:value|default} The result of mapping the specified value using the map. Replaced with the default if no mapping exists. Sample: <rewriter> <if url="/tags/(.+)" rewrite="/tagcloud.aspx?tag=$1" /> <!-- same thing as <rewrite url="/tags/(.+)" to="/tagcloud.aspx?tag=$1" /> --> </rewriter> Thank you very much !

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  • Ruby on Rails: How to sanitize a string for SQL when not using find?

    - by williamjones
    I'm trying to sanitize a string that involves user input without having to resort to manually crafting my own possibly buggy regex if possible, however, if that is the only way I would also appreciate if anyone can point me in the right direction to a regex that is unlikely to be missing anything. There are a number of methods in Rails that can allow you to enter in native SQL commands, how do people escape user input for those? The question I'm asking is a broad one, but in my particular case, I'm working with a column in my Postgres database that Rails does not natively understand as far as I know, the tsvector, which holds plain text search information. Rails is able to write and read from it as if it's a string, however, unlike a string, it doesn't seem to be automatically escaping it when I do things like vector= inside the model. For example, when I do model.name='::', where name is a string, it works fine. When I do model.vector='::' it errors out: ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid: PGError: ERROR: syntax error in tsvector: "::" "vectors" = E'::' WHERE "id" = 1 This seems to be a problem caused by lack of escaping of the semicolons, and I can manually set the vector='\:\:' fine. I also had the bright idea, maybe I can just call something like: ActiveRecord::Base.connection.execute "UPDATE medias SET vectors = ? WHERE id = 1", "::" However, this syntax doesn't work, because the raw SQL commands don't have access to find's method of escaping and inputting strings by using the ? mark. This strikes me as the same problem as calling connection.execute with any type of user input, as it all boils down to sanitizing the strings, but I can't seem to find any way to manually call Rails' SQL string sanitization methods. Can anyone provide any advice?

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  • How can I get controller type and action info from a url or from route data?

    - by Rob Levine
    How can I get the controller action (method) and controller type that will be called, given the System.Web.Routing.RouteData? My scenario is this - I want to be able to do perform certain actions (or not) in the OnActionExecuting method for an action. However, I will often want to know not the current action, but the "root" action being called; by this I mean I may have a view called "Login", which is my login page. This view may include another partial view "LeftNav". When OnActionExecuting is called for LeftNav, I want to be able to determine that it is really being called for the "root" aciton of Login. I realise that by calling RouteTable.Routes.GetRouteData(actionExecutingContext.HttpContext), I can get the route for the "root" request, but how to turn this into method and type info? The only solution I have so far, is something like: var routeData = RouteTable.Routes.GetRouteData(actionExecutingContext.HttpContext) var routeController = (string)routeData.Values["controller"]; var routeAction = (string)routeData.Values["action"]; The problem with this is that "routeController" is the controller name with the "Controller" suffix removed, and is not fully qualified; ie it is "Login", rather than "MyCode.Website.LoginController". I would far rather get an actual Type and MethodInfo if possible, or at least a fully qualified type name. Any thoughts, or alternative approaches? [EDIT - this is ASP.Net MVC 1.0]

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  • How to set the tableview's top using contentinset property while being at the bottom of the table

    - by neha
    Hi all, I'm having a tableview with 20 rows and 250 as their rowheight. While I'm at the bottom of the tableview, I want to shift the tableview upwards by 65px. I tried doing self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake(-65.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); Also self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake((4633.0f - 65.0f), 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); where 4633.0f is my contentoffset.y, but with no success. When the last cell is pulled upwards, I'm showing a view below the last cell with an activity indicator on it to depict that more data is getting loaded. I need to keep that view visible for 2 seconds so I want to push the tableview cells up and after that I want to bring the tableview to its original position and reset the view below that. I'm doing this [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.2]; // self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake((4633.0f - 65.0f), 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake(- 65.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); [UIView commitAnimations]; and then calling a function to reset it back as self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); Can anybody please suggest how to do it? Thanx in advance.

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  • Understanding the Silverlight Dispatcher

    - by Matt
    I had a Invalid Cross Thread access issue, but a little research and I managed to fix it by using the Dispatcher. Now in my app I have objects with lazy loading. I'd make an Async call using WCF and as usual I use the Dispatcher to update my objects DataContext, however it didn't work for this scenario. I did however find a solution here. Here's what I don't understand. In my UserControl I have code to call an Toggle method on my object. The call to this method is within a Dispatcher like so. Dispatcher.BeginInvoke( () => _CurrentPin.ToggleInfoPanel() ); As I mentioned before this was not enough to satisfy Silverlight. I had to make another Dispatcher call within my object. My object is NOT a UIElement, but a simple class that handles all its own loading/saving. So the problem was fixed by calling Deployment.Current.Dispatcher.BeginInvoke( () => dataContext.Detail = detail ); within my class. Why did I have to call the Dispatcher twice to achieve this? Shouldn't a high-level call be enough? Is there a difference between the Deployment.Current.Dispatcher and the Dispatcher in a UIElement?

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  • Integrating Dynamics CMS with Sharepoint ASCX SecurityException Issue

    - by Gavin
    Hi, I've an ASCX control (WebParts aren't used in this solution) which interrogates CMS 4's data via the API provided by Microsoft.Crm.Sdk and Microsoft.Crm.SdkTypeProxy. The solution works until it's deployed to Sharepoint. Initially I received the following error: [SecurityException: That assembly does not allow partially trusted callers.] MyApp.SharePoint.Web.Applications.MyAppUtilities.RefreshUserFromCrm(String login) +0 MyApp.SharePoint.Web.Applications.MyApp_LoginForm.btnLogin_Click(Object sender, EventArgs e) +30 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.OnClick(EventArgs e) +111 Then I tried wrapping the calling code in the ASCX with SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges: SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { // FBA user may not exist yet or require refreshing MyAppUtilities.RefreshUserFromCrm(txtUser.Text); }); But this resulted in the following error: [SecurityException: Request for the permission of type 'Microsoft.SharePoint.Security.SharePointPermission, Microsoft.SharePoint.Security, Version=12.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=71e9bce111e9429c' failed.] MyApp.SharePoint.Web.Applications.MyApp_LoginForm.btnLogin_Click(Object sender, EventArgs e) +0 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.OnClick(EventArgs e) +111 When I elevate the trust level in the Sharepoint site to full everything works fine, however I need to come up with a solution that uses minimal trust (or a customised minimal trust). I'm also trying to stay clear of adding anything to the GAC. Any ideas? I assume the issue is occuring when trying to call functionality from Microsoft.Crm.* Thanks in advance for any help anyone can provide. Cheers, Gavin

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  • Manual drag-drop operations in Flex

    - by Yarin
    This is a two-part problem: A) I'm implementing several irregular drag-drop operations in Flex (e.g. DataGrid ItemRenderer into Tree). My preference was modifying DragManager operations to meet my needs, and in fact using DragManager allows me to do everything I need, but I'm having serious issues with performance. For example, dragging anything over a many-columned DataGrid, whether the drag was initiated with DragManager.doDrag, or just using native ListBase drag-drop functionality, slows the drag movement to a crawl. Even if the DataGrid is disabled/ not listenening for any move/drag events, this happens. On the other hand, if the drag is initiated by calling .startDrag() on the Sprite, the drag is smooth and performs great over DataGrids and everything else. So part A would be: Is there a reason why .startDrag() operations work so well, while drags initiated through DragManager.doDrag suffer so badly when over certain components? B) If indeed the solution is to handle drag-drops using .startDrag(), how would I go about determining what component the mouse is over when the drag is released? In my example, my dragged object is brought up to the top level of the display list, and so is being moved around in stage coordinates. mouseMove, mouseOver events don't fire on the components I'm dragging over because the mouse is constantly over the dragged component, so I would need some sort of stage.coordinate - visibleComponentAtThatCoordinate conversion. Any thoughts on this? Thanks alot!-- Yarin

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  • Why this strange behavior of sqlbulkcopy in a asp.net website running under iis?

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I'm using SqlClient.SqlBulkCopy to try and bulk copy a csv file into a database. I am getting the following error after calling the ..WriteToServer method. "The given value of type String from the data source cannot be converted to type bit of the specified target column." Here is my code, dt.Columns.Add("IsDeleted", typeof(byte)); dt.Columns.Add(new DataColumn("CreatedDate", typeof(DateTime))); foreach (DataRow dr in dt.Rows) { if (dr["MobileNo2"] == "" && dr["DriverName2"] == "") { dr["MobileNo2"] = null; dr["DriverName2"] = ""; } dr["IsDeleted"] = Convert.ToByte(0); dr["CreatedDate"] = Convert.ToDateTime(System.DateTime.Now.ToString()); } string connectionString = System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager. ConnectionStrings["connectionString"].ConnectionString; SqlBulkCopy sbc = new SqlBulkCopy(connectionString); sbc.DestinationTableName = "DailySchedule"; sbc.ColumnMappings.Add("WirelessId", "WirelessId"); sbc.ColumnMappings.Add("RegNo", "RegNo"); sbc.ColumnMappings.Add("DriverName1", "DriverName1"); sbc.ColumnMappings.Add("MobileNo1", "MobileNo1"); sbc.ColumnMappings.Add("DriverName2", "DriverName2"); sbc.ColumnMappings.Add("MobileNo2", "MobileNo2"); sbc.ColumnMappings.Add("IsDeleted", "IsDeleted"); sbc.ColumnMappings.Add("CreatedDate", "CreatedDate"); sbc.WriteToServer(dt); sbc.Close(); There is no error when running under visual studio developement server but it gives me an error when running under iis..... Here is my sql server table details, [Id] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [WirelessId] [int] NULL, [RegNo] [nvarchar](50) NULL, [DriverName1] [nvarchar](50) NULL, [MobileNo1] [numeric](18, 0) NULL, [DriverName2] [nvarchar](50) NULL, [MobileNo2] [numeric](18, 0) NULL, [IsDeleted] [tinyint] NULL, [CreatedDate] [datetime] NULL,

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  • pthreads: reader/writer locks, upgrading read lock to write lock

    - by ScaryAardvark
    I'm using read/write locks on Linux and I've found that trying to upgrade a read locked object to a write lock deadlocks. i.e. // acquire the read lock in thread 1. pthread_rwlock_rdlock( &lock ); // make a decision to upgrade the lock in threads 1. pthread_rwlock_wrlock( &lock ); // this deadlocks as already hold read lock. I've read the man page and it's quite specific. The calling thread may deadlock if at the time the call is made it holds the read-write lock (whether a read or write lock). What is the best way to upgrade a read lock to a write lock in these circumstances.. I don't want to introduce a race on the variable I'm protecting. Presumably I can create another mutex to encompass the releasing of the read lock and the acquiring of the write lock but then I don't really see the use of read/write locks. I might as well simply use a normal mutex. Thx

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  • Django attribute error: 'module' object has no attribute 'is_usable'

    - by Robert A Henru
    Hi, I got the following error when calling the url in Django. It's working before, I guess it's related with some accidental changes I made, but I have no idea what they are. Thanks before for the help, Robert Environment: Request Method: GET Request URL: http://localhost:8000/time/ Django Version: 1.2 Python Version: 2.6.1 Installed Applications: ['django.contrib.auth', 'django.contrib.contenttypes', 'django.contrib.sessions', 'django.contrib.sites', 'django.contrib.messages', 'django.contrib.admin', 'djlearn.books'] Installed Middleware: ('django.middleware.common.CommonMiddleware', 'django.contrib.sessions.middleware.SessionMiddleware', 'django.middleware.csrf.CsrfViewMiddleware', 'django.contrib.auth.middleware.AuthenticationMiddleware', 'django.contrib.messages.middleware.MessageMiddleware') Traceback: File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/django/core/handlers/base.py" in get_response 100. response = callback(request, *callback_args, **callback_kwargs) File "/Users/rhenru/Workspace/django/djlearn/src/djlearn/../djlearn/views.py" in current_datetime 16. return render_to_response('current_datetime.html',{'current_date':now,}) File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/django/shortcuts/__init__.py" in render_to_response 20. return HttpResponse(loader.render_to_string(*args, **kwargs), **httpresponse_kwargs) File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/django/template/loader.py" in render_to_string 181. t = get_template(template_name) File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/django/template/loader.py" in get_template 157. template, origin = find_template(template_name) File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/django/template/loader.py" in find_template 128. loader = find_template_loader(loader_name) File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/django/template/loader.py" in find_template_loader 111. if not func.is_usable: Exception Type: AttributeError at /time/ Exception Value: 'module' object has no attribute 'is_usable'

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  • ASP.NET MVC2: Client-side validation not working with Start.js

    - by Shaggy13spe
    Ok, this is strange. I would hope it's something I'm doing wrong and not that MS has two technologies that simply don't work together. (UPDATE: See bottom of post for Script tag order in HEAD section) I'm trying to use the dataView template and client-side validation. If I include a reference to: <script src="http://ajax.microsoft.com/ajax/beta/0911/Start.js" type="text/javascript"></script> by itself, the dataview template works fine. but if I put in the following references: <script src="http://ajax.microsoft.com/ajax/jquery.validate/1.7/jquery.validate.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftAjax.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcAjax.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcValidation.js" type="text/javascript"></script> then I get the following error: > Error: Type._registerScript is not a > function Source File: > http://ajax.microsoft.com/ajax/beta/0911/MicrosoftAjaxTemplates.js > Line: 1 and: > Error: Sys.get("$listings") is null > Source File: > http://localhost:12370/Listings Line: > 76 Here's the code calling the dataview: $(document).ready(function () { LoadMap(); Sys.require([Sys.components.dataView, Sys.scripts.jQuery], function() { $("#listings").dataView(); Sys.get("$listings").set_data(listings.Data); updateMap(listings.Data); }); }); I would really appreciate any help with this one. Thanks! UPDATE: I've tried moving around the order of the last 4 script tags, but to no avail.

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  • java converting int to short

    - by changed
    Hi I am calculating 16 bit checksum on my data which i need to send to server where it has to recalculate and match with the provided checksum. Checksum value that i am getting is in int but i have only 2 bytes for sending the value.So i am casting int to short while calling shortToBytes method. This works fine till checksum value is less than 32767 thereafter i am getting negative values. Thing is java does not have unsigned primitives, so i am not able to send values greater than max value of signed short allowed. How can i do this, converting int to short and send over the network without worrying about truncation and signed & unsigned int. Also on both the side i have java program running. private byte[] shortToBytes(short sh) { byte[] baValue = new byte[2]; ByteBuffer buf = ByteBuffer.wrap(baValue); return buf.putShort(sh).array(); } private short bytesToShort(byte[] buf, int offset) { byte[] baValue = new byte[2]; System.arraycopy(buf, offset, baValue, 0, 2); return ByteBuffer.wrap(baValue).getShort(); }

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  • Delegates in .NET: how are they constructed ?

    - by Saulius
    While inspecting delegates in C# and .NET in general, I noticed some interesting facts: Creating a delegate in C# creates a class derived from MulticastDelegate with a constructor: .method public hidebysig specialname rtspecialname instance void .ctor(object 'object', native int 'method') runtime managed { } Meaning that it expects the instance and a pointer to the method. Yet the syntax of constructing a delegate in C# suggests that it has a constructor new MyDelegate(int () target) where I can recognise int () as a function instance (int *target() would be a function pointer in C++). So obviously the C# compiler picks out the correct method from the method group defined by the function name and constructs the delegate. So the first question would be, where does the C# compiler (or Visual Studio, to be precise) pick this constructor signature from ? I did not notice any special attributes or something that would make a distinction. Is this some sort of compiler/visualstudio magic ? If not, is the T (args) target construction valid in C# ? I did not manage to get anything with it to compile, e.g.: int () target = MyMethod; is invalid, so is doing anything with MyMetod, e.g. calling .ToString() on it (well this does make some sense, since that is technically a method group, but I imagine it should be possible to explicitly pick out a method by casting, e.g. (int())MyFunction. So is all of this purely compiler magic ? Looking at the construction through reflector reveals yet another syntax: Func CS$1$0000 = new Func(null, (IntPtr) Foo); This is consistent with the disassembled constructor signature, yet this does not compile! One final interesting note is that the classes Delegate and MulticastDelegate have yet another sets of constructors: .method family hidebysig specialname rtspecialname instance void .ctor(class System.Type target, string 'method') cil managed Where does the transition from an instance and method pointer to a type and a string method name occur ? Can this be explained by the runtime managed keywords in the custom delegate constructor signature, i.e. does the runtime do it's job here ?

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  • Dojo addOnLoad, but is Dojo loaded?

    - by adamrice32
    I've encountered what seems like a chicken & egg problem, and have what I think is a logical solution. However, it occurred to me that others must have encountered something similar, so I figured I'd float it out there for the masses. The situation is that I want to use dojo's addOnLoad function to queue up a number of callbacks which should be executed after the DOM has completed rendering on the client side. So what I'm doing is as follows: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="dojo.xd.js"></script> ... </head> <body> ... <script type="text/javascript"> dojo.addOnLoad( ... ); dojo.addOnLoad( ... ); ... </script> </body> </html> Now, the issue is that I seem to be calling dojo.addOnLoad before the entire Dojo library has been downloaded the browser. This makes sense in a way, because the inline SCRIPT contents should be executed before the entire DOM is loaded (and the normal body onload callback is triggered). My question is this - is my approach sound, or would it make more sense to register a normal/standard body onload JavaScript callback to call a function, which does the same work that each of the dojo.addOnLoads is doing in the SCRIPT block. Of course, this begs the question, why would you ever then use dojo.addOnLoad if you're not guaranteed that the Dojo library will be loaded prior to using the library? Hopefully this situation makes sense to someone other than me. Seems like someone else may have encountered this situation. Thoughts? Best Regards, Adam Rice

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  • Error with ReportViewer in ASP.NET: "The server is not a compatible version" ?

    - by fritz
    I deployed some SSRS reports created in Visual Studio 2008 to localhost:8080/ReportServer. ( Using VS 2008 .NET , Version 9.0.21022.8, SQL Server 2008 and XP Prof.) Calling them in the Webbrowser works fine, but now I'm trying to use them in an ASP.NET app with ReportViewer in VS 2008 and using local ASP.NET Development Server. Excecuting the following Code: ReportViewer1.ProcessingMode = ProcessingMode.Remote; IReportServerCredentials irsc = new CustomReportCredentials("xxx", "xxx", "xxx"); ReportViewer1.ServerReport.ReportServerCredentials = irsc; ReportViewer1.ServerReport.ReportServerUrl = new Uri("http://localhost:8080/ReportServer/ReportService2005.asmx?wsdl"); ReportViewer1.ServerReport.ReportPath = @"/AdventureWorks Sample Reports/Sales Order Detail"; ReportViewer1.ServerReport.Refresh(); results in the following exception: "# The version of the report server web service definition (WSDL) is either not valid or unrecognized. The server is not a compatible version. * System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapException: Server did not recognize the value of HTTP Header 'SOAPAction': http://schemas.microsoft.com/sqlserver/2005/06/30/reporting/reportingservices/LoadReport..." The report file .rdl contains the namespace: xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sqlserver/reporting/2008/01/reportdefinition" and "http://localhost:8080/ReportServer?&rs%3aCommand=ListChildren" in the Webbrowser shows the report directories and "Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services, Version 10.0.1600.22" The file "ReportService2005.wsdl" contains a lot of "soapAction="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sqlserver/2005/06/30/reporting/reportingservices/..." attributes. So it sounds like a 2005 / 2008 incompability ? (but as mentioned: i'm using only 2008 products) Any ideas ?

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  • Make fancybox jQuery plugin with results from submitting a form on same page

    - by Chase
    I am trying to take form results that are generated from a PHP call and populate them into a div that will then appear in a light box upon click of the submit button. So far I have successfully setup the form and am populating the results on the same page into a hidden div. I can make this div appear no problem in a light box by setting up a href link but cannot make it show up by simply by clicking the submit button. I know my fancybox and jQuery calls are good but not sure where I'm going wrong on the submit button. Here is what I have so far to make it work with a link: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#various1").fancybox({ 'transitionIn' : 'none', 'transitionOut' : 'none', 'scrolling' : 'auto', 'overlayOpacity' : '0' }); }); </script> <a id="various1" href="#inline1" >Inline</a> <div style="display: none;"> <div id="inline1" style="width:500px;height:550px;"> Works great here when you click inline after I have submitted the form. Here is what I tried to make it work with the submit button: $(document).ready(function(){ $("#submit").click(function(){ alert('jQTest'); $("#various1").fancybox(); }); }); <input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" value="--> Find" /> I think it has to be some way I'm calling the jQuery for the fancybox or some identifier for the submit button & div because the submit button click is registering fine. Suggestions?

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  • Setting up multiple channel types (AMF/AMFX) for Flex/BlazeDs

    - by Fergal
    We've configured our Flex client to have two channels for calling our services via BlazeDS. One channel is configured to use AMFChannel and the other for HTTPChannel. Here's the services-config.xml <channel-definition id="my-amf" class="mx.messaging.channels.AMFChannel"> <endpoint url="http://{server.name}:{server.port}/{context.root}/data/messagebroker/amf" class="flex.messaging.endpoints.AMFEndpoint" /> <properties> <polling-enabled>false</polling-enabled> </properties> </channel-definition> <channel-definition id="my-amfx" class="mx.messaging.channels.HTTPChannel"> <endpoint url="http://{server.name}:{server.port}/{context.root}/data/messagebroker/amfx" class="flex.messaging.endpoints.HTTPEndpoint" /> <properties> <polling-enabled>false</polling-enabled> </properties> </channel-definition> Our flex client is written to use either AMF or AMFX depending on how we configure it. The problem is that although the client can switch between channels it sends an AMF binary payload when attempting to call services via AMFX (expecting XML). The funny thing is that we can write services-config.xml to use either AMF or AMFX individually but Flex doesn't seem to want to let us use both. Is this a bug in Flex? If not how can we get it to use the correct protocol?

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  • MSWord automation:Get file contents after it was saved

    - by BlackTigerX
    I have an application that uses MSWord automation to edit some documents, after they save and close word I need to grab the modified file and put it back on the repository, there is only one scenario where I can't get it to work and that is when the user makes changes to the file, selects to close word and selects yes to save the file there are 2 events that I'm using: DocumentBeforeSave Quit on the Quit event I'm trying to load the .docx file from disk but on this particular scenario I get an IOException because the file is still in use, somehow I need to wait until after the Quit event has been processed, which is when Word is actually closed and the file is no longer being used right now I have it working using this word.Visible = true; while (!wordDone) { //gets changed to true on the Quit event System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(100); } bool error = false; do { try { //need to load the contents of the modified file ls.Content = System.IO.File.ReadAllBytes(provider.GetFileName()); error = false; } catch (System.IO.IOException) { error = true; System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(200); } } while (error); while this works it is very ugly, I need a way to fire an event after the Quit event has been handled, or block the current thread while word is still running, or get an event after the document has been saved, the bottom line is I need a clean way to load the file after it has been saved and word is closed. DocumentAfterSave would be awesome, but doesn't seem to exist. I Also tried unhooking the Quit handler and calling word.Quit on the Quit handler, that made no difference

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  • What is the correct way to synchronize a shared, static object in Java?

    - by johnrock
    This is a question concerning what is the proper way to synchronize a shared object in java. One caveat is that the object that I want to share must be accessed from static methods. My question is, If I synchronize on a static field, does that lock the class the field belongs to similar to the way a synchronized static method would? Or, will this only lock the field itself? In my specific example I am asking: Will calling PayloadService.getPayload() or PayloadService.setPayload() lock PayloadService.payload? Or will it lock the entire PayloadService class? public class PayloadService extends Service { private static PayloadDTO payload = new PayloadDTO(); public static void setPayload(PayloadDTO payload){ synchronized(PayloadService.payload){ PayloadService.payload = payload; } } public static PayloadDTO getPayload() { synchronized(PayloadService.payload){ return PayloadService.payload ; } } ... Is this a correct/acceptable approach ? In my example the PayloadService is a separate thread, updating the payload object at regular intervals - other threads need to call PayloadService.getPayload() at random intervals to get the latest data and I need to make sure that they don't lock the PayloadService from carrying out its timer task

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  • Getting the CVE ID Property of an update from WSUS API via Powershell

    - by thebitsandthebytes
    I am writing a script in Powershell to get the update information from each computer and correlate the information with another System which identifies updates by CVE ID. I have discovered that there is a "CVEIDs" property for an update in WSUS, which is documented in MSDN, but I have no idea how to access the property. Retrieving the CVE ID from WSUS is the key to this script, so I am hoping someone out there can help! Here is the property that I am having difficulty accessing: IUpdate2::CveIDs Property - http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa386102(VS.85).aspx According to this, the IUnknown::QueryInterface method is needed to interface IUpdate2 -  "http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee917057(PROT.10).aspx" "An IUpdate instance can be retrieved by calling the IUpdateCollection::Item (opnum 8) (section 3.22.4.1) method.  The client can use the IUnknown::QueryInterface method to then obtain an IUpdate2, IUpdate3, IUpdate4, or IUpdate5 interface. Additionally, if the update is a driver, the client can use the IUnknown::QueryInterface method to obtain an IWindowsDriverUpdate, IWindowsDriverUpdate2, IWindowsDriverUpdate3, IWindowsDriverUpdate4, or IWindowsDriverUpdate5 interface. " Here is a skeleton of my code: [System.Reflection.Assembly]::LoadWithPartialName("Microsoft.UpdateServices.Administration") | Out-Null  if (!$wsus)  {  Returns an object that implements IUpdateServer  $wsus = [Microsoft.UpdateServices.Administration.AdminProxy]::GetUpdateServer($server, $false, $port)  }  $computerScope = New-Object Microsoft.UpdateServices.Administration.ComputerTargetScope  $updateScope = New-Object Microsoft.UpdateServices.Administration.UpdateScope  $updateScope.UpdateSources = [Microsoft.UpdateServices.Administration.UpdateSources]::MicrosoftUpdate  $wsusMachines = $wsus.GetComputerTargets($computerScope)  foreach machine in QSUS, write the full domain name $wsusMachines | ForEach-Object {  Write-host $.FullDomainName  $updates = $.GetUpdateInstallationInfoPerUpdate($updateScope)  foreach update for each machine, write the update title, installation state and securitybulletin $updates | ForEach-Object {  $update = $wsus.GetUpdate($.UpdateId) # Returns an object that implements Microsoft.UpdateServices.Administration.IUpdate $updateTitle = $update.Title | Write-Host $updateInstallationState = $.UpdateInstallationState | Write-Host $updateSecurityBulletin = $update.SecurityBulletins | Write-Host  $updateCveIds = $update.CveIDs # ERROR: Property 'CveIDs' belongs to IUpdate2, not IUpdate  }  }

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  • Is MEF an all-or-nothing affair?

    - by Dave
    I've had a few questions about MEF recently, but here's the big one -- is it really all-or-nothing, as it appears to be? My basic application structure is simply an app, several shared libraries that are intended to be singletons, and several different plugins (which may implement different interfaces). The app loads the plugins, and both the app and all plugins need to access the shared libraries. My first go at MEF was fairly successful, although I made some stupid mistakes along the way because I was trying so many different things, I just got confused at times. But in the end, last night I got my smallish test app running with MEF, some shared libraries, and one plugin. Now I'm moving onto the target app, which I already described. And it's the multiple plugins part that has be a bit worried. My existing application already supports multiple plugins with different interfaces by using Reflection. I need to be able to uniquely identify each plugin so that the user can select one and get the expected behavior exposed by that plugin. The problem is that I don't know how to do this yet... but that's the topic of a different question. Ideally, I'd be able to take my existing plugin loader and use it as-is, while relying on MEF to do the shared library resolution. The problem is, I can't seem to get MEF to load them (i.e. I get a CompositionException when calling ComposeParts()) unless I also use MEF to load the plugin. And if I do this, well... then I need to know how to keep track of them as they get loaded so the user can select one from a list of plugins. What have your experiences been with trying to mix and match these approaches?

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  • Problem with creation of scheduled task from IIS6 on SR2003

    - by Morten Louw Nielsen
    Hi, I am writing a webapplication using .NET. The webapp creates scheduled tasks using the System.Diagnostics.Process class, calling SCHTASKS.EXE with parameters. I have changed the identity on the app pool, to a specific domain user. The domain-user is local administrator on all the four webservers. From webserver01 I am creating tasks on webserver01 to webserver04. It works perfect for 3-5 days, but then it breaks. It gives me the following errormessage in a messagebox: "The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0000142). Click on OK to terminate the application." If I have the system in the broken state, and I change the identity of the app pool to Domain administrator, it works. As I change it back to my domain-user, it breaks again. If I reboot the server, it works again for the same amount of days, but will break again. It seems like a permission-related problem. I just don't understand why it works sometimes, and sometimes doesn't. I hope someone outthere has seen this problem! Looking forward to hear from you! Kind regards, Morten, Denmark

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  • Error in WCF service - Silverlight client communication.

    - by David
    I created a WCF service and I planned to consume this in a Silverlight application. So I created the WCF service in the Website host project. The service is a simple WCF service that only returns a number - something like a Hello World WCF-SL. So after adding a service reference in the silverlight client project to the Service URI, after calling async the service method (by using the generated proxy), I get the following exception in the callback method: An error occurred while trying to make a request to URI 'http://localhost:4566/SLService.svc'. This could be due to attempting to access a service in a cross-domain way without a proper cross-domain policy in place, or a policy that is unsuitable for SOAP services. You may need to contact the owner of the service to publish a cross-domain policy file and to ensure it allows SOAP-related HTTP headers to be sent. This error may also be caused by using internal types in the web service proxy without using the InternalsVisibleToAttribute attribute. Please see the inner exception for more details. I only created a HelloWorld WCF service with nothing else but a simple method that returns a dumb number and it's hosted on my locally. Must I have clientaccesspolicy.xml or crossdomain.xml? I acces my service locally. Every time I create a new simple/dumb WCF-SL solution, I get this error. I use VS2010 and Silverlight 4. I cannot get a simple/dumb WCF-SL solution working locally. Is there something wrong with the configuration? On another machine in the same network, it does work properly, so I assume something is misconfigured. Any thoughts?

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