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• I am getting null pointer exception while publishing dynamic web project on jboss using eclipse

  - by Rozer

  I am getting null pointer exception while publishing dynamic web project on jboss using eclipse Environment details Version: 3.3.2 Build id: M20080221-1800 Jboss: 3.2.3 JDK 1.5 I have checked with google, but nothing work, can anyone suggest me what is the root cause for that Following is the log trace may be help to understance the situation !ENTRY org.eclipse.wst.server.core 4 0 2010-06-13 19:03:44.568 !MESSAGE Error calling delegate restart() JBOSS 4.0 !ENTRY org.eclipse.wst.server.core 4 0 2010-06-13 19:39:34.365 !MESSAGE Could not publish to the server. !STACK 0 java.lang.NullPointerException at org.eclipse.wst.common.componentcore.internal.util.ComponentUtilities.getDeployUriOfComponent(ComponentUtilities.java:327) at org.eclipse.jst.j2ee.internal.deployables.J2EEFlexProjDeployable.getURI(J2EEFlexProjDeployable.java:429) at org.eclipse.jst.server.generic.core.internal.publishers.AntPublisher.guessModuleName(AntPublisher.java:259) at org.eclipse.jst.server.generic.core.internal.publishers.AntPublisher.getPublishProperties(AntPublisher.java:224) at org.eclipse.jst.server.generic.core.internal.publishers.AntPublisher.publish(AntPublisher.java:110) at org.eclipse.jst.server.generic.core.internal.GenericServerBehaviour.publishModule(GenericServerBehaviour.java:84) at org.eclipse.wst.server.core.model.ServerBehaviourDelegate.publishModule(ServerBehaviourDelegate.java:749) at org.eclipse.wst.server.core.model.ServerBehaviourDelegate.publishModules(ServerBehaviourDelegate.java:835) at org.eclipse.wst.server.core.model.ServerBehaviourDelegate.publish(ServerBehaviourDelegate.java:669) at org.eclipse.wst.server.core.internal.Server.doPublish(Server.java:887) at org.eclipse.wst.server.core.internal.Server.publish(Server.java:874) at org.eclipse.wst.server.core.internal.PublishServerJob.run(PublishServerJob.java:72) at org.eclipse.core.internal.jobs.Worker.run(Worker.java:55)

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• PyQt and unittest - how to handle signals and slots

  - by Einar

  Hello, some small application I'm developing uses a module I have written to check certain web services via a REST API. I've been trying to add unit tests to it so I don't break stuff, and I stumbled upon a problem. I use a lot of signal-slot connections to perform operations asynchronously. For example a typical test would be (pseudo-Python), with postDataDownloaded as a signal: def testConnection(self): "Test connection and posts retrieved" def length_test(): self.assertEqual(len(self.client.post_data), 5) self.client.postDataReady.connect(length_test) self.client.get_post_list(limit=5) Now, unittest will report this test to be "ok" when running, regardless of the result (as another slot is being called), even if asserts fail (I will get an unhandled AssertionError). Example when deliberatiely making the test fail: Test connection and posts retrieved ... ok [... more tests...] OK Traceback (most recent call last): [...] AssertionError: 4 != 5 The slot inside the test is merely an experiment: I get the same results if it's outside (instance method). I also have to add that the various methods I'm calling all make HTTP requests, which means they take a bit of time (I need to mock the request - in the mean time I'm using SimpleHTTPServer to fake the connections and give them proper data). Is there a way around this problem?

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• how to escape white space in bash loop list

  - by MCS

  I have a bash shell script that loops through all child directories (but not files) of a certain directory. The problem is that some of the directory names contain spaces. Here are the contents of my test directory: $ls -F test Baltimore/ Cherry Hill/ Edison/ New York City/ Philadelphia/ cities.txt And the code that loops through the directories: for f in `find test/* -type d`; do echo $f done Here's the output: test/Baltimore test/Cherry Hill test/Edison test/New York City test/Philadelphia Cherry Hill and New York City are treated as 2 or 3 separate entries. I tried quoting the filenames, like so: for f in `find test/* -type d | sed -e 's/^/\"/' | sed -e 's/$/\"/'`; do echo $f done but to no avail. There's got to be a simple way to do this. Any ideas? The answers below are great. But to make this more complicated - I don't always want to use the directories listed in my test directory. Sometimes I want to pass in the directory names as command-line parameters instead. I took Charles' suggestion of setting the IFS and came up with the following: dirlist="${@}" ( [[ -z "$dirlist" ]] && dirlist=`find test -mindepth 1 -type d` && IFS=$'\n' for d in $dirlist; do echo $d done ) and this works just fine unless there are spaces in the command line arguments (even if those arguments are quoted). For example, calling the script like this: test.sh "Cherry Hill" "New York City" produces the following output: Cherry Hill New York City Again, I know there must be a way to do this - I just don't know what it is...

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• GWT JsonpRequestBuilder Timeout issue

  - by Anthony Kong

  I am getting time out from using JsonpRequestBuilder. The entry point code goes like this: // private static final String SERVER_URL = "http://localhost:8094/data/view/"; private static final String SERVER_URL = "http://www.google.com/calendar/feeds/[email protected]/public/full?alt=json-in-script&callback=insertAgenda&orderby=starttime&max-results=15&singleevents=true&sortorder=ascending&futureevents=true"; private static final String SERVER_ERROR = "An error occurred while " + "attempting to contact the server. Please check your network " + "connection and try again."; /** * This is the entry point method. */ public void onModuleLoad() { JsonpRequestBuilder requestBuilder = new JsonpRequestBuilder(); // requestBuilder.setTimeout(10000); requestBuilder.requestObject(SERVER_URL, new Jazz10RequestCallback()); } class Jazz10RequestCallback implements AsyncCallback<Article> { @Override public void onFailure(Throwable caught) { Window.alert("Failed to send the message: " + caught.getMessage()); } @Override public void onSuccess(Article result) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Window.alert(result.toString()); } The article class is simply: import com.google.gwt.core.client.JavaScriptObject; public class Article extends JavaScriptObject { protected Article() {}; } The gwt page, however, always hit the onFailure() callback and show this alert: Failed to send the message. Timeout while calling <url>. Fail to see anything on the Eclipse plugin console. I tried the url and it works perfectly. Would appreciate any tip on debugging technique or suggestion

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• UIAlertViewDelegate method didDismissWithButtonIndex gets called while the phone is sleeping/locked.

  - by Rob

  I have a UIAlertView who's didDismissWithButtonIndex delegate method calls pops the view controller (same class, it's the alertview delegate and the viewcontroller) to return the user to the previous screen. The issue is that when you lock the phone before the [alert show]; is called, something is calling didDismissWithButtonIndex while the phone is locked. Since the response to that is to pop the view controller, which releases and deallocs it, I crash on the callback. What is causing this phantom button press? Seems like a framework bug, but I hate jumping to that conclusion. I'm definitely not hitting the button, because I hit a breakpoint in my code right before it's displayed. Then I lock the phone. Then I continue. I see it do the show, return to the event loop, and then, while the phone is still locked, hit my breakpoint in didDismissWithButtonIndex. There are a few internet/forum postings about similar spurious delegate calls, but no concrete answers. This is on the simulator, and the device, both OS 2.2 and OS 3.0. I'm assuming I'm missing something, but what? Update: Yeah, I created a simple project with just two view controllers, where when the 2nd view controller displays it creates the alert, and shows it. Then I NSLog in the delegate method, and when the phone is locked, it fires once while locked, and then again when it's unlocked and the button is clicked...2 log messages. But when not locked, there's only one. I guess I'll open an issue, but it seems awfully obvious to have survived this long without anyone complaining. :-) I'm going to try and work around it by making an isActive flag value when the willResignActive/didBecomeActive notifications arrive, and if the app isn't active skipping the delegate body. Update I went ahead in July after I posted this and created radar 7097363 for this issue. There's been no response. The workaround in practice works quite well, checking the active status when processing the delegate, and skipping the action if the the app is inactive.

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• Fail to load NPAPI plugin in Google Chrome on Mac OS X

  - by Roman

  I have been trying to get Google Chrome (6.0.401.1 dev) on Mac OS X to load an NPAPI plugin without success so far. I have been working around the npsimple example from here: http://git.webvm.net/?p=npsimple. Using gcc on Mac and VC++ 2008 on Windows I managed to get it running on Safari and Firefox on Mac OS X and Firefox and Google Chrome on Windows, but not on Google Chrome on Mac OS X. When trying to debug Google Chrome on Mac OS X it seemed Google Chrome was briefly dyld-loading (and immediately dyld-unloading) the plugin on startup, but without actually looking-up any symbols within the plugin or calling any of the functions. It seemed to be doing that for every plugin, though. Also, when loading a page with the embed-tag for the plugin, Google Chrome did not seem to even dyld-load the plugin and no functions were called (not even NP_GetEntryPoints). Google Chrome also does not output any error message, it just simply does not load the plugin. I am not sure I caught everything with gdb because of Google Chrome using different processes, but I have also tried all the switches like --no-sandbox, --single-process and --plugin-startup-dialog (which incidentally does not seem to work at all on Mac OS X). I also made sure the architecture of the binary matches (i.e. 32-bit for Google Chrome). Has anybody had similar problems before? Is there anything I am missing here, like a gcc switch when compiling or something? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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• WPF Background Thread Invocation

  - by jeffn825

  Maybe I'm mis-remembering how Winforms works or I'm overcomplicating the hell out of this, but here's my problem. I have a WPF client app application that talks to a server over WCF. The current user may "log out" of the WPF client, which closes all open screens, leaves only the navigation pane, and minimizes the program window. When the user re-maximizes the program window, they are prompted to log in. Simple. But sometimes things happen on background threads - like every 5 minutes the client tries to make a WCF calls that refreshes some cached data. And what if the user is logged out when this 5 minute timer triggers? Well, then the user should be prompted to log back in...and this must of course happen on the UI thread. private static ISecurityContext securityContext; public static ISecurityContext SecurityContext { get { if (securityContext == null) { // Login method shows a window and prompts the user to log in Application.Current.Dispatcher.Invoke((Action)Login); } return securityContext; } } So far so good, right? But what happens when multiple threads hit this spot of code? Well, my first intuition was that since I'm syncrhonizing across the Application.Current.Dispatcher, I should be fine, and whichever thread hit first would be responsible for showing the login form and getting the user logged in... Not the case... Thread 1 will hit the code and call ShowDialog on the login form Thread 2 will also hit the code and will call Login as soon as Thread 1 has called ShowDialog, since calling ShowDialog unblocked Thread 1 (I believe because of the way the WPF message pump works) All I want is a synchronized way of getting the user logged back into the application...what am I missing here? Thanks in advance.

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• SimpleJdbcCall ignoring JdbcTemplate fetch size

  - by user289429

  We are calling the pl/sql stored procedure through Spring SimpleJdbcCall, the fetchsize set on the JdbcTemplate is being ignored by SimpleJdbcCall. The rowmapper resultset fetch size is set to 10 even though we have set the jdbctemplate fetchsize to 200. Any idea why this happens and how to fix it? Have printed the fetchsize of resultset in the rowmapper in the below code snippet - Once it is 200 and other time it is 10 even though I use the same JdbcTemplate on both occassion. This direct execution through jdbctemplate returns fetchsize of 200 in the row mapper jdbcTemplate = new JdbcTemplate(ds); jdbcTemplate.setResultsMapCaseInsensitive(true); jdbcTemplate.setFetchSize(200); List temp = jdbcTemplate.query("select 1 from dual", new ParameterizedRowMapper() { public Object mapRow(ResultSet resultSet, int i) throws SQLException { System.out.println("Direct template : " + resultSet.getFetchSize()); return new String(resultSet.getString(1)); } }); This execution through SimpleJdbcCall is always returning fetchsize of 10 in the rowmapper jdbcCall = new SimpleJdbcCall(jdbcTemplate).withSchemaName(schemaName) .withCatalogName(catalogName).withProcedureName(functionName); jdbcCall.returningResultSet((String) outItValues.next(), new ParameterizedRowMapper<Map<String, Object>>() { public Map<String, Object> mapRow(ResultSet rs, int row) throws SQLException { System.out.println("Through simplejdbccall " + rs.getFetchSize()); return extractRS(rs, row); } }); outputList = (List<Map<String, Object>>) jdbcCall.executeObject(List.class, inParam);

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• Will IOC solve our problems?

  - by user127954

  Just trying to implement unit testing into a brownfield type system. Be aware i'm relatively new into the unit testing world. Its going to be a gradual migration of course because there are just so many areas of pain. The current problem i'm trying to solve is we followed a lot of bad practices from our VB6 days and in the conversion of our app to .Net. We have LOT AN LOTS of shared/static functions which call other shared functions and those call others and so on. Sometimes depedencies are passed in as parameters and sometimes they are just newed up within the calling function. I've already instructed our developers to stop creating shared functions and instead create instance members and only use those instance members off of interfaces but that doesn't alleviate the current situation. So you must recursively pass in each and every dependency at the top layer for each function in your code path and method signatures are turning into a mess. I'm hoping this is something that IOC will fix. Currently we are using NUnit/Moq and i'm starting to investigate StructureMap. So far i understand that you pretty much tell StructureMap for x interface i want to default to the concrete class y: ObjectFactory.Initialize(x=>{x.ForRequestType<IInterface>().TheDefaultIsConcreteType<MyClass>()}); Then to runtime: var mytype = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IInterface>(); the IOC container will initialize the correct type for you. Not sure yet how to swap a fake in for the concrete type but hopefully thats simple. Again will IOC solve the problems i was talking about above? Is there a specific IOC framework that will do it better than StructureMap or can they all handle this situation. Any help would be much appreciated.

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• DataContract Known Types - passing array

  - by Erup

  Im having problems when passing an generic List, trough a WCF operation. In this case, there is a List of int. The example 4 is described here in MSDN. Note that in MSDN sample, is described: // This will serialize and deserialize successfully because the generic List is equivalent to int[], which was added to known types. Above, is the DataContract: [DataContract] [KnownType(typeof(int[]))] [KnownType(typeof(object[]))] public class AccountData { [DataMember] public object accNumber1; [DataMember] public object accNumber2; [DataMember] public object accNumber3; [DataMember] public object accNumber4; } In client side, Im calling the operation like this: DataTransfer.Service.AccountData data = new DataTransfer.Service.AccountData() { accNumber1 = 100, accNumber2 = new int[100], accNumber3 = new List<int>(), accNumber4 = new ArrayList() }; cService.AddAccounts(data); Also, here is the decorations of the generated AccountData obj (WCF proxy): [System.Diagnostics.DebuggerStepThroughAttribute()] [System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Runtime.Serialization", "3.0.0.0")] [System.Runtime.Serialization.DataContractAttribute(Name="AccountData", Namespace="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/DataTransfer.Service")] [System.SerializableAttribute()] [System.Runtime.Serialization.KnownTypeAttribute(typeof(DataTransfer.Client.CustomerServiceReference.PurchaseOrder))] [System.Runtime.Serialization.KnownTypeAttribute(typeof(DataTransfer.Client.CustomerServiceReference.Customer))] [System.Runtime.Serialization.KnownTypeAttribute(typeof(int[]))] [System.Runtime.Serialization.KnownTypeAttribute(typeof(object[]))]

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• JavaScript keeps returning ambigious error (in ASP.NET MVC 2.0)

  - by Erx_VB.NExT.Coder

  this is my function (with other lines ive tried/abandoned)... function DoClicked(eNumber) { //obj.style = 'bgcolor: maroon'; var eid = 'cat' + eNumber; //$get(obj).style.backgroundColor = 'maroon'; //var nObj = $get(obj); var nObj = document.getElementById(eid) //alert(nObj.getAttribute("style")); nObj.style.backgroundColor = 'Maroon'; alert(nObj.style.backgroundColor); //nObj.setAttribute("style", "backgroundcolor: Maroon"); }; This error keeps getting returned even after the last line in the function runs: Microsoft JScript runtime error: Sys.ArgumentUndefinedException: Value cannot be undefined. Parameter name: method this function is called with an "OnSuccess" set in my Ajax.ActionLink call (ASP.NET MVC)... anyone any ideas on this? i have these referenced... even when i remove the 'debug' versions for normal versions, i still get an error but the error just has much less information and says 'b' is undefined (probably a ms js library internal variable)... <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftAjax.debug.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcValidation.debug.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcAjax.debug.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/jquery-1.4.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> also, this is how i am calling the actionlink method: Ajax.ActionLink(item.CategoryName, "SubCategoryList", "Home", New With {.CategoryID = item.CategoryID}, New AjaxOptions With {.UpdateTargetId = "SubCat", .HttpMethod = "Post", .OnSuccess = "DoClicked(" & item.CategoryID.ToString & ")"}, New With {.id = "cat" & item.CategoryID.ToString})

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• How to check for server side update in iPhone application Web service request

  - by Nirmal

  Hello All.... I have kind of Listing application for iPhone application, which always calling a web service to my php server and fetching the data and displaying it onto iPhone screen. Now, the thing to consider in this scenario is, my iPhone application everytime requesting on the server and fetching the data. But now my requirement is like I want to replace following set of actions with above one : - Everytime when my application is launched in iPhone, it should check for the new data at the server`. - And if server replies "true" then only my iPhone application will made a request to fetch the data. - In case of "false", my iPhone application will display the data which is already cached in local phone memory. Now to implement this scenario at server side (which has php, mysql), I am planning with the following solution : Table : tblNewerData id newDataFlag == ============ 1 true Trigger : tgrUpdateNewData Above trigger will update the tblNewerData - newDataFlag field on Insert case of my main table. And every time my iPhone app will request for tblNewerData-newDataFlag field, and if it found true then only it will create new request, and if it founds false then the cached version of data will be displayed. So, I want to know that, is it the correct way to do so ? or else any other smart option available ? Thanks in advance.

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• OpenGL-ES: Change (multiply) color when using color arrays?

  - by arberg

  Following the ideas in OpenGL ES iPhone - drawing anti aliased lines, I am trying to draw stroked anti-aliased lines and I am successful so far. After line is draw by the finger, I wish to fade the path, that is I need to change the opacity (color) of the entire path. I have computed a large array of vertex positions, vertex colors, texture coordinates, and indices and then I give these to opengl but I would like reduce the opacity of all the drawn triangles without having to change each of the color coordinates. Normally I would use glColor4f(r,g,b,a) before calling drawElements, but it has no effect due to the color array. I am working on Android, but I believe it shouldn't make the big difference, as long as it is OpenGL-ES 1.1 (or 1.0). I have the following code : gl.glEnable(GL10.GL_BLEND); gl.glBlendFunc(GL10.GL_ONE, GL10.GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA); gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_COLOR_ARRAY); gl.glShadeModel(GL10.GL_SMOOTH); gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); gl.glEnable(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D); // Should set rgb to greyish, and alpha to half-transparent, the greyish is // just there to make the question more general its the alpha i'm interested in gl.glColor4f(.75f, .75f, .75f, 0.5f); gl.glVertexPointer(mVertexSize, GL10.GL_FLOAT, 0, mVertexBuffer); gl.glColorPointer(4, GL10.GL_FLOAT, 0, mColorBuffer); gl.glTexCoordPointer(2, GL10.GL_FLOAT, 0, mTexCoordBuffer); gl.glDrawElements(GL10.GL_TRIANGLES, indexCount, GL10.GL_UNSIGNED_SHORT, mIndexBuffer.position(startIndex)); If I disable the color array gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_COLOR_ARRAY);, then the glColor4f works, if I enable the color array it does nothing. Is there any way in OpenGl-ES to change the coloring without changing all the color coordinates? I think that in OpenGl one might use a fragment shader, but it seems OpenGL does not have a fragment shader (not that I know how to use one).

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• How to resize a Flot graph when its containing div changes size

  - by Will Gorman

  I'm using the Flot graphing library jQuery plugin and I haven't found a good way to handle resizing the graph when it's containing <div> changes size (for example, due to window resizing). When handling the onresize event, I've made sure that the width and height of the containing <div>are updated to the correct size and then tried calling both setupGrid and draw on the plot object but with no effect. I've had some success with the approach of just removing and readding the containing <div> and replotting the graph in it. However, this seems to be prone to getting stuck in infinite resize event loops if I have to add other <div> elements to the document at the same time (like for tooltips for the graph) as I'm guessing those can trigger resize events as well? Is there a good way to handle it that I'm missing? (I'm also using ExplorerCanvas for IE in order to be able to use Flot, if that might have anything to do with it. I haven't really tried in any other browsers yet)

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• Problem with ar_mailer

  - by Roberto

  Hi guys, I'm running a strange problem sending emails. Basicly I'm getting this exception: ArgumentError (wrong number of arguments (1 for 0)): /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.1.1/lib/active_record/base.rb:642:in `initialize' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.1.1/lib/active_record/base.rb:642:in `new' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.1.1/lib/active_record/base.rb:642:in `create' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/ar_mailer-1.3.1/lib/action_mailer/ar_mailer.rb:92:in `perform_delivery_activerecord' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/ar_mailer-1.3.1/lib/action_mailer/ar_mailer.rb:91:in `each' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/ar_mailer-1.3.1/lib/action_mailer/ar_mailer.rb:91:in `perform_delivery_activerecord' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/actionmailer-2.1.1/lib/action_mailer/base.rb:508:in `__send__' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/actionmailer-2.1.1/lib/action_mailer/base.rb:508:in `deliver!' /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/actionmailer-2.1.1/lib/action_mailer/base.rb:383:in `method_missing' /app/controllers/web_reservations_controller.rb:29:in `test_email' In my web_reservations_controller I have a simply method calling TestMailer.deliver_send_email And my TesMailer is something like: class TestMailer < ActionMailer::ARMailer def send_email @recipients = "[email protected]" @from = "[email protected]" @subject = "TEST MAIL SUBJECT" @body = "<br>TEST MAIL MESSAGE" @content_type = "text/html" end end Do you have any idea? Thanks! Roberto

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• AutoMapper How To Map Object A To Object B Differently Depending On Context

  - by IanT8

  Calling all AutoMapper gurus! I'd like to be able to map object A to object B differently depending on context at runtime. In particular, I'd like to ignore certain properties in one mapping case, and have all properties mapped in another case. What I'm experiencing is that Mapper.CreateMap can be called successfully in the different mapping cases however, once CreateMap is called, the map for a particular pair of types is set and is not subsequently changed by succeeding CreateMap calls which might describe the mapping differently. I found a blog post which advocates Mapper.Reset() to get round the problem, however, the static nature of the Mapper class means that it is only a matter of time before a collision and crash occur. Is there a way to do this? What I think I need is to call Mapper.CreateMap once per appdomain, and later, be able to call Mapper.Map with hints about which properties should be included / excluded. Right now, I'm thinking about changing the source code by writing a non-static mapping class that holds the mapping config instance based. Poor performance, but thread safe. What are my options. What can be done? Automapper seems so promising.

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• ASP.NET Timer Event

  - by K Ratnajyothi

  protected void SubmitButtonClicked(object sender, EventArgs e) { System.Timers.Timer timer = new System.Timers.Timer(); --- --- //line 1 get_datasource(); String message = "submitted."; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(this.Page, this.GetType(), "popupAlert", "popupAlert(' " + message + " ');", true); timer.Interval = 30000; timer.Elapsed += new ElapsedEventHandler(timer_tick); // Only raise the event the first time Interval elapses. timer.AutoReset = false; timer.Enabled = true; } } protected void timer_tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { //line 2 get_datasource(); GridView2.DataBind(); } The problem is with the data in the grid view that is being displayed... since when get_datasource which is after line 1 is called the updated data is displayed in the grid view since it is a postback event but when the timer event handler is calling the timer_tick event the get_datasource function is called but after that the updated data is not visible in the grid view. It is nnot getting updated since the timer_tick is not a post back event

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• Refresh User Control without Refreshing the Page

  - by Shrewdy

  hi, I have a page and on that page i have a button and a user control. I want to refresh the user control without refreshing the page. I know i cannot do it otherwise so i did is... (wrapped my user control inside the Update Panel.) <asp:TextBox ID="txtName" runat="server"></asp:TextBox><br /> <asp:Button ID="btnAdd" runat="server" Text="Add name to list" OnClick="btnAdd_Click" /><br /><br /> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="upShowNames" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <uc1:ShowNames ID="ucShowNames" runat="server" /> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="btnAdd" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> but i still the control wont refresh. i also tried calling the update panels .Update() method by changing its UpdateMode to Conditional but that does not work either... does any one know how can we do it then... any help will be greatly appreciated....thank you!!

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• Strange UIKit bug, table view row stays selected

  - by Can Berk Güder

  I'm facing what appears to be a UIKit bug, and it takes the combination of two less commonly used features to reproduce it, so please bear with me here. I have quite the common view hierarchy: UITabBarController -> UINavigationController -> UITableViewController and the table view controller pushes another table view controller onto the navigation controller's stack when a row is selected. There's absolutely nothing special or fancy in the code here. However, the second UITableViewController, the "detail view controller" if you will, does two things: It sets hidesBottomBarWhenPushed to YES in its init method, so the tab bar is hidden when this controller is pushed: - (id)initWithStyle:(UITableViewStyle)style { if(self = [super initWithStyle:style]) { self.hidesBottomBarWhenPushed = YES; } return self; } It calls setToolbarHidden:NO animated:YES and setToolbarHidden:YES animated:YES on self.navigationController in viewWillAppear: and viewWillDisappear: respectively, causing the UIToolbar provided by UINavigationController to be displayed and hidden with animations: - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewWillAppear:animated]; [self.navigationController setToolbarHidden:NO animated:YES]; } - (void)viewWillDisappear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewWillDisappear:animated]; [self.navigationController setToolbarHidden:YES animated:YES]; } Now, if the second UITableViewController was pushed by selecting the row at the bottom of the screen (it doesn't have to be the last row) in the first controller, this row does not automatically get deselected when the user immediately or eventually returns to the first controller. Further, the row cannot be deselected by calling deselectRowAtIndexPath:animated: on self.tableView in viewWillAppear: or viewDidAppear: in the first controller. I'm guessing this is a bug in UITableViewController's drawing code which of course only draws visible rows, but unfortunately fails to determine correctly if the bottommost row will be visible in this case. I failed to find anything on this on Google or OpenRadar, and was wondering if anyone else on SO had this problem or knew a solution/workaround.

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• Using Javascript to detect when a user has selected an item in an ASP.NET listbox

  - by Amr Bekhit

  Hello all, I am developing an ASP.NET web application that incorporates google maps. I have an ASP.NET listbox on my page which contains a list of items. When the user selects one of the items, I'd like to show this item on the map. The main complication lies in the fact that google maps uses javascript to control it and the listbox is a server control. I can think of two ways to do this. The first would involve the listbox calling a javascript function when the user selects a new item. I can then write this function to perform the necessary map operations. Unfortunately, the OnSelectedIndexChanged property of the listbox doesn't seem to support javascript functions. The second involves wrapping an UpdatePanel around the listbox and getting the listbox to perform a postback. In the SelectedIndexChanged event in VB/C#, I would the need to somehow make a call to a javascript function which would then update the map. Which solution can I use? Thanks --Amr

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• onMouseOver not working fine with hover

  - by Lina

  Hi, i'm trying to get a popup window when hovering a div by calling the following function onMouseOver function PopUp(h) { $('#task_' + h).hover(function (evt) { var html1 = '<div id="box">'; html1 += '<h4>Taskbar ' + h + ' ännu en test - fredagstest </h4>'; //html += '<img src="Pictures/DesertMini.jpg" alt="image"/>'; html1 += '<p>"Test för task nr: ' + h + ' <br/>At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium asperiores repellat."</p>'; html1 += '</div>'; $('#test').append(html1).children('#box').hide().fadeIn(100) $('#box') .css('top', evt.pageY) .css('left', evt.pageX + 20) .css('z-index', 1000000); }, function () { // mouse out $('#box').remove(); }); $('#task_' + h).mousemove(function (evt) { $('#box') .css('top', evt.pageY) .css('left', evt.pageX + 20) .css('z-index', 1000000); }); } } h is some number I'm sending to the function <div (some attributes) onMouseOver="PopUp('+someNumber+');"> but the onMouseOver is not working fine with the hover what do i do? thanks a trillion in advance... Lina

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• no statement parsed and wrong number or types of arguments - cfstoredproc

  - by Travis

  I have an Oracle procedure - editBacklog which I'm calling from a CFM page via cfstoredproc. After several changes to the procedure I started getting ORA-06550: line 1, column 7: PLS-00306: wrong number or types of arguments in call to 'EDITBACKLOG'. I've gotten this before and found that if I changed the name of the procedure it starts working again. I changed the name to editBacklog2 and it worked as I expected it to. I changed the name back to editBacklog and got the same error. I changed the name back to editBacklog2 again and started getting ORA-01003: no statement parsed. NOTHING has changed at this point except for the names. I changed the name yet again to editBacklog3 and it works as expected. As of right now editBacklog = ORA-06550 editBacklog2 = ORA-01003 editBacklog3 = works (kinda) This whole thing started when I was trying to fix an ORA-01821: date format not recognized error. I fear when I start changing things I'll start getting the same lame behavior described above. Either Oracle or CF is messing with me and I'll end up liking one of them less because of it. I assume it's probably cfstoredproc caching metadata or something but neither google, livedocs, or OTN have much to say about my situation. I'm not the SA or DBA. Anyone have any ideas?

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• Using Hibernate's ScrollableResults to slowly read 90 million records

  - by at

  I simply need to read each row in a table in my MySQL database using Hibernate and write a file based on it. But there are 90 million rows and they are pretty big. So it seemed like the following would be appropriate: ScrollableResults results = session.createQuery("SELECT person FROM Person person") .setReadOnly(true).setCacheable(false).scroll(ScrollMode.FORWARD_ONLY); while (results.next()) storeInFile(results.get()[0]); The problem is the above will try and load all 90 million rows into RAM before moving on to the while loop... and that will kill my memory with OutOfMemoryError: Java heap space exceptions :(. So I guess ScrollableResults isn't what I was looking for? What is the proper way to handle this? I don't mind if this while loop takes days (well I'd love it to not). I guess the only other way to handle this is to use setFirstResult and setMaxResults to iterate through the results and just use regular Hibernate results instead of ScrollableResults. That feels like it will be inefficient though and will start taking a ridiculously long time when I'm calling setFirstResult on the 89 millionth row... UPDATE: setFirstResult/setMaxResults doesn't work, it turns out to take an unusably long time to get to the offsets like I feared. There must be a solution here! Isn't this a pretty standard procedure?? I'm willing to forgo Hibernate and use JDBC or whatever it takes. UPDATE 2: the solution I've come up with which works ok, not great, is basically of the form: select * from person where id > <offset> and <other_conditions> limit 1 Since I have other conditions, even all in an index, it's still not as fast as I'd like it to be... so still open for other suggestions..

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• Visual Studio project using the Quality Center API remains in memory

  - by Traveling Tech Guy

  Hi, Currently developing a connector DLL to HP's Quality Center. I'm using their (insert expelative) COM API to connect to the server. An Interop wrapper gets created automatically by VStudio. My solution has 2 projects: the DLL and a tester application - essentially a form with buttons that call functions in the DLL. Everything works well - I can create defects, update them and delete them. When I close the main form, the application stops nicely. But when I call a function that returns a list of all available projects (to fill a combo box), if I close the main form, VStudio still shows the solution as running and I have to stop it. I've managed to pinpoint a single function in my code that when I call, the solution remains "hung" and if I don't, it closes well. It's a call to a property in the TDC object get_VisibleProjects that returns a List (not the .Net one, but a type in the COM library) - I just iterate over it and return a proper list (that I later use to fill the combo box): public List<string> GetAvailableProjects() { List<string> projects = new List<string>(); foreach (string project in this.tdc.get_VisibleProjects(qcDomain)) { projects.Add(project); } return projects; } My assumption is that something gets retained in memory. If I run the EXE outside of VStudio it closes - but who knows what gets left behind in memory? My question is - how do I get rid of whatever calling this property returns? Shouldn't the GC handle this? Do I need to delve into pointers? Things I've tried: getting the list into a variable and setting it to null at the end of the function Adding a destructor to the class and nulling the tdc object Stepping through the tester function application all the way out, whne the form closes and the Main function ends - it closes, but VStudio still shows I'm running. Thanks for your assistance!

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• How can I pass FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie from Data Access Layer Class to WebService to Javas

  - by Reaction21

  I am using DotNetOpenAuth in my ASP.Net Website. I have modified it to work with Facebook Connect as well, using the same methods and database structures. Now I have come across a problem. I have added a Facebook Connect button to a login page. From that HTML button, I have to somehow pull information from the Facebook Connect connection and pass it into a method to authenticate the user. The way I am currently doing this is by: Calling a Javascript Function on the onlogin function of the FBML/HTML Facebook Connect button. The javascript function calls a Web service to login, which it does correctly. The web service calls my data access layer to login. And here is the problem: FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie is set at the data access layer. The Cookie is beyond the scope of the user's page and therefore is not set in the browser. This means that the user is authenticated, but the user's browser is never notified. So, I need to figure out if this is a bad way of doing what I need or if there is a better way to accomplish what I need. I am just not sure and have been trying to find answers for hours. Any help you have would be great.

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