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  • Wrappers of primitive types in arraylist vs arrays

    - by ismail marmoush
    Hi, In "Core java 1" I've read CAUTION: An ArrayList is far less efficient than an int[] array because each value is separately wrapped inside an object. You would only want to use this construct for small collections when programmer convenience is more important than efficiency. But in my software I've already used Arraylist instead of normal arrays due to some requirements, though "The software is supposed to have high performance and after I've read the quoted text I started to panic!" one thing I can change is changing double variables to Double so as to prevent auto boxing and I don't know if that is worth it or not, in next sample algorithm public void multiply(final double val) { final int rows = getSize1(); final int cols = getSize2(); for (int i = 0; i < rows; i++) { for (int j = 0; j < cols; j++) { this.get(i).set(j, this.get(i).get(j) * val); } } } My question is does changing double to Double makes a difference ? or that's a micro optimizing that won't affect anything ? keep in mind I might be using large matrices.2nd Should I consider redesigning the whole program again ?

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  • Old fashioned html onclick return false doesnt in IE work when jquery script included

    - by user292662
    Ok, so im quite new to jquery but found this bizzar problem just now, If we ignore jquery for a second and consider this scenario, if i have two links like below both with an href and both with and onclick event. The first link will not follow the href because the onclick returns false, and the second link will because the onclick returns true. <a href="/page.html" onclick="return false;">Dont follow</a> <a href="/page.html" onclick="return false;">Follow</a> This works just hunky dory in every browser as it should, the thing is, as soon as i include the jQuery script on the page this stops working in all versions of IE which then always follows the href whether the onclick returns false or not. (it continues to work fine in other browsers) Now if i add an event using jquery and call .preventDefault() on the event object instead of doing it the old fashioned way this behaves correctly, and you may say, well just do that then? But i have a site with thousands of lines of code and i am adding jquery support, i dont want to run the risk that i might miss an already defined html onclick="" and break the website. I cant see why jQuery should prevent perfectly normal javascript concepts from working, so is this a jQuery bug or am I missing something?

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  • Reading server error messages for a URLLoader

    - by Rudy
    Hello, I have an URL loader with the following code: public function getUploadURL():void { var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest(); var url:String = getPath(); // Adds time to prevent caching url += "&time=" + new Date().getTime(); request.url = url; request.method = URLRequestMethod.GET; _loader = new URLLoader(); _loader.dataFormat = URLLoaderDataFormat.TEXT; _loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, getBaseURL); _loader.addEventListener(IOErrorEvent.IO_ERROR, onGetUploadURLError); _loader.addEventListener(HTTPStatusEvent.HTTP_STATUS, getHttpStatus); _loader.load(request); } My problem is that this request might be wrong, and so the server will give me a back a 400 Bad Request, with a message to explain the error. If the Event.COMPLETE, I can see some message (a response) back from the server in the "data" field of the Event, but if onGetUploadURLError or getHttpStatus is called, it just says that the error code is 400 but does not show me the message associated with it. The "data" field is undefined in getHttpStatus and it is "" in onGetUploadURLError. On the contrary, in getBaseURL, I get: {"ResponseMetadata":{...}} I checked and I do get a similar response in my browser for a wrong request, but I cannot see it. Any idea how I can please get the message? Thank you very much, Rudy

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  • SQL Server: preventing dirty reads in a stored procedure

    - by pcampbell
    Consider a SQL Server database and its two stored procs: *1. A proc that performs 3 important things in a transaction: Create a customer, call a sproc to perform another insert, and conditionally insert a third record with the new identity. BEGIN TRAN INSERT INTO Customer(CustName) (@CustomerName) SELECT @NewID = SCOPE_IDENTITY() EXEC CreateNewCustomerAccount @NewID, @CustomerPhoneNumber IF @InvoiceTotal > 100000 INSERT INTO PreferredCust(InvoiceTotal, CustID) VALUES (@InvoiceTotal, @NewID) COMMIT TRAN *2. A stored proc which polls the Customer table for new entries that don't have a related PreferredCust entry. The client app performs the polling by calling this stored proc every 500ms. A problem has arisen where the polling stored procedure has found an entry in the Customer table, and returned it as part of its results. The problem was that it has picked up that record, I am assuming, as part of a dirty read. The record ended up having an entry in PreferredCust later, and ended up creating a problem downstream. Question How can you explicitly prevent dirty reads by that second stored proc? The environment is SQL Server 2005 with the default configuration out of the box. No other locking hits are given in either of these stored procedures.

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  • Remove duplicate records/objects uniquely identified by multiple attributes

    - by keruilin
    I have a model called HeroStatus with the following attributes: id user_id recordable_type hero_type (can be NULL!) recordable_id created_at There are over 100 hero_statuses, and a user can have many hero_statuses, but can't have the same hero_status more than once. A user's hero_status is uniquely identified by the combination of recordable_type + hero_type + recordable_id. What I'm trying to say essentially is that there can't be a duplicate hero_status for a specific user. Unfortunately, I didn't have a validation in place to assure this, so I got some duplicate hero_statuses for users after I made some code changes. For example: user_id = 18 recordable_type = 'Evil' hero_type = 'Halitosis' recordable_id = 1 created_at = '2010-05-03 18:30:30' user_id = 18 recordable_type = 'Evil' hero_type = 'Halitosis' recordable_id = 1 created_at = '2009-03-03 15:30:00' user_id = 18 recordable_type = 'Good' hero_type = 'Hugs' recordable_id = 1 created_at = '2009-02-03 12:30:00' user_id = 18 recordable_type = 'Good' hero_type = NULL recordable_id = 2 created_at = '2009-012-03 08:30:00' (Last two are not a dups obviously. First two are.) So what I want to do is get rid of the duplicate hero_status. Which one? The one with the most-recent date. I have three questions: How do I remove the duplicates using a SQL-only approach? How do I remove the duplicates using a pure Ruby solution? Something similar to this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2790004/removing-duplicate-objects. How do I put a validation in place to prevent duplicate entries in the future?

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  • Converted PowerBuilder to ASP.Net browsing Errors

    - by user493325
    I had a powerbuilder application which i converted to web application in the format of ASP.Net (aspx) files. after deploying and publishing the converted web application (copy it and add ASP.Net and network Service AND IUser permissions to enable users to access it) in IIS V6.0 over Windows server 2003 and The ASP.Net version is 2.0 The error messages I get when I browse default.aspx web page are as the following:- Server Error in '/' Application. Runtime Error Description: An application error occurred on the server. The current custom error settings for this application prevent the details of the application error from being viewed remotely (for security reasons). It could, however, be viewed by browsers running on the local server machine. Details: To enable the details of this specific error message to be viewable on remote machines, please create a tag within a "web.config" configuration file located in the root directory of the current web application. This tag should then have its "mode" attribute set to "Off". <!-- Web.Config Configuration File --> <configuration> <system.web> <customErrors mode="Off"/> </system.web> </configuration> Notes: The current error page you are seeing can be replaced by a custom error page by modifying the "defaultRedirect" attribute of the application's configuration tag to point to a custom error page URL. <!-- Web.Config Configuration File --> <configuration> <system.web> <customErrors mode="RemoteOnly" defaultRedirect="mycustompage.htm"/> </system.web> </configuration> Another error message appears on the server is:- Server Error in '/' Application. Configuration Error <roleManager enabled="true"> <membership> </roleManager> Thanks in Advance...

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  • Is Stream.Write thread-safe?

    - by Mike Spross
    I'm working on a client/server library for a legacy RPC implementation and was running into issues where the client would sometimes hang when waiting to a receive a response message to an RPC request message. It turns out the real problem was in my message framing code (I wasn't handling message boundaries correctly when reading data off the underlying NetworkStream), but it also made me suspicious of the code I was using to send data across the network, specifically in the case where the RPC server sends a large amount of data to a client as the result of a client RPC request. My send code uses a BinaryWriter to write a complete "message" to the underlying NetworkStream. The RPC protocol also implements a heartbeat algorithm, where the RPC server sends out PING messages every 15 seconds. The pings are sent out by a separate thread, so, at least in theory, a ping can be sent while the server is in the middle of streaming a large response back to a client. Suppose I have a Send method as follows, where stream is a NetworkStream: public void Send(Message message) { //Write the message to a temporary stream so we can send it all-at-once MemoryStream tempStream = new MemoryStream(); message.WriteToStream(tempStream); //Write the serialized message to the stream. //The BinaryWriter is a little redundant in this //simplified example, but here because //the production code uses it. byte[] data = tempStream.ToArray(); BinaryWriter bw = new BinaryWriter(stream); bw.Write(data, 0, data.Length); bw.Flush(); } So the question I have is, is the call to bw.Write (and by implication the call to the underlying Stream's Write method) atomic? That is, if a lengthy Write is still in progress on the sending thread, and the heartbeat thread kicks in and sends a PING message, will that thread block until the original Write call finishes, or do I have to add explicit synchronization to the Send method to prevent the two Send calls from clobbering the stream?

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  • linux raw socket programming question

    - by user194420
    Hi all, I am trying to create a raw socket which send and receive message with ip/tcp header under linux. I can successfully binds to a port and receive tcp message(ie:syn) However, the message seems to be handled by the os, but not mine. I am just a reader of it(like wireshark). My raw socket binds to port 8888, and then i try to telnet to that port . In wireshark, it shows that the port 8888 reply a "rst ack" when it receive the "syn" request. In my program, it shows that it receive a new message and it doesnot reply with any message. Any way to actually binds to that port?(prevent os handle it) Here is part of my code, i try to cut those error checking for easy reading sockfd = socket(AF_INET, SOCK_RAW, IPPROTO_TCP); int tmp = 1; const int *val = &tmp; setsockopt (sockfd, IPPROTO_IP, IP_HDRINCL, val, sizeof (tmp)); servaddr.sin_family = AF_INET; servaddr.sin_addr.s_addr = htonl(INADDR_ANY); servaddr.sin_port = htons(8888); bind(sockfd, (struct sockaddr*)&servaddr, sizeof(servaddr)); //call recv in loop

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  • How to deal with clients and iterations in Agile team?

    - by Ondrej Slinták
    This thread is a follow up to my previous one. It's in fact 2 questions, so I hope no one minds, as they are dependent on each other. We are starting a new project at work and we consider it as a great opportunity to try Agile techniques in action. We had a brainstorming about ideas we read in several books and articles, and came up with concept that would suit us the best: 2 weeks iteration, followed by call with clients who would choose what stuff they want to have in next iteration. I just have few more questions, which we couldn't figure out ourselves. What to do in the first iteration? What to, generally, do in the first few iterations if we start from the scratch? Just give it a month of development to code core of the application or start with simple wire-frames with limited pre-coded functionality? What usually clients want to see? Shiny stuff that doesn't work or ugly stuff that does work? How to communicate with clients? Our initial thought it to set the process to something like this: Is it a good idea to have a Focal Point on client side or is it better to communicate straight with all the clients to prevent miscommunication? Any thoughts are welcome! Thanks in advance.

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  • jQuery: hover (mouseleave event fired when mouse is over child)

    - by CronosS
    Hi, I want to create a zoom effect on some thumbs. Here is my javascript simplified code : parent.hover( function(){ parent.stop().animate({/* css */}, inputZoomDuration, "linear"); wrapper.stop().animate({/* css */}, inputZoomDuration, "linear"); child.stop().animate({/* css */}, inputZoomDuration, "linear"); }, function(){ alert("leave"); child.stop().animate({/* css */}, 140, "linear"); wrapper.stop().animate({/* css */}, 140, "linear"); parent.stop().animate({/* css */}, 140, "linear"); } ); and the html is like : <div parent> <div wrapper> <div child> </div> </div> </div> I increase the size of all my divs when I over the "parent". But a soon as I over (or leave, btw) one of the child, the alert appears. Without the alert, the result is a very bugy animation. Is there any way to prevent the mouseleave event to be fired when a child is overed? Best regards, thanks.

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  • Copying contents of a MySQL table to a table in another (local) database

    - by Philip Eve
    I have two MySQL databases for my site - one is for a production environment and the other, much smaller, is for a testing/development environment. Both have identical schemas (except when I am testing something I intend to change, of course). A small number of the tables are for internationalisation purposes: TransLanguage - non-English languages TransModule - modules (bundles of phrases for translation, that can be loaded individually by PHP scripts) TransPhrase - individual phrases, in English, for potential translation TranslatedPhrase - translations of phrases that are submitted by volunteers ChosenTranslatedPhrase - screened translations of phrases. The volunteers who do translation are all working on the production site, as they are regular users. I wanted to create a stored procedure that could be used to synchronise the contents of four of these tables - TransLanguage, TransModule, TransPhrase and ChosenTranslatedPhrase - from the production database to the testing database, so as to keep the test environment up-to-date and prevent "unknown phrase" errors from being in the way while testing. My first effort was to create the following procedure in the test database: CREATE PROCEDURE `SynchroniseTranslations` () LANGUAGE SQL NOT DETERMINISTIC MODIFIES SQL DATA SQL SECURITY DEFINER BEGIN DELETE FROM `TransLanguage`; DELETE FROM `TransModule`; INSERT INTO `TransLanguage` SELECT * FROM `PRODUCTION_DB`.`TransLanguage`; INSERT INTO `TransModule` SELECT * FROM `PRODUCTION_DB`.`TransModule`; INSERT INTO `TransPhrase` SELECT * FROM `PRODUCTION_DB`.`TransPhrase`; INSERT INTO `ChosenTranslatedPhrase` SELECT * FROM `PRODUCTION_DB`.`ChosenTranslatedPhrase`; END When I try to run this, I get an error message: "SELECT command denied to user 'username'@'localhost' for table 'TransLanguage'". I also tried to create the procedure to work the other way around (that is, to exist as part of the data dictionary for the production database rather than the test database). If I do it that, way, I get an identical message except it tells me I'm denied the DELETE command rather than SELECT. I have made sure that my user has INSERT, DELETE, SELECT, UPDATE and CREATE ROUTINE privileges on both databases. However, it seems as though MySQL is reluctant to let this user exercise its privileges on both databases at the same time. How come, and is there a way around this?

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  • How can you make a PHP application require a key to work?

    - by jasondavis
    About 4 years ago I used a php product called amember pro, it is a membership script which has plugins for lie 30 different payment processors, it was an easy way to set up an automated membership site where users would pay a payment and get access to a certain area. The script used ioncube http://www.ioncube.com/sa_encoder.php to prevent non-paying users from using the script, it requered that you register the domain that the script would be used on, you were then given a key to enter into the file that would make the system/script work. Now I am wanting to know how to do such a task, I know ioncube encoder just makes it hard to see the code, in the script I mention, they would just have a small section at the tp of 1 of the included pages that was encrypted and without that part of the code it would break and in addition if the owner of the script did not put you domain in the list and give you a valid key it would not work, also if you tried to use the script on a different domain it would not work. I realize that somewhere in the encrypted code that is must of sent you key to there server and checked that it was valid for the domain name it is on, or possibly it did not even do that, maybe the key would just verify that it matched the domain the script was on, that more likely what it did. Here is where the real question is, How would you make a script require the portion that is encrypted? If I made a script and had a small encrypted part at the top, it would seem a user would be able to easily just remove the encrypted part and figure out what the non encrypted part is doing and fix it to work. Any ideas?

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  • Determining when stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished

    - by alku83
    I have a UIWebView which loads up an HTML page. This page has two buttons on it, say Exit and Submit. I don't want users to be able to click the Exit button, so once the page has finished loading (ie. webViewDidFinishLoad is called), I use stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString to remove one of these buttons, by manipulating the HTML. I also disable user interaction on the UIWebView on webViewDidStartLoad, and enable it again on webViewDidFinishLoad. The problem I am finding is that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString takes a second or two to complete, and it seems to be done in it's own thread. So what is happening is that webViewDidFinishLoad is called, user interaction is enabled on the UIWebView, and if the user is quick, they can click the Exit button before stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished. As stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString seems to be on it's own thread with no way to know when it's finished (it doesnt call webViewDidFinishLoad), the only way to completely prevent users from tapping the Exit button that I can see is to only enable user interaction on the UIWebView after some delay, which is unreliable (how can I really know how long to delay for?). Am I correct in that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is done on it's on thread, and I have no way of being able to tell when it's finished? Any other suggestions for how to get around this problem? EDIT: In short, what I want to know is if it is possible to disable a UIWebView while stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is executing, and re-enable the UIWebView when the javascript is finished. EDIT 2: There's an article here which seems to imply you can somehow poll the JS engine to see when it's finished, but I can't find any other references saying the same thing: http://drnicwilliams.com/2008/11/10/to-webkit-or-not-to-webkit-within-your-iphone-app/ EDIT 3 Based on the answer from Brad Smith, it seems that I actually need to know when the UIWebView has finished loading itself after the javascript has executed. It's looking more and more like I just need to put a delay of sorts in there.

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  • Dockable panes created in CChildFrame not visible the second time the app. starts.

    - by Nijenhuis
    Hi, I have created some dockable panes in CChildFrame::OnCreate() The first time i start the application they are shown. The second time i start the application they are created but the splitterwindows are completly against the sides of the clients area (bottom and right), so not visible. So i have to use the mouse to pull the splitters into the clientarea so that the dockable windows become visible again. If i do File-New in my app a new client window is created and showing the dockable windows as they should be. I Think this has something to do with saving the windows layout in the registry, because if i change SetRegistryKey(_T("61sakjgsajkdg")); in the CWinApp derived class of my app. and rerun they are shown again the first time. (but not the second time i restart the app). How can i save the layout of those dockable windows as well, so if i restart my app. they are visible ? Or else how do i prevent my app. of overwritting the window layout with the one previously saved. Something to do with LoadCustomState() and SaveCustomState() ?, i could no find any info on howto implement those methods. I have here a link to the demo project to demonstrate what i mean: http://www.4shared.com/file/237193472/c384f0f6/GUI60.html Could someone tell me how to show those dockable windows in my CChildFrame class the second time the app starts?

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  • Possible to write an Extension Method for ASP.NET's Html.ActionLink() method?

    - by Pretzel
    Right now, I'm trying to work around an IE6/7 bug which requires the wrapping of the </a closing tag with this IE specific comment to make some drop-down menu work: <!--[if IE 7]><!--></a><!--<![endif]--> Unfortunately, I cannot inject this directly into my View page code like this: <%= Html.ActionLink("LinkName<!--[if IE 7]><!--></a><!--<![endif]-->","Action","Controller") %> As Html.ActionLink will do the safe thing and filter out the comment to prevent a Javascript injection attack. Ok, cool. I'm fine with that. Good design decision. What I'd like to do is write an Extension Method to this, but the process is eluding me as I haven't done this before. I thought this would work, but Intellisense doesn't seem to be picking up this Extension method that I've written. public static class MyLinkExtensions { public static string ActionLinkIE(this HtmlHelper htmlHelper, string linkText, string actionName, string controllerName) { return LinkExtensions.ActionLink(htmlHelper, linkText, actionName, controllerName). Replace(@"</a>", @"<!--[if IE 7]><!--></a><!--<![endif]-->"); } } Any suggestions?

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  • MS hotfix delayed delivery.

    - by MOE37x3
    I just requested a hotfix from support.microsoft.com and put in my email address, but I haven't received the email yet. The splash page I got after I requested the hotfix said: Hotfix Confirmation We will send these hotfixes to the following e-mail address: (my correct email address) Usually, our hotfix e-mail is delivered to you within five minutes. However, sometimes unforeseen issues in e-mail delivery systems may cause delays. We will send the e-mail from the “[email protected]” e-mail account. If you use an e-mail filter or a SPAM blocker, we recommend that you add “[email protected]” or the “microsoft.com” domain to your safe senders list. (The safe senders list is also known as a whitelist or an approved senders list.) This will help prevent our e-mail from going into your junk e-mail folder or being automatically deleted. I'm sure that the email is not getting caught in a spam catcher. How long does it normally take to get one of these hotfixes? Am I waiting for some human to approve it, or something? Should I just give up and try to get the file I need some other way? (Update: Replaced "[email protected]" with "(my correct email address)" to resolve Martín Marconcini's ambiguity.)

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  • Preventing a button from responding to 'Enter' in ASP.net

    - by kd7iwp
    I have a master template that all the pages on my site use. In the template there is an empty panel. In the code-behind for the page an imagebutton is created in the panel dynamically in my Page_Load section (makes a call to the DB to determine which button should appear via my controller). On some pages that use this template and have forms on them, pressing the Enter key fires the click event on this imagebutton rather than the submit button in the form. Is there a simple way to prevent the imagebutton click event from firing unless it's clicked by the mouse? I'm thinking a javascript method is a hack, especially since the button doesn't even exist in the master template until the button is dynamically created on Page_Load (this is ugly since I can't simply do <% =btnName.ClientId %> to refer to the button's name in my aspx page). I tried setting a super-high tabindex for the image button and that did nothing. Also set the button to be the DefaultButton in its panel on the master template but that did not work either.

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  • curl cookie not creating on success

    - by Bin
    Hi I'm using cUrl(PHP) to post a login request and store response in cookie file. In my second request I'm passing cookie in header and post data to verify it. Issue is that cookie file is not created in first succesful request results in failure for second request. Please suggest me where I'm doing wrong. $cookiefile="/var/www/html/dimdim/cook.txt"; $url_log="http://my.dimdim.com/api/auth/login"; $p_log='request={"account":"bin6k","password":"password","group":"all"}'; $url_ver="http://my.dimdim.com/api/auth/verify"; $p_ver='request={"account":"bin6k","password":"password","group":"all"}'; $ch = curl_init(); //curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, $cookiefile); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL,$url_log); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $p_log); ob_start(); // prevent any output $retval=curl_exec ($ch); // execute the curl command ob_end_clean(); // stop preventing output curl_close ($ch); //print_r($retval); unset($ch); $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER,1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, $cookiefile); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL,$url_ver); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $p_log); $buf2 = curl_exec ($ch); curl_close ($ch); echo "".htmlentities($buf2);

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  • Storing float numbers as strings in android database

    - by sandis
    So I have an app where I put arbitrary strings in a database and later extract them like this: Cursor DBresult = myDatabase.query(false, Constant.DATABASE_NOTES_TABLE_NAME, new String[] {"myStuff"}, where, null, null, null, null, null); DBresult.getString(0); This works fine in all cases except for when the string looks like a float number, for example "221.123123123". After saving it to the database I can extract the database to my computer and look inside it with a DB-viewer, and the saved number is correct. However, when using cursor.getString() the string "221.123" is returned. I cant for the life of me understand how I can prevent this. I guess I could do a cursor.getDouble() on every single string to see if this gives a better result, but that feels sooo ugly and inefficient. Any suggestions? Cheers, edit: I just made a small test program. This program prints "result: 123.123", when I would like it to print "result: 123.123123123" SQLiteDatabase database = openOrCreateDatabase("databas", Context.MODE_PRIVATE, null); database.execSQL("create table if not exists tabell (nyckel string primary key);"); ContentValues value = new ContentValues(); value.put("nyckel", "123.123123123"); database.insert("tabell", null, value); Cursor result = database.query("tabell", new String[]{"nyckel"}, null, null, null, null, null); result.moveToFirst(); Log.d("TAG","result: " + result.getString(0));

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  • Script to install and compile Python, Django, Virtualenv, Mercurial, Git, LessCSS, etc... on Dreamho

    - by tmslnz
    The Story After cleaning up my Dreamhost shared server's home folder from all the cruft accumulated over time, I decided to start afresh and compile/reinstall Python. All tutorials and snippets I found seemed overly simplistic, assuming (or ignoring) a bunch of dependencies needed by Python to compile all modules correctly. So, starting from http://andrew.io/weblog/2010/02/installing-python-2-6-virtualenv-and-virtualenvwrapper-on-dreamhost/ (so far the best guide I found), I decided to write a set-and-forget Bash script to automate this painful process, including along the way a bunch of other things I am planning to use. The Script I am hosting the script on http://bitbucket.org/tmslnz/python-dreamhost-batch/src/ The TODOs So far it runs fine, and does all it needs to do in about 900 seconds, giving me at the end of the process a fully functional Python / Mercurial / etc... setup without even needing to log out and back in. I though this might be of use for others too, but there are a few things that I think it's missing and I am not quite sure how to go for it, what's the best way to do it, or if this just doesn't make any sense at all. Check for errors and break Check for minor version bumps of the packages and give warnings Check for known dependencies Use arguments to install only some of the packages instead of commenting out lines Organise the code in a manner that's easy to update Optionally make the installers and compiling silent, with error logging to file failproof .bashrc modification to prevent breaking ssh logins and having to log back via FTP to fix it EDIT: The implied question is: can anyone, more bashful than me, offer general advice on the worthiness of the above points or highlight any problems they see with this approach? (see my answer to Ry4an's comment below) The Gist I am no UNIX or Bash or compiler expert, and this has been built iteratively, by trial and error. It is somehow going towards apt-get (well, 1% of it...), but since Dreamhost and others obviously cannot give root access on shared servers, this looks to me like a potentially very useful workaround; particularly so with some community work involved.

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  • Compiling a click-once app that requires administrator?

    - by Assimilater
    Hi, a lot of my programs require the ability to write files to the hard drive. When I first made these programs for XP they worked great. Now I'm less ignorant about UAC (got a new laptop recently). And for future customers...I've noticed the potential for a LOT of annoying error messages....and quite frankly if the program can't write data to the hard drive or thumb drive it's on...there's no point to running it.... I've tried multiple times to build in the manifest a requirement for administrator or user access....I'm not sure if anything less would solve the problem...but have failed because click-once has security features in place to prevent me from doing so. I'd rather not have to tell my customers how to make the program run as an administrator by editing the file's properties...I'd much rather have a convenient pop up like what you'd see new programs such as Itunes or Filezilla show if they were in conflict with UAC requesting the privileges they need. I'd really like to do this but have had little success. Any and all advice that can remedy this grievous problem appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Web service performing asynchronous call

    - by kornelijepetak
    I have a webservice method FetchNumber() that fetches a number from a database and then returns it to the caller. But just before it returns the number to the caller, it needs to send this number to another service so instantiates and runs the BackgroundWorker whose job is to send this number to another service. public class FetchingNumberService : System.Web.Services.WebService { [WebMethod] public int FetchNumber() { int value = Database.GetNumber(); AsyncUpdateNumber async = new AsyncUpdateNumber(value); return value; } } public class AsyncUpdateNumber { public AsyncUpdateNumber(int number) { sendingNumber = number; worker = new BackgroundWorker(); worker.DoWork += asynchronousCall; worker.RunWorkerAsync(); } private void asynchronousCall(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { // Sending a number to a service (which is Synchronous) here } private int sendingNumber; private BackgroundWorker worker; } I don't want to block the web service (FetchNumber()) while sending this number to another service, because it can take a long time and the caller does not care about sending the number to another service. Caller expects this to return as soon as possible. FetchNumber() makes the background worker and runs it, then finishes (while worker is running in the background thread). I don't need any progress report or return value from the background worker. It's more of a fire-and-forget concept. My question is this. Since the web service object is instantiated per method call, what happens when the called method (FetchNumber() in this case) is finished, while the background worker it instatiated and ran is still running? What happens to the background thread? When does GC collect the service object? Does this prevent the background thread from executing correctly to the end? Are there any other side-effects on the background thread? Thanks for any input.

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  • What's the order of execution in property setters when using IDataErrorInfo?

    - by Benny Jobigan
    Situation: Many times with WPF, we use INotifyPropertyChanged and IDataErrorInfo to enable binding and validation on our data objects. I've got a lot of properties that look like this: public SomeObject SomeData { get { return _SomeData; } set { _SomeData = value; OnPropertyChanged("SomeData"); } } Of course, I have an appropriate overridden IDataErrorInfo.this[] in my class to do validation. Question: In a binding situation, when does the validation code get executed? When is the property set? When is the setter code executed? What if the validation fails? For example: User enters new data. Binding writes data to property. Property set method is executed. Binding checks this[] for validation. If the data is invalid, the binding sets the property back to the old value. Property set method is executed again. This is important if you are adding "hooks" into the set method, like: public string PathToFile { get { return _PathToFile; } set { if (_PathToFile != value && // prevent unnecessary actions OnPathToFileChanging(value)) // allow subclasses to do something or stop the setter { _PathToFile = value; OnPathToFileChanged(); // allow subclasses to do something afterwards OnPropertyChanged("PathToFile"); } } }

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  • Why do InterruptedExceptions clear a thread's interrupted status?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    If a thread is interrupted while inside Object.wait() or Thread.join(), it throws an InterruptedException, which resets the thread's interrupted status. I. e., if I have a loop like this inside a Runnable.run(): while (!this._workerThread.isInterrupted()) { // do something try { synchronized (this) { this.wait(this._waitPeriod); } } catch (InterruptedException e) { if (!this._isStopping()) { this._handleFault(e); } } } the thread will continue to run after calling interrupt(). This means I have to explicitly break out of the loop by checking for my own stop flag in the loop condition, rethrow the exception, or add a break. Now, this is not exactly a problem, since this behaviour is well documented and doesn't prevent me from doing anything the way I want. However, I don't seem to understand the concept behind it: Why is a thread not considered interrupted anymore once the exception has been thrown? A similar behaviour also occurs if you get the interrupted status with interrupted() instead of isInterrupted(), then, too, the thread will only appear interrupted once. Am I doing something unusual here? For example, is it more common to catch the InterruptedException outside the loop? (Even though I'm not exactly a beginner, I tagged this "beginner", because it seems like a very basic question to me, looking at it.)

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  • Stored Procedure Does Not Fire Last Command

    - by jp2code
    On our SQL Server (Version 10.0.1600), I have a stored procedure that I wrote. It is not throwing any errors, and it is returning the correct values after making the insert in the database. However, the last command spSendEventNotificationEmail (which sends out email notifications) is not being run. I can run the spSendEventNotificationEmail script manually using the same data, and the notifications show up, so I know it works. Is there something wrong with how I call it in my stored procedure? [dbo].[spUpdateRequest](@packetID int, @statusID int output, @empID int, @mtf nVarChar(50)) AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @id int SET @id=-1 -- Insert statements for procedure here SELECT A.ID, PacketID, StatusID INTO #act FROM Action A JOIN Request R ON (R.ID=A.RequestID) WHERE (PacketID=@packetID) AND (StatusID=@statusID) IF ((SELECT COUNT(ID) FROM #act)=0) BEGIN -- this statusID has not been entered. Continue SELECT ID, MTF INTO #req FROM Request WHERE PacketID=@packetID WHILE (0 < (SELECT COUNT(ID) FROM #req)) BEGIN SELECT TOP 1 @id=ID FROM #req INSERT INTO Action (RequestID, StatusID, EmpID, DateStamp) VALUES (@id, @statusID, @empID, GETDATE()) IF ((@mtf IS NOT NULL) AND (0 < LEN(RTRIM(@mtf)))) BEGIN UPDATE Request SET MTF=@mtf WHERE ID=@id END DELETE #req WHERE ID=@id END DROP TABLE #req SELECT @id=@@IDENTITY, @statusID=StatusID FROM Action SELECT TOP 1 @statusID=ID FROM Status WHERE (@statusID<ID) AND (-1 < Sequence) EXEC spSendEventNotificationEmail @packetID, @statusID, 'http:\\cpweb:8100\NextStep.aspx' END ELSE BEGIN SET @statusID = -1 END DROP TABLE #act END Idea of how the data tables are connected:

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