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  • Clipboard Copy-Paste doesn't work on Win Server 2008/Vista 64bit

    - by Itay Levin
    Hi, I am trying to use Clipboard API (in Delphi) to extract images from Word documents. my code works OK in Windows XP/2003 but in windows 2008 64 bit it doesn't work. in win 2008 i get an error saying that Clipboard.Formats is empty and doesn't contain any format. The image seems to be copied to the Clipboard (i can see it in the clipboard via Word) but when i try to ask the clipboard what format does he have it said it doesn't have any formats. how can i access the clipboard programmatically on win 2008/Vista? from what i know of 2008 64 bit, it might be a security issue... here is the code snippet: This is how i am trying to copy the Image to the clipboard: W.ActiveDocument.InlineShapes.Item(1).Select; // W is a word ole object W.Selection.Copy; and this is how i try to paste it. Clipboard.Open; Write2DebugFile('FormatCount = ' + IntToStr(Clipboard.FormatCount)); // FormatCount=0 For JJ := 1 to Clipboard.FormatCount Do Write2DebugFile('#'+ IntToStr(JJ) + ':' + IntToStr(Clipboard.Formats[JJ])); If (Clipboard.HasFormat(CF_BITMAP)) or (Clipboard.HasFormat(CF_PICTURE)) or (Clipboard.HasFormat(CF_METAFILEPICT)) then // all HasFormat calls returns false. Begin Jpeg := TJPEGImage.Create; Bitmap := TBitmap.Create; Bitmap.LoadFromClipboardFormat(cf_BitMap,ClipBoard.GetAsHandle(cf_Bitmap),0); Jpeg.Assign(Bitmap); Jpeg.SaveToFile(JpgFileN); try Jpeg.Free; except; end; ResizeImage(JpgFileN,750); Write2DebugFile('Saving ' + JpgFileN); End else Write2DebugFile('Doesnt have the right format'); Thanks in advance, Itay

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  • Linux Kernel programming: trying to get vm_area_struct->vm_start crashes kernel

    - by confusedKid
    Hi, this is for an assignment at school, where I need to determine the size of the processes on the system using a system call. My code is as follows: ... struct task_struct *p; struct vm_area_struct *v; struct mm_struct *m; read_lock(&tasklist_lock); for_each_process(p) { printk("%ld\n", p->pid); m = p->mm; v = m->mmap; long start = v->vm_start; printk("vm_start is %ld\n", start); } read_unlock(&tasklist_lock); ... When I run a user level program that calls this system call, the output that I get is: 1 vm_start is 134512640 2 EIP: 0073:[<0806e352] CPU: 0 Not tainted ESP: 007b:0f7ecf04 EFLAGS: 00010246 Not tainted EAX: 00000000 EBX: 0fc587c0 ECX: 081fbb58 EDX: 00000000 ESI: bf88efe0 EDI: 0f482284 EBP: 0f7ecf10 DS: 007b ES: 007b 081f9bc0: [<08069ae8] show_regs+0xb4/0xb9 081f9bec: [<080587ac] segv+0x225/0x23d 081f9c8c: [<08058582] segv_handler+0x4f/0x54 081f9cac: [<08067453] sig_handler_common_skas+0xb7/0xd4 081f9cd4: [<08064748] sig_handler+0x34/0x44 081f9cec: [<080648b5] handle_signal+0x4c/0x7a 081f9d0c: [<08066227] hard_handler+0xf/0x14 081f9d1c: [<00776420] 0x776420 Kernel panic - not syncing: Kernel mode fault at addr 0x0, ip 0x806e352 EIP: 0073:[<400ea0f2] CPU: 0 Not tainted ESP: 007b:bf88ef9c EFLAGS: 00000246 Not tainted EAX: ffffffda EBX: 00000000 ECX: bf88efc8 EDX: 080483c8 ESI: 00000000 EDI: bf88efe0 EBP: bf88f038 DS: 007b ES: 007b 081f9b28: [<08069ae8] show_regs+0xb4/0xb9 081f9b54: [<08058a1a] panic_exit+0x25/0x3f 081f9b68: [<08084f54] notifier_call_chain+0x21/0x46 081f9b88: [<08084fef] __atomic_notifier_call_chain+0x17/0x19 081f9ba4: [<08085006] atomic_notifier_call_chain+0x15/0x17 081f9bc0: [<0807039a] panic+0x52/0xd8 081f9be0: [<080587ba] segv+0x233/0x23d 081f9c8c: [<08058582] segv_handler+0x4f/0x54 081f9cac: [<08067453] sig_handler_common_skas+0xb7/0xd4 081f9cd4: [<08064748] sig_handler+0x34/0x44 081f9cec: [<080648b5] handle_signal+0x4c/0x7a 081f9d0c: [<08066227] hard_handler+0xf/0x14 081f9d1c: [<00776420] 0x776420 The first process (pid = 1) gave me the vm_start without any problems, but when I try to access the second process, the kernel crashes. Can anyone tell me what's wrong, and maybe how to fix it as well? Thanks a lot! (sorry for the bad formatting....) edit: This is done in a Fedora 2.6 core in an uml environment.

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  • Why does Http Web Request and IWebProxy work at wierd times

    - by Mike Webb
    Another question about Web proxy. Here is my code: IWebProxy Proxya = System.Net.WebRequest.GetSystemWebProxy(); Proxya.Credentials = CredentialCache.DefaultNetworkCredentials; HttpWebRequest rqst = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(targetServer); rqst.Proxy = Proxya; rqst.Timeout = 5000; try { rqst.GetResponse(); } catch(WebException wex) { connectErrMsg = wex.Message; proxyworks = false; } This code fails the first time it is called. After that on successive calls it works sometimes, but not others. It also never hits the catch block. Now the weird part. If I add a MessageBox.Show(msg) call in the first section of code before the GetResponse() call this all will work every time. Here is an example: try { // ========Here is where I make the call and get the response======== System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show("Getting Response"); // ========This makes the whole thing work every time======== rqst.GetResponse(); } catch(WebException wex) { connectErrMsg = wex.Message; proxyworks = false; } I'm baffled about why it is behaving this way. I don't know if the timeout is not working (it's in milliseconds, not seconds, so should timeout after 5 seconds, right?...) or what is going on. The most confusing this is that the message box call makes it all work. So any help and suggestions on what is happening is appreciated. These are the kind of bugs that drive me absolutely out of my mind.

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  • Navigating between pages in a Facebook Platform iframe application

    - by Jimmy Cuadra
    I'm working on a Facebook Platform application that runs in iframe mode, and I'm having trouble understanding how to navigate between pages within the app. Let's say the first page that is loaded within the iframe at my canvas URL is one.html. Within that page, there is a link to two.html that just changes the source of the iframe and doesn't reload the Facebook chrome. When I do this, all the Facebook fb_sig_* query string parameters that Facebook passes to the original page aren't included, and so two.html has no awareness of the connection to Facebook and no ability to make API calls to generate the content for the page. One possible solution would be to manually extract all the Facebook parameters from one.html and append it to the link to two.html myself. This seems really ugly and I figured there had to be a cleaner way. For reference, my application is written in Perl and uses the WWW::Facebook::API module as a client library. I didn't see anything in it that I can use to easily reconstruct the Facebook parameters for use with links in iframe apps. Another possible solution would be to store all the Facebook parameters in a session on my server on the first page load, and just use the values in that session on subsequent page views. But what happens if the data I've stored no longer matches what Facebook would have sent if it were a completely new request (i.e. something in the user's Facebook session changed)? Is there something obvious I'm missing? What is the standard approach to navigating between pages within an iframe app? Facebook's documentation is atrocious and I haven't been able to find anything that clearly explains how this works. I also realize this wouldn't be an issue with an app using FBML instead of an iframe, but my understanding is that iframe apps are now encouraged over FBML apps, though again this seems ambiguous since so much of Facebook's documentation is outdated and contradictory.

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  • Django: Using 2 different AdminSite instances with different models registered

    - by omat
    Apart from the usual admin, I want to create a limited admin for non-staff users. This admin site will have different registered ModelAdmins. I created a folder /useradmin/ in my project directory and similar to contrib/admin/_init_.py I added an autodiscover() which will register models defined in useradmin.py modules instead of admin.py: # useradmin/__init__.py def autodiscover(): # Same as admin.autodiscover() but registers useradmin.py modules ... for app in settings.INSTALLED_APPS: mod = import_module(app) try: before_import_registry = copy.copy(site._registry) import_module('%s.useradmin' % app) except: site._registry = before_import_registry if module_has_submodule(mod, 'useradmin'): raise I also cretated sites.py under useradmin/ to override AdminSite similar to contrib/admin/sites: # useradmin/sites.py class UserAdminSite(AdminSite): def has_permission(self, request): # Don't care if the user is staff return request.user.is_active def login(self, request): # Do the login stuff but don't care if the user is staff if request.user.is_authenticated(): ... else: ... site = UserAdminSite(name='useradmin') In the project's URLs: # urls.py from django.contrib import admin import useradmin admin.autodiscover() useradmin.autodiscover() urlpatterns = patterns('', (r'^admin/', include(admin.site.urls)), (r'^useradmin/', include(useradmin.site.urls)), ) And I try to register different models in admin.py and useradmin.py modules under app directories: # products/useradmin.py import useradmin class ProductAdmin(useradmin.ModelAdmin): pass useradmin.site.register(Product, ProductAdmin) But when registering models in useradmin.py like useradmin.site.register(Product, ProductAdmin), I get 'module' object has no attribute 'ModelAdmin' exception. Though when I try this via shell; import useradmin from useradmin import ModelAdmin does not raise any exception. Any ideas what might be wrong? Edit: I tried going the @Luke way and arranged the code as follows as minimal as possible: (file paths are relative to the project root) # admin.py from django.contrib.admin import autodiscover from django.contrib.admin.sites import AdminSite user_site = AdminSite(name='useradmin') # urls.py (does not even have url patterns; just calls autodiscover()) import admin admin.autodiscover() # products/admin.py import admin from products.models import Product admin.user_site.register(Product) As a result I get an AttributeError: 'module' object has no attribute 'user_site' when admin.user_site.register(Product) in products/admin.py is called. Any ideas? Solution: I don't know if there are better ways but, renaming the admin.py in the project root to useradmin.py and updating the imports accordingly resolved the last case, which was a naming and import conflict.

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  • FindByIdentity in System.DirectoryServices.AccountManagment Memory Issues

    - by MVC Fanatic
    I'm working on an active directory managament application. In addition to the typical Create A New User, Enable/Disable an account, reset my password etc. it also managages application permissions for all of the clients web applications. Application management is handled by thousands of AD groups such as which are built from 3 letter codes for the application, section and site, there are also hundreds of AD groups which determine which applications and locations a coordinator can grant rights to. All of these groups in turn belong to other groups so I typically filter the groups list with the MemberOf property to find the groups that a user directly belongs to (or everyone has rights to do everything). I've made extensive use of the System.DirectoryServices.AccountManagment namespace using the FindByIdentity method in 31 places throughout the application. This method calls a private method FindPrincipalByIdentRefHelper on the internal ADStoreCtx class. A SearchResultCollection is created but not disposed so eventually typically once or twice a day the web server runs out of memory and all of the applications on the web server stop responsing until iis is reset because the resources used by the com objects aren't ever relased. There are places where I fall back to the underlying directory objects, but there are lot of places where I'm using the properties on the Principal - it's a vast improvement over using the esoteric ad property names in the .Net 2.0 Directory services code. I've contacted microsoft about the problem and it's been fixed in .Net 4.0 but they don't currently have plans to fix it in 3.5 unless there is intrest in the community about it. I only found information about it in a couple of places the MDSN documentation in the community content state's there is a memory leak at the bottom (guess I should have read that before using the the method) http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb345628.aspx And the class in question is internal and doesn't expose SearchResultsCollection outside the offending method so I can't get at the results to dispose them or inherit from the class and override the method. So my questions are Has anyone else encountered this problem? If so were you able to work around it? Do I have any option besides rewriting the application not using any of the .Net 3.5 active directory code? Thanks

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  • VS2010 / Target Framework = 3.5 / Building on Continuous Integration Server

    - by granadaCoder
    I'm checking into upgrading to VS2010. Our production servers only have 3.5 Framework and it will be 6-9 months before they are updated. We also have a Continuous Integration Server, running CruiseControl.NET (CC.NET). It has the 3.5 Framework on it as well. Our implementation of CC.NET mainly calls msbuild.exe MySolution.msbuild. (We encapsulate most of the build logic into .msbuild files fyi) Inside the .msbuild file, the following is the "Build" syntax: < Target Name="Build" DependsOnTargets="Checkout" < MSBuild Projects="$(WorkingCheckout)\MySolution.sln" Targets="Build" Properties="Configuration=$(Configuration)" < Output TaskParameter="TargetOutputs" ItemName="TargetOutputsItemName"< /Output < /MSBuild < /Target (A few spaces added to make it display here) =========== I know the VS2010 can "Target" the 3.5 Framework. My question is what happens when I have a VS2010 dev machine, and I check the VS2010 .sln and .csproj(s) files into source control (svn, btw).....will the CC.NET machine ~~which only have the 3.5 Framework installed on it........be able to build the .sln ? I guess I could test it, but the catch22 is that I don't have VS2010 (yet). So I'm asking before I try (the trial or a real install. ............. Any ideas what will happen? I guess the crux question is, what will happen. c:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v3.5\MSBuild.exe "MyVS2010SolutionFile.sln" ?? My hopeful goal would be, allow the developers to have VS2010 (now!), and it still be "ok" for the CC.NET machine and the Production Servers which will only have the 3.5 Framework on them for the foreseeable future. Just to be clear, developers NEVER create deployable builds. Only the CC.NET machine produces builds that will be pushed as production builds. Any help?

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  • RIA Services: Inserting multiple presentation-model objects

    - by nlawalker
    I'm sharing data via RIA services using a presentation model on top of LINQ to SQL classes. On the Silverlight client, I created a couple of new entities (album and artist), associated them with each other (by either adding the album to the artist's album collection, or setting the Artist property on the album - either one works), added them to the context, and submitted changes. On the server, I get two separate Insert calls - one for the album and one for the artist. These entitites are new so their ID values are both set to the default int value (0 - keep in mind that depending on my DB, this could be a valid ID in the DB) because as far as I know you don't set IDs for new entities on the client. This all would work fine if I was transferring the LINQ to SQL classes via my RIA services, because even though the Album insert includes the Artist and the Artist insert includes the Album, both are Entities and the L2S context recognizes them. However, with my custom presentation model objects, I need to convert them back to the LINQ to SQL classes maintaining the associations in the process so they can be added to the L2S context. Put simply, as far as I can tell, this is impossible. Each entity gets its own Insert call, but there's no way you can just insert the one entity because without IDs the associations are lost. If the database used GUID identifiers it would be a different story because I could set those on the client. Is this possible, or should I be pursuing another design?

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  • Practical value for concurrent-request-timeout parameter

    - by Andrei
    In the Seam Reference Guide, one can find this paragraph: We can set a sensible default for the concurrent request timeout (in ms) in components.xml: <core:manager concurrent-request-timeout="500" /> However, we found that 500 ms is not nearly enough time for most of the cases we had to deal with, especially with the severe restriction seam places on conversation access. In our application we have a combination of page scoped ajax requests (triggered by various use actions), some global scoped polling notification logic (part of the header, so included in every page) and regular links that invoke actions and/or navigate to other pages. Therefore, we get the dreaded concurrent access to conversation exception way too often, even without any significant load on the site. After researching the options for quite a bit, we ended up bumping this value to several seconds (we're debating whether to bump it up to 10s), as none of the recommended solutions seemed able to solve our issue completely (even forcing a global queue for all the ajax requests would still leave us exposed to a user deciding to click a link right when one of our polling calls was in progress). And we'd much rather have the users wait for a second or two instead of getting an error page just because they clicked a link at the wrong moment. And now to the question: is there something obvious we're missing (like a way to allow concurrent access to conversations and taking care of the needed locking ourselves, for instance :)? How do people solve this problem (ajax requests mixed with user driven interaction) in seam? Disabling all the links on the page while ajax requests are in progress (as suggested by one blog page) is really not a viable option. Any other suggestions? TIA, Andrei

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  • Cocoa memory management

    - by silvio
    At various points during my application's workflow, I need so show a view. That view is quite memory intensive, so I want it to be deallocated when it gets discarded by the user. So, I wrote the following code: - (MyView *)myView { if (myView != nil) return myView; myView = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero]; // allocate memory if necessary. // further init here return myView; } - (void)discardView { [myView discard]; // the discard methods puts the view offscreen. [myView release]; // free memory! } - (void)showView { view = [self myView]; // more code that puts the view onscreen. } Unfortunately, this methods only works the first time. Subsequent requests to put the view onscreen result in "message sent to deallocated instance" errors. Apparently, a deallocated instance isn't the same thing as nil. I thought about putting an additional line after [myView release] that reads myView = nil. However, that could result in errors (any calls to myView after that line would probably yield errors). So, how can I solve this problem?

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  • WCF Service Client Lifetime

    - by Burt
    I have a WPF appliction that uses WCF services to make calls to the server. I use this property in my code to access the service private static IProjectWcfService ProjectService { get { _projectServiceFactory = new ProjectWcfServiceFactory(); return _projectServiceFactory.Create(); } } The Create on the factory looks like this public IProjectWcfService Create() { _serviceClient = new ProjectWcfServiceClient(); //ToDo: Need some way of saving username and password _serviceClient.ClientCredentials.UserName.UserName = "Brendan"; _serviceClient.ClientCredentials.UserName.Password = "password"; return _serviceClient; } To access the service methods I use somethingn like the following. ProjectService.Save(dto); Is this a good approach for what I am trying to do? I am getting an errorthat I can't track down that I think may be realted to having too many service client connections open (is this possible?) notice I never close the service client or reuse it. What would the best practice for WCF service client's be for WPF calling? Thanks in advance...

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  • Rotate and Save Image - C#

    - by Taylor
    Hello, I'm trying to rotate and save an image, along with returning a BitmapSource. I pass in the rotation value (90 or -90) and the full path to the image I want to rotate to the method shown here. It works fine if I start and stop my application between calling this method. however, if the application calls rotate multiple times the rotate only happens once. I know the original image must be cached in memory, because if I pass values 90, 180, 270 I see the rotations work. I want to be able to pass in a value of 90 or -90 and have that rotate and save the original image. How can I make the rotate work for each call? Is there a way to clear the cached value of the image? If I don't set the BitmapCacheOption to OnLoad, I am unable to transform and save the image since the image is "being used by another process". public BitmapImage Rotate(int val, string path) { //create a new image from existing file. Image image = new Image(); BitmapImage logo = new BitmapImage(); logo.BeginInit(); logo.CacheOption = BitmapCacheOption.OnLoad; logo.UriSource = new Uri(path); logo.EndInit(); image.Source = logo; BitmapSource img = (BitmapSource)(image.Source); //rotate image and save CachedBitmap cache = new CachedBitmap(img, BitmapCreateOptions.None, BitmapCacheOption.OnLoad); TransformedBitmap tb = new TransformedBitmap(cache, new RotateTransform(val)); TiffBitmapEncoder encoder = new TiffBitmapEncoder(); encoder.Frames.Add(BitmapFrame.Create(tb)); using (FileStream file = File.OpenWrite(path)) { encoder.Save(file); } //update page view BitmapImage bi = new BitmapImage(); bi.BeginInit(); bi.CacheOption = BitmapCacheOption.OnLoad; bi.UriSource = new Uri(path); bi.EndInit(); return bi; }

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  • JQuery how to resubmit form after ajax call success

    - by Steven Rosato
    I am using JQuery to perform form submission through an ajax request. I use form.submit(function() { if( success ) { return true; } validate(); //proceeds to an ajax call return false; } On request success I want to either proceed with form submission or user callback. Therefore, if the user callback is undefined, I will submit the form on form validation success (from my validate function). config = { successCallback: function() { success = true; form.submit(); //does not work } }; validate = function() { $.ajax( ... success: function(data) { //code logic config.successCallback(); } ); }; The ajax success callback will call config.successCallback() and if it was never overridden by the user, it would proceed to normal form submission. I tried using an instance variable (success) to make sure 'return true' would proceed to default form submission. Unfortunately this is not working. It seems that the 'return false' statement that prevents default form submission will neglect any further submit calls even if an instance variable was set. It only works after clicking the submit button another time (that makes it twice for it to work). Is there any workaround for this. I want to both use a user callback when provided but proceed with default form submission when not, and since I am using an ajax function to validate the form, the ajax success callback is complicating things.

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  • Silverlight 4, Out of browser, Printing, Automatic updates

    - by minal
    I have a very critial business application presently running using Winforms. The application is a very core UI shell. It accepts input data, calls a webservice on my server to do the computation, displays the results on the winforms app and finally send a print stream to the printer. Presently the application is deployed using Click-once. Moving forward, I am trying to contemplate wheather I should move the application into a Silverlight application. Couple of reasons I am thinking silverlight. Gives clients the feel that it is a cloud based solution. Can be accessed from any PC. While the clickonce app is able to do this as well, they have to install an app, and when updates are available they have to click "Yes" to update. The application presently has a drop down list of customers, this list has expanded to over 3000 records. Scrolling through the list is very painful. With Silverlight I am thinking of the auto complete ability. Out of the browser - this will be handy for those users who use the app daily. I haven't used Silverlight previous hence looking for some expert advice on a few things: Printing - does silverlight allow sending raw print data to the printer. The application prints to a Zebra Thermal label printer. I have to send raw bytes to the printer with the commands. Can this be done with SL, or will it always prompt the "Print" dialog? Out of browser - when SL apps are installed as out of browser, how to updates come through, does the app update automatically or is the user prompted to opt for update?

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  • Loading JSON-encoded AJAX content into jQuery UI tabs

    - by pocketfullofcheese
    We want our of our AJAX calls in our web app to receive JSON-encoded content. In most places this is already done (e.g. in modals) and works fine. However, when using jQueryUI's tabs (http://jqueryui.com/demos/tabs/) and their ajax functionality, only plaintext HTML can be returned (i.e. from the URLs specified in the a tags below). How do I get the tab function to recognize that on each tab's click, it will be receiving JSON-encoded data from the specified URL, and to load in the .content index of that JSON? $(function() { $('div#myTabs').tabs(); }); <div id="mytabs" class="ui-tabs ui-widget ui-widget-content ui-corner-all"> <ul class="ui-tabs-nav ui-helper-reset ui-helper-clearfix ui-widget-header ui-corner-all"> <li class="ui-state-default ui-corner-top"><a href="/url/one">Tab one</a></li> <li class="ui-state-default ui-corner-top"><a href="/url/two">Tab two</a></li> </ul> </div>

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  • MVC ASP.NET, ObjectContext and Ajax. Weird Behaviour

    - by fabianadipolo
    Hi, i've been creating a web application in mvc asp.net. I have three different project/solutions. One solution contains the model in EF (DAL) and all the methods to add, update, delete and query the objects in the model, the objectcontext is managed here in a per request basis. Other solution contains a content management system in wich authorized users insert, delete, update and access objects through the DAL mentioned before. And the last solution contains the web page that is accessed by all users and where the only operations executed are selects, no update, inserts or deletes here. All the selects are executed against the DAL mentioned before (the first solution). The problem here is that i'm not sure whether an HttpContext lifespan ObjectContext is the best solution. I have a lot of ajax calls in my web app and i'm not sure if an httpcontext could interfere with the performance of the application. I've been noticed that in some cases, specially when someone is working in the content manager inserting, updating or deleting, when you try to click on any link of the user web application (the web app that is accessed by any user - the third one that i mentioned before) the web page freezes and it remains stucked transferring data. In order to stop that behaviour you have to stop and refresh or click several times on the link. Excuse me for my bad english. I hope you could understand and could help me to solve this issue. Thanx in advance.

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  • Macro access to members of object where macro is defined

    - by Marc Grue
    Say I have a trait Foo that I instantiate with an initial value val foo = new Foo(6) // class Foo(i: Int) and I later call a second method that in turn calls myMacro foo.secondMethod(7) // def secondMethod(j: Int) = macro myMacro then, how can myMacro find out what my initial value of i (6) is? I didn't succeed with normal compilation reflection using c.prefix, c.eval(...) etc but instead found a 2-project solution: Project B: object CompilationB { def resultB(x: Int, y: Int) = macro resultB_impl def resultB_impl(c: Context)(x: c.Expr[Int], y: c.Expr[Int]) = c.universe.reify(x.splice * y.splice) } Project A (depends on project B): trait Foo { val i: Int // Pass through `i` to compilation B: def apply(y: Int) = CompilationB.resultB(i, y) } object CompilationA { def makeFoo(x: Int): Foo = macro makeFoo_impl def makeFoo_impl(c: Context)(x: c.Expr[Int]): c.Expr[Foo] = c.universe.reify(new Foo {val i = x.splice}) } We can create a Foo and set the i value either with normal instantiation or with a macro like makeFoo. The second approach allows us to customize a Foo at compile time in the first compilation and then in the second compilation further customize its response to input (i in this case)! In some way we get "meta-meta" capabilities (or "pataphysic"-capabilities ;-) Normally we would need to have foo in scope to introspect i (with for instance c.eval(...)). But by saving the i value inside the Foo object we can access it anytime and we could instantiate Foo anywhere: object Test extends App { import CompilationA._ // Normal instantiation val foo1 = new Foo {val i = 7} val r1 = foo1(6) // Macro instantiation val foo2 = makeFoo(7) val r2 = foo2(6) // "Curried" invocation val r3 = makeFoo(6)(7) println(s"Result 1 2 3: $r1 $r2 $r3") assert((r1, r2, r3) ==(42, 42, 42)) } My question Can I find i inside my example macros without this double compilation hackery?

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  • Can a call to WaitHandle.SignalAndWait be ignored for performance profiling purposes?

    - by Dan Tao
    I just downloaded the trial version of ANTS Performance Profiler from Red Gate and am investigating some of my team's code. Immediately I notice that there's a particular section of code that ANTS is reporting as eating up to 99% CPU time. I am completely unfamiliar with ANTS or performance profiling in general (that is, aside from self-profiling using what I'm sure are extremely crude and frowned-upon methods such as double timeToComplete = (endTime - startTime).TotalSeconds), so I'm still fiddling around with the application and figuring out how it's used. But I did call the developer responsible for the code in question and his immediate reaction was "Yeah, that doesn't surprise me that it says that; but that code calls SignalAndWait [which I could see for myself, thanks to ANTS], which doesn't use any CPU, it just sits there waiting for something to do." He advised me to simply ignore that code and look for anything ELSE I could find. My question: is it true that SignalAndWait requires NO CPU overhead (and if so, how is this possible?), and is it reasonable that a performance profiler would view it as taking up 99% CPU time? I find this particularly curious because, if it's at 99%, that would suggest that our application is often idle, wouldn't it? And yet its performance has become rather sluggish lately. Like I said, I really am just a beginner when it comes to this tool, and I don't know anything about the WaitHandle class. So ANY information to help me to understand what's going on here would be appreciated.

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  • jQuery validation: how to customize trigger and response

    - by user302307
    I am new with jQuery. I have a servlet based application which render an HTML form. This form is submitted via a function and the submit button IS NOT submit button in HTML. It's a regular button that calls a javascript function to do the submission. When running the submission function, the servlet also run a function called doCheck() which is in javascript. This doCheck() function can be defined per page basis. if doCheck returns false, then the servlet will stop the submission; else it will submit the form. I want to use jQuery validation to fit the servlet application. Is there a way to customize jQuery validation to be triggered manually (ie. only when doCheck() is executed) but at the same time provides continuous check on the UI (ie. if one type invalid number in date field, it will gives the appropriate msg when onblur event happen)? Is there a way to make jQuery validation return true or false? Thank you.

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  • Creating an MJPEG Viewer Iphone

    - by Tony
    Hey all, Im trying to make a MJPEG viewer in Objective C but I'm having a bunch of issues with it. First off, Im using AsyncSocket(http://code.google.com/p/cocoaasyncsocket/) which lets me connect to the host. Here's what I got so far NSLog(@"Ready"); asyncSocket = [[AsyncSocket alloc] initWithDelegate:self]; //http://kamera5.vfp.slu.se/axis-cgi/mjpg/video.cgi NSError *err = nil; if(![asyncSocket connectToHost:@"kamera5.vfp.slu.se" onPort:80 error:&err]) { NSLog(@"Error: %@", err); } then in the didConnectToHost method: - (void)onSocket:(AsyncSocket *)sock didConnectToHost:(NSString *)host port:(UInt16)port{ NSLog(@"Accepted client %@:%hu", host, port); NSString *urlString = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://kamera5.vfp.slu.se/axis-cgi/mjpg/video.cgi"]; NSMutableURLRequest *request = [[[NSMutableURLRequest alloc] init] autorelease]; [request setURL:[NSURL URLWithString:urlString]]; [request setHTTPMethod:@"GET"]; //set headers NSString *_host = [NSString stringWithFormat:host]; [request addValue:_host forHTTPHeaderField: @"Host"]; NSString *KeepAlive = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"300"]; [request addValue:KeepAlive forHTTPHeaderField: @"Keep-Alive"]; NSString *connection = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"keep-alive"]; [request addValue:connection forHTTPHeaderField: @"Connection"]; //get response NSHTTPURLResponse* urlResponse = nil; NSError *error = [[NSError alloc] init]; NSData *responseData = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:&urlResponse error:&error]; NSString *result = [[NSString alloc] initWithData:responseData encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; NSLog(@"Response Code: %d", [urlResponse statusCode]); if ([urlResponse statusCode] >= 200 && [urlResponse statusCode] < 300) { NSLog(@"Response: %@", result); //here you get the response } } This calls the MJPEG stream, but it doesn't call it to get more data. What I think its doing is just loading the first chunk of data, then disconnecting. Am I doing this totally wrong or is there light at the end of this tunnel? Thanks!

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  • Gridview empty when SelectedIndexChanged called

    - by xan
    I have a DataGrid which is being bound dynamically to a database query. The user enters some search text into a text field, clicks search, and the code behind creates the appropriate database query using LINQ (searches a table based on the string and returns a limited set of the columns). It then sets the GridView datasource to be the query and calls DataBind(). protected void btnSearch_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { var query = from record in DB.Table where record.Name.Contains(txtSearch.Text) //Extra string checking etc. removed. select new { record.ID, record.Name, record.Date }; gvResults.DataSource = query; gvResults.DataBind(); } This works fine. When a user selects a row in the grid, the SelectedIndexChanged event handler gets the id from the row in the grid (one of the fields), queries the full record from the DB and then populates a set of editor / details fields with the records full details. protected void gvResults_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { int id = int.Parse(gvResults.SelectedRow.Cells[1].Text); DisplayDetails(id); } This works fine on my local machine where I'm developing the code. On the production server however, the function is called successfully, but the row and column count on gvResults, the GridVeiw is 0 - the table is empty. The GridView's viewstate is enabled and I can't see obvious differences. Have I made some naive assumptions, or am I relying on something that is likely to be configured differently in debug? Locally I am running an empty asp.net web project in VS2008 to make development quicker. The production server is running the sitecore CMS so is configured rather differently. Any thoughts or suggestions would be most welcome. Thanks in advance!

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  • jQuery Countdown plugin and AJAX

    - by roman m
    I'm using jQuery Countdown plugin to implement a Countdown and call a webservice when timer expires. The problem is that I'm using AJAX on the page, and have to re-setup the Countdown on every AJAX request like so: var prm = Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance(); prm.add_endRequest(SetupTimer); /*Initial setup*/ $(document).ready(function() { SetupTimer(); }); function SetupTimer() { var serverTime = new Date(); var cutoffTime = new Date($("#<%= cutoffTime.ClientID %>").val()); serverTime.setHours(serverTime.getHours()); if (serverTime < cutoffTime) { $('#timer').countdown('destroy'); /*should work, but doesn't*/ $('#timer').countdown({ until: cutoffTime, serverTime: serverTime, onExpiry: OrderingEnded, format: 'yowdHMS' }); } else OrderingEnded(); } This, for some reason, creates a new instance of the Countdown on ever request, resulting in numerous calls to Webservice when Countdown expires. How do I make sure that only one instance of the Countdown exists at a time? EDIT found this in documentation, doesn't do it for me though $('#timer').countdown('destroy');

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  • Servlet receives null from Remote EJB3 Session Bean

    - by Hank
    I'm sure this is a beginner error... So I have a JEE6 application with entities, facades (implementing the persistence layer) and Stateless Session Beans (EJB3) with Remote interfaces (providing access to the entities via facades). This is working fine. Via the SLSB I can retrieve and manipulate entities. Now, I'm trying to do this from a Web Application (deployed on the same Glassfish, entity+interface definitions from JEE app imported as separate jar). I have a Servlet, that receives an instance of the SLSB injected. I get it to retrieve an entity, and the following happens (I can see it in the logs): the remote SLSB gets instantiated, its method called SLSB instantiates the facade, calls the 'get' method facade retrieves object from DB, returns it SLSB returns the object to the caller (all is good until here) calling servlet receives .. null !! What is going wrong? This should work, right? MyServlet: public class MyServlet extends HttpServlet { @EJB private CampaignControllerRemote campaignController; // remote SLSB protected void processRequest(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { response.setContentType("text/plain"); PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); try { Campaign c = campaignController.getCampaign(5L); // id of an existing campaign out.println("Got "+ c.getId()); // c is null !! } finally { out.close(); } } ... } Pls let me know if you want to see other code, and I'll update the post.

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  • Working around MySQL error "Deadlock found when trying to get lock; try restarting transaction"

    - by Anon Guy
    Hi all: I have a MySQL table with about 5,000,000 rows that are being constantly updated in small ways by parallel Perl processes connecting via DBI. The table has about 10 columns and several indexes. One fairly common operation gives rise to the following error sometimes: DBD::mysql::st execute failed: Deadlock found when trying to get lock; try restarting transaction at Db.pm line 276. The SQL statement that triggers the error is something like this: UPDATE file_table SET a_lock = 'process-1234' WHERE param1 = 'X' AND param2 = 'Y' AND param3 = 'Z' LIMIT 47 The error is triggered only sometimes. I'd estimate in 1% of calls or less. However, it never happened with a small table and has become more common as the database has grown. Note that I am using the a_lock field in file_table to ensure that the four near-identical processes I am running do not try and work on the same row. The limit is designed to break their work into small chunks. I haven't done much tuning on MySQL or DBD::mysql. MySQL is a standard Solaris deployment, and the database connection is set up as follows: my $dsn = "DBI:mysql:database=" . $DbConfig::database . ";host=${DbConfig::hostname};port=${DbConfig::port}"; my $dbh = DBI->connect($dsn, $DbConfig::username, $DbConfig::password, { RaiseError => 1, AutoCommit => 1 }) or die $DBI::errstr; I have seen online that several other people have reported similar errors and that this may be a genuine deadlock situation. I have two questions: What exactly about my situation is causing the error above? Is there a simple way to work around it or lessen its frequency? For example, how exactly do I go about "restarting transaction at Db.pm line 276"? Thanks in advance.

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  • XML RPC c# Call returns array of strings and int

    - by chillconsulting
    I'm doing an XML RPC call in ASP.net with c# and the call returns an Array called userinfo with strings and integers in it and I can't seem to figure out how to parse the data and put it into string and int objects... The only thing that compiles is if I make it an Object in the struct. The int returns fines and is referenced easily. Any help would be appreciated - this is what I got. public Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e){ IValidateSSO proxy = XmlRpcProxyGen.Create<IValidateSSO>(); UserInfoSSOValue ret2 = proxy.UserInfoSSO(ssoAuth, ssoValue); int i = ret2.isonid; } public struct UserInfoSSOValue { public Object userinfo; public int isonid; } [XmlRpcUrl("host")] public interface IValidateSSO : IXmlRpcProxy { [XmlRpcMethod("sso.session_userinfo")] UserInfoSSOValue UserInfoSSO(string ssoauth, string sid); } Here is what the xml rpc calls returns (I know it's in php... I'm trying to implement in c#): sso.session_userinfo(string $ssoauth, string $sid) string $ssoauth - authentication string (assigned by ONID support) string $sid - sid to get info on Returns: Array ( [userinfo] => Array ( [lastname] => College [expire_time] => 1118688011 [osuuid] => 12345678901 [sid_length] => 3600 [ip] => 10.0.0.1 [sid] => WiT7ppAEUKS3rJ2lNz3Ue64sGPxnnLL0 [username] => collegej [firstname] => Joe [fullname] => College, Joe Student [email] => [email protected] [create_time] => 1118684410 ) [isonid] => 1 ) array userinfo - array containing basic user information

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