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  • How to debug anomalous C memory/stack problems

    - by EBM
    Hello, Sorry I can't be specific with code, but the problems I am seeing are anomalous. Character string values seem to be getting changed depending on other, unrelated code. For example, the value of the argument that is passed around below will change merely depending on if I comment out one or two of the fprintf() calls! By the last fprintf() the value is typically completely empty (and no, I have checked to make sure I am not modifying the argument directly... all I have to do is comment out a fprintf() or add another fprintf() and the value of the string will change at certain points!): static process_args(char *arg) { /* debug */ fprintf(stderr, "Function arg is %s\n", arg); ...do a bunch of stuff including call another function that uses alloc()... /* debug */ fprintf(stderr, "Function arg is now %s\n", arg); } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { char *my_arg; ... do a bunch of stuff ... /* just to show you it's nothing to do with the argv array */ my_string = strdup(argv[1]); /* debug */ fprintf(stderr, "Argument 1 is %s\n", my_string); process_args(my_string); } There's more code all around, so I can't ask for someone to debug my program -- what I want to know is HOW can I debug why character strings like this are getting their memory changed or overwritten based on unrelated code. Is my memory limited? My stack too small? How do I tell? What else can I do to track down the issue? My program isn't huge, it's like a thousand lines of code give or take and a couple dynamically linked external libs, but nothing out of the ordinary. HELP! TIA!

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  • In Seam what's the difference between injected EntityManager and getEntityManager from EntityHome

    - by Navi
    I am testing a Seam application using the needle test API. In my code I am using the getEntityManager() method from EntityHome. When I run the unit tests against an in memory database I get the following exception: java.lang.IllegalStateException: No application context active at org.jboss.seam.Component.forName(Component.java:1945) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:2005) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1983) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1977) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1972) at org.jboss.seam.framework.Controller.getComponentInstance(Controller.java:272) at org.jboss.seam.framework.PersistenceController.getPersistenceContext(PersistenceController.java:20) at org.jboss.seam.framework.EntityHome.getEntityManager(EntityHome.java:177) etc .. I can resolve some of these errors by injecting the EntityManager with @In EntityManager entityManager; Unfortunately the persist method of EntityHome also calls the getEntityManager. This means a lot of mocks or rewriting the code somehow. Is there any workaround and why is this exception thrown anyway? I am using Seam 2.2.0 GA by the way. There is nothing special about the components. They are generated by seam-gen. The test is performed with in memory database - I followed the examples in http://jbosscc-needle.sourceforge.net/jbosscc-needle/1.0/db-util.html.

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  • Dynamically created iframe used to download file triggers onload with firebug but not without

    - by justkt
    EDIT: as this problem is now "solved" to the point of working, I am looking to have the information on why. For the fix, see my comment below. I have an web application which repeatedly downloads wav files dynamically (after a timeout or as instructed by the user) into an iframe in order to trigger the a default audio player to play them. The application targets only FF 2 or 3. In order to determine when the file is downloaded completely, I am hoping to use the window.onload handler for the iframe. Based on this stackoverflow.com answer I am creating a new iframe each time. As long as firebug is enabled on the browser using the application, everything works great. Without firebug, the onload never fires. The version of firebug is 1.3.1, while I've tested Firefox 2.0.0.19 and 3.0.7. Any ideas how I can get the onload from the iframe to reliably trigger when the wav file has downloaded? Or is there another way to signal the completion of the download? Here's the pertinent code: HTML (hidden's only attribute is display:none;): <div id="audioContainer" class="hidden"> </div> JavaScript (could also use jQuery, but innerHTML is faster than html() from what I've read): waitingForFile = true; // (declared at the beginning of closure) $("#loading").removeClass("hidden"); var content = "<iframe id='audioPlayer' name='audioPlayer' src='" + /path/to/file.wav + "' onload='notifyLoaded()'></iframe>"; document.getElementById("audioContainer").innerHTML = content; And the content of notifyLoaded: function notifyLoaded() { waitingForFile = false; // (declared at beginning of the closure) $("#loading").addClass("hidden"); } I have also tried creating the iframe via document.createElement, but I found the same behavior. The onload triggered each time with firebug enabled and never without it. EDIT: Fixed the information on how the iframe is being declared and added the callback function code. No, no console.log calls here.

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  • Cooperative/Non-preemptive threading avoiding threadlooks?

    - by Wayne
    Any creative ideas to avoid deadlocks on a yield or sleep with cooperative/non-preemptive multitasking without doing an O/S Thread.Sleep(10)? Typically the yield or sleep call will call back into the scheduler to run other tasks. But this can sometime produce deadlocks. Some background: This application has enormous need for speed and, so far, it's extremely fast as compared to other systems in the same industry. One of the speed techniques is cooperative/non-preemptive threading rather then the cost of a context switch from O/S threads. The high level design a priority manager which calls out to tasks depending on priority and processing time. Each task does one "iteration" of work and returns to wait its turn again in the priority queue. The tricky thing with non-preemptive threading is what to do when you want to a particular task to stop in the middle of work and wait for some other event from a different task before continuing. In this case, we have 3 tasks, A B and C where A is a controller that must synchronize the activity of B and C. First, A starts both B and C. Then B yields so C gets invoked. When C yields, A sees they are both inactive, decides it's time for B to run but not time for C yet. Well B is now stuck in a yield that has called C, so it can never run. Sincerely, Wayne

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  • Prototype's Ajax.Updater not actually updating on IE7.

    - by Ben S
    I am trying to submit a form using Ajax.Updater and have the result of that update a div element in my page. Everything works great in IE6, FF3, Chrome and Opera. However, In IE7 it sporadically works, but more often than not, it just doesn't seem to do anything. Here's the javascript: function testcaseHistoryUpdate(testcase, form) { document.body.style.cursor = 'wait'; var param = Form.serialize(form); new Ajax.Updater("content", "results/testcaseHistory/" + testcase, { onComplete: function(transport) {document.body.style.cursor = 'auto'}, parameters: param, method: 'post' } ); } I've verified using alert() calls that param is set to what I expect. I've read in many places that IE7 caches aggressively and that it might be the root cause, however every after adding the following to my php response, it still doesn't work. header("Last-Modified: " . gmdate("D, d M Y H:i:s") . " GMT"); header("Cache-Control: no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate"); header("Cache-Control: post-check=0, pre-check=0", false); header("Pragma: no-cache"); To further try to fix a caching issue I've tried adding a bogus parameter which just gets filled with a random value to have different parameters for every call, but that didn't help. I've also found this, where UTF-8 seemed to be causing an issue with IE7, but my page is clearly marked: <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-1" /> Does anyone have any idea what could be wrong with IE7 as opposed to the other browsers I tested to cause this kind of issue?

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  • Extracting [] elements from form collection - mvc - should use icollection but have mix of types

    - by bergin
    hi there. have looked at Phil Haacks project on books at http://haacked.com/archive/2008/10/23/model-binding-to-a-list.aspx which has been useful, but I have a mix of data types. I use a modelview so that i can have a mix of objects, in this case: Order (ie order.id, order.date etc), Customer, SoilSamplingOrder and a list of SoilSamplingSubJobs which is like this [0].id, [0].field, [1].id, [1].field etc Perhaps I should be using ICollection instead of List? I had problems getting UpdateModel to work so I used an extract from collection method. the first 4 method calls : orderRepository.FindOrder(id); etc give the model the original to be edited. but after this point i'm a little lost in how to update the subjobs. I hope i have delineated enough to make sense of the problem. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection collection) { Order order = orderRepository.FindOrder(id); Customer cust = orderRepository.FindCustomer(order.customer_id); IList<SoilSamplingSubJob> sssj = orderRepository.FindSubOrders(id); SoilSamplingOrder sso = orderRepository.FindSoilSampleOrder(id); try { UpdateModel(order, collection.ToValueProvider()); UpdateModel(cust, collection.ToValueProvider()); UpdateModel(sso, collection.ToValueProvider()); IList<SoilSamplingSubJob> sssjs = orderRepository.extractSSSJ(collection); foreach (var sj in sssjs) UpdateModel(sso, collection.ToValueProvider()); orderRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id=order.order_id}); } catch { return View(); } }

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  • SECURITY Flaws in this design for User authentication.

    - by Shao
    SECURITY Flaws in this design for User authentication. From: http://wiki.pylonshq.com/display/pylonscookbook/Simple+Homegrown+Authentication Note: a. Project follows the MVC pattern. b. Only a user with a valid username and password is allowed submit something. Design: a. Have a base controller from which all controllers are derived from. b. Before any of the actions in the derived controllers are called the system calls a before action in the base controller. c. In each controller user hardcodes the actions that need to be verified in an array. d. The before action first looks in the array that has the actions that are protected and sees if a user is logged in or not by peaking into the session. If a user is present then user is allowed to submit otherwise user is redirected to login page. What do you think?

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  • Call to CFC via Ajax-POST does not work

    - by Philipp
    We have the following problem: A CFC-method that is called from AJAX suddenly redirects the request to cfcexplorer instead of executing the request. The strange thing is, that the problem only occurs when we make the ajax call via "POST" method, like this: // This will return the HTTP Status header: // Location: http://url.to:80/CFIDE/componentutils/cfcexplorer.cfc?method=getcfcinhtml&name=web.ajax&path=/web/ajax.cfc $.post( "http://url.to/ajax.cfc", {method: "test"}, function(res) { alert("ajax.cfc POST return:" + res); } ); Making the same request as "GET" request works perfectly: // This will call the method "test" of web/ajax.cfc $.get( "http://url.to/ajax.cfc", {method: "test"}, function(res) { alert("ajax.cfc GET return:" + res); } ); This is the ajax.cfc file (dummy file): <cfcomponent> <cffunction name="test" access="remote" returntype="Any" returnformat="JSON"> <cfset j = {}> <cfset j.data = "this is the data"> <cfreturn serializeJson(j)> </cffunction> </cfcomponent> What really puzzles us is that the request did work in the past (we have a lot of code all making ajax calls via POST and CF-code that expects FORM-data to be present, so we cannot simply change the method to GET) Maybe there was some setting that has changed or similar...

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  • Efficient way to handle multiple HTMLPurifier configs.

    - by anomareh
    I'm using HTMLPurifier in a current project and I'm not sure about the most efficient way to go about handling multiple configs. For the most part the only major thing changing is the allowed tags. Currently I have a private method, in each class using HTMLPurifier, that gets called when a config is needed and it creates one from the default. I'm not really happy with this as if 2 classes are using the same config, that's duplicating code, and what if a class needs 2 configs? It just feels messy. The one upside to it, is it's lazy in the sense that it's not creating anything until it's needed. The various classes could be used and never have to purify anything. So I don't want to be creating a bunch of config objects that might not even be used. I just recently found out that you can create a new instance of HTMLPurifier and directly set config options like so: $purifier = new HTMLPurifier(); $purifier->config->set('HTML.Allowed', ''); I'm not sure if that's bad form at all or not, and if it isn't I'm not really sure of a good way to put it to use. My latest idea was to create a config handler class that would just return an HTMLPurifier config for use in subsequent purify calls. At some point it could probably be expanded to allow the setting of configs, but just from the start I figured they'd just be hardcoded and run a method parameter through a switch to grab the requested config. Perhaps I could just send the stored purifier instance as an argument and have the method directly set the config on it like shown above? This to me seems the best of the few ways I thought of, though I'm not sure if such a task warrants me creating a class to handle it, and if so, if I'm handling it in the best way. I'm not too familiar with the inner workings of HTMLPurifier so I'm not sure if there are any better mechanisms in place for handling multiple configs. Thanks for any insight anyone can offer.

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  • C# Taking a element off each time (stack)

    - by Sef
    Greetings, Have a question considering a program that stimulates a stack.(not using any build in stack features or any such) stack2= 1 2 3 4 5 //single dimension array of 5 elements By calling up a method "pop" the stack should look like the following: Basically taking a element off each time the stack is being "called" up again. stack2= 1 2 3 4 0 stack2= 1 2 3 0 0 stack2= 1 2 0 0 0 stack2= 1 0 0 0 0 stack2= 0 0 0 0 0 - for (int i = 1; i <= 6; i++) { number= TryPop(s2); //use number ShowStack(s2, "s2"); } Basically I already have code that fills my array with values (trough a push method). The pop method should basically take the last value and place it on 0. Then calls up the next stack and place the following on 0 (like shown above in stack2). The current pop method that keeps track of the top index (0 elements = 0 top, 1 element = 1 top etc..). Already includes a underflow warning if this goes on 0 or below (which is correct). public int Pop() { if(top <= 0) { throw new Exception("Stack underflow..."); } else { for (int j = tabel.Length - 1; j >= 0; j--) { //...Really not sure what to do here. } } return number; }/*Pop*/ Since in the other class I already have a loop (for loop shown above) that simulates 6 times the s2 stack. (first stack: 1 2 3 4 0, second stack 1 2 3 0 0 and so on.) How exactly do I take a element off each time? Either I have the entire display on 0 or the 0 in the wrong places / out of index errors. Thanks in advance!

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  • Avoiding CheckStyle magic number errors in JDBC queries.

    - by Dan
    Hello, I am working on a group project for class and we are trying out CheckStyle. I am fairly comfortable with Java but have never touched JDBC or done any database work before this. I was wondering if there is an elegant way to avoid magic number errors in preparedStatement calls, consider: preparedStatement = connect.prepareStatement("INSERT INTO shows " + "(showid, showtitle, showinfo, genre, youtube)" + "values (default, ?, ?, ?, ?);"); preparedStatement.setString(1, title); preparedStatement.setString(2, info); preparedStatement.setString(3, genre); preparedStatement.setString(4, youtube); result = preparedStatement.executeUpdate(); The setString methods get flagged as magic numbers, so far I just added the numbers 3-10 or so to the ignore list for magic numbers but I was wondering if there was a better way to go about inserting those values into the statement. I also beg you for any other advice that comes to mind seeing that code, I'd like to avoid developing any nasty habits, e.g. should I be using Statement or is PreparedStatement fine? Will that let me refer to column names instead? Is that ideal? etc... Thanks!

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  • Embedded SQL in OO languages like Java

    - by Steve De Caux
    One of the things that annoys me working with SQL in OO languages is having to define SQL statements in strings. When I used to work on IBM mainframes, the languages used an SQL preprocessor to parse SQL statements out of the native code, so the statements could be written in cleartext SQL without the obfuscation of strings, for instance in Cobol there is a EXEC SQL .... END-EXEC syntax construct that allows pure SQL statements to be embedded in the Cobol code. <pure cobol code, including assignment of value to local variable HOSTVARIABLE> EXEC SQL SELECT COL_A, COL_B, COL_C INTO :COLA, :COLB, :COLC FROM TAB_A WHERE COL_D = :HOSTVARIABLE END_EXEC <more cobol code, variables COLA, COLB, COLC have been set> ...this makes the SQL statement really easy to read & check for errors. Between the EXEC SQL .... END-EXEC tokens there are no constraints on indentation, linebreaking etc., so you can format the SQL statement according to taste. Note that this example is for a single-row select, when a multiple-row resultset is expected, the coding is different (but still v. easy to read). So, taking Java as an example What made the "old COBOL" approach undesirable ? Not only SQL, but system calls could be made much more readable with that approach. Let's call it the embedded foreign language preprocessor approach. Would an embedded foreign language preprocessor for SQL be useful to implement ? Would you see a benefit in being able to write native SQL statements inside java code ? Edit I'm really asking if you think SQL in OO languages is a throwback, and if not then what could be done to make it better.

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  • iPhone accelerometer:didAccelerate: seems to not get called while I am running a loop

    - by AJ
    An accelerometer related question. (Sorry the formatting may not look right, its the first time I am using this site). I got the accelerometer working as expected using the standard code UIAccelerometer *accel = [UIAccelerometer sharedAccelerometer]; accel.delegate = self; accel.updateInterval = 0.1; //I also tried other update values I use NSLog to log every time the accelerometer:didAccelerate: method in my class is called. The function gets called as expected and everything works fine till here. However, when I run a loop, the above method doesn't seem to get called. Something like this float firstAccelValue = globalAccel; //this is the x-accel value (stored in a global by the above method) float nextAccelValue = firstAccelValue; while (nextAccelValue == firstAccelValue){ //do something nextAccelValue = globalAccel; // note globalAccel is updated by the accelerometer method } The above loop never exits, expectedly since the accelerometer:didAccelerate: method is not getting called, and hence globalAccel never changes value. If I use a fixed condition to break the while loop, I can see that after the loop ends, the method calls work fine again. Am I missing something obvious here? Or does the accelerometer method not fire when certain processing is being done? Any help would be greatly appreciated! Thanks!

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  • How upload files to azure in background with Delphi and OmniThread?

    - by mamcx
    I have tried to upload +100 files to azure with Delphi. However, the calls block the main thread, so I want to do this with a async call or with a background thread. This is what I do now (like explained here): procedure TCloudManager.UploadTask(const input: TOmniValue; var output: TOmniValue); var FileTask:TFileTask; begin FileTask := input.AsRecord<TFileTask>; Upload(FileTask.BaseFolder, FileTask.LocalFile, FileTask.CloudFile); end; function TCloudManager.MassiveUpload(const BaseFolder: String; Files: TDictionary<String, String>): TStringList; var pipeline: IOmniPipeline; FileInfo : TPair<String,String>; FileTask:TFileTask; begin // set up pipeline pipeline := Parallel.Pipeline .Stage(UploadTask) .NumTasks(Environment.Process.Affinity.Count * 2) .Run; // insert URLs to be retrieved for FileInfo in Files do begin FileTask.LocalFile := FileInfo.Key; FileTask.CloudFile := FileInfo.Value; FileTask.BaseFolder := BaseFolder; pipeline.Input.Add(TOmniValue.FromRecord(FileTask)); end;//for pipeline.Input.CompleteAdding; // wait for pipeline to complete pipeline.WaitFor(INFINITE); end; However this block too (why? I don't understand).

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  • Lightweight spinlocks built from GCC atomic operations?

    - by Thomas
    I'd like to minimize synchronization and write lock-free code when possible in a project of mine. When absolutely necessary I'd love to substitute light-weight spinlocks built from atomic operations for pthread and win32 mutex locks. My understanding is that these are system calls underneath and could cause a context switch (which may be unnecessary for very quick critical sections where simply spinning a few times would be preferable). The atomic operations I'm referring to are well documented here: http://gcc.gnu.org/onlinedocs/gcc-4.4.1/gcc/Atomic-Builtins.html Here is an example to illustrate what I'm talking about. Imagine a RB-tree with multiple readers and writers possible. RBTree::exists() is read-only and thread safe, RBTree::insert() would require exclusive access by a single writer (and no readers) to be safe. Some code: class IntSetTest { private: unsigned short lock; RBTree<int>* myset; public: // ... void add_number(int n) { // Aquire once locked==false (atomic) while (__sync_bool_compare_and_swap(&lock, 0, 0xffff) == false); // Perform a thread-unsafe operation on the set myset->insert(n); // Unlock (atomic) __sync_bool_compare_and_swap(&lock, 0xffff, 0); } bool check_number(int n) { // Increment once the lock is below 0xffff u16 savedlock = lock; while (savedlock == 0xffff || __sync_bool_compare_and_swap(&lock, savedlock, savedlock+1) == false) savedlock = lock; // Perform read-only operation bool exists = tree->exists(n); // Decrement savedlock = lock; while (__sync_bool_compare_and_swap(&lock, savedlock, savedlock-1) == false) savedlock = lock; return exists; } }; (lets assume it need not be exception-safe) Is this code indeed thread-safe? Are there any pros/cons to this idea? Any advice? Is the use of spinlocks like this a bad idea if the threads are not truly concurrent? Thanks in advance. ;)

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  • Method binding to base method in external library can't handle new virtual methods "between"

    - by Berg
    Lets say I have a library, version 1.0.0, with the following contents: public class Class1 { public virtual void Test() { Console.WriteLine( "Library:Class1 - Test" ); Console.WriteLine( "" ); } } public class Class2 : Class1 { } and I reference this library in a console application with the following contents: class Program { static void Main( string[] args ) { var c3 = new Class3(); c3.Test(); Console.ReadKey(); } } public class Class3 : ClassLibrary1.Class2 { public override void Test() { Console.WriteLine("Console:Class3 - Test"); base.Test(); } } Running the program will output the following: Console:Class3 - Test Library:Class1 - Test If I build a new version of the library, version 2.0.0, looking like this: public class Class1 { public virtual void Test() { Console.WriteLine( "Library:Class1 - Test V2" ); Console.WriteLine( "" ); } } public class Class2 : Class1 { public override void Test() { Console.WriteLine("Library:Class2 - Test V2"); base.Test(); } } and copy this version to the bin folder containing my console program and run it, the results are: Console:Class3 - Test Library:Class1 - Test V2 I.e, the Class2.Test method is never executed, the base.Test call in Class3.Test seems to be bound to Class1.Test since Class2.Test didn't exist when the console program was compiled. This was very surprising to me and could be a big problem in situations where you deploy new versions of a library without recompiling applications. Does anyone else have experience with this? Are there any good solutions? This makes it tempting to add empty overrides that just calls base in case I need to add some code at that level in the future...

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  • Help me convert this PHP SOAP code to C#

    - by Andrew G. Johnson
    Hi, I am trying to do some C# SOAP calls and can't seem to get any good examples on how to do it. I read an old question of mine about a SOAP call in PHP and thought maybe asking you guys to rewrite it in C# would be a good place to start. Here is the PHP code: $client = new SoapClient('http://www.hotelscombined.com/api/LiveRates.asmx?WSDL'); $client->__soapCall('HotelSearch', array( array('request' => array( 'ApiKey' => 'THE_API_KEY_GOES_HERE', // note that in the actual code I put the API key in... 'UserID' => session_id(), 'UserAgent' => $_SERVER['HTTP_USER_AGENT'], 'UserIPAddress' => $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR'], 'HotelID' => '50563', 'Checkin' => '07/02/2009', 'Checkout' => '07/03/2009', 'Guests' => '2', 'Rooms' => '1', 'LanguageCode' => 'en', 'DisplayCurrency' => 'usd', 'TimeOutInSeconds' => '90' ) ) ) );

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  • perl dynamic path given to 'use lib'

    - by Ed Hyer
    So, my code (Perl scripts and Perl modules) sits in a tree like this: trunk/ util/ process/ scripts/ The 'util' directory has, well, utilities, that things in the 'process/' dir need. They get access like this: use FindBin; use lib "$FindBin::Bin/../util"; use UtilityModule qw(all); That construct doesn't care where you start, as long as you're at the same level in the tree as "util/". But I decided that 'scripts/' was getting too crowded, so I created scripts/scripts1 scripts/scripts2 Now I see that this doesn't work. If I run a script 'trunk/scripts/scripts1/call_script.pl', and it calls '/trunk/process/process_script.pl', then 'process_script.pl' will fail trying to get the routines from UtilityModule(), because the path that FindBin returns is the path of the top-level calling script. The first ten ways I thought of to solve this all involved something like: use lib $path_that_came_from_elsewhere; but that seems to be something Perl doesn't like to do, except via that FindBin trick. I tried some things involving BEGIN{} blocks, but i don't really know what I'm doing there, and will likely just end up refactoring. But if someone has some clever insight into this type of problem, this would be a good chance to earn some points!

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  • iPhone programming - problem with CoreFoundation forking

    - by Tom
    Hello all, I've been working on an iPhone for several months. It's a 2d shooting game akin to the old Smash TV type games. I'm doing everything alone and it has come out well so far, but now I am getting unpredictable crashes which seem to be related to CoreFoundation forking and not exec()ing, as the message __THE_PROCESS_HAS_FORKED_AND_YOU_CANNOT_USE_THIS_COREFOUNDATION_FUNCTIONA LITY___YOU_MUST_EXEC__ always shows up somewhere in the debugger. Usually it shows up around a CFRunLoopRunSpecific and is related to either a timer firing or _InitializeTouchTapCount. I cannot figure out exactly what is causing the fork to occur. My main game loop is running on a timer, first updating all the logic and then drawing everything with openGL. There is nothing highly complex or unusual. I understand you cannot make CF calls on the childside of a fork, or access shared memory and things like that. I am not explicitly trying to fork anything. My question is: can anyone tell me what type of activity might cause CoreFoundation to randomly fork like this? I'd really like to finish this game and I don't know how to solve this problem. Thanks for any help.

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  • What is the best way to process XML sent to WCF 3.5

    - by CRM Junkie
    I have to develop a WCF application in 3.5. The input will be sent in the form of XML and the response would be sent in the form of XML as well. A ASP.NET application will be consuming the WCF and sending/receiving data in XML format. Now, as per my understanding, when consuming WCF from an ASP.NET application, we just add a reference to the service, create an object of the service, pack all the necessary data(Data Members in WCF) into the input object (object of the Data Contract) and call the necessary function. It happens that the ASP.NET application is being developed by a separate party and they are hell bent on receiving and sending data in XML format. What I can perceive from this is that the WCF will take the XML string (a single Data Member string type) as input and send out a XML string (again a single Data Member string type) as output. I have created WCF applications earlier where requests and responses were sent out in XML/JSON format when it was consumed by jQuery ajax calls. In those cases, the XML tags were automatically mapped to the different Data Members defined. What approach should I take in this case? Should I just take a string as input (basically the XML string) or is there any way WCF/.NET 3.5 will automatically map the XML tags with the Data Members for requests and responses and I would not need to parse the XML string separately?

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  • how to close popup using javascript with xml formatting

    - by Michael Robinson
    I bought this program that created a pretty nice imageuploader flash script however I can't get the Javascript function close window to close the popup and redirect the original page. here is the XML piece that defines the url's: <urls urlToUpload="upload.php?" urlOnUploadSuccess="http://www.home.com/purchase.html" urlOnUploadFail="http://www.home.com/tryagain.html" urlUpdateFlashPlayer="http://www.home.com/flashalternative.html" jsFunctionNameOnUpload=""/> This last line calls a javascript function on upload. The problem is I don't know what to call and where to put it. Here is the HTML file that is the popup: <HEAD> <title>Baublet Uploader</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="swfobject.js"></script> </HEAD> <BODY> <!-- Q-ImageUploader www.quadroland.com --> <div id="QImageUploader"> Flash Player stuff here </div> <script type="text/javascript"> // <![CDATA[ var so = new SWFObject("q_image_uploader.swf", "imageuploader", "650", "430", "9", "#FFFFFF"); so.addParam("scale", "noscale"); so.addParam("salign", "TL"); so.addVariable("AdditionalStringVariable","pass additional data here"); so.write("QImageUploader"); // ]]> </script> I found this Closing script I thought might work: <script language="javascript"> function close_window(page) { window.opener.location.href=page setTimeout(function(){window.close()},10); } </script> Does this go into the Popup HTML page above or would it be a separate close.js file in the root? Thanks, I'm really confused.

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  • C# trying to capture the KeyDown event on a form

    - by Patrick
    Hello! I am creating a small game, the game is printed onto a panel on a windows form. Now i want to capture the keydown event to see if its the arrow keys that has been pressed, the problem however is that i can't seem to capture it. Let me explain, on the form i have 4 buttons and various other controls and if the user for instance press one of the buttons (to trigger a game event) then the button has focus and i can't capture the movements with the arrow keys. I tried something like private void KeyDown(KeyEventArgs e) { if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Left) { game.MovePlayer(DonutWarsLibrary.GameObjects.Direction.E); game.DrawObjects(panel1.CreateGraphics()); } else if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Right) { game.MovePlayer(DonutWarsLibrary.GameObjects.Direction.W); game.DrawObjects(panel1.CreateGraphics()); } else if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Up) { game.MovePlayer(DonutWarsLibrary.GameObjects.Direction.N); game.DrawObjects(panel1.CreateGraphics()); } else if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Down) { game.MovePlayer(DonutWarsLibrary.GameObjects.Direction.S); game.DrawObjects(panel1.CreateGraphics()); } } and then when the form key down event was pressed, i used this private void MainForm_KeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { KeyDown(e); } I also added keydown for the buttons and the various other controls on the windows form, but i am not getting any response back. I have setup a breakpoint inside the function to see if it's being called, but that breakpoint never triggers? Any ideas? The most optimal was to have a general KeyDown event that triggers (regardless of what control that currently has focus) and then calls the KeyDown method.

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  • Non-blocking TCP buffer issues.

    - by Poni
    Hi! I think I'm in a problem. I have two TCP apps connected to each other which use winsock I/O completion ports to send/receive data (non-blocking sockets). Everything works just fine until there's a data transfer burst. The sender starts sending incorrect/malformed data. I allocate the buffers I'm sending on the stack, and if I understand correctly, that's a wrong to do, because these buffers should remain as I sent them until I get the "write complete" notification from IOCP. Take this for example: void some_function() { char cBuff[1024]; // filling cBuff with some data WSASend(...); // sending cBuff, non-blocking mode // filling cBuff with other data WSASend(...); // again, sending cBuff // ..... and so forth! } If I understand correctly, each of these WSASend() calls should have its own unique buffer, and that buffer can be reused only when the send completes. Correct? Now, what strategies can I implement in order to maintain a big sack of such buffers, how should I handle them, how can I avoid performance penalty, etc'? And, if I am to use buffers that means I should copy the data to be sent from the source buffer to the temporary one, thus, I'd set SO_SNDBUF on each socket to zero, so the system will not re-copy what I already copied. Are you with me? Please let me know if I wasn't clear.

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  • NHibernate with nothing but stored procedures

    - by ChrisB2010
    I'd like to have NHibernate call a stored procedure when ISession.Get is called to fetch an entity by its key instead of using dynamic SQL. We have been using NHibernate and allowing it to generate our SQL for queries and inserts/updates/deletes, but now may have to deploy our application to an environment that requires us to use stored procedures for all database access. We can use sql-insert, sql-update, and sql-delete in our .hbm.xml mapping files for inserts/updates/deletes. Our hql and criteria queries will have to be replaced with stored procedure calls. However, I have not figured out how to force NHibernate to use a custom stored procedure to fetch an entity by its key. I still want to be able to call ISession.Get, as in: using (ISession session = MySessionFactory.OpenSession()) { return session.Get<Customer>(customerId); } and also lazy load objects, but I want NHibernate to call my "GetCustomerById" stored procedure instead of generating the dynamic SQL. Can this be done? Perhaps NHibernate is no longer a fit given this new environment we must support.

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  • Creating Dependencies Only to be able to Unit Test

    - by arin
    I just created a Manager that deals with a SuperClass that is extended all over the code base and registered with some sort of SuperClassManager (SCM). Now I would like to test my Manager that is aware of only the SuperClass. I tried to create a concrete SCM, however, that depends on a third party library and therefore I failed to do that in my jUnit test. Now the option is to mock all instances of this SCM. All is good until now, however, when my Manager deals with the SCM, it returns children of the SuperClass that my Manager does not know or care about. Nevertheless, the identities of these children are vital for my tests (for equality, etc.). Since I cannot use the concrete SCM, I have to mock the results of calls to the appropriate functions of the SCM, however, this means that my tests and therefore my Manager need to know and care about the children of the SuperClass. Checking the code base, there does not seem to be a more appropriate location for my test (that already maintains the appropriate real dependencies). Is it worth it to introduce unnecessary dependencies for the sake of unit testing?

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