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  • jQuery Validation plugin: disable validation for specified submit buttons

    - by Ted
    I have a form with multiple fields that I'm validating (some with methods added for custom validation) with Jörn Zaeffere's excellent jQuery Validation plugin. How do you circumvent validation with specified submit controls (in other words, fire validation with some submit inputs, but do not fire validation with others)? This would be similar to ValidationGroups with standard ASP.NET validator controls. My situation: It's with ASP.NET WebForms, but you can ignore that if you wish. However, I am using the validation more as a "recommendation": in other words, when the form is submitted, validation fires but instead of a "required" message displaying, a "recommendation" shows that says something along the line of "you missed the following fields.... do you wish to proceed anyways?" At that point in the error container there's another submit button now visible that can be pressed which would ignore the validation and submit anyways. How to circumvent the forms .validate() for this button control and still post? The Buy and Sell a House sample at http://jquery.bassistance.de/validate/demo/multipart/ allows for this in order to hit the previous links, but it does so through creating custom methods and adding it to the validator. I would prefer to not have to create custom methods duplicating functionality already in the validation plugin. The following is a shortened version of the immediately applicable script that I've got right now: var container = $("#<%= Form.ClientID %> div.validationSuggestion"); $('#<%= Form.ClientID %>').validate({ errorContainer: container, errorLabelContainer: $("ul",container), rules: { <%= YesNo.UniqueID %>: { required: true }, <%= ShortText.UniqueID %>: { required: true } // etc. }, messages: { <%= YesNo.UniqueID %>: 'A message.', <%= ShortText.UniqueID %>: 'Another message.' // etc. }, highlight: function(element, errorClass) { $(element).addClass(errorClass); $(element.form).find("label[for=" + element.id + "]").addClass(errorClass); $(element.form).find("label[for=" + element.id + "]").removeClass("valid"); }, unhighlight: function(element, errorClass) { $(element).removeClass(errorClass); $(element.form).find("label[for=" + element.id + "]").removeClass(errorClass); $(element.form).find("label[for=" + element.id + "]").addClass("valid"); }, wrapper: 'li' }); Much thanks in advance for helpful pointers. [UPDATE] Thanks to redsquare I discovered it's as easy as adding class="cancel" to the submit button. So easy and yet I have no idea how I did not come across it in all my searching. And for those who say my my follow-up answer regarding "but requires a double-click": this was merely due to a leftover experiment line that was unbinding the event - again something I don't know how I overlooked when testing. Thanks!

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  • Quartz scheduler is failing to start the cron job

    - by Amit
    Hi I am using Quartz scheduler to trigger a cron which needs to perform a host of activities. My Code for the same is as follow: In the init() method of my InitServlet class, I am defining my TimerServer public class InitServlet extends HttpServlet { public void init(ServletConfig config) throws ServletException { try { System.out.println("Starting the CRON"); //Set the DSO Handler CRON TimerServer task = TimerServer.getInstance(); task.setTask(); } catch (Exception ex) { System.out.println("Failed to start the cron"); ex.printStackTrace(); } } In my TimerServer class I have the following methods public void setTask() { try{ this.setSubscriptionDailyJob(); } catch(SchedulerException ex) { log.error("SchedulerException: "+ex.getMessage(), ex); } private void setSubscriptionDailyJob() throws SchedulerException { log.info("Step 1 "); Scheduler scheduler = schedulerFactory.getScheduler(); log.info("Step 2 "); JobDetail subscriptionJob = new JobDetail("subscription", "subscriptiongroup", SubscriptionDaily.class); log.info("Step 3 "); // Initiate CronTrigger with its name and group name CronTrigger subscriptionCronTrigger = new CronTrigger("subscriptionCronTrigger", "subscriptionTriggerGroup"); try { log.info("Subscription cron: "+Constants.SUBSCRIPTION_CRON); // setup CronExpression CronExpression cexp = new CronExpression(Constants.SUBSCRIPTION_CRON); // Assign the CronExpression to CronTrigger subscriptionCronTrigger.setCronExpression(cexp); } catch (Exception ex) { log.warn("Exception: "+ex.getMessage(), ex); } scheduler.scheduleJob(subscriptionJob, subscriptionCronTrigger); scheduler.start(); } In my SubscriptionDaily class : public class SubscriptionDaily implements Job { public void execute(JobExecutionContext arg0) throws JobExecutionException { //Actions to be performed } } Now checking my logs, I am getting Step 1, Step 2 but not further. My code is getting stucked at the TimerServer class itself. Logs wrt to Scheduler are : 17:24:43 INFO [TimerServer]: Step 1 17:24:43 INFO [SimpleThreadPool]: Job execution threads will use class loader of thread: http-8080-1 17:24:43 INFO [SchedulerSignalerImpl]: Initialized Scheduler Signaller of type: class org.quartz.core.SchedulerSignalerImpl 17:24:43 INFO [QuartzScheduler]: Quartz Scheduler v.1.6.5 created. 17:24:43 INFO [RAMJobStore]: RAMJobStore initialized. 17:24:43 INFO [StdSchedulerFactory]: Quartz scheduler 'DefaultQuartzScheduler' initialized from default resource file in Quartz package: 'quartz.properties' 17:24:43 INFO [StdSchedulerFactory]: Quartz scheduler version: 1.6.5 17:24:43 INFO [TimerServer]: Step 2 I think a log entry is missing : [QuartzScheduler]: Scheduler DefaultQuartzScheduler_$_NON_CLUSTERED started. Please help.

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  • .Net Intermittent System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHeaderException

    - by ScottE
    We have a .net 3.5 web app that consumes third party web services. The proxy was created by adding a web reference to their wsdl. This proxy is not compiled. Our error logging is picking up frequent but intermittent exceptions: An exception of type 'System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHeaderException' occurred and was caught If I follow the url to the page that generated the exception, I can't recreate it. Edit: Here is most of the exception - where it bubbled up from Message : Internal Error Type : System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHeaderException, System.Web.Services, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a Source : System.Web.Services Help link : Actor : Code : http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/:Client Detail : Lang : Node : Role : SubCode : Data : System.Collections.ListDictionaryInternal TargetSite : System.Object[] ReadResponse(System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapClientMessage, System.Net.WebResponse, System.IO.Stream, Boolean) Stack Trace : at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.ReadResponse(SoapClientMessage message, WebResponse response, Stream responseStream, Boolean asyncCall) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.Invoke(String methodName, Object[] parameters) at Vendor.getSearch(getSearchRequest getSearchRequest) in c:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\be43c34e\b09edc7e\App_WebReferences.pww-cf-q.0.cs:line 73 Edit 2: Inner exceptions: I sometimes get the following inner exceptions logged: Message : Unable to read data from the transport connection: An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host. Type : System.IO.IOException, mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089 Source : System Help link : Data : System.Collections.ListDictionaryInternal TargetSite : Int32 Read(Byte[], Int32, Int32) Stack Trace : at System.Net.Sockets.NetworkStream.Read(Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 size) at System.Net.FixedSizeReader.ReadPacket(Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 count) at System.Net.Security.SslState.StartReceiveBlob(Byte[] buffer, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest) at System.Net.Security.SslState.CheckCompletionBeforeNextReceive(ProtocolToken message, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest) at System.Net.Security.SslState.StartSendBlob(Byte[] incoming, Int32 count, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest) at System.Net.Security.SslState.ForceAuthentication(Boolean receiveFirst, Byte[] buffer, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest) at System.Net.Security.SslState.ProcessAuthentication(LazyAsyncResult lazyResult) at System.Net.TlsStream.CallProcessAuthentication(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.runTryCode(Object userData) at System.Runtime.CompilerServices.RuntimeHelpers.ExecuteCodeWithGuaranteedCleanup(TryCode code, CleanupCode backoutCode, Object userData) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.RunInternal(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Net.TlsStream.ProcessAuthentication(LazyAsyncResult result) at System.Net.TlsStream.Write(Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 size) at System.Net.PooledStream.Write(Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 size) at System.Net.ConnectStream.WriteHeaders(Boolean async) And/Or: Message : An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host Type : System.Net.Sockets.SocketException, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089 Source : System Help link : ErrorCode : 10054 SocketErrorCode : ConnectionReset NativeErrorCode : 10054 Data : System.Collections.ListDictionaryInternal TargetSite : Int32 Receive(Byte[], Int32, Int32, System.Net.Sockets.SocketFlags) Stack Trace : at System.Net.Sockets.Socket.Receive(Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 size, SocketFlags socketFlags) at System.Net.Sockets.NetworkStream.Read(Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 size) Update We're still working on it. Originally there was a route issue, which was resolved. We're still getting the inner exception with socket errors. We had MS support involved today, and they looked at some traces and network captures. The web service host does round-robin DNS, and they may be responding on a different IP address for the syn syn/ack from one ip, and the next from a different ip. This is not good. This is likely quite specific to our situation, but perhaps it applies to others as well. Microsoft Network Monitor and an application trace got us the information we needed.

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  • Serializing a list of Key/Value pairs to XML

    - by Slauma
    I have a list of key/value pairs I'd like to store in and retrieve from a XML file. So this task is similar as described here. I am trying to follow the advice in the marked answer (using a KeyValuePair and a XmlSerializer) but I don't get it working. What I have so far is a "Settings" class ... public class Settings { public int simpleValue; public List<KeyValuePair<string, int>> list; } ... an instance of this class ... Settings aSettings = new Settings(); aSettings.simpleValue = 2; aSettings.list = new List<KeyValuePair<string, int>>(); aSettings.list.Add(new KeyValuePair<string, int>("m1", 1)); aSettings.list.Add(new KeyValuePair<string, int>("m2", 2)); ... and the following code to write that instance to a XML file: XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Settings)); TextWriter writer = new StreamWriter("c:\\testfile.xml"); serializer.Serialize(writer, aSettings); writer.Close(); The resulting file is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <Settings xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <simpleValue>2</simpleValue> <list> <KeyValuePairOfStringInt32 /> <KeyValuePairOfStringInt32 /> </list> </Settings> So neither key nor value of the pairs in my list are stored though the number of elements is correct. Obviously I am doing something basically wrong. My questions are: How can I store the key/value pairs of the list in the file? How can I change the default generated name "KeyValuePairOfStringInt32" of the elements in the list to some other name like "listElement" I'd like to have?

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  • Pinning a Java application to the Windows 7 taskbar

    - by Paul Lammertsma
    Original question I use Launch4j as a wrapper for my Java application under Windows 7, which, to my understanding, in essence forks an instance of javaw.exe that in turn interprets the Java code. As a result, when attempting to pin my application to the task bar, Windows instead pins javaw.exe. Without the required command line, my application will then not run. As you can see, Windows also does not realize that Java is the host application: the application itself is described as "Java(TM) Platform SE binary". I have tried altering the registry key HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT\Applications\javaw.exe to add the value IsHostApp. This alters the behavior by disabling pinning of my application altogether; clearly not what I want. After reading about how Windows interprets instances of a single application (and a phenomenon discussed in this question), I became interested in embedding a Application User Model ID (AppUserModelID) into my Java application. I believe that I can resolve this by passing a unique AppUserModelID to Windows. There is a shell32 method for this, SetAppID(). (Or SetCurrentProcessExplicitAppUserModelID?) Is it possible to call it via JNI? If so, would this even resolve the issue? On a side note, I was curious if any of the APIs discussed in this article could be implemented for a Java application. Edit after implementing JNA, as Gregory Pakosz suggested I've now implemented the following in an attempt to have my application recognized as a separate instance of javaw.exe: NativeLibrary lib; try { lib = NativeLibrary.getInstance("shell32"); } catch (Error e) { Logger.out.error("Could not load Shell32 library."); return; } Object[] args = { "Vendor.MyJavaApplication" }; String functionName = "SetCurrentProcessExplicitAppUserModelID"; try { Function function = lib.getFunction(functionName); int ret = function.invokeInt(args); if (ret != 0) { Logger.out.error(function.getName() + " returned error code " + ret + "."); } } catch (UnsatisfiedLinkError e) { Logger.out.error(functionName + " was not found in " + lib.getFile().getName() + "."); // Function not supported } This appears to have no effect, but the function returns without error. Diagnosing why is something of a mystery to me. Any suggestions? Working implementation The final implementation that worked is the answer to my follow-up question concerning how to pass the AppID using JNA. I had awarded the bounty to Gregory Pakosz' brilliant answer for JNI that set me on the right track.

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  • Existing web-site CSS replacement (re-skinning) best-practices without changing the HTML

    - by Enigmativity
    I can see a number of other good answers to questions relating to CSS best-practices on stack overflow: How to Manage CSS Explosion CSS Conventions / Code Layout Models Are there any CSS standards that I should follow while writing my first stylesheet? What is the best method for tidying CSS? Best Practices - CSS Stylesheet Formatting But I think I have a different problem. I'm trying to "re-skin" an existing site that has been nicely built using div's and ul's, etc, and it has a good existing CSS file, but when I start making changes to the CSS I quickly find that I break the layout. My feeling is that it is very hard to get a feel for how all the CSS will work together and indeed what CSS is affecting parent and sibling elements in the HTML. So, my question is "what are the best-practices around re-skinning an existing web-site by replacing the CSS only and not modifying the existing HTML?" I can't change the classes, ids, node hierarchy, etc. An example of the particular site that I am trying to re-skin is http://demo.nopcommerce.com/. The existing CSS can be as complicated/detailed as this extract from the main CSS file: .header-selectors-wrapper { text-align: right; float: right; width: 500px; } .header-currencyselector { float: right; } .header-languageselector { float: left; } .header-taxDisplayTypeSelector { float: right; } .header-links-wrapper { float: right; text-align: right; width: 570px; } .header-links { border: solid 1px #9a9a9a; padding: 5px 5px 5px 5px; margin-bottom: 5px; display: inline-table; } .order-summary-content .cart .cart-item-row td, .wishlist-content .cart .cart-item-row td { border-bottom: 1px solid #c5c5c5; vertical-align: middle; line-height: 30px; } .order-summary-content .cart .cart-item-row td.product, .wishlist-content .cart .cart-item-row td.product { text-align: left; padding: 0px 10px 0px 10px; } .order-summary-content .cart .cart-item-row td.product a, .wishlist-content .cart .cart-item-row td.product a { font-weight: bold; } Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Unable to get node using xpath in soapUI

    - by R.S
    How can i access "AccountId" node from following response file using Xpath in soapUI 4.0.0? Thanks in advance. Response file is as follow, <s:Envelope xmlns:s="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <s:Body> <GetResponse xmlns="http://www.tieto.com/cmw/tcm/account"> <GetResult xmlns:i="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <Account> <AccountId>14338049839</AccountId> <AccountLabel>Spara Femman</AccountLabel> <AccountRoleDTOList> <AccountRole> <AddressTypeId>REC</AddressTypeId> <EndDay i:nil="true"/> <ExtPosReference i:nil="true"/> <HolderId>10533</HolderId> <HolderName>TÄRNHOLMS HOTELL AB</HolderName> <HolderTypeId>COR</HolderTypeId> <IdentificationId>005164006917</IdentificationId> <ReportProfileId>3</ReportProfileId> <ReportProfileName>Standard</ReportProfileName> <RoleDocumentPath i:nil="true"/> <RoleId>HOL</RoleId> <RoleName>Holder</RoleName> <ShareOfAccount>100.00000</ShareOfAccount> </AccountRole> </AccountRoleDTOList> <AccountTypeId>AGG</AccountTypeId> <CloseDay i:nil="true"/> <CurrencyId>SEK</CurrencyId> <CustodianAccountId i:nil="true"/> I have tried it by using following code... but it's not working declare namespace i='http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance'; //i:GetResult[1]/Account[1] But i am getting error like, Missing content for xpath declare namespace i='http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance'; //i:GetResult[1]/Account[1] in response

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  • Question About Example In Robert C Martin's _Clean Code_

    - by Jonah
    This is a question about the concept of a function doing only one thing. It won't make sense without some relevant passages for context, so I'll quote them here. They appear on pgs 37-38: To say this differently, we want to be able to read the program as though it were a set of TO paragraphs, each of which is describing the current level of abstraction and referencing subsequent TO paragraphs at the next level down. To include the setups and teardowns, we include setups, then we include the test page content, and then we include the teardowns. To include the setups, we include the suite setup if this is a suite, then we include the regular setup. It turns out to be very dif?cult for programmers to learn to follow this rule and write functions that stay at a single level of abstraction. But learning this trick is also very important. It is the key to keeping functions short and making sure they do “one thing.” Making the code read like a top-down set of TO paragraphs is an effective technique for keeping the abstraction level consistent. He then gives the following example of poor code: public Money calculatePay(Employee e) throws InvalidEmployeeType { switch (e.type) { case COMMISSIONED: return calculateCommissionedPay(e); case HOURLY: return calculateHourlyPay(e); case SALARIED: return calculateSalariedPay(e); default: throw new InvalidEmployeeType(e.type); } } and explains the problems with it as follows: There are several problems with this function. First, it’s large, and when new employee types are added, it will grow. Second, it very clearly does more than one thing. Third, it violates the Single Responsibility Principle7 (SRP) because there is more than one reason for it to change. Fourth, it violates the Open Closed Principle8 (OCP) because it must change whenever new types are added. Now my questions. To begin, it's clear to me how it violates the OCP, and it's clear to me that this alone makes it poor design. However, I am trying to understand each principle, and it's not clear to me how SRP applies. Specifically, the only reason I can imagine for this method to change is the addition of new employee types. There is only one "axis of change." If details of the calculation needed to change, this would only affect the submethods like "calculateHourlyPay()" Also, while in one sense it is obviously doing 3 things, those three things are all at the same level of abstraction, and can all be put into a TO paragraph no different from the example one: TO calculate pay for an employee, we calculate commissioned pay if the employee is commissioned, hourly pay if he is hourly, etc. So aside from its violation of the OCP, this code seems to conform to Martin's other requirements of clean code, even though he's arguing it does not. Can someone please explain what I am missing? Thanks.

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  • Why is "wsdl" namespace interjected into action name when using savon for ruby soap communication?

    - by Nick Gorbikoff
    I'm trying to access a SOAP service i don't control. One of the actions is called ProcessMessage. I follow example and generate a SOAP request, but I get an error back saying that the action doesn't exist. I traced the problem to the way the body of the envelope is generated. <env:Envelope ... "> <env:Header> <wsse:Security ... "> <wsse:UsernameToken ..."> <wsse:Username>USER</wsse:Username> <wsse:Nonce>658e702d5feff1777a6c741847239eb5d6d86e48</wsse:Nonce> <wsu:Created>2010-02-18T02:05:25Z</wsu:Created> <wsse:Password ... >password</wsse:Password> </wsse:UsernameToken> </wsse:Security> </env:Header> <env:Body> <wsdl:ProcessMessage> <payload> ...... </payload> </wsdl:ProcessMessage> </env:Body> </env:Envelope> That ProcessMessage tag should be : <ProcessMessage xmlns="http://www.starstandards.org/webservices/2005/10/transport"> That's what it is when it is generated by the sample java app, and it works. That tag is the only difference between what my ruby app generates and the sample java app. Is there any way to get rid of the "wsdl:" namesaplce in front of that one tag and add an attribute like that. Barring that, is there a way to make force the action to be not to be generated by just passed as a string like the rest of the body? Here is my code. require 'rubygems' require 'savon' client = Savon::Client.new "https://gmservices.pp.gm.com/ProcessMessage?wsdl" response = client.process_message! do | soap, wsse | wsse.username = "USER" wsse.password = "password" soap.namespace = "http://www.starstandards.org/webservices/2005/10/transport" #makes no difference soap.action = "ProcessMessage" #makes no difference soap.input = "ProcessMessage" #makes no difference #my body at this point is jsut one big xml string soap.body = "<payload>...</payload>" # putting <ProccessMessage> tag here doesn't help as it just creates a duplicate tag in the body, since Savon keeps interjecting <wsdl:ProcessMessage> tag. end Thank you P.S.: I tried handsoap but it doesn't support httpS and is confusing, and I tried soap4r but but it'even more confusing than handsoap.

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  • Delphi - restore actual row in DBGrid

    - by durumdara
    Hi! D6 prof. Formerly we used DBISAM and DBISAMTable. That handle the RecNo, and it is working good with modifications (Delete, edit, etc). Now we replaced with ElevateDB, that don't handle RecNo, and many times we use Queries, not Tables. Query must reopen to see the modifications. But if we Reopen the Query, we need to repositioning to the last record. Locate isn't enough, because Grid is show it in another Row. This is very disturbing thing, because after the modification record is moving into another row, you hard to follow it, and users hate this. We found this code: function TBaseDBGrid.GetActRow: integer; begin Result := -1 + Row; end; procedure TBasepDBGrid.SetActRow(aRow: integer); var bm : TBookMark; begin if IsDataSourceValid(DataSource) then with DataSource.DataSet do begin bm := GetBookmark; DisableControls; try MoveBy(-aRow); MoveBy(aRow); //GotoBookmark(bm); finally FreebookMark(bm); EnableControls; end; end; end; The original example is uses moveby. This working good with Queries, because we cannot see that Query reopened in the background, the visual control is not changed the row position. But when we have EDBTable, or Live/Sensitive Query, the MoveBy is dangerous to use, because if somebody delete or append a new row, we can relocate into wrong record. Then I tried to use the BookMark (see remark). But this technique isn't working, because it is show the record in another Row position... So the question: how to force both the row position and record in DBGrid? Or what kind of DBGrid can relocate to the record/row after the underlying DataSet refreshed? I search for user friendly solution, I understand them, because I tried to use this jump-across DBGrid, and very bad to use, because my eyes are getting out when try to find the original record after update... :-( Thanks for your every help, link, info: dd

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  • Using Artificial Intelligence (AI) to predict Stock Prices

    - by akaphenom
    Given a set of datavery similar to the Motley Fool CAPS system, where individual users enter BUY and SELL recommendations on various equities. What I would like to do is show each recommendation and I guess some how rate (1-5) as to whether it was good predictor<5 (ie corellation coeffient = 1) of the future stock price (or eps or whatever) or a horrible predictor (ie corellation coeffient = -1) or somewhere inbetween. Each recommendation is tagged to a particular user, so that can be tracked over time. I can also track market direction (bullish / bearish) based off of something like sp500 price. The components I think that would make sense in the model would be: user direction (long/short) market direction sector of stock The thought is that some users are better in bull markets than bear (and vice versa), and some are better at shorts than longs- and then a cobination the above. I can automatically tag the market direction and sector (based off the market at the time and the equity being recommended). The thought is that I could present a series of screens and allow me to rank each individual recommendation by displaying available data absolute, market and sector out performance for a specfic time period out. I would follow a detailed list for ranking the stocks so that the ranking is as objective as possible. My assumtion is that a single user is right no more than 57% of the time - but who knows. I could load the system and say "Lets rank the recommendation as a predictor of stock value 90 days forward"; and that would represent a very explicit set of rankings. NOW here is the crux - I want to create some sort of machine learning algorithm that can identify patterns over a series of time so that as recommendations stream into the application we maintain a ranking of that stock (ie. similar to correlation coeeficient) as to the likelihood of that recommendation (in addition to the past series of recommendations ) will affect the price. Now here is the super crux. I have never taken an AI class / read an AI book / never mind specific to machine learning. So I cam looking for guidance - sample or description of a similar system I could adapt. Place to look for info or any general help. Or even push me in the right direction to get started... My hope is to implment this with F# and be able to impress my friends with a new skillset in F# with an implementation of machine learnign and potentially something (application / source) I can include in a tech portfolio or blog space; Thank you for any advice in advance.

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  • Loading a Page into a jQuery Dialog

    - by Dave
    I tend to follow a fairly "modular" approach to building applications and I recently started working with jQuery. The application I'm working on is going to be fairly large so I'm trying to break pieces out into separate files/modules when possible. One example of this is a "User Settings" dialog. This dialog has a form, a few tabs, and quite a good number of input fields so I want to develop it in a separate HTML file (PHP actually, but it can be considered HTML for the purposes of this example). It's an entire page in and of itself with all the tags you would expect such as: <html><head></head><body></body></html> So I can now develop, what I want to be, the dialog separate from the base application. This dialog has it's own Javascript (A LOT of Javascript, in fact) in the head as well, with jQuery $(document).ready(){} capturing, etc. Everything works flawlessly in isolation. However, when I attempt to load the jQuery modal dialog with the page (inside of the main application page), as one might expect, trouble ensues. Here's a brief, very simple, example of what it looks like: editUserDialog.load ("editUser.php", {id : $('#userList').val(), popup : "true"}, function () { editUserDialog.dialog ("option", "title" , "Edit User"); editUserDialog.dialog ('open'); }); (I'm passing in a "popup" flag to the page so that the page can determine its context -- i.e. as a page or inside of the jQuery dialog). Question 1: When I moved the code from the "head" into "body" (in the editUser.php page) it actually worked for the most part. It seemed that jQuery was calling the $(document).ready() function in the context of the body of the loaded file and not the head. Is this a bad idea? Question 2: Is my process for building this application just totally flawed to begin with? I've scoured the net to attempt to find a "best practices" sort of document to building reasonably large applications using jQuery/PHP without a lot of success so maybe there's something out there someone else is aware of that I've somehow missed. Thanks for bearing with me while I attempt to describe the issues I've encountered and I hope I've accurately described the problem.

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  • Does writing data to server using Java URL class require response from server?

    - by gigadot
    I am trying to upload files using Java URL class and I have found a previous question on stack-overflow which explains very well about the details, so I try to follow it. And below is my code adopted from the sniplet given in the answer. My problem is that if I don't make a call to one of connection.getResponseCode() or connection.getInputStream() or connection.getResponseMessage() or anything which is related to reponse from the server, the request will never be sent to server. Why do I need to do this? Or is there any way to write the data without getting the response? P.S. I have developed a server-side uploading servlet which accepts multipart/form-data and save it to files using FileUpload. It is stable and definitely working without any problem so this is not where my problem is generated. import java.io.Closeable; import java.io.File; import java.io.FileInputStream; import java.io.IOException; import java.io.OutputStream; import java.io.PrintWriter; import java.net.HttpURLConnection; import java.net.URL; import org.apache.commons.io.IOUtils; public class URLUploader { public static void closeQuietly(Closeable... objs) { for (Closeable closeable : objs) { IOUtils.closeQuietly(closeable); } } public static void main(String[] args) throws IOException { File textFile = new File("D:\\file.zip"); String boundary = Long.toHexString(System.currentTimeMillis()); // Just generate some unique random value. HttpURLConnection connection = (HttpURLConnection) new URL("http://localhost:8080/upslet/upload").openConnection(); connection.setDoOutput(true); connection.setRequestProperty("Content-Type", "multipart/form-data; boundary=" + boundary); OutputStream output = output = connection.getOutputStream(); PrintWriter writer = writer = new PrintWriter(output, true); // Send text file. writer.println("--" + boundary); writer.println("Content-Disposition: form-data; name=\"file1\"; filename=\"" + textFile.getName() + "\""); writer.println("Content-Type: application/octet-stream"); FileInputStream fin = new FileInputStream(textFile); writer.println(); IOUtils.copy(fin, output); writer.println(); // End of multipart/form-data. writer.println("--" + boundary + "--"); output.flush(); closeQuietly(fin, writer, output); // Above request will never be sent if .getInputStream() or .getResponseCode() or .getResponseMessage() does not get called. connection.getResponseCode(); } }

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  • Failing to install activerecord-jdbcmysql-adapter gem

    - by Phil Sturgeon
    I am trying to follow the basic "Create a blog in 20 minutes" Rails screencast but have hit a stumbling block already. When I try to rake db:migrate I get errors about the gem activerecord-jdbcmysql-adapter not being installed. When I try to install it, I am told it doesn't exist. If I try to simply gem install mysql I get all sorts of madness appearing. I am running this on Mac OS X 10.6.2 and my installation was all done through gem. My basic setup works (Hello world!). Here is the error log: $ rake db:migrate (in /Users/xxxx/Sites/blog) rake aborted! Please install the jdbcmysql adapter: gem install activerecord-jdbcmysql-adapter (no such file to load -- active_record/connection_adapters/jdbcmysql_adapter) (See full trace by running task with --trace) $ sudo gem install activerecord-jdbcmysql-adapter ERROR: could not find gem activerecord-jdbcmysql-adapter locally or in a repository $ sudo gem install mysql Password: Building native extensions. This could take a while... ERROR: Error installing mysql: ERROR: Failed to build gem native extension. /opt/local/bin/ruby extconf.rb checking for mysql_query() in -lmysqlclient... no checking for main() in -lm... yes checking for mysql_query() in -lmysqlclient... no checking for main() in -lz... yes checking for mysql_query() in -lmysqlclient... no checking for main() in -lsocket... no checking for mysql_query() in -lmysqlclient... no checking for main() in -lnsl... no checking for mysql_query() in -lmysqlclient... no checking for main() in -lmygcc... no checking for mysql_query() in -lmysqlclient... no * extconf.rb failed * Could not create Makefile due to some reason, probably lack of necessary libraries and/or headers. Check the mkmf.log file for more details. You may need configuration options. Provided configuration options: --with-opt-dir --without-opt-dir --with-opt-include --without-opt-include=${opt-dir}/include --with-opt-lib --without-opt-lib=${opt-dir}/lib --with-make-prog --without-make-prog --srcdir=. --curdir --ruby=/opt/local/bin/ruby --with-mysql-config --without-mysql-config --with-mysql-dir --without-mysql-dir --with-mysql-include --without-mysql-include=${mysql-dir}/include --with-mysql-lib --without-mysql-lib=${mysql-dir}/lib --with-mysqlclientlib --without-mysqlclientlib --with-mlib --without-mlib --with-mysqlclientlib --without-mysqlclientlib --with-zlib --without-zlib --with-mysqlclientlib --without-mysqlclientlib --with-socketlib --without-socketlib --with-mysqlclientlib --without-mysqlclientlib --with-nsllib --without-nsllib --with-mysqlclientlib --without-mysqlclientlib --with-mygcclib --without-mygcclib --with-mysqlclientlib --without-mysqlclientlib Gem files will remain installed in /opt/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/mysql-2.8.1 for inspection. Results logged to /opt/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/mysql-2.8.1/ext/mysql_api/gem_make.out

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  • iPhone Key-Value Observer: observer not registering in UITableViewController

    - by Scott
    Hi Fellow iPhone Developers, I am an experienced software engineer but new to the iPhone platform. I have successfully implemented sub-classed view controllers and can push and pop parent/child views on the view controller stack. However, I have struck trouble while trying to update a view controller when an object is edited in a child view controller. After much failed experimentation, I discovered the key-value observer API which looked like the perfect way to do this. I then registered an observer in my main/parent view controller, and in the observer I intend to reload the view. The idea is that when the object is edited in the child view controller, this will be fired. However, I think that the observer is not being registered, because I know that the value is being updated in the editing view controller (I can see it in the debugger), but the observing method is never being called. Please help! Code snippets follow below. Object being observed. I believe that this is key-value compliant as the value is set when called with the setvalue message (see Child View Controller below). X.h: @interface X : NSObject <NSCoding> { NSString *name; ... @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *name; X.m: @implementation X @synthesize name; ... Main View Controller.h: @class X; @interface XViewController : UITableViewController { X *x; ... Main View Controller.m: @implementation XViewController @synthesize x; ... - (void)viewDidLoad { ... [self.x addObserver:self forKeyPath: @"name" options: (NSKeyValueObservingOptionNew | NSKeyValueObservingOptionOld) context:nil]; [super viewDidLoad]; } ... - (void)observeValueForKeyPath:(NSString *)keyPath ofObject:(id)object change:(NSDictionary *)change context:(void *)context { if ([keyPath isEqual:@"name"]) { NSLog(@"Found change to X"); [self.tableView reloadData]; } [super observeValueForKeyPath:keyPath ofObject:object change:change context:context]; } Child View Controller.m: (this correctly sets the value in the object in the child view controller) [self.x setValue:[[tempValues objectForKey:key] text] forKey:@"name"];

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  • How does mysql define DISTINCT() in reference documentation

    - by goran
    EDIT: This question is about finding definitive reference to MySQL syntax on SELECT modifying keywords and functions. /EDIT AFAIK SQL defines two uses of DISTINCT keywords - SELECT DISTINCT field... and SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT field) ... However in one of web applications that I administer I've noticed performance issues on queries like SELECT DISTINCT(field1), field2, field3 ... DISTINCT() on a single column makes no sense and I am almost sure it is interpreted as SELECT DISTINCT field1, field2, field3 ... but how can I prove this? I've searched mysql site for a reference on this particular syntax, but could not find any. Does anyone have a link to definition of DISTINCT() in mysql or knows about other authoritative source on this? Best EDIT After asking the same question on mysql forums I learned that while parsing the SQL mysql does not care about whitespace between functions and column names (but I am still missing a reference). As it seems you can have whitespace between functions and the parenthesis SELECT LEFT (field1,1), field2... and get mysql to understand it as SELECT LEFT(field,1) Similarly SELECT DISTINCT(field1), field2... seems to get decomposed to SELECT DISTINCT (field1), field2... and then DISTINCT is taken not as some undefined (or undocumented) function, but as SELECT modifying keyword and the parenthesis around field1 are evaluated as if they were part of field expression. It would be great if someone would have a pointer to documentation where it is stated that the whitespace between functions and parenthesis is not significant or to provide links to apropriate MySQL forums, mailing lists where I could raise a question to put this into reference. EDIT I have found a reference to server option IGNORE SPACE. It states that "The IGNORE SPACE SQL mode can be used to modify how the parser treats function names that are whitespace-sensitive", later on it states that recent versions of mysql have reduced this number from 200 to 30. One of the remaining 30 is COUNT for example. With IGNORE SPACE enabled both SELECT COUNT(*) FROM mytable; SELECT COUNT (*) FROM mytable; are legal. So if this is an exception, I am left to conclude that normally functions ignore space by default. If functions ignore space by default then if the context is ambiguous, such as for the first function on a first item of the select expression, then they are not distinguishable from keywords and the error can not be thrown and MySQL must accept them as keywords. Still, my conclusions feel like they have lot of assumptions, I would still be grateful and accept any pointers to see where to follow up on this.

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  • Jruby Gems-in-a-jar issue

    - by antonio
    Hi all, I am trying to write some code in ruby (using jruby) to be compiled to java bytecode with jrubyc and deployed to a remote machine where it will be run on the JVM (no ruby available there). Everything works fine as long as I am happy to stick with the standard jruby library. As explained on the jruby website, I simply copy the jruby-complete.jar library to the remote machine and include it in the classpath at runtime. I fire my compiled script and it works: cool! The problems start when I need some other libraries (typically rubygems) to run my script. I am aware of cool stuff like rawr, -which I successfully tested- to put together all you need in a single package. However that is not the solution I am looking for: I will have many small scripts to run independently and I don't want each of them to grow to at least 10 MB just because I insanely include the jruby-complete.jar in each of them. What I would like is to compile a .jar for each of the libraries that I will need to use, put all of them in a common folder on the remote machine and include them at runtime in the classpath when I run my compiled jruby scripts on the JVM. This said, I tried to follow the instructions here: http://blog.nicksieger.com/articles/2009/01/10/jruby-1-1-6-gems-in-a-jar I tried exactly the example shown there, with the "chronic" gem. Going step by step: Install the gem locally: java -jar jruby-complete-1.1.6.jar -S gem install -i ./chronic chronic --no-rdoc --no-ri Package it into a jar: jar cf chronic.jar -C chronic . Write a two lines test script, saving it as testt.rb: require 'chronic' Chronic.parse('tomorrow') Compile with: jrubyc testt.rb Run the resulting java class testt.class with the following (having both jruby-complete.jar and chronic.jar in the same folder as the java class): java -cp .:/jruby-complete.jar:./chronic.jar testt I get the following error: Exception in thread "main" file:/Users/ave2/NetBeansProjects/jrubywatir/lib/jruby-complete.jar!/METAINF/jruby.home/lib/ruby/site_ruby/shared/builtin/core_ext/symbol.rb:1:in `const_missing': uninitialized constant Chronic (NameError) from testt.rb:2 ...internal jruby stack elided... from Module.const_missing(testt.rb:2) from (unknown).(unknown)(:1) I really don't understand what I am doing wrong, and I am totally stuck on this. I am a noob in Ruby, much more used to Python: don't miss a chance to convert an infidel! :-) Thanks.

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  • Is there an algorithm for converting quaternion rotations to Euler angle rotations?

    - by Will Baker
    Is there an existing algorithm for converting a quaternion representation of a rotation to an Euler angle representation? The rotation order for the Euler representation is known and can be any of the six permutations (i.e. xyz, xzy, yxz, yzx, zxy, zyx). I've seen algorithms for a fixed rotation order (usually the NASA heading, bank, roll convention) but not for arbitrary rotation order. Furthermore, because there are multiple Euler angle representations of a single orientation, this result is going to be ambiguous. This is acceptable (because the orientation is still valid, it just may not be the one the user is expecting to see), however it would be even better if there was an algorithm which took rotation limits (i.e. the number of degrees of freedom and the limits on each degree of freedom) into account and yielded the 'most sensible' Euler representation given those constraints. I have a feeling this problem (or something similar) may exist in the IK or rigid body dynamics domains. Solved: I just realised that it might not be clear that I solved this problem by following Ken Shoemake's algorithms from Graphics Gems. I did answer my own question at the time, but it occurs to me it may not be clear that I did so. See the answer, below, for more detail. Just to clarify - I know how to convert from a quaternion to the so-called 'Tait-Bryan' representation - what I was calling the 'NASA' convention. This is a rotation order (assuming the convention that the 'Z' axis is up) of zxy. I need an algorithm for all rotation orders. Possibly the solution, then, is to take the zxy order conversion and derive from it five other conversions for the other rotation orders. I guess I was hoping there was a more 'overarching' solution. In any case, I am surprised that I haven't been able to find existing solutions out there. In addition, and this perhaps should be a separate question altogether, any conversion (assuming a known rotation order, of course) is going to select one Euler representation, but there are in fact many. For example, given a rotation order of yxz, the two representations (0,0,180) and (180,180,0) are equivalent (and would yield the same quaternion). Is there a way to constrain the solution using limits on the degrees of freedom? Like you do in IK and rigid body dynamics? i.e. in the example above if there were only one degree of freedom about the Z axis then the second representation can be disregarded. I have tracked down one paper which could be an algorithm in this pdf but I must confess I find the logic and math a little hard to follow. Surely there are other solutions out there? Is arbitrary rotation order really so rare? Surely every major 3D package that allows skeletal animation together with quaternion interpolation (i.e. Maya, Max, Blender, etc) must have solved exactly this problem?

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  • How do you fix an SVN 409 Conflict Error

    - by NerdStarGamer
    I used to use SVN 1.4 on OS X Leopard and everything was fine. A couple of weeks ago I installed a fresh copy of OS X 10.6. The version of SVN that comes with Snow Leopard is 1.6.5. I went ahead and built my own copy with 1.6.6. I'm using the built in apache server and just hosting repositories locally. Everything appeared to work fine until I actually tried to commit something. Everytime I try to commit a change, I get the following message: Transmitting file data .svn: Commit failed (details follow): svn: MERGE of '/svn/svn2': 409 Conflict (http://localhost) This happens with my old repositories, so I created a couple of new ones. Same deal. I also tried using the 1.6.5 version that comes with the system...same. Finally, I tried upgrading to the latest stable SVN (1.6.9) and still got the same problem. The Apache error logs the following for each failed commit: [Mon Mar 29 19:53:10 2010] [error] [client ::1] Could not MERGE resource "/svn/svn2/!svn/act/d399326f-c20f-424f-bb68-3bb40503b5b1" into "/svn/svn2". [409, #0] [Mon Mar 29 19:53:10 2010] [error] [client ::1] An error occurred while committing the transaction. [409, #2] [Mon Mar 29 19:53:10 2010] [error] [client ::1] Can't open directory '/usr/local/svn/svn2/db/transactions/5-6.txn/\xeb\xa9\x0f\x1f': No such file or directory [409, #2] [Mon Mar 29 19:53:11 2010] [error] [client ::1] Could not DELETE /svn/svn2/!svn/act/d399326f-c20f-424f-bb68-3bb40503b5b1. [500, #0] [Mon Mar 29 19:53:11 2010] [error] [client ::1] could not open transaction. [500, #2] [Mon Mar 29 19:53:11 2010] [error] [client ::1] Can't open file '/usr/local/svn/svn2/db/transactions/5-6.txn/props': No such file or directory [500, #2] And from the access log: ::1 - - [30/Mar/2010:13:02:20 -0400] "OPTIONS /svn/svn2 HTTP/1.1" 401 401 ::1 - user [30/Mar/2010:13:02:20 -0400] "OPTIONS /svn/svn2 HTTP/1.1" 200 188 ::1 - user [30/Mar/2010:13:02:20 -0400] "PROPFIND /svn/svn2 HTTP/1.1" 207 647 ::1 - user [30/Mar/2010:13:02:20 -0400] "PROPFIND /svn/svn2 HTTP/1.1" 207 647 ::1 - user [30/Mar/2010:13:02:20 -0400] "PROPFIND /svn/svn2/!svn/vcc/default HTTP/1.1" 207 398 ::1 - user [30/Mar/2010:13:02:20 -0400] "PROPFIND /svn/svn2/!svn/bln/6 HTTP/1.1" 207 449 ::1 - user [30/Mar/2010:13:02:20 -0400] "REPORT /svn/svn2/!svn/vcc/default HTTP/1.1" 200 1172 Curiously, the commit does actually commit the changes, but the working copy doesn't see that and everything gets screwy. I've tried to Google every variation I can think of for this problem, but the search results are pretty much useless. I'm not using TortoiseSVN or anything special and commits fail on a new repository, so I know it's not a problem with my old repos. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • How to avoid using duplicate savepoint names in nested transactions in nested stored procs?

    - by Gary McGill
    I have a pattern that I almost always follow, where if I need to wrap up an operation in a transaction, I do this: BEGIN TRANSACTION SAVE TRANSACTION TX -- Stuff IF @error <> 0 ROLLBACK TRANSACTION TX COMMIT TRANSACTION That's served me well enough in the past, but after years of using this pattern (and copy-pasting the above code), I've suddenly discovered a flaw which comes as a complete shock. Quite often, I'll have a stored procedure calling other stored procedures, all of which use this same pattern. What I've discovered (to my cost) is that because I'm using the same savepoint name everywhere, I can get into a situation where my outer transaction is partially committed - precisely the opposite of the atomicity that I'm trying to achieve. I've put together an example that exhibits the problem. This is a single batch (no nested stored procs), and so it looks a little odd in that you probably wouldn't use the same savepoint name twice in the same batch, but my real-world scenario would be too confusing to post. CREATE TABLE Test (test INTEGER NOT NULL) BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX INSERT INTO Test(test) VALUES (1) COMMIT TRAN TX BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX INSERT INTO Test(test) VALUES (2) COMMIT TRAN TX DELETE FROM Test ROLLBACK TRAN TX COMMIT TRAN TX SELECT * FROM Test DROP TABLE Test When I execute this, it lists one record, with value "1". In other words, even though I rolled back my outer transaction, a record was added to the table. What's happening is that the ROLLBACK TRANSACTION TX at the outer level is rolling back as far as the last SAVE TRANSACTION TX at the inner level. Now that I write this all out, I can see the logic behind it: the server is looking back through the log file, treating it as a linear stream of transactions; it doesn't understand the nesting/hierarchy implied by either the nesting of the transactions (or, in my real-world scenario, by the calls to other stored procedures). So, clearly, I need to start using unique savepoint names instead of blindly using "TX" everywhere. But - and this is where I finally get to the point - is there a way to do this in a copy-pastable way so that I can still use the same code everywhere? Can I auto-generate the savepoint name on the fly somehow? Is there a convention or best-practice for doing this sort of thing? It's not exactly hard to come up with a unique name every time you start a transaction (could base it off the SP name, or somesuch), but I do worry that eventually there would be a conflict - and you wouldn't know about it because rather than causing an error it just silently destroys your data... :-(

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  • Help to Install STLPort in VC6

    - by Yan Cheng CHEOK
    I try to follow the following steps to install STLPort in VC6 1) I change C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio\VC98\Bin\VCVARS32.BAT content set INCLUDE=%MSVCDir%\ATL\INCLUDE;%MSVCDir%\INCLUDE;%MSVCDir%\MFC\INCLUDE;%INCLUDE% set LIB=%MSVCDir%\LIB;%MSVCDir%\MFC\LIB;%LIB% to (The directory C:\STLport-5.2.1\lib is not exsits?) set INCLUDE=C:\STLport-5.2.1\stlport;%MSVCDir%\ATL\INCLUDE;%MSVCDir%\INCLUDE;%MSVCDir%\MFC\INCLUDE;%INCLUDE% set LIB=C:\STLport-5.2.1\lib;%MSVCDir%\LIB;%MSVCDir%\MFC\LIB;%LIB% 2) I C:\>cd C:\STLport-5.2.1\build\lib C:\STLport-5.2.1\build\lib>"c:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio\VC98\bin\VCVARS32.BAT" Setting environment for using Microsoft Visual C++ tools. C:\STLport-5.2.1\build\lib>c:\STLport-5.2.1\configure.bat msvc6 STLport Configuration Tool for Windows The system cannot find the path specified. The system cannot find the path specified. The system cannot find the path specified. The system cannot find the path specified. The system cannot find the path specified. Setting compiler: Microsoft Visual C++ 6.0 The system cannot find the path specified. The system cannot find the path specified. The system cannot find the path specified. The system cannot find the path specified. The system cannot find the path specified. Setting platform: Windows XP The system cannot find the path specified. Done configuring STLport. Go to build/lib folder and type "nmake clean install" to build and install STLport to the "lib" and "bin" folders. Go to build/test/unit folder and type nmake clean install to build unit tests and install them in bin folder. 3) The code within configure.bat, which give me The system cannot find the path specified is REM initially create/overwrite config.mak echo # STLport Configuration Tool for Windows > build\Makefiles\nmake\config.mak echo # >> build\Makefiles\nmake\config.mak echo # config.mak generated with command line: >> build\Makefiles\nmake\config.mak echo # configure %1 %2 %3 %4 %5 %6 %7 %8 %9 >> build\Makefiles\nmake\config.mak echo # >> build\Makefiles\nmake\config.mak What I shall change them to? How can I continue the build? Thanks.

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  • 401 error when consuming a Web service with HTTP Basic authentication using CXF

    - by seanhodges
    I'm trying to consume a remote Web service that uses HTTP basic authentication, using Apache CXF, within a JUnit test. The error I am getting is: javax.xml.ws.WebServiceException: Failed to access the WSDL at: http://localhost:8080/services/MyService?wsdl. It failed with: Server returned HTTP response code: 401 for URL: http://localhost:8080/services/MyService?wsdl. at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.wsdl.parser.RuntimeWSDLParser.tryWithMex(RuntimeWSDLParser.java:151) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.wsdl.parser.RuntimeWSDLParser.parse(RuntimeWSDLParser.java:133) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.client.WSServiceDelegate.parseWSDL(WSServiceDelegate.java:254) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.client.WSServiceDelegate.<init>(WSServiceDelegate.java:217) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.client.WSServiceDelegate.<init>(WSServiceDelegate.java:165) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.spi.ProviderImpl.createServiceDelegate(ProviderImpl.java:93) at javax.xml.ws.Service.<init>(Service.java:76) at com.wave2.marketplace.importer.impl.adportal.ws.MyServiceService.<init>(MyServiceService.java:37) at com.wave2.marketplace.importer.impl.adportal.MyWSTest.testConsumingTheWS(MyWSTest.java:22) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:57) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:43) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:616) at junit.framework.TestCase.runTest(TestCase.java:168) at junit.framework.TestCase.runBare(TestCase.java:134) at junit.framework.TestResult$1.protect(TestResult.java:110) at junit.framework.TestResult.runProtected(TestResult.java:128) at junit.framework.TestResult.run(TestResult.java:113) at junit.framework.TestCase.run(TestCase.java:124) at junit.framework.TestSuite.runTest(TestSuite.java:232) at junit.framework.TestSuite.run(TestSuite.java:227) at org.junit.internal.runners.JUnit38ClassRunner.run(JUnit38ClassRunner.java:83) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit4.runner.JUnit4TestReference.run(JUnit4TestReference.java:46) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.TestExecution.run(TestExecution.java:38) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.runTests(RemoteTestRunner.java:467) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.runTests(RemoteTestRunner.java:683) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.run(RemoteTestRunner.java:390) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.main(RemoteTestRunner.java:197) Caused by: java.io.IOException: Server returned HTTP response code: 401 for URL: http://localhost:8080/services/MyService?wsdl at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getInputStream(HttpURLConnection.java:1269) at java.net.URL.openStream(URL.java:1029) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.wsdl.parser.RuntimeWSDLParser.createReader(RuntimeWSDLParser.java:793) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.wsdl.parser.RuntimeWSDLParser.resolveWSDL(RuntimeWSDLParser.java:251) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.wsdl.parser.RuntimeWSDLParser.parse(RuntimeWSDLParser.java:118) ... 26 more Having read this StackOverflow post, I have attempted to add the auth credentials to my request context, as follows: @Test public void testConsumingTheWS() throws Exception { URL wsdl = new URL("http://localhost:8080/services/MyService?wsdl"); MyServiceService provider = new MyServiceService(wsdl); // <-- Error occurs here MyService service = provider.getMyService(); BindingProvider binding = (BindingProvider)service; binding.getRequestContext().put(BindingProvider.USERNAME_PROPERTY, "username"); binding.getRequestContext().put(BindingProvider.PASSWORD_PROPERTY, "password"); Ping out = service.getPing(); assertNotNull(out); } However, as my in-line comment indicates, the error is occurring before the BindingProvider code is reached, so the error remains the same. I did have a read of this article and its follow-up, but so far I've had trouble determining how to go about adding the interceptor code without the use of Spring (this is for a JUnit test). How might I go about authenticating against this Web service?

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  • Are there any working implementations of the rolling hash function used in the Rabin-Karp string sea

    - by c14ppy
    I'm looking to use a rolling hash function so I can take hashes of n-grams of a very large string. For example: "stackoverflow", broken up into 5 grams would be: "stack", "tacko", "ackov", "ckove", "kover", "overf", "verfl", "erflo", "rflow" This is ideal for a rolling hash function because after I calculate the first n-gram hash, the following ones are relatively cheap to calculate because I simply have to drop the first letter of the first hash and add the new last letter of the second hash. I know that in general this hash function is generated as: H = c1ak - 1 + c2ak - 2 + c3ak - 3 + ... + cka0 where a is a constant and c1,...,ck are the input characters. If you follow this link on the Rabin-Karp string search algorithm , it states that "a" is usually some large prime. I want my hashes to be stored in 32 bit integers, so how large of a prime should "a" be, such that I don't overflow my integer? Does there exist an existing implementation of this hash function somewhere that I could already use? Here is an implementation I created: public class hash2 { public int prime = 101; public int hash(String text) { int hash = 0; for(int i = 0; i < text.length(); i++) { char c = text.charAt(i); hash += c * (int) (Math.pow(prime, text.length() - 1 - i)); } return hash; } public int rollHash(int previousHash, String previousText, String currentText) { char firstChar = previousText.charAt(0); char lastChar = currentText.charAt(currentText.length() - 1); int firstCharHash = firstChar * (int) (Math.pow(prime, previousText.length() - 1)); int hash = (previousHash - firstCharHash) * prime + lastChar; return hash; } public static void main(String[] args) { hash2 hashify = new hash2(); int firstHash = hashify.hash("mydog"); System.out.println(firstHash); System.out.println(hashify.hash("ydogr")); System.out.println(hashify.rollHash(firstHash, "mydog", "ydogr")); } } I'm using 101 as my prime. Does it matter if my hashes will overflow? I think this is desirable but I'm not sure. Does this seem like the right way to go about this?

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  • IDataServiceMetadataProvider - Entities dont show up in $metadata.

    - by TomTom
    I am trying to write our own RIA services provider to expose data from a server that I access via ODBC. I follow th eguidelines set out at http://blogs.msdn.com/alexj/archive/2010/03/02/creating-a-data-service-provider-part-9-un-typed.aspx I have written our own IDataServiceMetadataProvider / IDataServiceQueryProvider pair and get no errors on what i do. I am putting in a resource set like this: ResourceType tableType = new ResourceType( typeof(Dictionary<string, object>), ResourceTypeKind.EntityType, null, "Martini", table_name, false ); tableType.CanReflectOnInstanceType = false; var prodKey = new ResourceProperty( "Key", ResourcePropertyKind.Key | ResourcePropertyKind.Primitive, ResourceType.GetPrimitiveResourceType(typeof(int)) ); prodKey.CanReflectOnInstanceTypeProperty = false; tableType.AddProperty(prodKey); var prodName = new ResourceProperty( "Name", ResourcePropertyKind.Primitive, ResourceType.GetPrimitiveResourceType(typeof(string)) ); prodName.CanReflectOnInstanceTypeProperty = false; tableType.AddProperty(prodName); _MetaDataProvider.AddResourceType(tableType); _MetaDataProvider.AddResourceSet(new ResourceSet(table_name, tableType)); I see the requests coming in for enumerating the resource sets. I check them there in a breakpoint, and the resource set and the type is there, with all properties. Still, the output I get is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" standalone="yes" ?> - <service xml:base="http://localhost:2377/MartiniData.svc/" xmlns:atom="http://www.w3.org/2005/Atom" xmlns:app="http://www.w3.org/2007/app" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2007/app"> - <workspace> <atom:title>Default</atom:title> </workspace> </service> And for the $metadata version: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" standalone="yes" ?> - <edmx:Edmx Version="1.0" xmlns:edmx="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ado/2007/06/edmx"> - <edmx:DataServices xmlns:m="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ado/2007/08/dataservices/metadata" m:DataServiceVersion="1.0"> - <Schema Namespace="Martini" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ado/2007/08/dataservices" xmlns:m="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ado/2007/08/dataservices/metadata" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ado/2007/05/edm"> <EntityContainer Name="Martini" m:IsDefaultEntityContainer="true" /> </Schema> </edmx:DataServices> </edmx:Edmx> The actual metadata for the types never shows up, no error is shown. pretty frustrating. Anyone any idea?

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  • Delphi: Minimize application to systray

    - by marco92w
    I want to minimize a Delphi application to the systray instead of the task bar. The necessary steps seem to be the following: Create icon which should then be displayed in the systray. When the user clicks the [-] to minimize the application, do the following: Hide the form. Add the icon (step #1) to the systray. Hide/delete the application's entry in the task bar. When the user double-clicks the application's icon in the systray, do the following: Show the form. Un-minimize the application again and bring it to the front. If "WindowState" is "WS_Minimized" set to "WS_Normal". Hide/delete the application's icon in the systray. When the user terminates the application, do the following: Hide/delete the application's icon in the systray. That's it. Right? How could one implement this in Delphi? I've found the following code but I don't know why it works. It doesn't follow my steps described above ... unit uMinimizeToTray; interface uses Windows, Messages, SysUtils, Variants, Classes, Graphics, Controls, Forms, Dialogs, StdCtrls, ShellApi; const WM_NOTIFYICON = WM_USER+333; type TMinimizeToTray = class(TForm) procedure FormCreate(Sender: TObject); procedure FormClose(Sender: TObject; var Action: TCloseAction); procedure CMClickIcon(var msg: TMessage); message WM_NOTIFYICON; private { Private-Deklarationen } public { Public-Deklarationen } end; var MinimizeToTray: TMinimizeToTray; implementation {$R *.dfm} procedure TMinimizeToTray.CMClickIcon(var msg: TMessage); begin if msg.lparam = WM_LBUTTONDBLCLK then Show; end; procedure TMinimizeToTray.FormCreate(Sender: TObject); VAR tnid: TNotifyIconData; HMainIcon: HICON; begin HMainIcon := LoadIcon(MainInstance, 'MAINICON'); Shell_NotifyIcon(NIM_DELETE, @tnid); tnid.cbSize := sizeof(TNotifyIconData); tnid.Wnd := handle; tnid.uID := 123; tnid.uFlags := NIF_MESSAGE or NIF_ICON or NIF_TIP; tnid.uCallbackMessage := WM_NOTIFYICON; tnid.hIcon := HMainIcon; tnid.szTip := 'Tooltip'; Shell_NotifyIcon(NIM_ADD, @tnid); end; procedure TMinimizeToTray.FormClose(Sender: TObject; var Action: TCloseAction); begin Action := caNone; Hide; end; end.

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