Search Results

Search found 5554 results on 223 pages for 'for attribute'.

Page 197/223 | < Previous Page | 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204  | Next Page >

  • How to differentiate between method and function in a decorator?

    - by defnull
    I want to write a decorator that acts differently depending on whether it is applied to a function or to a method. def some_decorator(func): if the_magic_happens_here(func): # <---- Point of interest print 'Yay, found a method ^_^ (unbound jet)' else: print 'Meh, just an ordinary function :/' return func class MyClass(object): @some_decorator def method(self): pass @some_decorator def function(): pass I tried inspect.ismethod(), inspect.ismethoddescriptor() and inspect.isfunction() but no luck. The problem is that a method actually is neither a bound nor an unbound method but an ordinary function as long as it is accessed from within the class body. What I really want to do is to delay the actions of the decorator to the point the class is actually instantiated because I need the methods to be callable in their instance scope. For this, I want to mark methods with an attribute and later search for these attributes when the .__new__() method of MyClass is called. The classes for which this decorator should work are required to inherit from a class that is under my control. You can use that fact for your solution. In the case of a normal function the delay is not necessary and the decorator should take action immediately. That is why I wand to differentiate these two cases.

    Read the article

  • Odd Things of ASP.NET MVC Deployment on IIS 6

    - by misaxi
    Recently, I am a bit interested in the deployment of ASP.NET MVC application on IIS6 because Phil Haack posted an easier way to deploy ASP.NET MVC application on ASP.NET 4. So I decided to see how different version of ASP.NET MVC works on different version of ASP.NET. First off, I created an ASP.NET MVC 2 project in Visual Studio 2010 and deploy it to IIS 6 on Windows Server 2003 (only .NET framework 3.5 installed). I set the application to run in ASP.NET 2.0 and no extra stuff. Because I just wanted to see what sort of error would occur. And as expected, some error was reported as following. Then, I set the Copy Local attribute of System.Web.Mvc assembly to true as following and deploy again. As a result, the application ran smoothly. I had read tons of materials talked about the mess of deploying MVC application on IIS 6. And I did fight to tackle the deploying issues in my previous project. At least, if had used Extensionless Url in your application, you should have configured wildcard mapping in IIS. But in this case, I even didn’t have chance to do so. What the heck was going on exactly? Did I discover a new continent?

    Read the article

  • posting form with file upload

    - by Jan
    I am having trouble with uploading a file when using jquery. I have the following HTML in a form. <fieldset> <ul> <li> <div class="field"><input size="35" type="file" name="formFile" id="formFile"/></div> </li> <li> <div class="field"><input size="35" type="text" name="formFileName" id="formFileName" /></div> </li> </ul> </fieldset> To post the data I am using $('#myForm').ajaxForm( When I post the data and the recieved data contains some javascript, the javascript is not recognised. I expected the javscriptcode to run when the data is recieved, but it happens to early. The results indicates that $ or jquery could not be found. If I remove the name attribute from the input type=file element, there are no errors, but that is not the correct solution. How could this happen?

    Read the article

  • ApplicationDispatcher exception

    - by JFB
    Whenever I try to redirect to a certain page using this dispatch method that is called from my doGet method, I get the following exception. I have no idea why! account controller servlet protected void dispatch(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response, String page) throws javax.servlet.ServletException, java.io.IOException { RequestDispatcher dispatcher = getServletContext() .getRequestDispatcher(page); try { dispatcher.forward(request, response); } catch (java.lang.NullPointerException e) { System.out.println("NullPointerException: attribute expected in view"); } } Error msg java.lang.NullPointerException org.apache.jasper.JasperException: java.lang.NullPointerException org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.handleJspException(JspServletWrapper.java:502) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.service(JspServletWrapper.java:430) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.serviceJspFile(JspServlet.java:313) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.service(JspServlet.java:260) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) controller.AccountController.dispatch(AccountController.java:91) controller.AccountController.doExecute(AccountController.java:72) controller.AccountController.doGet(AccountController.java:34) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:617) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) java.lang.NullPointerException org.apache.jsp.content.edit_jsp._jspService(edit_jsp.java:109) org.apache.jasper.runtime.HttpJspBase.service(HttpJspBase.java:70) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.service(JspServletWrapper.java:388) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.serviceJspFile(JspServlet.java:313) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.service(JspServlet.java:260) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) controller.AccountController.dispatch(AccountController.java:91) controller.AccountController.doExecute(AccountController.java:72) controller.AccountController.doGet(AccountController.java:34) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:617) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717)

    Read the article

  • In Python, how to make data members visible to subclasses if not known when initializing an object ?

    - by LB
    The title is a bit long, but it should be pretty straightforward for someone well-aware of python. I'm a python newbie. So, maybe i'm doing things in the wrong way. Suppose I have a class TreeNode class TreeNode(Node): def __init__(self, name, id): Node.__init__(self, name, id) self.children = [] and a subclass with a weight: class WeightedNode(TreeNode): def __init__(self,name, id): TreeNode.__init__(self, name, id) self.weight = 0 So far, i think I'm ok. Now, I want to add an object variable called father in TreeNode so that WeightedNode has also this member. The problem is that I don't know when initializing the object who is going to be the father. I set the father afterwards with this method in TreeNode : def set_father(self, father_node): self.father = father_node The problem is then when i'm trying to access self.father in Weighted: print 'Name %s Father %s '%(self.name, self.father.name) I obtain: AttributeError: WeightedNode instance has no attribute 'father' I thought that I could make father visible by doing something in TreeNode.__init__ but i wasn't able to find what. How can i do that ? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Invoking jQuery function without an element

    - by Sandman
    So, I use jQuery quite extensively and I am well aware of the "right" way to do the below, but there are times where I want to solve it in a more generic way. I'll explain. So, I may have a link, like this: <a href='menu' class='popup'>Show menu</a>. Now, I have a jQuery function that fires on click for all a.popup that takes the href-attribute and shows the <div id='menu'></div> item (in this case). It also handles URL's if it can't find a DOM item with that ID. No problem here. But, there are times when I don't have the same control over the coe where I can create a selectable target that way. Either because the code isn't created by me or because it is created through a chain of function that would all need a huge ovrhaul which I won't do. So, from time to time, I would like to have this code: <a href="javascript:popup('menu')">Show menu</a> This would be in a case where I can only submit the label and the HREF for a link. No class, no nothing. Problem here is that the function popup() has no idea about what element invoked it, and in most cases that's not a problem for me, since I only need to know where the mouse cursor was upon invokation. But in some cases, I use someone elses jQuery functions, like qTip or something else. so I still want to fire off qTip(); when clicking a link that runs this JS function, but what do I attach it to to make it show? I can't just runt $().qTip(); because that implies $(this) and "this" is undefined inside the function. So how do I do it? Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Moving UITableView cells and maintaining consistent data

    - by Mark F
    I've enabled editing mode and moving cells around to allow users to position table view content in the order they please. I'm using Core Data as the data source, which sorts the content by the attribute "userOrder". When content is first inserted, userOrder is set to a random value. The idea is that when the user moves a cell around, the userOrder of that cell changes to accomodate its new position. The following are problems I am running into while trying to accomplish this: Successfully saving the the new location of the cell and adjusting all changed locations of influenced cells. Getting the data to be consistent. For example, the TableView handles the movement fine, but when i click on the new location of the cell, it displays data for the old cell that used to be that location. Data of all influenced cells gets messed up as well. I know I have to implement this in: - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView moveRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)sourceIndexPath toIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)destinationIndexPath {} I just don't know how. The apple docs are not particularly helpful if you are using Core Data, as in my situation. Any guidance greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Rails: update_attribute vs update_attributes

    - by Sam
    Object.update_attribute(:only_one_field, "Some Value") Object.update_attributes(:field1 => "value", :field2 => "value2", :field3 => "value3") Both of these will update an object without having to explicitly tell AR to update. Rails API says: for update_attribute Updates a single attribute and saves the record without going through the normal validation procedure. This is especially useful for boolean flags on existing records. The regular update_attribute method in Base is replaced with this when the validations module is mixed in, which it is by default. for update_attributes Updates all the attributes from the passed-in Hash and saves the record. If the object is invalid, the saving will fail and false will be returned. So if I don't want to have the object validated I should use update_attribute. What if I have this update on a before_save, will it stackoverflow? My question is does update_attribute also bypass the before save or just the validation. Also, what is the correct syntax to pass a hash to update_attributes... check out my example at the top.

    Read the article

  • How to serialize each item in IEnumerable for ajax post

    - by bflemi3
    I have a PartialView that displays IEnumerable<Movie>. _MoviePartial.cshtml @foreach(var movie in Model) { <div class="content"> <span class="image"><img src="@movie.Posters.Profile" alt="@movie.Title"/></span> <span class="title">@movie.Title</span> <div class="score`"> <span class="critics-score">@movie.Ratings.CriticsScore</span> <span class="audience-score">@movie.Ratings.AudienceScore</span> </div> @Html.ActionLink("Add Movie", "Add", "MyMovies") </div> } When the user clicks the "Add Movie" ActionLink I am going to do an ajax post to add the selected movie to the users collection. My problem is that I would like to send the entire selected Movie class to the "Add" action but not sure how to serialize each movie since the entire Movie class is not rendered in the PartialView, just a few properties. I know I can serialize something like this... <script type="text/javascript"> var obj = @Html.Raw(Json.Encode(movie)); </script> But I'm not sure how that would work inside a foreach loop that renders html, especially inside a PartialView. So, just to be clear, when a user clicks the "Add Movie" ActionLink I would like to send the serialized Movie class for that respective movie to my controller via ajax. My questions is... Is there a better way to serialize each movie and append it to it's respective anchor? I know there's the data- html5 attribute but I thought they only allow string values, not json objects. I also know I could use jQuery's .data() function but I'm struggling to think through how to get that to run from a PartialView, especially since the html rendered by _MoviePartial.cshtml may be returned from a controller via ajax.

    Read the article

  • Has inheritance become bad?

    - by mafutrct
    Personally, I think inheritance is a great tool, that, when applied reasonably, can greatly simplify code. However, I seems to me that many modern tools dislike inheritance. Let's take a simple example: Serialize a class to XML. As soon as inheritance is involved, this can easily turn into a mess. Especially if you're trying to serialize a derived class using the base class serializer. Sure, we can work around that. Something like a KnownType attribute and stuff. Besides being an itch in your code that you have to remember to update every time you add a derived class, that fails, too, if you receive a class from outside your scope that was not known at compile time. (Okay, in some cases you can still work around that, for instance using the NetDataContract serializer in .NET. Surely a certain advancement.) In any case, the basic principle still exists: Serialization and inheritance don't mix well. Considering the huge list of programming strategies that became possible and even common in the past decade, I feel tempted to say that inheritance should be avoided in areas that relate to serialization (in particular remoting and databases). Does that make sense? Or am messing things up? How do you handle inheritance and serialization?

    Read the article

  • Why can't multiple programmatically generated FilteringSelect's share a single store?

    - by yarmiganosca
    Before you ask, a MultiSelect wouldn't really be intuitive for the user in this instance. I have an object, with an array as its value for 'items', that's provided on the page in a var statement. I also have a function that generates and places dijit.form.FilteringSelects and is triggered on a certain button's click event. Every one of these selects should have the aformentioned object as their 'store' attribute. If I write store: new dojo.data.ItemFileReadStore({ data: object_name }), in my select initialization code, I get weird behavior: I click the generate button 2 times and get 2 FilteringSelects (call them A,B). I click on B's dropdown piece, and the menu appears attached to B. Then I click on A's dropdown button, and menu appears attached to A. If I then go back and click on B's dropdown button again, nothing happens (well not nothing; an error gets thrown). However, if instead, I have data: {items: array_literal} everything works fine, and I switch back and forth between the 2 as much as I want. As the data: statement appears once in the javascript code, this isn't a big deal (now that I have a workaround at least). It is however, exceedingly odd. I attempted to dig into the source code, to no avail.Anybody have any idea what's going on here?

    Read the article

  • How to structure code with 2 methods, one after another, which throw the same two exceptions?

    - by dotnetdev
    Hi, I have two methods, one called straight after another, which both throw the exact same 2 exceptions (IF an erroneous condition occurs, not stating that I'm getting exceptions). For this, should I write seperate try and catch blocks with the one statement in each try block and catch both exceptions (Both of which I can handle as I checked MSDN class library reference and there is something I can do, eg, re-open SqlConnection or run a query and not a stored proc which does not exist). So code like this: try { obj.Open(); } catch (SqlException) { // Take action here. } catch (InvalidOperationException) { // Take action here. } And likewise for the other method I call straight after. This seems like a very messy way of coding. The other way is to code with the exception variable (that is ommited as I am using AOP to log the exception details, using a class-level attribute). Doing this, this could aid me in finding out which method caused an exception and then taking action accordingly. Is this the best approach or is there another best practise altogether? I also assume that, as only these two methods are thrown, I do not need to catch Exception as that would be for an exception I cannot handle (causes way out of my control). Thanks

    Read the article

  • XML Serialization : Has property of type Class1 : Class1 has another property : How to write the property of Class1 into XML?

    - by Wonderlander
    I want to serialize a class. In this class there's a property, type of Class1, while there are other properties in Class1. public abstract class ComponentBase { [ToSerialize]//An attribute defined my me, indicating whether or not to serialize this property. public ComponentArgs Parameters { get; set; } } public class ComponentArgs { public string WorkingPath { get; set; } public IList<Language> Languages { get; set; } public string ComponentOutputPath { get; set; } } The information serialized must be put into a Dictionary, such as ComponentSettings[str_Name]=str_Value. The method used in reading this value is Reflection. pinfo: Property Info got via Type.GetProperties(); componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue((object)this, null).ToString()); The information after serialization is: <Parameters>MS.STBIntl.Pippin.Framework.ComponentArgs</Parameters> instead of the value of ComponentArgs.WorkingPath. The solution I thought of is to append to the following line an if judgement: componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue((object)this, null).ToString()); if(pinfo is ComponentArgs) componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue( (ComponentArgs)this, null).WorkingPath+"\n"+ LanguageList+"\n"+ //Language list is a concatinated string of all elements in the list. (ComponentArgs)this, null).ComponentOutputPath+"\n"+ ); When deserializing, add a judgement of whether the value contains more than 2 "\n", if so, extract each value from the string. But this way seems clumsy and much more like an workaround. I wonder if there's any more professional way of doing it? My reviewer is very particular and he won't accept such a solution. If you know a way, could you please share it with me? Thanks a lot.

    Read the article

  • Why does a checkbox remain checked in FF3 but not in IE, Chrome or ...

    - by sirrocco
    So - I have a checkbox <asp:CheckBox ID="chkOrder" runat="server" Visible='<%#IsCheckBoxVisible() %>' Checked="false" OnCheckedChanged="chkOrder_CheckedChanged" AutoPostBack="true" EnableViewState="false"></asp:CheckBox> the one above. Now, the checkbox is in a gridview and on databound - for all the rows in the gridview the checkbox is set to false. The problem is that the first checkbox is still true checked. In IE the problem doesn't exist, same for Chrome. I'm running out of options. Also if i use $("checkboxName").attr("checked"); // verified on jquery ready function. In FF it is true; IE false; Chrome false. Any tips? EDIT Now get ready for this : in the generated html - there is NO checked attribute. The diff between FF and IE is exactly the same. Another thing - the grid that contains the checkboxes has an ajax panel on it and when I page the grid, try to go to page 2 - the checkedChanged in codebehind is triggered.

    Read the article

  • Force screen size when testing embedded DOS app in Windows 7 command window

    - by tomlogic
    I'm doing some embedded DOS development with OpenWatcom (great Windows-hosted compiler for targeting 16-bit DOS applications). The target hardware has a 24x16 character screen (that supposedly emulates CGA to some degree), and I'm trying to get the CMD.EXE window on my Windows 7 machine to stay at a fixed 24x16 without any scroll bars. I've used both the window properties and MODE CON: COLS=24 LINES=16 to get the screen size that I wanted, but as soon as my application uses an INT10 BIOS calls to clear the screen, the mode jumps back to 80x24. Here's what I'm using to clear the screen: void cls(void) { // Clear screen and reset cursor position to (0,0) union REGS regs; regs.w.cx = 0; // Upper left regs.w.dx = 0x1018; // Lower right (of 16x24) regs.h.bh = 7; // Blank lines attribute (white text on black) regs.w.ax = 0x0600; // 06 = scroll up, AL=00 to clear int86( 0x10, &regs, &regs ); } Any ideas? I can still do my testing at 80x24 (or 80x25), but it doesn't entirely behave like the 24x16 mode.

    Read the article

  • SVG text - total length changes depending on zoom

    - by skco
    In SVG (for web-browsers), if i add a <text>-element and add some text to it the total rendered width of the text string will change depending on the scale of the text. Lets say i add "mmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmA" as text, then i want to draw a vertical line(or other exactly positioned element) intersecting the very last character. Works fine but if i zoom out the text will become shorter or longer and the line will not intersect the text in the right place anymore. The error can be as much as +/- 5 characters width which is unacceptable. The error is also unpredictable, 150% and 160% zoom can add 3 characters length while 155% is 2 charlengths shorter. My zoom is implemented as a scale-transform on the root element of my canvas which is a <g>. I have tried to multiply the font-size with 1000x and scale down equally on the zoom-transform and vice versa in case it was a floating point error but the result is the same. I found the textLength-attribute[1] which is supposed to adjust the total length so the text always end where i choose but it only works in Webkit. Firefox and Opera seems to not care at all about this value (haven't tried in IE9 yet). Is there any way to render text exactly positioned without resorting to homemade filling of font-outlines? [1] http://www.w3.org/TR/SVG11/text.html#TextElementTextLengthAttribute Update Snippet of the structure i'm using <svg> <g transform="scale(1)"> <!--This is the root, i'm changing the scale of this element to zoom --> <g transform="scale(0.014)"> <!--This is a wrapper for multi-line text, scaling, other grouping etc --> <text font-size="1000" textLength="40000">ABDCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVXYZÅÄÖabcdefghijklmnopqrstxyzåäö1234567890</text> </g> </g>

    Read the article

  • Localization of DisplayNameAttribute

    - by PowerKiKi
    Hi, I am looking for a way to localize properties names displayed in a PropertyGrid. The property's name may be "overriden" using the DisplayNameAttribute attribute. Unfortunately attributes can not have non constant expressions. So I can not use strongly typed resources such as: class Foo { [DisplayAttribute(Resources.MyPropertyNameLocalized)] // do not compile string MyProperty {get; set;} } I had a look around and found some suggestion to inherit from DisplayNameAttribute to be able to use resource. I would end up up with code like: class Foo { [MyLocalizedDisplayAttribute("MyPropertyNameLocalized")] // not strongly typed string MyProperty {get; set;} } However I lose strongly typed resource benefits which is definitely not a good thing. Then I came across DisplayNameResourceAttribute which may be what I'm looking for. But it's supposed to be in Microsoft.VisualStudio.Modeling.Design namespace and I can't find what reference I am supposed to add for this namespace. Anybody know if there's a easier way to achieve DisplayName localization in a good way ? or if there is as way to use what Microsoft seems to be using for Visual Studio ?

    Read the article

  • xpath php attributes not working?

    - by Jared
    Getting this error Call to a member function attributes() on a non-object I have found multiple answers to this on SO, but none of them seem to solve my problem? Here is the XML: <Routes> <Route type="source" name="incoming"> </Route> <Routes> Here is the PHP: $doc = new SimpleXMLElement('routingConfig.xml', null, true); class traverseXML { function getData() { global $doc; $routeCount = count($doc -> xpath("Route")); //this value returns correctly $routeArr = array(); for ($i = 1; $i <= $routeCount; $i++) { $name = $doc -> Route[$i] -> attributes() -> name; array_push($routeArr, $name); } return $routeArr; } } $traverseXML = new traverseXML; var_dump($traverseXML -> getData()); I understand what the error means, but how is it a non-object? How do I return the name attribute of Routes/Route[1] ?

    Read the article

  • disable .click function on an anchor in jquery

    - by user554014
    This is written in an external .js with jquery... I have two windows that slide in and out of view like: $(document).ready(function() { // hides gallery1 as soon as the DOM is ready $('#gallery1').hide(); // shows the menu on click $('#showgal1').click(function() { $('#gallery1').delay(490).show('slide', {direction:'left'}); $('#gallery2').hide('slide', {direction:'right'}); //need code to disable showgal1 and enable showgal2 }); $('#showgal2').click(function() { $('#gallery2').delay(490).show('slide', {direction:'right'}); $('#gallery1').hide('slide', {direction:'left'}); //need code to disable showgal2 and enable showgal1 }); }); 'gallery1' and 'gallery2' are DIV's with flash image galleries and 'showgal1' and 'showgal2' are id's of anchors... looks like <a href="#" id="showgal1">gallery 1</a> I cannot find a way to disable the .click function when one is clicked and re-enable the other... i want to disable 'showgal1' by default and when 'showgal2' event takes place it removes the attribute and makes 'showgal2' disabled until 'showgal1' is clicked... the .attr('disabled','disabled') hasn't worked yet...

    Read the article

  • Angular throws "Error: Invalid argument." in IE

    - by przno
    I have a directive which takes element's text and places wbr elements after every 10th character. I'm using it for example on table cells with long text (e.g. URLs), so it does not span over the table. Code of the directive: myApp.directive('myWbr', function ($interpolate) { return { restrict: 'A', link: function (scope, element, attrs) { // get the interpolated text of HTML element var expression = $interpolate(element.text()); // get new text, which has <wbr> element on every 10th position var addWbr = function (inputText) { var newText = ''; for (var i = 0; i < inputText.length; i++) { if ((i !== 0) && (i % 10 === 0)) newText += '<wbr>'; // no end tag newText += inputText[i]; } return newText; }; scope.$watch(function (scope) { // replace element's content with the new one, which contains <wbr>s element.html(addWbr(expression(scope))); }); } }; }); Works fine except in IE (I have tried IE8 and IE9), where it throws an error to the console: Error: Invalid argument. Here is jsFiddle, when clicking on the button you can see the error in console. So obvious question: why is the error there, what is the source of it, and why only in IE? (Bonus question: how can I make IE dev tools to tell me more about error, like the line from source code, because it took me some time to locate it, Error: Invalid argument. does not tell much about the origin.) P.S.: I know IE does not know the wbr at all, but that is not the issue. Edit: in my real application I have re-written the directive to not to look on element's text and modify that, but rather pass the input text via attribute, and works fine now in all browsers. But I'm still curious why the original solution was giving that error in IE, thus starting the bounty.

    Read the article

  • ReplaceAll not working as expected

    - by Tim Kemp
    Still early days with Mathematica so please forgive what is probably a very obvious question. I am trying to generate some parametric plots. I have: ParametricPlot[{ (a + b) Cos[t] - h Cos[(a + b)/b t], (a + b) Sin[t] - h Sin[(a + b)/b t]}, {t, 0, 2 \[Pi]}, PlotRange -> All] /. {a -> 2, b -> 1, h -> 1} No joy: the replacement rules are not applied and a, b and h remain undefined. If I instead do: Hold@ParametricPlot[{ (a + b) Cos[t] - h Cos[(a + b)/b t], (a + b) Sin[t] - h Sin[(a + b)/b t]}, {t, 0, 2 \[Pi]}, PlotRange -> All] /. {a -> 2, b -> 1, h -> 1} it looks like the rules ARE working, as confirmed by the output: Hold[ParametricPlot[{(2 + 1) Cos[t] - 1 Cos[(2 + 1) t], (2 + 1) Sin[t] - 1 Sin[(2 + 1) t]}, {t, 0, 2 \[Pi]}, PlotRange -> All]] Which is what I'd expect. Take the Hold off, though, and the ParametricPlot doesn't work. There's nothing wrong with the equations or the ParametricPlot itself, though, because I tried setting values for a, b and h in a separate expression (a=2; b=1; h=1) and I get my pretty double cardoid out as expected. So, what am I doing wrong with ReplaceAll and why are the transformation rules not working? This is another fundamentally important aspect of MMA that my OOP-ruined brain isn't understanding. I tried reading up on ReplaceAll and ParametricPlot and the closest clue I found was that "ParametricPlot has attribute HoldAll and evaluates f only after assigning specific numerical values to variables" which didn't help much or I wouldn't be here. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET Custom Control - Template Allowing Literal Content

    - by Bob Fincheimer
    I want my User Control to be able to have Literal Content inside of it. For Example: <fc:Text runat="server">Please enter your login information:</fc:Text> Currently the code for my user control is: <ParseChildren(True, "Content")> _ Partial Public Class ctrFormText Inherits FormControl Private _content As ArrayList <PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerDefaultProperty), _ DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content), _ TemplateInstance(TemplateInstance.Single)> _ Public Property Content() As ArrayList Get If _content Is Nothing Then Return New ArrayList End If Return _content End Get Set(ByVal value As ArrayList) _content = value End Set End Property Protected Overrides Sub CreateChildControls() If _content IsNot Nothing Then ctrChildren.Controls.Clear() For Each i As Control In _content ctrChildren.Controls.Add(i) Next End If MyBase.CreateChildControls() End Sub End Class And when I put text inside this control (like above) i get this error: Parser Error Message: Literal content ('Please enter your login information to access CKMS:') is not allowed within a 'System.Collections.ArrayList'. This control could have other content than just the text, so making the Content property an attribute will not solve my problem. I found in some places that I need to implement a ControlBuilder Class, along with another class that implements IParserAccessor. Anyway I just want my default "Content" property to have all types of controls allowed in it, both literal and actual controls.

    Read the article

  • C# XML Documentation Compiler Warning

    - by ImperialLion
    I am curious as to why I get a compiler warning in the following situation. /// <summary>This is class A /// </summary> public class A { /// <summary>This is the documentation for Method A /// </summary> public void MethodA() { //Do something } } /// <summary>This is class B /// </summary> public class B : A { /// <summary>This does something that I want to /// reference <see cref="MethodA"/> /// </summary> public void MethodB() { //Do something } } The warning states that "XML comment on 'B.MethodB()' has cref attribute 'MethodA' that could not be resolved." If B inherits from A shouldn't the compiler be able to see that method when generating the documentation without me specifying the parent class in the cref? If I change the cref to be cref="A.MethodA()" it works fine, but it seems like that's unnecessary and is a pain to do, especially if I have to go up more than one level. As a note to anyone testing this you have to be sure to "XML documentation file" checked in the Properties - Build in order to see the warning.

    Read the article

  • jQuery : how to apply effect on a child element

    - by Tristan
    Hello, instead of re-writting the same function, i want to optimise my code : <div class="header"> <h3>How to use the widget</h3> <span id="idwidget" ></span> </div> <div class="content" id="widget"> the JS : <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var showText="Show"; var hideText="Hide"; $("#idwidget").before("<a href='#' class='button' id='toggle_link'>"+showText+"</a>"); $('#widget').hide(); $('a#toggle_link').click(function() { if ($('a#toggle_link').text()==showText) { $('a#toggle_link').text(hideText); } else { $('a#toggle_link').text(showText); } $('#widget').toggle('slow'); return false; }); }); This is working just with the div which is called widget and the button called idwidget. But on this page i have also : <div class="header"> <h3>How to eat APPLES</h3> <span id="IDsomethingelse" ></span> </div> <div class="content" id="somethingelse"> And i want it to be compatible with the code. I heard about children attribute, do you have an idea how to do that please ? Thank you

    Read the article

  • HTML prevent line break (between two table tags)

    - by arik-so
    Hello, I have following code: <table> <tr> <td>Table 1</td> </tr> </table> <table> <tr> <td>Table 2</td> </tr> </table> Very unfortunately, a line break is inserted between these two tables. I have tried putting them both in a single span and setting the whitespace to nowrap, but at no avail. Please, could you tell me how I can simply put these elements in a single row, without setting the float attribute in CSS and without surrounding each table with a <td> {table} </td> and then putting this in a table row. Thanks a lot in advance. I have asked Google, but it just wouldn't say anything ^^ StackOverflow remained silent so far, too

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204  | Next Page >